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FS+ Science Mathayom 3

1 | FS+ Science Mathayom 3

Chapter 1 Interdependence among Living Things and the Environment

Questions

1. Which term describes a group of organisms with common characteristics and can breed among themselves to produce offspring? A Species B Family C Population D Community

2. What is meant by ‘population’?

A A group of organisms from the same species that live in the same habitat B Several types of animals and plants that live together C The interaction between plants and animals in a habitat D Several communities that interact with one another and with the physical

environment

3. The diagram below shows a situation.

What is shown in the diagram above? A A habitat B A population C A community D An ecosystem


4. Several communities of organisms that live in the same habitat and interact with one another as well as with the environment is called A a habitat B a population C a community D an ecosystem

5. Which of the following is the biotic component in an ecosystem? A Light B Plant C Water D Soil

6. Which of the following are the abiotic components of the environment? I Consumers II Temperature III Light intensity A I and II only B I and III only C II and III only D I, II and III

7. The diagram below shows a type of interaction.

What is the type of interaction? A Prey-predator B Symbiosis C Competition D Parasitism


8. The diagram below shows the relationship between two organisms.

Which of the following interaction is correct? A Two organisms compete for the same food. B Both organisms benefit from this relationship. C One organism benefits from this relationship while the other is not

affected. D One organism benefits from this relationship while the other is harmed.

9. The following are two types of interactions between organisms. K – Between ox peckers and buffaloes L – Between tree barnacles and trees

Which of the following states correctly the respective names of the interactions, K and L? K L A Mutualism Parasitism B Commensalism Competition C Parasitism Commensalism D Competition Mutualism

10. Which of the following is a parasite? A Remora fish B Termite C Ant D Lice

11. Which of the following is the type of interaction that exists between algae

and fungi in lichen? A Commensalism B Mutualism C Parasitism D Competition


12. Which of the following basic needs are the objects of competition among the

trees in a forest? J – Sunlight K – Food L - Space

A J and K B J and L C K and L D J, K and L

13. Which of the following interactions are used in biological control? I Predator-prey II Commensalism III Competition A I and II only B I and III only C II and III only D I, II and III

14. Why should a plantation owner practice biological control on his oil palm plantation? A It causes pollution to the environment. B It takes zero cost for this practice. C It takes a shorter time to function compared to using pesticides. D It is specific in the type of pests killed.

15. Four organisms represented by S, T, U and V are listed as below. S – Caterpillar T - Fox U – Plant V - Chicken

Which of the following shows the correct food chain involving the four organisms?


A S → T → U → V B T → V → S → U C U → S → V → T D V → T → S → U

16. Which group of organisms form the decomposers at a paddy field? A Mice B Sparrow C Paddy plants D Bacteria

17. The information below shows the food web in a paddy field.

Which of the organisms is present in the greatest number and which one in the smallest number? Greatest number Smallest number A Paddy plant Snake B Frog Mouse C Grasshopper Frog D Snake Mouse


18. The diagram below shows a food web.

Which of the following is the primary consumer? A Caterpillar B Paddy plant C Frog D Eagle

19. The diagram below shows a pyramid of numbers.

What will happen when the population of bird decreases? A The plant population increases. B The grasshopper population decreases. C The snake will lack of food. D The bird will compete for food.


20. The diagram below shows a habitat occupied by organisms X, Y and Z.

Which pyramid of numbers represents the habitat correctly? A

B

C

D


21. Which of the following is true about bioaccumulation? A The accumulation of minerals by organisms through food chains. B The accumulation of toxin by organisms through food chains. C The accumulation of food by organisms through food webs. D The accumulation of nutrients by organisms through food webs.


Chapter 2 Heredity

Questions

1. What is the basic unit of inheritance of living things known as? A Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) B Chromosome C Allele D Gene

2. In which part of the cell is a gene found?

A In a small segment of the DNA molecule B In the cytoplasm of the cell C In the cell membrane of the cell D In the nucleus of the cell

3. The diagram below shows a structure found in a cell.

What is the structure? A Gene B Chromosome C DNA D Centromere

4. The following information is about structure X in a cell. - Double helix structure - Carries genetic information

What is structure X? A Gene B Chromosome C DNA D Nucleus


5. Which of the following statements is correct about deoxyribonucleic acid

(DNA)? A DNA is found in the cytoplasm. B DNA contains protein. C DNA can control the formation of protein. D DNA is destroyed after cell division.

6. Humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes. What is the number of chromosomes in the sperm cell? A 22 B 23 C 44 D 46

7. Which of the following is true about the recessive allele? A It is always expressed and produces a recessive phenotype. B It can only show its effect in the presence of the dominant allele. C It is expressed when in a heterozygous (Bb) pair. D It is only expressed when in a homozygous (bb) pair.

8. The allele for curly hair is dominant (A) and the allele for straight hair is recessive (a). If a mother has curly hair (Aa) and a father has straight hair (aa), what is the possible genotype of their child? A Aa B aa C Aa or aa D AA or aa

9. A man who can roll his tongue with a genotype of Rr marries a woman who also has a genotype of Rr. What percentage of their offspring cannot roll their tongues? A 25% B 50% C 75% D 100%


10. What type of cross is carried out to study the inheritance of one trait only?

A Pure breed cross B Hybrid cross C Monohybrid cross D Dihybrid cross

11. The diagrams below show the different stages of mitosis.

Which of the following is the correct sequence in the mitosis? A X, Z, Y, W B X, Y, W, Z C Z, X, Y, W D Z, Y, W, X

12. What is produced at the end of the cell division called mitosis? A Two sex cells B Two daughter cells C Double the number of chromosomes D Half the number of chromosomes

13. How many daughter cells are formed at the end of meiosis? A One daughter cell B Two daughter cells C Four daughter cells D Eight daughter cells


14. The diagrams below show the stages of meiosis.

Which of the following is the correct sequence in the meiosis? A K, N, M, L B L, M, K, N C M, L, N, K D N, M, K, L

15. Which of the following processes produces gametes? A Mutation B Fertilization C Mitosis D Meiosis

16. What is the exchange of genetic materials between homologous chromosomes during meiosis known as? A Crossing over B Replication C Duplication D Reproduction

17. Which of the following is the difference between mitosis and meiosis? Mitosis Meiosis A Crossing over occurs Crossing over does not occur B The cells divide once The cells divide twice C Variation occurs No variation occurs D Occurs in germ cells Occurs in somatic cells


18. Which of the following statements is true about meiosis? A It is involved in growth. B The daughter cells produced have half the number of chromosomes found

in the original parent cells. C The daughter cells produced have the same number of chromosomes as

the original parent cells. D It involves all types of cells.

19. A mutation is A an exchange of sister chromatids B a disease caused by a type of bacterium C a change in the chemical structure of a gene D a doubling of chromatids

20. Which of the following are genetic disorders caused by gene mutation? I Hemophilia II Sickle-cell disease III Down syndrome A I and II only B I and III only C II and III only D I, II and III

21. A certain genetic disease shows the following characteristics. - Caused by a recessive allele - One cannot distinguish between red and green colors

Which of the following is the genetic disease referred to? A Hemophilia B Thalassemia C Color-blindness D Down syndrome


22. Which of the following is not true about genetically modified organisms (GMOs)? A Organisms in which their genetic materials have been altered. B Its purposes include resistance to certain pests, diseases or

environmental conditions. C GMOs are used to produce food crops and medicines. D Most GMOs are modified using human genes.


Chapter 3 Materials

Questions

1. Which of the following best defines a polymer? A A substance with large molecules made of many smaller molecules of the

same kind. B A substance with large molecules with no pattern to its structure. C A substance which is made up of a very long molecule. D A substance which is constructed from carbon atoms.

2. Which of the following is a synthetic polymer? A Silk B Nylon C Latex D Thread

3. The diagram below shows a chemical process.

What is process X? A Neutralization B Polymerization C Depolymerization D Combustion

4. Which of the following statements is true about thermoplastics? A They can be molded only once. B They are made up of linear or branched polymers. C They can conduct heat easily. D Their structures have cross-links.


5. Thermosets are different from thermoplastics because A the thermosets can be reshaped upon heating. B the thermosets cannot be re-processed into different shapes upon

heating. C the thermosets are made up of linear polymers. D the thermosets are very hard and difficult to melt.

6. Which explains why plates and bowls that are made from thermosets are better than those that are made from thermoplastics? A Harder B Finer C Prettier D More durable

7. Which of the following are the characteristics of most synthetic polymers? I Inert to chemicals II Heat and electrical conductors III Can be molded into various shapes A I and II only B I and III only C II and III only D I, II and III only

8. Which of the following synthetic polymers is matched with its use correctly? Synthetic polymer Use A Polyethene Car tyres B Polypropene Raincoats C Polychloroethene Grocery bags D Polystyrene Disposable cups

9. Synthetic polymers are non-biodegradable. This means A they cannot be obtained from plants and animals. B they cannot be broken down by bacteria. C they are not harmful to the environment. D they can stand high temperature and pressure.


