Ftre 2016 17 c Ix (Going to x) Paper 2 Pcm

8/18/2019 Ftre 2016 17 c Ix (Going to x) Paper 2 Pcm

1/16

FIITJEE

L t d . , F I IT JEE Hou s e, 2 9 -A , K a l u S a r a i , S a r v a p r i y a V i h a r , N ew De l h i - 1 1 0 0 1 6 , P h 4 6 1 0 6 0 0 0 , F a x 2 6 5 1 3 9 4 2 webs i t e : ww w . f i i t j e e. com

FIITJEE SAMPLE PAPER - 2015 for students presently in

Class 9

Paper 2

Time: 3 Hours (1:45 pm – 4:45 pm)Code 9009

Maximum Marks: 408

Instructions:

Note: Please check this Questio n Paper contains all105 question s in serial order. If not so, exchange for the correct Question Paper.

OMR Answer Sheet No. : _____________________________________________________________

Registration Number : _____________________________________________________________

Name of the Candidate : _____________________________________________________________

Test Centre : _____________________________________________________________

Caution: Class, Paper, Code as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer OMR sheetbefore attempting the paper. Wrong Class, Paper or Code will give wrong results.

1. This Question paper consists of 1 section. All questions will be multiple choice single correct out of fourchoices with marking scheme in table below:

Marking Scheme for each questionSection – I

(PCM)Question no.

correct answer wrong answer

1 to 6, 9 to 10, 15 to 17, 23 to 25, 30 to 31 +3 –1

7 to 8, 11 to 14, 18 to 19 +4 –1PHYSICS

20 to 22, 26 to 29, 32 to 35 +5 –2

36 to 41, 44 to 45, 50 to 52, 58 to 60, 65 to 66 +3 –1

42 to 43, 46 to 49, 53 to 54 +4 –1CHEMISTRY

55 to 57, 61 to 64, 67 to 70 +5 –2

71 to 76, 78 to 79, 83 to 85, 91 to 93, 99 to 100 +3 –1

77, 80 to 82, 86, +4 –1MATHEMATICS

87 to 90, 94 to 98, 101 to 105 +5 –2

2. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheet. The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your roughwork. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.

3. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices, inany form, are not allowed.

4. Before attempting paper write your OMR Answer Sheet No., Registration Number, Name and TestCentre in the space provided at the bottom of this sheet.


2/16

FTRE-2016-17(SAMPLE PAPER)-C-IX (Paper-2)-PCM-2

FIITJEE

L t d . , F II T JEE Hou s e, 2 9 -A , K a l u S a r a i , S a r v a p r i y a V i h a r , N ew Del h i -1 1 0 0 1 6 , Ph 4 6 1 0 6 0 0 0 , F a x 2 6 5 1 3 9 4 2 webs i t e : ww w . f i i t j e e. com

P P h h y y s s i i c c s s ( ( P P a a r r t t – – AA ) )

Straight Objective Type

Physics contains 35 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 35. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B),

(C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.1. When a direction of acceleration and initial velocity are in same direction speed of a particle

(A) increases (B) decreases(C) remain constant (D) cannot say

2. For a body on earth if gravitational constant is GE what is its value on moon?(A) GM < GE (B) GM > GE (C) GM = GE (D) GM and GE have no relation

3. SI unit of force is(A) kg-m/s (B) Newton(C) dyne (D) kg-wt

4. If distance between two bodies increases four time. What will be new gravitational force?(A) Four times the previous one (B) Equal to previous one

(C) Zero (D)1

th16

of previous one.

5. A force of 15 N acts separately on two bodies of masses 3 kg and 5 kg. The ratio of theaccelerations produces in the two cases will be(A) 5 : 3 (B) 3 : 5(C) 8 : 15 (D) 15 : 8

6. If weight of man at the surface of earth is 100 N then his weight on centre of earth is(A) 100 N (B) 50 N

(C) Zero N (D) None of these

7. Which physical quantity have magnitude and direction both(A) speed (B) distance(C) force (D) time

8. If A and B are two objects with masses 8 kg and 20 kg respectively then(A) A has more inertia than B (B) B has more inertia than A(C) A and B have the same inertia (D) none of the two has inertia

9. When you move from equator to pole, the value of acceleration due to gravity (g)(A) increases (B) decreases(C) remains the same (D) increase then decreases

Space for Rough Work


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10. If a bus starts suddenly, the passengers in the bus will tend to fall(A) in the direction opposite to the direction of motion of the bus(B) in the same direction as the direction of motion of the bus(C) sideways(D) none of the above.

