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FULL SYLLABUS TEST-6 (FST-6)
PATTERN : AIPMT
TARGET : AIPMT/AIIMS-2016
CCLLAASSSS XXIIII//XXIIIIII || CCOOUURRSSEE :: AALLLL IINNDDIIAA TTEESSTT SSEERRIIEESS ((VVIIKKAALLPP))
Date : 24-04-2016 Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 720
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
5
1. Immediately fill the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue / Black Ball Point Pen. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
1.
2. The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully.
2.
3. The test is of 3 hours duration. 3. 3
4. The Test Booklet consists of 180 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
4. 180 720
5. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Chemistry (45), Physics (45) and Biology (90) questions. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for correct response.
5. A, B, C
(45) (45) (90)
4
6. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in Instructions No. 5 for correct response of each question. ¼ [one fourth (–1)] marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.
6. 5
¼ (–1)
7. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in any question will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per instructions 6 above.
7.
6
Filling the Top-half of the ORS : Use only Black ball point pen only for filling the ORS.
Do not use Gel / Ink / Felt pen as it might smudge the ORS.
(ORS) :
ORS
8. Write your Roll no. in the boxes given at the top left corner of your ORS with black ball point pen. Also, darken the corresponding bubbles with Black ball point pen only. Also fill your roll no on the back side of your ORS in the space provided (if the ORS is both side printed).
8. ORS
ORS
( ORS ).
9. Fill your Paper Code as mentioned on the Test Paper and darken the corresponding bubble with Black ball point pen.
9. ORS
10. If student does not fill his/her roll no. and paper code correctly and properly, then his/her marks will not be displayed.
10
11.Since it is not possible to erase and correct pen filled bubble, you are advised to be extremely careful while darken the bubble corresponding to your answer.
11.
12.Neither try to erase / rub / scratch the option nor make the Cross (X) mark on the option once filled. Do not scribble, smudge, cut, tear, or wrinkle the ORS. Do not put any stray marks or whitener anywhere on the ORS.
12. (X)
ORS
ORS
13.If there is any discrepancy between the written data and the bubbled data in your ORS, the bubbled data will be taken as final.
13. ORS
Name of the Candidate ( ) : Roll Number ( ) :
Resonance Eduventures Ltd. CORPORATE OFFICE : CG Tower, A-46 & 52, IPIA, Near City Mall, Jhalawar Road, Kota (Raj.) - 324005
Ph.No. : +91-744-3012222, 6635555 | Toll Free : 1800 258 5555
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PART–A
Atomic masses : [H = 1, D = 2, Li = 7, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24, Al = 27, Si = 28, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65, As = 75, Br = 80, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, Hg = 200, Pb = 207]
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 45 multiple choice questions.
Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) for
its answer, out of which Only One is correct.
1. A d-subshell containing four unpaired electrons
can show how many number of exchanges :
(1) four (2) three
(3) sixteen (4) six
2. The ratio of E2 – E1 to E4 – E3 for the hydrogen
atom is approximately euqal to
(1) 10 (2) 15
(3) 17 (4) 12
3. Calculate the enthalpy change when 50 mL of
0.01 M Ca(OH)2 reacts with 25 mL of 0.01 M
HCl. Given that neutH of a strong acid and
strong base is 14 kcal equivalent:
(1) 14.0 cal (2) 35 cal
(3) 10.0 cal (4) 7.5 cal
4. Polarization involves the distortion of the shape
of an anion by an adjacently placed cation. In
this context, which of the following statements is
correct?
(1) Maximum polarization is brought about by a
cation of high charge
(2) Minimum polarization is brought about by a
cation of low radius
(3) A large cation is likely to bring about a high
degree of polarization
(4) The polarizing power of a cation is less than
that of an anion
45
4 (1), (2), (3) (4)
1. d-
-
(1) 4 (2) 3
(3) 16 (4) 6
2. E2 – E1 E4 – E3
(1) 10 (2) 15
(3) 17 (4) 12
3. 0.01 M Ca(OH)2 50 mL 0.01 M
HCl 25 mL
H 14 kcal
(1) 14.0 cal (2) 35 cal
(3) 10.0 cal (4) 7.5 cal
4.
?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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5. Among the following species, which has the
minimum bond length
(1) B2 (2) C2
(3) F2 (4) 2O
6. The quantity pV/(kbT) represent the –
(given : kb = R/NA)
(1) number of molecules in the gas
(2) mass of the gas
(3) number of moles of the gas
(4) translational energy of the gas
7. To which of the following gaseous mixtures is
Dalton’s law not applicable?
(1) Ne + He + SO2
(2) NH3 + HCl + HBr
(3) O2 + N2 + CI2
(4) N2 + H2 + O2
8. The density of water at 4°C is 1.0 × 103 kg m
–3.
The volume occupied by one molecule of water
is approximately
(1) 3.0 × 10–23
mL (2) 6.0 × 10–22
mL
(3) 3.0 × 10–21
mL (4) 9.0 × 10–23
mL
9. Phenol associates in benzene solvent to form
double molecules. By the freezing point
depression method, the vant Hoff's factor has
been found to be 0.54. To what degree, phenol
is associated ?
(1) 0.46 (2) 0.54
(3) 0.98 (4) 0.92
10. When a 0.20 mole solution of acetic acid is
neutralized with 0.20 mole NaOH in 0.50 L of
water, the pH of the resulting solution will be
(given that pKa for CH3COOH = 4.74)
(1) 12.67 (2) 7.87
(3) 9.17 (4) 7.00
5.
(1) B2 (2) C2
(3) F2 (4) 2O
6. pV/(kbT) –
( : kb = R/NA)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
7.
(1) Ne + He + SO2
(2) NH3 + HCl + HBr
(3) O2 + N2 + CI2
(4) N2 + H2 + O2
8. 4°C 1.0 × 103 kg m
–3
(1) 3.0 × 10–23
mL (2) 6.0 × 10–22
mL
(3) 3.0 × 10–21
mL (4) 9.0 × 10–23
mL
9.
0.54
(1) 0.46 (2) 0.54
(3) 0.98 (4) 0.92
10. 0.20 0.50 L
0.20 NaOH
pH
( CH3COOH pKa = 4.74)
(1) 12.67 (2) 7.87
(3) 9.17 (4) 7.00
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11. Which of the following solids is not an electrical
conductor?
(A) Mg(s) (B) TiO(s)
(C) I2(s) (D) H2O(s)
(1) (A) only
(2) (B) Only
(3) (C) and (D)
(4) (B), (C) and (D)
12. What is the potential of the cell containing two
hydrogen electrodes as represented below
Pt : H2(g) / H+(10
–8) M | | H
+ (0.001 M) /
1
2 H2(g). Pt ;
(1) – 0.295 V (2) – 0.0591 V
(3) 0.295 V (4) 0.0591 V
13. During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a
gas is found to be proportional to the cube of its
absolute temperature. The ratio Cp/Cv = for the
gas is
(1) 2
3 (2)
2
7
(3) 3
5 (4)
7
9
14. For the reaction AB(g) A(g) + B(g), AB is
33% dissociated at a total pressure of p. Then
(1) p = Kp (2) p = 4Kp
(3) p = 3Kp (4) p = 8Kp
15. Cu (II) sulphate solution is treated separately
with KCl and KI. In which case, Cu2+
be reduced
to Cu+?
(1) with KCl
(2) with KI
(3) with both (1) and (2)
(4) none of these
11.
(A) Mg(s) (B) TiO(s)
(C) I2(s) (D) H2O(s)
(1) (A)
(2) (B)
(3) (C) (D)
(4) (B), (C) (D)
12.
Pt : H2(g) / H+(10
–8) M | | H
+ (0.001 M) /
1
2 H2(g). Pt ;
(1) – 0.295 V (2) – 0.0591 V
(3) 0.295 V (4) 0.0591 V
13.
Cp/Cv =
(1) 2
3 (2)
2
7
(3) 3
5 (4)
7
9
14. AB(g) A(g) + B(g) AB , p
33%
(1) p = Kp (2) p = 4Kp
(3) p = 3Kp (4) p = 8Kp
15. Cu (II) KCl KI
Cu2+
Cu+
?