10. Which of the following are problems caused by synthetic polymers? I Clogging of waterways II Flash flood III Greenhouse effect A I and II only B I and III only C II and III only D I, II and III

11. Which method of plastic disposal is good for the environment? A Ban them B Bury them C Burn them D Recycle them

12. Which of the following is not a property of ceramics? A Brittle B Inert to chemicals C Very low melting point D Porous

13. Traditional ceramics are used as I electrical conductors II decorative items III construction materials A I and II only B I and III only C II and III only D I, II and III only

14. Which of the following is true about superconductors? I They can conduct electricity with zero resistance. II They can be used in dental and bone implants. III They are not resistant to wear and corrosion. A I and II only B I and III only C II and III only D I, II and III


15. Which of the following are used in making composite materials?

I Metals II Alloys III Ceramics A I and II only B I and III only C II and III only D I, II and III

16. Which of the following is not an example of composite materials? A Reinforced concrete B Fiberglass C Ceramics D Plastics

17. Why is reinforced concrete used in building skyscrapers and bridges? A It is cheaper than the usual concrete. B It is waterproof compared to the usual concrete. C It has more tensile strength and does not crack easily. D It has a high density but is brittle.


Chapter 4 Chemical Reactions

Questions

1. Which of the following is an example of chemical reaction? A Dissolving sugar in water B Boiling of water C Heating of wax D Heating iron and sulfur powder

2. Which of the following characteristics is true about a chemical reaction? A Formation of a new substance B A small amount of energy is involved C Reversible D The change is temporary

3. Which of the following chemical equations is not correct? A Sodium + chlorine → sodium chloride B Copper + sulfur → copper + sulfur dioxide C Hydrogen + oxygen → water D Aluminum + oxygen → aluminum oxide

4. Which of the following chemical equations correctly represents the burning of magnesium in air? A Mg(s) + O2(g) → MgO(s) B 2Mg(s) + O2(g) → 2MgO(s) C 2Mg(s) + 2O2(g) → 4MgO(l) D 4Mg(l) + O2(g) → 2MgO(l)

5. Which of the following is true about an exothermic reaction? A It absorbs heat energy from the surroundings. B It causes the surroundings to become hot. C The energy content of the reactants is much lower than the products. D The products in this reaction possesses more energy than the reactants.


6. A chemical reaction occurs in a beaker. The process is an endothermic reaction if A it absorbs heat B it releases heat C it happens fast D it happens slow

7. The table below shows the results of an experiment to study the heat

change in a chemical reaction. Initial temperature 28°C Final temperature 36°C

Based on the results, what type of reaction is involved? A Exothermic B Endothermic C Combustion D Condensation

8. Which of the following is true about an endothermic reaction? A Heat is released to the surroundings. B The temperature of the solution increases. C The pressure of the surroundings increases. D The products have higher energy than the reactants.

9. Which of the following are examples of exothermic reactions? I Combustion of fuels II Photosynthesis III Neutralization between acids and alkalis A I and II only B I and III only C II and III only D I, II and III

10. What are the products when sulfuric acid reacts with magnesium? A Magnesium sulfate and hydrogen B Magnesium sulfate and oxygen C Magnesium sulfate and water D Magnesium hydroxide and water


11. When iron is in contact with oxygen and water, it rusts. The rust is A iron hydroxide B iron monoxide C iron oxide D iron oxide and water

12. Which of the following are produced in the combustion of propane? A Carbon dioxide B Carbon monoxide C Carbon dioxide and water D Carbon monoxide and water

13. Which of the following undergoes complete combustion with oxygen and produces carbon dioxide as one of its products? A Methanol B Carbon C Sulfur D Sodium

14. Corrosion of metal and marble buildings is caused by acid rain. Which of the following can cause acid rain? I Nitrogen dioxide II Sulfur dioxide III Ammonia A I and II only B I and III only C II and III only D I, II and III

15. Which of the following chemical equations represents the reaction between sodium hydroxide and zinc? A Sodium hydroxide + zinc → sodium zincate + oxygen B Sodium hydroxide + zinc → sodium zincate + hydrogen C Sodium hydroxide + zinc → sodium zincate + water D Sodium hydroxide + zinc → sodium + zinc + water


Chapter 5 Electricity

Questions

1. Which of the following is not a source of electrical energy? A Battery B Solar cell C Dynamo D Transformer

2. The diagram below shows the galvanometer connected to the dome and the Earth terminal of a Van de Graaff generator. The galvanometer deflects.