11. When an object undergoes acceleration(A) its speed always increases. (B) its velocity always increases.(C) it always falls towards the earth. (D) a force always acts on it.

12. Friction force which acts on a body at rest to oppose external forces is called(A) Static friction (B) Kinetic friction(C) limiting friction (D) None of these

13. Why the tyres are circular in shape?(A) They require less material (B) Rolling friction is smaller than sliding friction(C) It is easy to inflate the circular tyres (D) None of the above

14. A body begins to slide over the surface of another, when pulled with a force of 10 N. If we pull

with a force of 5N, the force of friction that will come into play is(A) zero (B) 0.5 N(C) 5 N (D) 50 N

15. If a particle covers equal distances in equal time intervals, it is said to(A) be at rest (B) move with a uniform speed(C) move with a uniform velocity (D) move with a uniform acceleration

16. A body goes from a point A to another point B 150 m away in 30 second and return back in20 sec. Then the average velocity is(A) 6 m/s (B) zero(C) 3 m/s (D) 15 m/s

17. A body starts from rest with an acceleration of 3m/s2, the velocity of the body after 6 sec is(A) 18 m/s (B) 2 m/s(C) 12 m/s (D) 3 m/s

18. For a freely falling body(A) velocity remains constant(B) acceleration remains constant(C) body acceleration and velocity remains constant(D) both acceleration and velocity changes

19. A ball is thrown vertically upwards. It rises to a height of 50 m and comes back to the thrower,(A) the total distance covered by the ball is zero(B) the net displacement of the ball is zero

(C) the displacement is 100 m(D) none of these.



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20. An object moves with a uniform velocity of 9.8 m/s, its acceleration is(A) zero (B) 4.9 m/s

2

(C) 9.8 m/s2 (D) 19.6 m/s

2

21. A body covers half the distance with a speed of 20 m/s and the other half with a speed of 30 m/s.The average velocity of the body during the whole journey is

(A) zero (B) 24 m/s(C) 25 m/s (D) none of these

22. Velocity-time graph AB shows that the body has(A) uniform acceleration(B) uniform retardation(C) uniform velocity throughout its motion and has zero initial

velocity(D) none of these

A B

V

t

23. A body strikes the floor vertically with a velocity u and rebounds at the same speed. The changein speed would be

(A) u (B) 3u(C) 2u (D) zero

24. In the following speed-time graphthe shaded portion gives(A) distance travelled(B) average speed(C) average velocity(D) displacement travelled

t 2 tO

Speed

Time

25. A particle goes form point A to point B, moving in a semicircle of radius 5m in 10sec. Themagnitude of the average velocity is(A) 3.14 m/s (B) 2.0 m/s(C) 1 m/s (D) zero

26. If the earth shrinks to half of its radius, its mass remaining same, the weight of an object on earthwill change __________ times?(A) 2 (B) 3(C) 4 (D) 5



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27. Gravitational force between a point mass m and M separated by a distance is F. Now if a pointmass 2m is placed next to m in contact with it, the force on M due to m and the total force on Mare(A) 2F, F (B) F, 2F(C) F, 3F (D) F, F

28. The distances travelled by a body falling freely from rest in the first, second and third seconds arein the ratio:(A) 1 : 2 : 3 (B) 1 : 3 : 5(C) 1 : 4 : 9 (D) none of these

29. If a rock is brought from the surface of the moon(A) its mass will change (B) its weight will change, but not mass(C) both mass and weight will change (D) its mass and weight will remain the same

30. A man fires a bullet of mass 20 g at a speed of 5 ms –1

. The gun is of 1 kg mass. With whatvelocity, the gun rebounds backwards?(A) 0.1 ms