(1) KCl
(2) KI
(3) (1) (2)
(4)
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16. On passing electricity through dilute H2SO4
solution the mass ratio of gases liberated at the
cathode and anode are in the ratio :
(1) 1 : 8 (2) 8 : 11
(3) 16 : 1 (4) 1 : 16
17. The half time of a second order reaction is
(1) inversely proportional to the square of the
initial concentration of the reactants
(2) inversely proportional to the initial
concentration of the reactants
(3) proportional to the initial concentration of
reactants
(4) independent of the initial concentration of
reactants
18. The rate of disappearance of SO2 in the reaction;
322 SO2OSO2 is 1.28 × 10–3
g/sec. Then
the rate of formation of SO3 is:
(1) 30.64 10 g/ sec
(2) 30.80 10 g/ sec
(3) 11.28 10 g/ sec
(4) 31.60 10 g/ sec
19. Which statement is not correct?
(1) Physical adsorption is due to van der
Waals’ forces
(2) Physical adsorption decreases at high
temperature and low pressure
(3) Physical adsorption is reversible
(4) Adsorption energy for a chemical
adsorption is generally lesser than that of
physical adsorption
16. H2SO4
:
(1) 1 : 8 (2) 8 : 11
(3) 16 : 1 (4) 1 : 16
17.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
18. ; 2 2 32SO O 2SO SO2
1.28 × 10–3
g/sec SO3
(1) 30.64 10 g/ sec
(2) 30.80 10 g/ sec
(3) 11.28 10 g/ sec
(4) 31.60 10 g/ sec
19. ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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20. The coagulation of sol particles or sol destruction
may be brought in by:
(1) electrophoresis
(2) adding oppositively charged sol
(3) adding electrolyte
(4) all of the above
21. Which process is used in the extractive
metallurgy of Mg?
(1) Fused salt electrolysis
(2) Self reduction
(3) Aqueous solution electrolysis
(4) Thermite reduction
22. Which property of white phosphorus is common
to red P?
(1) It is soluble in carbon disulphide
(2) It shows chemilluminescence
(3) It reacts with hot caustic soda solution to
give phosphine
(4) It burns when heated in air
23. There is O—O bond in
(1) 22 8S O (2) 2
4 6S O
(3) 23SO (4) 2
2 7S O
24. Two pungent smelling gases bleach a certain
substance. The gases may be
(1) Cl2 and SO2
(2) Cl2 and NH3
(3) NH3 and PH3
(4) O2 and CO2
25. Liquid flow from a higher to a lower level. Which
of the following liquids can climb up the wall of
the glass vessel in which it is placed?
(1) Alcohol (2) Liquid He
(3) Liquid N2 (4) Water
20. (destruction)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
21. Mg ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
22.
?
(1)
(2) (chemilluminescence)
(3)
(4)
23. O—O
(1) 22 8S O (2) 2
4 6S O
(3) 23SO (4) 2
2 7S O
24.
(1) Cl2 SO2
(2) Cl2 NH3
(3) NH3 PH3
(4) O2 CO2
25.
(1) (2) He
(3) N2 (4)
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26. Which is true in the case of [Ni(CO)4] complex?
(1) Hybridization of Ni is sp3
(2) Tetrahedral shape of the molecule
(3) Diamagnetic
(4) All are correct
27. Which of the following has maximum ionisation
energy ?
(1) Ba Ba+ + e
–
(2) Be Be+ + e
–
(3) Ca Ca2+
+ 2e–
(4) Mg Mg+ + e
–
28. Which of the following compounds has the
highest boiling point ?
(1) CH3CH2CH2Cl
(2) CH3CH2CH2CH2Cl
(3) CH3CH(CH3)CH2Cl
(4) (CH3)3CCl
29. The order of reactivity of the following alcohols
towards conc. HCl is :
(1) II > III > IV > I (2) I > II > III > IV
(3) IV > I > III > II (4) II > IV > I > III
30. IUPAC name of the given compound is :
Br
HO
(1) 3-Bromo-1-hydroxycyclohex-4-ene
(2) 1-Bromocyclohex-2-en-5-ol
(3) 5-Bromocyclohex-3-en-1-ol
(4) 6-Bromocyclohex-1-en-4-ol
26. [Ni(CO)4]
(1) Ni sp3
(2)
(3)
(4)
27.
(1) Ba Ba+ + e
–
(2) Be Be+ + e
–
(3) Ca Ca2+
+ 2e–
(4) Mg Mg+ + e
–
28.
(1) CH3CH2CH2Cl
(2) CH3CH2CH2CH2Cl
(3) CH3CH(CH3)CH2Cl
(4) (CH3)3CCl
29. HCl
(1) II > III > IV > I (2) I > II > III > IV
(3) IV > I > III > II (4) II > IV > I > III
30. IUPAC
Br
HO
(1) 3- -1- -4-
(2) 1- -2- -5-
(3) 5- -3- -1-
(4) 6- -1- -4-
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31. Total No. of isomeric structure for aromatic
compound C7H6O2 ?
(1) 4 (2) 5
(3) 3 (4) 5
32. Which one amongst the following does not react
with CH3MgBr ?
(1) Phenol
(2) Phenylacetylene
(3) Benzoic acid
(4) o-phenylethylene
33. Mono Chloro structure of 3-methylpentone will
be
(1) 4 (2) 3
(3) 2 (4) 5
34. What product is obtained when
HOOCCOOHCOOH is heated :
(1) COOHCOOH
(2) O
(3) OHOOC
(4) CC
O
O
O
35. Streptomycin is an :
(1) antiseptic
(2) Antifertility drug
(3) tranquilizer
(4) Antibiotic
36. Which of the following will give a yellow
precipitate with iodine and alkali ?
(1) Methyl propanoate
(2) Formamide
(3) Butan-2-ol
(4) Benzophenone
31. C7H6O2
?
(1) 4 (2) 5
(3) 3 (4) 5
32. CH3MgBr
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) o-
33. 3-
(1) 4 (2) 3
(3) 2 (4) 5
34. HOOCCOOHCOOH
(1) COOHCOOH
(2) O
(3) OHOOC
(4) CC
O
O
O
35.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
36.
?
(1)
(2)
(3) -2-
(4)
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37. Terylene is a condensation polymer of
(1) Ethylene glycol & Benzoic acid
(2) Benzoic acid & Terephthalic acid
(3) Ethylene glycol & Terephthalic acid
(4) Ethylene glycol & salicylic acid
38. Which polysaccharide has -glycoside linkage ?
(1) Amylose
(2) Amylopectin
(3) Cellulose
(4) All of these
39. Total Number of isomers of
CH3–CH=CH–CH–CH3
OH
:
(1) 4 (2) 6
(3) 2 (4) 3
40. 2 4
4
(i) KCN / H SO
(ii) LiAlH Product is
(1)
OH
|
NHCHCHCHCH 2223
(2) CH3 – CH2 – – CH2 – NH – CH3
(3)
OH|
CNCHCHCH 23
(4)
OH|
NH–CHCHCHCH 2223
41. The correct IUPAC name of (C2H5)4C is :
(1) Tetraethyl methane
(2) 2-Ethylpentane
(3) 3,3-Diethylpentane
(4) None of these
37.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
38. -
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
39. CH3–CH=CH–CH–CH3
OH
(1) 4 (2) 6
(3) 2 (4) 3
40. 2 4
4
(i) KCN / H SO
(ii) LiAlH :
(1)
OH
|
NHCHCHCHCH 2223
(2) CH3 – CH2 – – CH2 – NH – CH3
(3)
OH|
CNCHCHCH 23
(4)
OH|
NH–CHCHCHCH 2223
41. (C2H5)4C IUPAC
(1)
(2) 2-
(3) 3,3-
(4)
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42. In which of the following molecule gauche form
is most stable :
(1) 4-flourobutanal
[F–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH=O]
(2) 3-Chlorobutane-1-ol
[HO–CH2–CH2–CH(Cl)–CH3]
(3) 3-Hydroxypropanal
[CH2(OH)–CH2–CHO]
(4) Meso-tartaric acid
[HOOC–CH(OH)–CH(OH)–COOH]
43. Observe the following reaction -
Ph–OH + CO2 + KOH
Products mixture
Which is incorrect regarding above reaction ?
(1) Two products are formed.
(2) It is electrophilic substitution reaction.
(3) Products give positive test with Tollen's
reagent.
(4) Ortho-isomer is the major product of this
reaction.
44. Which reaction can give strongest acid among
the following products.
(1) CH3–CN 3H O
(2) Ph–CH2CH3
4KMnO ,H ,
(3) CH3–CH2CHO 4KMnO ,
H /
(4) HCOOCH3 3H O
45. Which one is not correct for E2 reaction.
(1) It is stereospecific
(2) Both the eliminated atoms should be at
anitparallel to each other
(3) 2º > 3º alkyl halide
(4) Larger size of base will give anti Saytzef
product
42.
(1) 4-
[F–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH=O]
(2) 3- -1-
[HO–CH2–CH2–CH(Cl)–CH3]
(3) 3-
[CH2(OH)–CH2–CHO]
(4) -
[HOOC–CH(OH)–CH(OH)–COOH]
43.
Ph–OH + CO2 + KOH
?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
44.