Which of the following statements is not true? A The direction of the flow of charges is opposite to the direction of

current flow. B The deflection of the galvanometer is caused by the motor of the

generator. C The deflection of the galvanometer is caused by the flow of electrical

charges. D The electrical charge is accumulated at the dome of the generator.

3. Which statement is true about electric current? A Rate of flow of electrons through a conductor. B Electrical energy which is needed for the flow of electrons. C Flow of electrons from the negative terminal to the positive terminal of a

cell. D Can be measured using a voltmeter.


4. Which of the following shows the voltmeter is correctly connected in a circuit? A

B

C

D

5. The diagram below shows a symbol of an electrical component.

What is the electrical component? A Transformer B Rheostat C Fuse D Switch


6. Which of the following can be used to control the current flowing through a circuit?

7. Which of the following circuits is not functioning? A

B


C

D

8. The diagram below shows an electric circuit.

Calculate the voltage if the ammeter reading is 4 A. A 4 V B 8 V C 12 V D 16 V


9. The diagram below shows a complete electric circuit.

Bulbs P, Q and R are identical. If the current flowing in this circuit is 2A, calculate the resistance of P. A 2 Ω B 4 Ω C 6 Ω D 8 Ω


The reading of the ammeter is A 1 A B 1.5 A C 2 A D 3 A


11. Which of the following graphs shows the relationship between current (I) and voltage (V) which obeys Ohm’s law? A

B

C

D



Which of the following relationships is true? A A1 = A2 B V1 = V2 C R1 + R3 = R2 D !

"! + !

"# = !

"$

13. The diagram below shows a series circuit.

Which of the following is true about the characteristics of a series circuit? A The current that flows through a point is the same as at any other point. B The voltage across the circuit is the same as the voltage across each

component. C The effective resistance decreases when the number of resistors in the

circuit increases. D It has two or more paths for the electric current to flow.


14. Which bulb will be the brightest? A

B

C

D


15. The diagram below shows a parallel circuit. Bulbs X, Y and Z are identical.

What is the voltmeter reading across Y if X burns out? A 0 V B 6 V C 9 V D 18 V

16. The diagram below shows a circuit.

When one of the light bulbs is fused, the other three bulbs do not light up. Which bulb is fused? A P B Q C R D S



All the three bulbs are similar. What are the readings of ammeters A1, A2 and A3? A1 A2 A3 A 2 A 2 A 2 A B 3 A 3 A 6 A C 2 A 2 A 6 A D 3 A 3 A 3 A

18. Which of the following is not an advantage of a parallel circuit? A Electrical appliances that requires different quantities of current can be

used at the same time. B If one of the electrical components is spoilt, the other components will

be affected. C Every electrical component in the circuit can be switched off separately. D It allows components to be added in the circuit without changing the

voltage.


19. Which of the following comparisons between a series circuits and a parallel circuits is correct? Series circuit Parallel circuit A The current from the source is

shared between each component. The current that flows through every component in the circuit is the same.

B When more bulbs are connected, the brightness of the bulbs increases.

When more bulbs are connected, the brightness of each bulb decreases.

C The voltage across each component is the same.

The voltage across each component is not the same.

D The effective resistance of the circuit increases with the number of components in the circuit.

The effective resistance of the circuit decreases with increasing number of components in the circuit.

20. The current that flows through a kettle in a house is 1.25 A. The house electrical energy supply is 250 V. What is the resistance of the kettle? A 2 Ω B 20 Ω C 200 Ω D 2000 Ω

21. An electric kettle is marked 240 V, 1.2 kW. Calculate the current flowing through the electric kettle. A 2 A B 5 A C 20 A D 50 A

22. The diagram below shows an electric kettle that has a power rating of 2.5

kW. It has been used for 2 hours.