–1 (B) 10 ms

–1

(C) 1 ms –1

(D) 0.01 ms –1

31. A car is moving with speed 36 km/hr applies brake. Brake produces retardation of 2 m/s2.

Distance travelled by particle before coming to rest.(A) 73 m (B) 50 m(C) 25 m (D) 10 m

32. A thief stole a box full of valuable articles of weight W and while carrying it on his head jumpeddown from a wall of height h form from the ground. Before he reaches the ground, heexperienced a load(A) zero (B) W/2(C) W (D) 2W

33. In a game of tug of war, a condition of equilibrium exists. Both the teams pull the rope with a force

of 104 N. Tension in the rope is(A) 10

4 N (B) 10

8 N

(C) 2 × 104 N (D) Zero

34. A 1000 kg aeroplane moves in straight flight with a constant velocity. The force of air friction is1800 N. the net force on the plane is(A) zero (B) 1800 N(C) 9000 N (D) 3600 N

35. A cricketer catches a ball of mass 150g in 0.1s moving with speed 20 ms-1

. He experiences aforce of(A) 300 N (B) 30 N(C) 3N (D) 0.3N



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C C h h e e m m i i s s t t r r y y ( ( P P a a r r t t – – B B ) ) Straight Objective Type

Chemistry contains 35 multiple choice questions numbered 36 to 70. Each question has 4 choices (A),

(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

36. Which of the following pairs will not exhibit diffusion?(A) Nitrogen, Neon (B) Hydrogen, water(C) Sugar, Salt (D) Oxygen, Chlorine

37. The Brownian movement stands for(A) Straight forward movement (B) Zig - zag movement(C) Downward movement (D) Upward movement

38. Humidity of air stands for(A) The amount of water vapour present in air(B) The amount of moisture content in air(C) The degree of dampness present in air(D) All of the above

39. Amorphous solids have(A) Fixed geometry (B) Haphazard geometry(C) Fixed melting point (D) None of these

40. Which of the following statements about the liquid state is not correct.(A) Liquid cannot be compressed (B) Liquids have maximum fluidity(C) Liquids have a definite volume (D) Liquids have moderate interparticle forces

41. Factor which does not affect the rate of evaporation is:(A) An increase in surface area (B) An increase in temperature(C) An increase in interparticle forces (D) A decrease in humidity

42. A wooden table is not called a gas because(A) It is not hard and rigid(B) It is hard and not fluid(C) It can be compressed(D) It does not have definite volume and definite shape

43. What happens to the particles of the solid during sublimation?(A) Solid changes directly to liquid by decreasing pressure or increasing temperature.(B) An increase in pressure increase the space between particles(C) An increase in temperature increase the kinetic energy of the particle.(D) A decrease in pressure decrease the space between particles.

44. Which of the following gas(es) on condensation form(s) water?

(A) H2 (B) O2 (C) both A & B (D) None



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45. Which of the following is a property of amorphous solids?(A) Sharp melting point (B) Uniform physical properties(C) Conduction of electricity (D) Solubility in water

46. Which dissolves in water?(A) Sugar (B) Salt

(C) Chalk (D) both (A) & (B)

47. Which is inflammable?(A) Leaf (B) Petrol(C) Ghee (D) all of these

48. A mixture of stone and rice can be separated by(A) Handpicking (B) Seiving(C) Winnowing (D) Filtration

49. Diamond (contains carbon) is a crystalline solid. Choose correct statement(s) regarding it.(I) Atoms are the building block of the solid.(II) The carbon atoms are orderly arranged through out the crystal.

(III) It is an ionic solid.(IV) It can be compressed by applying pressure.Choose the correct choices(A) only I (B) I, II, IV(C) I, II (D) II, III

50. Classification is grouping things with _________properties together.(A) same (B) similar(C) different (D) all the three

51. The compound sugar does not consist of the following elements.(A) Hydrogen (B) Nitrogen(C) Oxygen (D) Carbon

52. Which is not a crystalline solid?(A) Ice (B) Common salt(C) Sugar (D) Plastic

53. The Liquification temperature of four gases P, Q, R and S are respectively -40o, -20

o, -80

o and

20oC respectively? Which gas can be easily liquefied at constant pressure?