(1) CH3–CN 3H O
(2) Ph–CH2CH3
4KMnO ,H ,
(3) CH3–CH2CHO 4KMnO ,
H /
(4) HCOOCH3 3H O
45. E2
(1)
(2)
(3) 2º > 3º
(4)
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PART–B
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 45 multiple choice
questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),
(3) and (4) for its answer, out of which Only One
is correct.
46. A frictionless wire is fixed between A and B
inside a sphere of radius R. A bead slips along
the wire. The time taken by the ball to slip from A
to B will be
(1) 2 R / g (2) gR / gcos
(3) 2 gR
gcos (4)
2 gRcos
g
47. The graph shown in the figure shows the velocity
v versus time t of a body. Which of the graphs
shown in figure represents the corresponding
acceleration versus time graphs?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
45
4 (1), (2), (3) (4)
46. R A B
(fixed)
A B
(1) 2 R / g (2) gR / gcos
(3) 2 gR
gcos (4)
2 gRcos
g
47.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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48. Two bodies are thrown with the same speed at
angles and 90– to the horizontal. Ratio of
maximum heights reached by the bodies is -
(1) tan (2) tan2
(3) cot2 (4) cot
49. A block is attached with an ideal spring and
string, and is in equilibrium as shown in Figure.
The acceleration of the block just after breaking
the string is a1 and just after breaking the spring
is a2. Then
m
53° 53°
(1) a1 =
5g
8 (2) a
1 =
g
2
(3) a2 = g (4) None of these
50. A force of 5 Newton acts horizontally on a body
of weight 9.8 Newton. What is the acceleration
produced in m s–2 ?
(1) 0.51 (2) 1.46
(3) 49.00 (4) 5.00
51. Graph shows the acceleration 'a' of a particle v/s
is x -coordinate, as an applied force moves the
particle from rest at x = 0 along x axis. The
mass of the particle is 3 kg. The total work done
by the force on the particle as it moves from
x = 0 to x = 6 m, is :
(1) 20 J (2) 30 J
(3) 40 J (4) 60 J
48.
90–
–
(1) tan (2) tan2
(3) cot2 (4) cot
49.
a1
a2
m
53° 53°
(1) a1 =
5g
8 (2) a
1 =
g
2
(3) a2 = g (4)
50. 9.8 N 5 N
(m s–2 )
(1) 0.51 (2) 1.46
(3) 49.00 (4) 5.00
51. x = 0
'a' 'x'
3 kg
x = 0 x = 6 m
(1) 20 J (2) 30 J
(3) 40 J (4) 60 J
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52. For which force we can write the potential
energy function :
(1) spring force and gravitational force
(2) constant force and friction
(3) drag force and tension
(4) buoyant force and pseudo force
53. A man is supplying a constant power of 500 J/s
to a massless string by pulling it at an
instantaneous speed of 10 m/s as shown. It is
known that kinetic energy of the block is
increasing at a rate of 100 J/s at that instant.
Then the mass of the block is :
(1) 5 kg (2) 3 kg
(3) 10 kg (4) 4 kg
54. Which of following statement is correct :
(1) A particle may have momentum but not
kinetic energy
(2) A particle may have kinetic energy but not
momentum
(3) A body may have momentum but not kinetic
energy
(4) A body may have kinetic energy but not
momentum
55. Moment of inertia of an ellipse shaped wire of
mass ‘m’, semimajor axis ‘a’ about an axis
passing through the centre and perpendicular to
the plane of wire can be:
(1) ma2 (2) 1.2 ma2
(3) 1.4 ma2 (4) 0.6 ma2
52.
:
(1)
(2)
(3) (drag)
(4)
53. 500 J/s
10 m/s
100 J/s
(1) 5 kg (2) 3 kg
(3) 10 kg (4) 4 kg
54.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
55. ‘m’ 'a'
(1) ma2 (2) 1.2 ma2
(3) 1.4 ma2 (4) 0.6 ma2
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56. A uniform solid sphere of mass M and radius R
is lying on rough horizontal plane. A constant
force F = 4 Mg acts vertically downwards at point
P such that OP makes 60° with horizontal as
shown in figure. Find the minimum value of
coefficient of friction so that sphere starts pure
rolling.
O
F = 4Mg
P
60°
(1) 3
7 (2)
4
7
(3) 2
7 (4)
2
5
57. A body falls freely under gravity. Its speed is v
when it has lost an amount U of the gravitational
energy. Then its mass is
(1) 2
Ug
v (2)
2U
g
(3) 2
2u
v (4) 22Ugv
58. Two wires of copper having the length in the
ratio 4 : 1 and their radii ratio as 1 : 4 are
stretched by the same force. The ratio of
longitudinal strain in the two will be
(1) 1 : 16 (2) 16 : 1
(3) 1 : 64 (4) 64 : 1
59. At which of the following temperatures, the value
of surface tension of water is minimum
(1) 4o C
(2) 25o C
(3) 50o C
(4) 75o C
56. M R
F = 4 Mg P
OP 60°
O
F = 4Mg
P
60°
(1) 3
7 (2)
4
7
(3) 2
7 (4)
2
5
57.
U
v
(1) 2
Ug
v (2)
2U
g
(3) 2
2u
v (4) 22Ugv
58.
4 : 1 1 : 4
(1) 1 : 16 (2) 16 : 1
(3) 1 : 64 (4) 64 : 1
59.
(1) 4o C
(2) 25o C
(3) 50o C
(4) 75o C
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60. In making an alloy, a substance of specific
gravity s1 and mass m1 is mixed with another
substance of specific gravity s2 and mass m2;
then the specific gravity of the alloy is
(1) 1 2
1 2
m m
s s
(2) 1 2
1 2
s s
m m
(3) 1 2
1 2
1 2
m m
m m
s s
(4)
1 2
1 2
1 2
m m
s s
m m
61. To get the maximum flight, a ball must be thrown
as
(1)
v
(2)
v
(3)
v
(4) Any of (1), (2) and (3)
62. A steel ball of mass 0.1 kg falls freely from a
height of 10 m and bounces to a height of 5.4m
from the ground. If the dissipated energy in this
process is absorbed by the ball, the rise in its
temperature is (Specific heat of
steel 1 1 2460Joule kg C , g 10ms )
(1) 0.01°C (2) 0.1°C
(3) 1°C (4) 1.1°C
63. That gas cannot be liquified
(1) Which obeys Vander Waal's equation
(2) Which obeys gas equation at every
temperature and pressure
(3) The molecules of which are having potential
energy
(4) Which is a inert gas
64. One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas is heated
at a constant pressure of one atmosphere from
0ºC to 100ºC. Then the change in the internal
energy is
(1) 6.56 joules (2) 28.32 10 joules
(3) 212.48 10 joules (4) 20.80 joules
60. , m1
s1 m2
s2 ,
(1) 1 2
1 2
m m
s s
(2) 1 2
1 2
s s
m m
(3) 1 2
1 2
1 2
m m
m m
s s
(4)
1 2
1 2
1 2
m m
s s
m m
61.
(1)
v
(2)
v
(3)
v
(4) (1), (2) (3)
62. 0.1 kg 10 m
5.4m
(
1 1 2460Joule kg C , g 10ms )
(1) 0.01°C (2) 0.1°C
(3) 1°C (4) 1.1°C
63. ,
(1)
(2) -
(3)
(4)
64.