Calculate the total cost of the electricity used if the electrical energy is 2.5 Baht per unit. A 2 Baht B 2.5 Baht C 5 Baht D 10 Baht

23. Which of the following are the causes of electrical accidents?

I Old wiring II Short circuit III Damaged insulation A I and II only B I and III only C II and III only D I, II and III

24. Electrical accidents can be prevented by I Use cables and plugs which are worn out II Never overload the power points III Keep cables away from water A I and II only B I and III only C II and III only D I, II and III


Chapter 6 Waves

Questions

1. Which of the following is not an example of waves? A Light waves B Seismic waves C Cathode rays D X-rays

2. Which of the following is true about a transverse wave? A A wave that has vibrations in a direction parallel to the direction of the

wave. B A wave that has vibrations in a direction perpendicular to the direction of

the wave. C One of the examples of transverse waves is the sound wave. D A travelling disturbance from a vibrating source without carrying any

energy.

3. The diagram below shows the vibration of a slinky spring.

Which of the following shows the movement of the spring? A

B

C

D


4. The diagram below shows an oscillating pendulum.

The pendulum completes one full oscillation when it moves A from P to Q and back to P B from P to R and back to P C from P to Q and then to R D from R to Q and then to P

5. The diagram below shows the displacement-distance for a wave.

Which of the following symbols represent the amplitude and the wavelength? Amplitude Wavelength A U T B S V C V T D T U

Based on the following diagram, answer Questions 6 to 8.


6. The diagram above shows the displacement-distance graph of a wave. How many complete waves as shown in the diagram? A 1 B 2 C 4 D 8

7. From the graph above, what is the wavelength of the wave? A 5 cm B 10 cm C 20 cm D 40 cm

8. From the graph above, the frequency of the wave is A 0.05 Hz B 0.1 Hz C 5 Hz D 10 Hz Based on the following diagram, answer Questions 9 to 10.

9. The diagram above shows the displacement-distance graph of a wave. What

is the amplitude of the wave? A 2 cm B 4 cm C 8 cm D 16 cm

10. From the graph above, the period is A 0.5 s B 1 s C 2 s D 4 s


11. From the graph above, the frequency of the wave is A 0.2 Hz B 0.5 Hz C 2.0 Hz D 4.0 Hz

12. All electromagnetic waves A Have the same frequency B Have the same acceleration C Are deflected by the magnetic waves D Can travel through a vacuum

13. Which of the following electromagnetic waves is suitable for sterilization of surgical tools? A Visible light B Microwave C Gamma ray D Radio wave

14. Which of the following electromagnetic waves is used in radar systems? A Infrared ray B Microwave C Gamma ray D Ultraviolet ray

15. An electromagnetic wave is used to sanitize the pillows in a hotel room. The electromagnetic wave should be able to kill germs on the pillows that are exposed to it but does not harm the guest who use the pillow. Which of the electromagnetic wave is the most suitable to be applied? A Infrared ray B Ultraviolet ray C Gamma ray D Microwave


Chapter 7 Light

Questions

1. What is the phenomenon when we see our image on a surface? A Reflection of light B Refraction of light C Interference of light D Light bending

2. The diagram below shows an incident ray on a plane mirror.

What is the angle of reflection? A 38° B 52° C 128° D 142°

3. The diagram below shows a card with the word “SCIENCE” written on it. The

word has 7 alphabets.

How many alphabets are identical to the original alphabets when the card is facing the mirror? A 3 B 4 C 5 D 7


4. What are the characteristics of an image formed by a plane mirror? I The image is larger than the size of the object. II The image is upright. III The image is laterally inverted. A I and II only B I and III only C II and III only D I, II and III

5. The diagram below shows a candle in front of a plane mirror.

At which position A, B, C or D is the image formed? A B C D

6. An object is placed 500 cm in front of a plane mirror. What happens when it

is moved 50 cm closer to the mirror? E The size of the image decreases. F The size of the object increases. G The size of the image is larger than the size of the object. H The size of the image is the same as the size of the object.

7. An object is placed 12 cm from a concave mirror of with the focal length of 5 cm. Which characteristic of the image formed is true? A Virtual B Upright C Diminished D Image formed at the focal point


8. The following information shows the characteristics of the image formed when an object is placed in front of mirror X.

- Real - Inverted - Smaller than the object

What could be mirror X? A Plane mirror B Concave mirror C Convex mirror D Convex lens

9. Which of the following involves the use of reflection of light? I Overhead projector II Microscope III Telescope A I and II only B I and III only C II and III only D I, II and III

10. Wing mirrors are used in cars to view the objects at the back of the car. What are the characteristics of the image formed on the wing mirrors? A Virtual, upright and diminished B Virtual, upright and magnified C Real, inverted and diminished D Real, inverted and same size as the object

11. Which of the following diagrams shows the reflection of light from a convex mirror correctly? A


B

C

D

12. Refraction of light occurs when A Light ray hits a surface and bounces back. B Light ray changes its direction when it travels from a medium into

another medium of different densities. C Light ray passes through a very small gap. D Light ray travels at the same speed.