(A) P (B) Q(C) R (D) S

54. Sugar can be recovered from its aqueous solution by:(A) Filtration (B) Distillation(C) Crystallization (D) Centrifugation



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55. Which of the following term is not related to colloids?(A) Tyndall effect (B) Coagulation(C) Neutralization (D) None of these

56. A mixture contains A, B and C. A is volatile, B is soluble in water and C is insoluble in water.Which of the following separation processes should be used in correct sequence in order to

separate the components from the mixture?(A) Sublimation, dissolution in water, filtration and crystallization(B) Dissolution in water, filtration, sublimation and crystallization(C) Dissolution in water, sublimation, filtration and crystallization(D) Sublimation, crystallization, filtration and dissolution in water

57. Which of the following mixture is a colloid?(A) CuSO4 + H2O (B) Na + H2O(C) Soap (C17H35COONa) + H2O (D) Urea + H2O

58. Nitrogen can be separated from air by(A) evaporation followed by condensation(B) condensation followed by fractional distillation

(C) condensation followed by evaporation(D) distillation followed by condensation

59. Cream is separated from milk by(A) evaporation (B) distillation(C) churning (D) crystallization

60. Which of the following is not a binary compound?(A) Limestone (CaCO3) (B) Laughing gas (N2O)(C) Dry ice (solid CO2) (D) Ice (solid H2O)

61. K2S2O8 is a compound. Which of the following statement is correct for it?(A) ‘K’, ‘S’ and ‘O’ combine in a definite ratio to form it.

(B) It is a mixture of two ‘K’, two ‘S’ and eight ‘O’ atoms(C) The elements can be recovered from it by physical methods(D) It is an impure substance

62. Which of the following is not a compound?(A) Na2SO4.10H2O (B) KCl.MgCl2.6H2O(C) CaCO3.MgCO3 (D) Na-Hg amalgam

63 Which of the following process(es) should be used in order to separate ozone from its mixturewith carbon dioxide?(A) Dissolution in water (B) Decompression(C) Filtration (D) Fractional distillation



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64. KCl.MgCl2.6H2O is soluble in water. It’s aqueous solution displays the properties of(A) K

+ ion (B) K atom

(C) Mg2+

ion (D) Both A & C

65. Four vessels of identical volume contain the following quantity of gases of constant temperature?

Vessel – I (3 1020

) molecules of ‘NO2’

Vessel – II

(6 10

20

) atoms of ‘O’ + (3 10

20

) atoms of ‘N’Vessel – III (1.5 1020

) molecules of N2 + (3 1020

) atoms of ‘O’

Vessel – IV (6 1020

) atoms of ‘O’ and (1.5 1020

) atoms of ‘N’.In which vessel the gaseous species will produce maximum pressure?(A) Vessel – I (B) Vessel – II(C) Vessel – III (D) Vessel – IV

66.

CO2 CO2 CO2

V = 2 litre V = 8 litre V = 4 litre

Three vessels of different volumes contain equal number of gas (CO2) molecules at constanttemperature. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct for the above system?(I) The gas in 8 L vessel exerts more pressure than that in other two vessels.(II) The gas in 2 L vessel exerts maximum pressure.(III) The gas in 8 L vessel requires maximum pressure for compression.(IV) The mass of gas in 2 L vessel in twice than that in 4 L vessel.(V) The mass of gas in 8 L vessel is twice than in 4 L vessel.Choose the correct statements:(A) II (B) II, III(C) I, II, III, IV (D) II, III, V

67. 2 2 21 2

Heat Heat

T TH O solid H O liquid H O gas

3

Heat

TH g O g

The temperature for the above series of changes follows the order?(A) T2 > T1 > T3 (B) T1 > T2 > T3 (C) T3 > T2 > T1 (D) T2 > T3 > T1

68. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding the volume of a definite amount of agas?(I) It does not have a definite volume.(II) The volume of 1 mg of any gas is 1 ml.(III) It’s volume can be measured at particular temperature and pressure.(IV) Equal mass of all gases occupy the same volume at constant temperature and pressure.Choose the correct statements.(A) II, IV (B) I, II, III, IV(C) I, III (D) I, III, IV