0°C 100°C
(1) 6.56 (2) 8.32 102
(3) 12.48 102
(4) 20.80
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65. Three moles of an ideal gas P
7C R
2
at
pressure PA and temperature TA is isothermally
expanded to twice its initial volume. It is then
compressed at constant pressure to its original
volume. Finally the gas is compressed at
constant volume to its original pressure PA . The
correct P-V and P-T diagrams indicating the
process are
(1)
PA
PA/2
C
A
B
VA 2VA V
P
(2)
PA
PA/2
A
C
B
VA 2VA V
P
(3)
PA
PA/2
B A
C
TA/2 TA T
P
(4)
PA
PA/2
B
A
C
TA/2 TA T
P
66. If two metallic plates of equal thicknesses and
thermal conductivities K1 and K2 are put
together face to face and a common plate is
constructed, then the equivalent thermal
conductivity of this plate will be
K1 K2
(1) 1 2
1 2
K K
K K (2) 1 2
1 2
2K K
K K
(3) 2 2 3/21 2
1 2
(K K )
K K
(4)
2 2 3/21 2
1 2
(K K )
2K K
65. P
7C R
2
PA
TA
PA
P-V P-T
(1)
PA
PA/2
C
A
B
VA 2VA V
P
(2)
PA
PA/2
A
C
B
VA 2VA V
P
(3)
PA
PA/2
B A
C
TA/2 TA T
P
(4)
PA
PA/2
B
A
C
TA/2 TA T
P
66. K1 K2
K1 K2
(1) 1 2
1 2
K K
K K (2) 1 2
1 2
2K K
K K
(3) 2 2 3/21 2
1 2
(K K )
K K
(4)
2 2 3/21 2
1 2
(K K )
2K K
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67. Equations 1y Asin t and
2
A Ay sin t cos t
2 2 represent S.H.M. The
ratio of the amplitudes of the two motions is
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 0.5 (4) 2
68. If x asin t6
and x acos t , then what
is the phase difference between the two waves
(1) / 3 (2) / 6
(3) / 2 (4)
69. The fundamental frequency of a closed pipe is
220 Hz. If 1
4 of the pipe is filled with water, the
frequency of the first overtone of the pipe now is
(1) 220 Hz (2) 440 Hz
(3) 880 Hz (4) 1760 Hz
70. Two monoatomic ideal gases 1 and 2 of
molecular masses m1 and m2 respectively are
enclosed in separate containers kept at the
same temperature. The ratio of the speed of
sound in gas 1 to that in gas 2 is given by
(1) 1
2
m
m (2) 2
1
m
m
(3) 1
2
m
m (4) 2
1
m
m
71. In the circuit, shown in fig. ‘K’ is open. The
charge on capacitor C in steady state is q1. Now
key is closed and at steady state, the charge on
C is q2. The ratio of charges 1
2
q
q
is
C
R K
2R E
(1) 3
2 (2)
2
3
(3) 1 (4) 1
2
67. 1y Asin t
2
A Ay sin t cos t
2 2
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 0.5 (4) 2
68. x asin t6
x acos t ,
(1) / 3 (2) / 6
(3) / 2 (4)
69. 220 Hz -
(1) 220 Hz (2) 440 Hz
(3) 880 Hz (4) 1760 Hz
70. - 1 2
m1 m2 -
1 2
(1) 1
2
m
m (2) 2
1
m
m
(3) 1
2
m
m (4) 2
1
m
m
71. ‘K’
q1
C q2
1
2
q
q
C
R K
2R E
(1) 3
2 (2)
2
3
(3) 1 (4) 1
2
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72. A conductor has 1914.4 10 coulombs positive
charge. The conductor has (Charge on electron
191.6 10 coulombs )
(1) 9 electrons in excess
(2) 27 electrons in short
(3) 27 electrons in excess
(4) 9 electrons in short
73. A wire has resistance of 24 is bent in the
following shape. The effective resistance
between A and B is
60°
60°
B A
10 cm
5 cm
(1) 24
(2) 10
(3) 16
3
(4) None of these
74. It is easier to start a car engine on a hot day
than on a cold day. This is because the internal
resistance of the car battery
(1) Decreases with rise in temperature
(2) Increases with rise in temperature
(3) Decreases with a fall in temperature
(4) Does not change with a change in
temperature
75. A charge of 2.0 C moves with a speed of
6 13.0 10 ms along + ve X-axis A magnetic field
of strength ˆB 0.2 k Tesla exists in space.
What is the magnetic force m(F ) on the charge
(1) mF 1.2N along + vex direction
(2) mF 1.2N along – vex direction
(4) mF 1.2N along + vey direction
(4) mF 1.2N along – vey direction
72. 1914.4 10
191.6 10 )
(1) 9
(2) 27
(3) 27
(4) 9
73. 24
A B
60°
60°
B A
10 cm
5 cm
(1) 24
(2) 10
(3) 16
3
(4)
74.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
75. 2.0 C 6 13.0 10 ms
X-
ˆB 0.2 k
m(F )
(1) mF 1.2N x–
(2) mF 1.2N x–
(3) mF 1.2N y–
(4) mF 1.2N y–
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76. A straight wire of length (2) metre is carrying a
current of 2A and the magnetic field due to it is
measured at a point distant 1 cm from it. If the
wire is to be bent into a circle and is to carry the
same current as before, the ratio of the magnetic
field at its centre to that obtained in the first case
would be
(1) 50 : 1 (2) 1 : 50
(3) 100 : 1 (4) 1 : 100
77. Two short magnets of magnetic moment
1000 Am2 are placed as shown at the corn ers of
a square of side 10 cm. The net magnetic
induction at P is
P S N
S N
(1) 0.1 T (2) 0.2 T
(3) 0.3 T (4) 0.4 T
78. A lens when placed on a plane mirror then object
needle and its image coincide at 15 cm. The
focal length of the lens is
(1) 15 cm (2) 30 cm
(3) 20 cm (4)
79. An electron makes a transition from orbit n = 4 to
the orbit n = 2 of a hydrogen atom. The wave
number of the emitted radiations (R = Rydberg's
constant) will be
(1) 16
3R (2)
2R
16
(3) 3R
16 (4)
4R
16
76. (2)
2A 1 cm
(1) 50 : 1 (2) 1 : 50
(3) 100 : 1 (4) 1 : 100
77. 1000 Am2
10 cm
P
P S N
S N
(1) 0.1 T (2) 0.2 T
(3) 0.3 T (4) 0.4 T
78.
15 cm
(1) 15 cm (2) 30 cm
(3) 20 cm (4)
79. n = 4
n = 2
( R= )
(1) 16
3R (2)
2R
16
(3) 3R
16 (4)
4R
16
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80. Radius of 42He nucleus is 3 Fermi. The radius of
20682 Pb nucleus will be
(1) 5 Fermi (2) 6 Fermi
(3) 11.16 Fermi (4) 8 Fermi
81. The collector plate in an experiment on
photoelectric effect is kept vertically above the
emitter plate. Light source is put on and a
saturation photo current is recorded. An electric
field is switched on which has a vertically
downward direction
(1) The photo current will increase
(2) The kinetic energy of the electrons will
increase
(3) The stopping potential will decrease
(4) The threshold wavelength will increase
82. Two coherent sources of intensities, I1 and I2
produce an interference pattern. The maximum
intensity in the interference pattern will be
(1) I1 + I2
(2) 2 21 2I I
(3) (I1 + I2)2
(4) 21 2( I I )
83. The figure here gives the electric field of an EM
wave at a certain point and a certain instant. The
wave is transporting energy in the negative z
direction. What is the direction of the magnetic
field of the wave at that point and instant
X
Y
Z
E
(1) Towards + X direction
(2) Towards – X direction
(3) Towards + Z direction
(4) Towards – Z direction
80. 42He 3 206
82 Pb
(1) 5 Fermi (2) 6 Fermi
(3) 11.16 Fermi (4) 8 Fermi
81.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
82. I1 I2
(1) I1 + I2
(2) 2 21 2I I
(3) (I1 + I2)2
(4) 21 2( I I )
83.
z-
X
Y
Z
E
(1) + X
(2) – X
(3) + Z
(4) – Z
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84. A current flows around the small loop of
radius 'a' shown in the figure. Calculate the total
magnetic flux that falls to the right of the infinite
line shown a distance r >> a from the loop. The
current loop and the line are all in the same
plane.
r
I
(1)
2
0
2
µ a I
r
(2)
2
0
4
µ a I
r
(3)
2
0µ a I
r (4)
2
0
2
µ a I
r
85. An alternating voltage of 260 volt and
= 100 radian/second, is applied in an LCR
series circuit where L = 0.01 H, C = 4 × 10–4 F
and R = 10. The power supplied by the source
is:
(1) 1000 W (2) 6760 W
(3) 3380 W (4) 3000 W
86. Which of the following shows wave nature of
light.
(1) Reflection (2) Refraction
(3) Polarization (4) None of these
87. Graph is plotted between maximum kinetic
energy of electron with frequency of incident
photon in Photo electric effect. The slope of
curve will be-
EK
(1) Charge of electron
(2) Work function of metal
(3) Planck's constant
(4) Ratio of Planck constant and charge of
electron
84. 'a'
r (r > > a )
r
I
(1)
2
0
2
µ a I
r
(2)
2
0
4
µ a I
r
(3)
2
0µ a I
r (4)
2
0
2
µ a I
r
85. 260 = 100 /
LCR
L = 0.01 H, C = 4 × 10–4 F R = 10
(1) 1000 W (2) 6760 W
(3) 3380 W (4) 3000 W
86.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
87.
(Ek) (v)
EK
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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88. Two identical samples (same material and same
amount) P and Q of a radioactive substance
having mean life T are observed to have
activities AP & A
Q respectively at the time of
observation. If P is older than Q, then the
difference in their ages is:
(1) T n P
Q
A
A
(2) T n Q
P
A
A
(3) 1
Tn P
Q
A
A
(4) T P
Q
A
A
89. The current through an ideal PN-junction shown
in the following circuit diagram will be
(1) Zero
(2) 1 mA
(3) 10 mA
(4) 30 mA
90. A 1000 kHz carrier is modulated with 800 Hz
audio signals. What are the frequencies of first
pair of side bands :
(1) 1000.8 kHz, 999.2 kHz
(2) 999.2 kHz, 998.4 kHz
(3) 1001.6 kHz, 1000.8 kHz
(4) 1000 kHz, 800 Hz
88. P Q (
)
T AP
AQ P , Q
:
(1) T n P
Q
A
A
(2) T n Q
P
A
A
(3) 1
Tn P
Q
A
A
(4) T P
Q
A
A
89. PN-
(1)
(2) 1 mA
(3) 10 mA
(4) 30 mA
90. 1000 kHz 800 Hz
(1) 1000.8 kHz, 999.2 kHz
(2) 999.2 kHz, 998.4 kHz
(3) 1001.6 kHz, 1000.8 kHz
(4) 1000 kHz, 800 Hz
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Straight Objective Type
This section contains 90 multiple choice
questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),
(3) and (4) for its answer, out of which ONLY
ONE is correct.
91. Sympetric speciation is due to :
(1) migration
(2) geographical isolation
(3) reproductive isolation.
(4) isolation
92. Match the column I with column II & identify the
correct option.
Column I Column II
(a) SER (i) 9 + 2 fibrilar
arrangement
(b) RER (ii) 9 + 0 fibrilar
arrangement
(c) Cilia (iii) Phospholipids
synthesis
(d) Centriole (iv) Enzyme
synthesis
a b c d
(1) iv iii i ii
(2) iii ii i iv
(3) i ii iii iv
(4) iii iv i ii
93. Which is correct for the structure of cell wall of
bacteria and fungi
(1) Both are made up of cellulose
(2) Both have mucopeptide
(3) Both are made up of N-acetylglucosamine
(4) None of these
90
4 (1), (2), (3) (4)
91.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
92. I II
– I – II
(a) SER (i) 9+2
(b) RER (ii) 9+0
(c) (iii)
(d) (iv)
a b c d
(1) iv iii i ii
(2) iii ii i iv
(3) i ii iii iv
(4) iii iv i ii
93.
(1)
(2)
(3) –
(4)
PART- C
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94. Carrying capacity of a population is determined
by its :
(1) population growth rate
(2) birth rate
(3) death rate
(4) limiting resource
95. This diagram represents
(1) Prophase II (2) metaphase I
(3) metaphase II (4) prophase I
96. The RQ for a resting human adult is
approximately 0.85. If he/she undertakes
violent exercise for 3 to 5
minutes.
(1) RQ will rise
(2) RQ will fall
(3) RQ will remain same
(4) RQ will fall and then rise
97. A few statements regarding sugarcane and
pineapple are given below.
i. Sugarcane is adapted to avoid
photorespiration while pineapple is not.
ii. In both the plants, 4-carbon acid is the first
stable product of photosynthesis.
iii. Both the plants exhibit Kranz anatomy.
iv. In sugarcane, there is spatial separation of
initial CO2 fixation and Calvin cycle, while in
pineapple there is temporal separation of
the two.
The correct statements are
(1) i, ii and iii (2) i, ii and iv
(3) only i and iv (4) only iii and iv
94.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
95.
(1) Prophase II (2) metaphase I
(3) metaphase II (4) prophase I
96. RQ
0.85 3 5
(1) RQ
(2) RQ
(3) RQ
(4) RQ
97.
i.
ii. 4
–
iii.
iv. CO2
(1) i, ii iii (2) i, ii iv
(3) i iv (4) iii iv
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98. Under which of the following circumstances, will
there be a temporary shift from non cyclic to
cyclic electron flow during light reaction of
photosynthesis?
(1) Rise in level of NADPH
(2) Absence of PS II
(3) [Chlorophylla]<[Chlorophyll b]
(4) Rise in level of ATP
99. The following figure shows the carbon fixation
reactions during photosynthesis in a typical C4
plant.
C3+CO2
C4
C3
CO2
Which of the following answers indicate the
dominant carbon fixation enzyme in each of the
two cells?
Cell 1 Cell 2
(1) Malate
dehydrogenase
Secrose
synthase
(2) PEP
Carboxylase Rubisco
(3) Rubisco PEP
Carboxylase
(4) Aspartate
aminotransfease
Malate
dehydrogenase
100. Unidirectional flow of water, minerals, some
ogrganic nitrogen and hormones occurs through
(1) Xylem
(2) Phlom
(3) Root
(4) Vacular tissue
98.
(1) NADPH
(2) PS II
(3) [ - a]<[ b]
(4) ATP
99. C4
C3+CO2
C4
C3
CO2
1 2
(1)
(2) PEP
(3) PEP
(4)
100.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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101. Deficiency symptoms of an element tend to
appear first in young leaves It indicates that the
elements is relatively immobile Which one if the
following element deficiency would show such
symptoms ?
(1) Sulphur (2) Magnesium
(3) Nitrogen (4) Potassium
102. Which of the follownig are likely to be present in
deepest of sea water
(1) Brown algae (2) green algae
(3) Blue green algae (4) Red algae
103. The term synergistic action of hormones refers
to
(1) When two hormones act together but bring
abut opposite effects .
(2)When two hormones act together and
contribute to the same function
(3) When one hormone affects more than one
function.
(4) When many hormones bring about any one
function.
104. During symbiotic N2 fixation in leguminous
plants, high input of energy is required for the
synthesis of ammonia. How many ATP are
required for synthesis of one molecule of NH3 in
this process.
(1) 16 (2) 8
(3) 4 (4) 2
105. The degeneracy of genetic code is
(1) One codon codes for more than one amino
acids
(2) One amino acid is coded by more than one
codons
(3) One codon codes for only one amino acid
(4) None of the above
101.
?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
102.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
103.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
104. N2
ATP
(1) 16 (2) 8
(3) 4 (4) 2
105.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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106. Given below the following statements (A–E)
(A) In ferns and gymnosperms, gametophyte is
free living.
(B) In liverworts & mosses, direct germination of
spores in to gametophyte occurs
(C) The secondary growth is common in
gymnosperms & dicotplants.
(D) Polysiphonia, Ectocarpus algae show
hapontic life cycle.
How many of above statement are correct.
(1) Three (2) Four
(3) Two (4) one
107. In Guava, the type of phyllotaxy of leaf is
(1) alternate (2) opposite
(3) whorled (4) None of the above
108. Monothecous anther is feature of
(1) China rose (2) Mustard
(3) Sunflower (4) Citrus
109. Glory lily, Groundnut, Indigophora, Tobacco,
Ashwagandha, Tulip, Moong, Smilax, Red
chillie, sunhemp, Aloe, Pea. In above plants,
how many plants bear marginal placentation
(1) 6 (2) 4
(3) 3 (4) 5
110. Which of the following layer of Anther wall has
deposition of -cellulose in radial and tangential
walls and helps in dehiscence of Anther
(1) Epidermis (2) Middle layer
(3) Endothecium (4) Tapetum
111. Pusa shurbha is a variety of -
(1) Cowpea
(2) Cauliflower
(3) Wheat
(4) Rapeseed
106. (A-E)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
107.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
108.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
109. , , , ,
, , , , , ,
(1) 6 (2) 4
(3) 3 (4) 5
110. -
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
111.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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112. Isogamous condition with flagellated gametes is
found in
(1) Chlamydomonas
(2) Fucus
(3) Volvox
(4) Spirogyra
113. If one parent is carrier & second is affected by
phenylketonuria which is autosomal recessive
disorder. What are the chances of appearance
of this disease in child.
(1) 25% (2) 50%
(3) 75% (4) 0%
114. Which type of forests are found near equator?
(1) Deciduous (2) Tropical'
(3) Coniferous (4) Grasslands
115. Given below the following statements -
(a) In ECORI, the ‘I’ roman number indicates
the order in which the enzymes were
isolated from that strain of bacteria.
(b) Alien piece of DNA can independently
multiply itself in the progeny cells of the
organisms.
(c) In gel electrophoresis, the separated bands
of DNA are cut out from the agarose gel and
extracted from the gel piece that is called
elution.
(d) Genetic modification has increased
efficiency of mineral usage by plants.
How many above statements are correct.
(1) 4 (2) 3
(3) 2 (4) 1
116. Biotic potential refers to :
(1)natural increase of population under optimum
condition
(2) potential of organisms in a biome
(3) number of organisms in a biome
(4) number of organisms in.a population
112.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
113.
(1) 25 % (2) 50 %
(3) 75 % (4) 0 %
114. ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
115.
(a) ECORI , ‘I’
(b) DNA
(c) DNA
(d)
(1) 4 (2) 3
(3) 2 (4) 1
116.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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117. Succession is :
(1) gradual convergent directional and
continuous process
(2) series of biotic communities that appear
gradualy in a baren area
(3) orderly process of community change till
stability
(4) all of the above
118. Which of the following is most dangerous to wild
life?