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69. The property that affects the flow of liquid layers is called viscosity. More viscous liquids moveslower and vice – versa. The viscosity of four liquids is given as follows

L1 > L2 > L3 > L4 Choose correct statements(i) The vapour pressure of L1 is higher than that of L2 (ii) The vapour pressure of L3 is higher than that of L1

(iii) There is maximum difference between the vapour pressure of L1 and L4 (iv) The boiling point of L1 is the highest among the given liquids.Choose the correct statements:(A) only iv (B) only i(C) i, iii (D) ii, iii, iv

70. One of the following is considered to be matter.(A) song (B) aroma(C) paint (D) beauty



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M M a a t t h h e e m m a a t t i i c c s s ( ( P P a a r r t t – – C C ) ) Straight Objective Type

Mathematics contains 35 multiple choice questions numbered 71 to 105. Each question has 4 choices

(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

71. If AB is the diameter of a circle and A(a, 4b) and B 3a, 3b 1 . Find the value of ‘a’ and ‘b’ giventhat the centre of the circle is at (4, 11)(A) a = –2, b = 3 (B) a = 4, b = 3(C) a = 2, b = 3 (D) a = –2, b = –3

72. If the mid-points of the sides of triangle are (2, 1), (0, −3) and (4, 5) then find the co-ordinates ofthe centroid of triangle(A) (1, 2) (B) (–1, 2)(C) (1, –2) (D) (2, 1)

73. The area of triangle formed by joining the points (1, 1), (3, 5) and (−1, 2) is(A) 8 sq. unit (B) 24 sq. unit(C) 10 sq. units (D) 5 sq. unit

74. The greatest of the altitudes of the triangle with sides 6 cm, 8 cm and 10 cm is(A) 4.8 (B) 6(C) 8 (D) 10

75. The three angles of a triangle, one is twice the smallest and another is three times the smallestthen the smallest angle is

(A) 60 (B) 30

(C) 90 (D) 45

76. In ABC , A B 110 , B A 10 , then shortest side is

(A) AB (B) BC(C) CA (D) can’t be determined

77. The value of x if 5 6x 2 2 is

(A) 2 (B) 5(C) 16 (D) 32

78. If3 3a b 1 3ab 0 , then the value of a b is

(A) –1 (B) 1(C) 0 (D) 2

79. If1

x 2,

x

then the value of 44

1x

x

is

(A) 36 (B) 34(C) 1154 (D) 1156



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80. If x y a and xy b, then the value of3 3

1 1

x y is

(A)3

3

a 3ab

b

(B)

3 2

3

a 3a b

b

(C)

3

3

a 2ab

b

(D)

2

3

a 3ab

b

81. The points a, b c , b,c a and are(A) collinear (B) form a scalene triangle(C) form an equilateral triangle (D) None of these

82. Which one of the following is the greatest in a triangle?(A) Sum of Medians (B) Perimeter(C) Sum of altitudes (D) Sum of angle bisectors

83. The H.C.F. of the polynomials 2 2

x 1 x 4 and x 1 x 2 is

(A) x 1 x 2 (B) x 1 x 2

(C) x 1 x 2 (D) x 1 x 2

84. The value of a and b in3 5

a 5 b3 5

are

(A)3 7

,2 2

(B)

3 7,

2 2

(C)3 7

,2 2

(D)

3 7,

2 2

85. If a = 5.2, b = 1.1 and c = - 6.3, then the value of 3 3 3a b c 3abc is(A) 1 (B) 2(C) 3 (D) 0

86. L.C.M. of the expressions 2 2

15 x 3 ,25 x 1 x 3 ,35 x 1 x 2 is

(A) 525 2 2

x 1 x 2 x 3 (B) 525 2 2

x 1 x 2 x 3

(C) 105 2 2

x 1 x 2 x 3 (D) 105 2 2

x 1 x 2 x 3



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87. The value of b c c a a b

b c c a a bx x x

is

(A) 0 (B) 1(C) x (D) 1/x

88. ABCD is a square, DEC and BCG are equilateral. Find

reflex of GEC .