(1) Over exploitation
(2) Man made forest
(3) Habitat destruction
(4) Introduction of foreign species
119. Which summit/protocol is related to control
emission of green house gases?
(1) Montreal protocol
(2) Beijing protocol
(3) Earth summit held in johannesberg
(4) Kyoto protocol
120.
Select the wrong statement about this graph
(1) The value of 'z' is 0.6 – 1.2 for large
continent / geographical area
(2) It shows species area relationship
(3) The curve 'a' is Rectangular hyperbola
where the slope of 'z' is much steeper
(4)The value of 'z ' is 0.1 - 0.2 for biodiversity
rich zone
117.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
118.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
119.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
120.
(1) 'z'
0.6 – 1.2
(2)
(3) 'a' 'z'
(4) 'z ' 0.1 - 0.2
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121. Which of the following statement is wrong.
(1)Outer integument forms tegmen of seed after
fertilization.
(2) Pollen allergy is caused due to pollen of
parthenium.
(3) Vallisneria is submerged rooted hydrophyte
& shows epihydrophily.
(4) Exine of pollen grain is composed of
sporopollenin.
122. Which of the following statements about cilia is
not correct ?
(1) Organised beating of cilia is controlled by
fluxes of Ca2+ across the membrane
(2) Cilia are hair like cellular appandages
(3) Cilia contain an outer ring of nine doublet
microtubules surrounding two singlet
microtubules
(4) Microtubules of cilia are composed of
tubulin.
123. Given below the four statements (a-d)
(a) Predators act as conduit for energy transfer
across trophic levels
(b) Predation, Parasitism & commensalism
share a common feature- the interacting
species live closely together.
(c) Exponential growth model is considered a
more realistic model .
(d) Cuscuta is ectoparasite
Select the correct statement
(1) a,b,c,d (2) a,c,d
(3) a,b,c (4) a,b,d
124. Select the correct option with respect to mitosis
(1) Chromatid separate but remain in the centre
of the cell in anaphase.
(2) Chromatids start moving towards opposite
poles in telophase.
(3) Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulurn
are still visible at the end of prophase.
(4) Chromosome move to the spindle equator
and get aligned along equatorial plate in
metaphase
121.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
122.
?
(1)
Ca2+
(2)
(3)
(4)
123. (a-d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(1) a,b,c,d (2) a,c,d
(3) a,b,c (4) a,b,d
124.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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125. Which of the following is correct set of
micronutrient for plants?
(1) Mg, Si Fe, Cu Ca
(2) Cu, Fe, Zn, B. Mn
(3) Mg, Fe, Zn, B, Mn
(4) Mo. Zn, Cl, Mg, Ca
126. Endosperm of gymnosperm is differ from
endosperm of Angiosperm in
(1) Being triploid tissue
(2) Having no reserve food.
(3) Being haploid & formed before fertilization.
(4) Being diploid as perisperm.
127. In Kranz anatomy, the bundle sheath cells have
(1) Thin walls, many intercellular spaces and no
chloroplasts
(2)Thick walls, no intercellular spaces and large
number of chloroplasts
(3) Thin walls, no intercellular spaces and
several chloroplasts
(4) Thick walls, many intercellular spaces and
few chloroplasts
128. Which one of the following organelle in the
figure correctly matches with its funtions.
(1) Rough endoplasmic reticulum–Protein
synthesis
(2) Mitochondria–Oxidative phosphorylation
(3) Chloroplast grana–Site of light reaction of
photosynthesis
(4) Golgibody–Formation of cell plate in plant
cell.
125.
(1) Mg, Si Fe, Cu Ca
(2) Cu, Fe, Zn, B. Mn
(3) Mg, Fe, Zn, B, Mn
(4) Mo. Zn, Cl, Mg, Ca
126.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
127. ( )
(1) ,
(2) ,
,
(3)
,
(4)
128.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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129. The chemiosmotic coupling hypothesis of
oxidative phosphorylation proposes that
adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is formed
because
(1) A proton gradient forms across the inner
membrane
(2) There is a change in the permeability of the
inner mitochondrial membrane towards
adenosine diphosphate (ADP)
(3) High energy bonds are formed in
mitochondrial proteins
(4) ADP is pumped out of the matrix in to
intermembrane space.
130. Meristematic cells are:
(1) thin walled, less protoplasmic, isodiametric
and nucleated
(2)thin walled, densaly protoplasmic,
isodiametric and nucleated
(3) thick walled, less protoplasmic, isodiametric
and nucleated
(4) thick walled, densaly protoplasmic,
isodiametric and non-nucleated
131. Match the columns I and II
(1) 1 – b, 2 – a, 3 – e, 4 – c, 5 – d
(2) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b, 4 – e, 5 – d
(3) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – a, 4 – e, 5 – d
(4) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a, 4 – e, 5 – d
132. Environmental protection act came in force in
(1) 1981
(2) 1974
(3) 1986
(4) 1990
129.
(ATP)
(1)
(2) (ADP)
(3)
(4) ADP
130.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
131. I II
(1) 1 – b, 2 – a, 3 – e, 4 – c, 5 – d
(2) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b, 4 – e, 5 – d
(3) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – a, 4 – e, 5 – d
(4) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a, 4 – e, 5 – d
132.
(1) 1981
(2) 1974
(3) 1986
(4) 1990
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133. Predict from the following chart
(1) Character is dominant and carried by
chromosome
(2) Character is carried by Y chromosome
(3) Character is sex linked recessive
(4) Character is autosomal recessive
134. Nutrient mobilization for preventing leaf
abscission is initiated by -
(1) Gibberellin (2) Ethylene
(3) Cytokinin (4) ABA
135. In Grasshopper, rosy body colour is caused by
a recessive mutation. The wild -type body
colour is green. If the gene for body colour is
on the X-chromosome, what kind of progeny
would be obtained from a mating between a
rosy female and a wild -type male
(1) All the daughters will be green and all the
sons will be rosy
(2) 50% daughters will be green and 50% sons
will be rosy
(3) All offspring will be green irrespective of sex
(4) All offspering will be rosy irrespective of sex
136. Probiotics are -
(1) cancer inducing microbes
(2) new kind of food allergens
(3) live microbial food supplement
(4) safe antibiotics.
137. The Finches of Galapagos islands provide an
evidence in favour of
(1) Evolution due to mutation
(2) Retrogressive evolution
(3) Biogeographical evolution
(4) Special creation
133.
(1)
(2) Y
(3)
(4)
134.
(1) (2)
(3) (4) ABA
135.
X-
(1)
(2) 50% 50%
(3)
(4)
136.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
137.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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138. In human body, which one of the following is
anatomically correct?
(1) Collar bones - 3 pairs
(2) Salivary glands - 1 pair
(3) Cranial nerves - 10 pairs
(4) Floating ribs - 2 pairs
139. Which one of the following statement is correct
(1) Patients who have undergone surgery are
given cannabinoids to relieve pain
(2) Benign tumours show the property of
metastasis
(3) Heroin accelerates body functions
(4) Malignant tumours may exhibit metastasis
140. Biologically, marriage is prohibited between.
(1) Rh+ boy and Rh+ girl
(2) Rh+ boy and Rh– girl
(3) Rh– boy and Rh– girl
(4) Rh– boy and Rh+ girl
141. Which one of the following statements is
incorrect about menstruation?
(1) at menopause in the female, there is
especially abrupt increase in gonadotropic
hormones
(2) the beginning of the cycle of menstruation is
called menarche
(3) during normal menstruation about 40 ml
blood is lost
(4) the menstural fluid can easily clot
138.
(1) - 3
(2) - 1
(3) - 10
(4) - 2
139.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
140.
(1) Rh+ Rh+
(2) Rh+ Rh–
(3) Rh – Rh –
(4) Rh– Rh+
141.
(1)
(2)
(3) 40 ml
(4)
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142. Which one of the following groups of three
animals each is correctly matched with their one
characteristic
morphological feature?
Animals Morphological features
(1) Scorpion, Spider, - ventral solid central
Cockroach nervous system
(2) Cockroach, Locust, - metameric
Taenia segmentation
(3) Liver fluke, Sea - bilateral symmetry
Anemone, Sea Cucumber
(4) Centipede, Prawn, - jointed appendages
Sea Urchin
143. Ravi, who lived at sea level, had around 5
million RBC per cubic millimeter of his blood.