(A)0

45 (B) 315°

(C)0

60 (D)0

300

E

C

A B

D

G

89. In the given figure ?a b c d e (A) 180

0 (B) 160

0

(C) 1400

(D) 1200

E

C

A

B

D

a

b

cd

e

90. The value of 3 2 2 is

(A) 2 1 (B) 1 2

(C) 2 1 (D) Both A and B are possible

91. The value of

0.13 0.07

0.25 0.075 0.2

243 243

7 49 343

is:

(A)3

7 (B)

7

3

(C)3

17

(D)2

27

92. Ifn 4 n 22 2 3, then n is equal to:

(A) 0 (B) 2(C) - 1 (D) – 2

93. The remainder when 3 23 2 1 x x x is divided by (x – 3) is

(A) 4 (B) 3(C) 7 (D) 5



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94. Which one of the following measurements cannot be sides of a triangle?(A) 3, 4, 5 (B) 5, 8, 12(C) 7, 6, 4 (D) 4, 12, 7

95. In the given figure, the largest side is(A) PQ

(B) QR(C) PR(D) All sides equal

Q

P

R

120o

140o

96. In the figure, if BP CQ and AC BC, then find the

measure of x

(A) 20

(B) 25

(C) 30

(D) 35 70ox

Q

A

P

20o

B C

97. If (1, - 3), (- 2, - 3) and (-2, 2) are the three vertices of a rectangle taken in that order, then thefourth vertex is(A) ( - 1, -2 ) (B) (1, 2)(C) (- 1, 2) (D) (1, -2)

98. If (2, 0) and (-2, 0) are the two vertices of an equilateral triangle, then the third vertex can be(A) (0, 0) (B) (2, -2)

(C) 0,2 3 (D) 3, 3

99. If the points (b, b – 1), (b + 2, b + 1) and (b, b + 3) are three consecutive vertices of a square,then its area (in square units) is(A) 2 (B) 4(C) 8 (D) 6

100. In ABC, A B and AB = AC. Find C

(A) 60o (B) 70

o

(C) 80o (D) 90

o

101. If one angle of a triangle is equal to half the sum of the other two equal angles, then the triangle is(A) Isosceles (B) Scalene(C) Equilateral (D) Right angled



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102. Find the area of the triangle whose sides are 41 m, 15 m and 28 m(A) 120 m

2 (B) 126 m

2

(C) 132 m2 (D) 136 m

2

103. In figure BD CE find x + y – z

(A) 40 (B) 50

(C) 60 (D) 180 E

y

C

z

70o

D

B

A

x

120o

104. If PQ ST , then x = ?

(A) 300

(B) 450

(C) 600

(D) 900

P Q

S

R

T

110o

xo

130o

105. In an isosceles triangle ABC, oB 90 . D is a point on AC such that BD AC. Then BD is equal

to

(A) AB

2 (B)

BC

2

(C) AC

2 (D) none of these



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FIITJEE SAMPLE PAPER – 2015 for students presently in

Class 9Paper 2

ANSWERS1. A 2. C 3. B 4. D

5. A 6. C 7. C 8. B

9. A 10. A 11. D 12. A

13. B 14. C 15. B 16. B

17. A 18. B 19. B 20. A

21. B 22. D 23. D 24. A

25. C 26. C 27. C 28. B

29. B 30. A 31. C 32. A

33. A 34. A 35. B 36. C

37. B 38. D 39. B 40. B

41. C 42. B 43. C 44. D

45. B 46. D 47. D 48. A

49. C 50. B 51. B 52. D

53. D 54. C 55. C 56. A

57. C 58. B 59. C 60. A

61. A 62. D 63. D 64. D

65. B 66 B 67. C 68. C

69. D 70. C 71. C 72. D

73. D 74. C 75. B 76. B

77. B 78. B 79. B 80. A

81. A 82. B 83. C 84. C85. D 86. A 87. B 88. B

89. A 90. A 91. A 92. D

93. C 94. D 95. C 96. C

97. B 98. C 99. C 100. A

101. C 102. B 103. A 104. C

105. C

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Ftre 2016 17 c Ix (Going to x) Paper 2 Pcm