Later when he lived at an altitude of 18,000 ft,
showed around 8 million RBC per cubic
millimeter of blood. This is an adaptation
because
(1) At high altitude he ate more nutritive food
(2) He had pollution free air to balance breathe
(3) At high altitude O2 level is less hence more
RBCs were required to absorb enough
oxygen
(4) At high altitude there is more UV radiation
which enhances RBCs production
144. The figure below given is angiogram of the
coronary blood vessel. Which one of the
following statements correctly descriebs, what
is being done :
(1) It is coronary artery which has a cancerous
growth that is being removed
(2) It is coronary artery which is blocked by a
plaque and the same is being cracked
(3) It is coronary vein in which the defective
valves are being opened
(4) It is coronary vein blocked by a parasite
(blood fluke) That is being removed
142.
(1) -
(2) -
(3) -
(4) -
143. , ,
5 RBC
18,000 ft ,
8 RBC
,
(1)
(2)
(3) O2
RBCs
(4) UV
RBCs
144.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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145. Which one of the following is an example of
Hemichordata-
(a) Balanoglossus (b) Cephalodiscus
(c) Herdmania (d) Ciona
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
(3) (c) and (d) (4) All of these
146. What will happen if the stretch receptors of the
urinary bladder wall are totally removed?
(1) micturition will continue
(2) urine will continue to collect normally in the
bladder
(3) there will be no micturition
(4) urine will not collect in the bladder
147. Which one of the following statements is true
regarding digestion and absorption of food in
humans?
(1)fructose and amino acids are absorbed
through intestinal mucosa with the help of
carrier ions like Na+
(2) chylomicrons are small lipoprotein particles
that are transported from intestine into blood
capillaries
(3) about 60% of starch is hydrolysed by
salivary amylase in our mouth
(4) oxyntic cells in our stomach secrete the
proenzyme pepsinogen
148. If due to some injury the chordae tendinae of
the tricuspid valve of the human heart is
partially non-functional, what will be the
immediate effect
(1) The pacemaker will stop working
(2) The blood will tend to flow into the left atrium
(3) The flow of blood into the pulmonary artery
will be reduced
(4) The flow of blood into the aorta will be
slowed down
145.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
(1) (a) (b) (2) (b) (c)
(3) (c) (d) (4)
146.
(stretch receptors)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
147.
-
(1)
Na+
(2)
(3) 60%
(4)
148.
(1)
(2) ( )
(3)
(4)
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149. If for some reason our goblet cells are non-
functional, this will adversely affect
(1) secretion of sebum from the sebaceous
glands
(2) maturation of sperms
(3) smooth movement of food down the
intestine
(4) production of somatostatin
150. It is a diagram of the bones of the human left
hindlimb as seen from front. It has certain
mistakes in labeling. Two of the wrongly
labelled bones are -
(1) Tibia and Tarsals
(2) Femur and Fibula
(3) Fibula and Phalanges
(4) Tarslas and Femur
151. Which of the following is correct
(1) Water reabsorption in descending limb of
loop and collecting duct occur under similar
conditions
(2) Sodium reabsorption in ascending limb of
loop and collecting duct occur under similar
conditions.
(3) Water reabsorption in descending limb of
loop and collecting duct occur under
different conditions.
(4) Water reabsorption in descending limb and
sodium reabsorption in ascending limb of
loop occur under similar condition.
149. ( )
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
150.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
151.
(1)
(2) Na+
(3)
(4)
Na+
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152. Consider the following statements about
biomedical technologies :
(a) During open heart surgery blood is
circulated in the heart-lung machine
(b) Blockage in coronary arteries is removed by
angiography
(c) Computerised Axial Tomography (CAT)
shown detailed internal structure as seen in
a section of body
(d) X-ray provides clear and detailed images of
organs like prostate glands and lungs
(1) c and d (2) a and c
(3) a and b (4) b and d
153. In curve of enzyme catalyzed reaction,
the value of velocity of enzyme reaction
at point A will be
Vmax
A
KM (S)
Velo
city o
f re
action
(V
)
(1) 2
1Vmax and velocity may increase
by increasing tempreture
(2) 2
1 Vmax and velocity may increase
by increasing substrate
(3) 2
1 Vmax and velocity may increase
by increasing by catalyst
(4) 2
1 Vmax and velocity remain
constant even changing any factor in
to the medium.
152.
(a)
(b)
(c) (CAT)
(d) X-
(1) c d (2) a c
(3) a b (4) b d
153.
A
Vmax
A
KM (S)
Velo
city o
f re
action
(V
)
(1) 2
1Vmax
(2) 2
1Vmax
(3) 2
1 Vmax
(4) 2
1 Vmax
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154. The correct sequense of meninges of brain from
outside to inside is-
(1) duramater arachnoid Piamater
(2) Arachnoid duramater Piamater
(3) Piamater duramater Arachnoid
(4) duramater Piamater Arachnoid
155. Given below is the ECG of a normal human.
Which one of its components is correctly
interpreted below?
P
R
Q S T
(1) Complex QRS-One complete Pulse
(2) Peak T-Initiation of total cardiac contraction
(3) Peak P and Peak R together - systolic and
diastolic blood pressures
(4) Peak P-Initiation of left atrial contraction only
156. Three of the following pairs of the human skeletal parts
are correctly matched with their respective skeletal
category and one pair is not matched. Identify the non-
matching pair.
Pairs of skeletal parts Category
(1) Sternum and Ribs Axial skeleton
(2) Clavicle and Glenoid Cavity Pelvic girdle
(3) Humerus and ulnaAppendicular
skeleton
(4) Malleus and stapes Ear ossicles
154.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
155. ECG
-
P
R
Q S T
(1) QRS-
(2) T-
(3) P R -
(4) P-
156.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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157. Here is an internal structure of
reproductive organ showing a continous
events of its reproductive function.
Choose the correct option, regarding
event and the part or structure indicated
by A, B, C, D, E, F.
(1)A-Primary folicle, B-Graffian folicle, C-
Ovulation and S. oocyte.
D–Corpus luteum, E-Corpus
albicance, F-Premordial folicle.
(2) F-Ovum, A-Secondary folicle,
B-Graffian folicle, C-Ovulation,
D-Corpusluteum,E-Corpus albicance.
(3) A-Primary folicle,B-Theca of graffian
folicle, C-Ovum, D-Corpus luteum,
E- Corpus albicance, F-oogonia
(4) A-oogonia,B-Theca of graffian folicle,
C-Ovum, D-Corpus luteum, E-Corpus
albicance, F-Primary folicle
157.
A, B, C, D, E, F
(1) A- , B-
, C-
D- , E- , F-
(2) F- , A- , B- ,
C- , D- , E-
(3) A- , B-
, C- , D- , E-
, F-
(4) A - , B- ,
C- , D- , E-
,-
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158. The diagram represent Miller's
experiment. Choose the correct
combination of labell ing.
(1) A - Electrodes
B - NH3 + H2 + H2O+CH4
C - Cold water
D-Vacuum
E- U tube
(2) A - Electrodes
B - NH4 + H2 +CO2 +CH3
C-Hotwater
D- Vacuum
E- U tube
(3) A - Electrodes
B-NH3+H2O
C-Steam
D-O2
E-U tube
(4) A-Electrodes
B-NH3+H2
C-Steam
D-Vacuum
E-U tube
159. In human beings vestigial organs are
(1) Wisdom tooth, coccyx, nail, eye lid and
vermiform appendix
(2) Wisdom tooth, coccyx, vermiform appendix,
pancreas and elbow joint
(3) Wisdom tooth, coccyx, vermiform appendix,
nictitating membrane and auricular muscles
(4) Coccyx, wisdom tooth, nail, auricular
muscles
158.
(1) A -
B - NH3 + H2 + H2O+CH4
C -
D-
E- U
(2) A -
B - NH4 + H2 +CO2 +CH3
C-
D-
E- U-
(3) A -
B-NH3+H2O
C-
D-O2
E- U
(4) A -
B-NH3 +H2
C-
D-
E-U
159.
(1) (coccyx),
(vermiform appendix)
(2) (coccyx),
(vermiform appendix),
(3) (coccyx),
(vermiform appendix),
(nictitating membrane)
(4) (Coccyx), (wisdom tooth),
(nail), (auricular muscles)
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160. The cross-section of the body of an invertebrate
is given below. Identify the animal, which has
this body plan.
(1) Cockroach
(2) Roundworm
(3) Planaria
(4) Earthworm
161. Match the following columns and select
the correct option.
Column I Column II
A. Euplectella i. Sea pen
B. Physalia i i. Pinworm
C. Pennatula i ii . Venus flower
basket
D. Enterobius iv. Midwife toad
E. Alytes v. Portuguese
man of war
A B C D E
(1) v, iv, i ii , i i, i
(2) v, i ii , iv, i i, i
(3) iv, v, i, i i, i ii
(4) i ii , v, i, i i, iv
162. The location of blood glands in
Pheretima is
(1) 4t h
, 5 th and 6t h
segments
(2) l0t h
to 20t h
segments
(3) 26t h
to the last segments
(4) 13t h
segment
160.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
161.
I I I
A. i.
B. ii.
C. iii.
D. iv.
E. v.
A B C D E
(1) v, iv, i ii , i i, i
(2) v, i ii , iv, i i, i
(3) iv, v, i, i i, i ii
(4) i ii , v, i, i i, iv
162.
(1) 4 , 5 6
(2) 10 20
(3) 26
(4) 13
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163. In the pelvic girdle of man A, B, C, D and
E respectively represent.
(1) A-pubis B-acetabulum
C-il ium D-ischium
E-pubic symphysis
(2) A-il ium B-acetabulum
C-pubis D-ischium
E-pubic symphysis
(3) A-ischium B-acetabulum
C-pubis D-il ium
E-pubic symphysis
(4) A-il ium B-pubis
C-acetabulum D-pubic
symphysis
E-ischium
164. One of the alternatives below defines the layers
of the retina in the correct sequence. Which one
incorrect? (Note : The first layer in each
sequence is supposed to be located next to the
jelly like vitreous humor that fills the eyeball .
(1) Pigmented cells-bipolar cells-ganglion cells-
photoreceptors
(2) Photoreceptors-pigmented cells-ganglion
cells-bipolar cells
(3) Ganglion cells-bipolar cells-photoreceptors-
pigmented cells
(4) photoreceptors-bipolar cells-ganglion cells-
pigmented cells
163. A, B, C, D E
(1) A- B-
C- D-
E-
(2) A- B-
C- D-
E-
(3) A- B-
C- D-
E-
(4) A- B-
C- D-
E-
164.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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165. About 98 percent of the mass of every living
organism is composed of just six elements
including carbone, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen
and
(1) Phosphorus and sulphur
(2) Sulphur and magnesium
(3) magnesium and sodium
(4) Calcium and phosphorus
166.
(A) (B) (C)
Which is essential amino acid from above
amino acid
(1) (A)
(2) (B)
(3) (C)
(4) None of these
167. Respiration involving following steps
A. Diffusion of gases O2 and CO2 across
alveolar membrane
B. Transport of gases by blood
C. Utilization of O2 by cell for catabolic
reactions and resultant release of CO2
D. Pulmonary ventilation by which atmospheric
air is drawn in and CO2 rich alveolar air is
released out
E. Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and
tissues
The correct sequence of steps is
(1) A B E CD
(2) E D C B A
(3) C E B A D
(4) C B E A D
165. 98 (mass)
, ,
,
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
166.
(A) (B) (C)
(1) (A)
(2) (B)
(3) (C)
(4)
167.
A. O2, CO
2
B.
C. O2
CO2
D.
CO2
E. O2 CO
2
(1) A B E CD
(2) E D C B A
(3) C E B A D
(4) C B E A D
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168. Arrange the following in order of increasing
volume
1. Tidal volume
2. Residual volume
3. Expiratory reserve volume
4. Vital capacity
(1) 1 < 2 < 3 < 4 (2) 1 < 4 < 3 < 2
(3) 1 < 3 < 2 < 4 (4) 1 < 4 < 2 < 3
169. The below diagram is a duct system of liver, gall
bladder and pancreas. Write the names of ducts
from A to D-
Gall bladder
Ductsfrom liver
Pancreas
C
D
Duodenum
B
A
(1) A - Cystic duct, B - Bile duct, C - Pancreatic
duct, D - Hepato-pancreatic duct
(2) A -Bile duct, B - Cystic duct, C - Pancreatic
duct, D - Hepato-paricreatic duct
(3) A - Cystic duct, B - Bile duct, C - Hepato-
pancreatic duct, D - Pancreatic duct.
(4) A -Cystic duct, B - Pancreatic duct, C - Bile
duct, D - Hepato-pancreatic duct
170. Which of the following statement is incorrect -
(1) Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can
deliver around 5 ml of O2 to the tissues
under normal physiological conditions
(2) Minute quantities of carbonic anhydrase is
present in the plasma too
(3) Chemosensitive area is situated adjacent to
the rhythm centre which is highly sensitive to
CO2 and hydrogen ions
(4)The role of oxygen in the regulation of
respiratory rhythm is quite significant
168.
1.
2.
3.
4.
(1) 1 < 2 < 3 < 4 (2) 1 < 4 < 3 < 2
(3) 1 < 3 < 2 < 4 (4) 1 < 4 < 2 < 3
169.
A D
Gall bladder
Ductsfrom liver
Pancreas
C
D
Duodenum
B
A
(1) A - , B - ,
C - , D -
(2) A - , B - , C -
, D -
(3) A - , B - ,
C - , D -
(4) A - , B - , C -
, D -
170. -
(1) 100 ml
5 ml O2
(2)
(3)
CO2
(4)
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171. Read the following four statements (A-D) :
(A) Colostrum is recommended for the new born
because it is rich in antigens.
(B) Chikengunya is caused by a Gram negative
bacterium.
(C) Tissue culture has proved useful in obtaining
virus-free plants.
(D) Beer is manufactured by distillation of
fermented grape juice.
How many of the above statements are wrong?
(1) Two (2) Three
(3) Four (4) One
172. Menstrual cycle is controlled by -
(1) Estrogen and progesterone of ovary
(2) FSH and LH of pituitary
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Only FSH of pituitary
173. Match the excretory functions of section l with
the part of the excretory system in section ll.
Choose the correct combination from among
the answers given.
Section l Section ll
(i) Ultra filtration (A) Henle’s loop
(ii) Concentration of urine (B) Ureter
(iii) Transport of urine (C) urinary bladder
(iv) Storage of urine (D) Malpighian
corpuscles.
(E) Proximal
convoluted tubule.
(1) (i) - D, (ii) - A, (iii) - B, (iv) - C
(2) (i) - D, (ii) - C, (iii) - B, (iv) - A
(3) (i) - E, (ii) - D, (iii) - A, (iv) - C
(4) (i) - E, (ii) - D, (iii) - A, (iv) - B
174. Which of the following statements are wrong ?
(i) Leucocytes disintegrate in the spleen and the
liver.
(ii) RBC, WBC and blood platelets are produced
by bone marrow
(iii) Neutrophils bring about destruction and
detoxification of toxin of protein origin
(iv) The important function of lymphocytes is to
produce antibodies.
(1) (i) and (ii) only (2) (i) and (iv) only
(3) (i) and (iii) only (4) (ii) and (iv) only.
171. (A-D)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
172.
(1)
(2) FSH LH
(3) (1) (2)
(4) FSH
173. I II
l ll
(i) (A)
(ii) (B)
(iii) (C)
(iv) (D)
(E)
(1) (i) - D, (ii) - A, (iii) - B, (iv) - C
(2) (i) - D, (ii) - C, (iii) - B, (iv) - A
(3) (i) - E, (ii) - D, (iii) - A, (iv) - C
(4) (i) - E, (ii) - D, (iii) - A, (iv) - B
174.
(i)
(ii) RBC, WBC
(iii)
(iv)
(1) (i) (ii) (2) (i) (iv)
(3) (i) (iii) (4) (ii) (iv)
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175. Choose correct statement about cockroach -
(i) If the head of cockroach cut off, it will live for
as long as one week.
(ii) mosaic vision has less sensitivity and more
resolution
(iii) anal style and anal cerci both present in
female cockroach.
(iv) number of malphigian tubules are 100-150
(v) 6 chitinous teeth are present in gizzard.
(1) only (ii)
(2) only (iii)
(3) only (i), (iv) and (v)
(4) only (vi)
176. Myxoedema is due to-
(1) Decreased production of thyroxin
(2) Increased production of thyroxin
(3) Excess GH
(4) Decreased insulin
177. An endocrine gland known as 'gland of
emergency' is :
(1) pituitary gland (2) parathyroid gland
(3) adrenal gland (4) pancreas
178. Which one of the following pair is incorrectly
matched
(1) Somatostatin - Delta cells (Source)
(2) Corpusluteum - Relaxin (secretion)
(3) Insulin - Diabetes mellitus (disease)
(4) Glucagon - Beta cells (source)
179. Role of bone-marrow in mammals is
(1) To assist kidneys
(2) To act as haemopoietic tissue
(3) To assist liver
(4) To control blood pressure
180. Haemodialysis is done in the condition when
person is suffering from :
(1) Diabetes (2) Uremia
(3) Anaemia (4) Goitre
175.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv) 100-150
(v) 6
(1) (ii)
(2) (iii)
(3) (i), (iv) (v)
(4) (vi)
176.
(1)
(2)
(3) (GH)
(4)
177.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
178.
(1) - ( )
(2) - ( )
(3) - ( )
(4) - ( )
179.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
180.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)