13. Which of the following diagrams shows correctly the movement of a light beam from air to glass? A


B

C

D

14. The diagram below shows a ray of light traveling towards a glass block.

Which of the following statements is correct? A The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of refraction. B The light ray travels slower inside the glass block. C The light ray bends away from the normal inside the glass block. D The frequency of the light ray is smaller inside the glass block.


15. The diagram below shows the effect of lens X on the light rays that pass through it.

Among the following lenses, which is most suitable to be X? A

B

C

D


16. The diagram below shows an object placed in front of a convex lens of focal length, F.

The image is formed in region A III B IV C V D VI

17. Which of the following is not true about the image formed by a concave lens? A The image is formed on the same side of the object. B The image is formed between the object and the lens. C The image formed is always virtual, upright and diminished. D The image is formed on the focal point.

18. A man can see near objects clear but distance objects blurred. What can be done to correct this condition of vision? A Wearing glasses with concave lenses B Wearing glasses with convex lenses C Using a magnifying glass D Using a telescope

19. Which of the following is not true about the brightness of light? A The measurement of the amount of light output in a given area. B The measurement of light output at a given time. C The brightness of light is different at different distances from a light

source. D The power of the light source affects the brightness of light.


20. How do we take care of our eyes? I Wear sunglasses to reduce glare II Have an eye check regularly III Use proper lightning A I and II only B I and III only C II and III only D I, II and III


Chapter 8 Sun-Earth-Moon System and Space Technology

Questions

1. Newton’s law of universal gravitation states that A the attractive force between two objects is directly proportional to their

distance and inversely proportional to their masses. B the attractive force between two objects is directly proportional to their

masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them. C every particle attracts every other particle in the universe with a force which is

proportional to their weights and inversely proportional to the distance between them.

D the strength of gravity between any two objects depends on the masses of the objects and their distance from the Sun.

2. What is the value of universal Gravitational constant in m3 kg-1 s-2? A 1.07 x 10-11 B 3.67 x 10-11 C 6.67 x 10-11 D 9.57 x 10-11

3. The mass of the Earth is 6.0 x 1024 kg. The mass of the Moon is 7.5 x 1022 kg. If the average distance from the Earth to the Moon is 3.84 x 108 m, what is the gravitational force by the Earth? A 2.04 x 10-29 N B 2.1 x 1019 N C 2.04 x 1020 N D 7.82 x 1020 N

4. If the distance between two objects becomes 3 times more than the usual distance, the gravitational force becomes A !

" times

B !# times

C 3 times D 9 times


5. Which of the following is not true about the axial tilt? A It is tilted at an angle of 23.5°. B It is tilted in the same direction throughout a year. C It causes the phases of the Moon. D It passes through the North Pole, the center of the Earth and the South Pole.

6. What are the causes for the seasons? I Axial tilt II Earth’s revolution III Moon’s revolution A I and II only B I and III only C II and III only D I, II and III

7. What causes day and night? A The Earth orbits the Sun. B The Earth rotates on its axis. C The Sun goes around the Earth. D The Sun rises causing daytime.

8. What happens when the Northern Hemisphere is tilted away from the Sun? I The Northern Hemisphere experiences winter. II The Southern Hemisphere experiences spring. III The Southern Hemisphere receives more sunlight. A I and II only B I and III only C II and III only D I, II and III

9. - Occurs in June - Marks the beginning of summer in the Northern Hemisphere - The longest day of the year

The information above describes the A winter solstice B summer solstice C autumnal equinox D vernal equinox


10. How does an equinox occur?

A When the Sun passes the equator from the Eastern to the Western B When the axis of the Earth is tilted at an angle of 24°. C When the Moon is positioned exactly above the equator D When the position of the Sun is exactly over the equator

11. Why does the Moon have different phases? A It moves around the Earth and we see different areas of the Moon’s surface lit

up. B It moves around the Sun and reflects light from the Sun. C The distance between the Moon and the Earth changes. D It rotates on its axis from East to the West.

12. When the Moon is on the opposite side of the Earth from the Sun, what could the

phase of the Moon? A New Moon B New Gibbous Moon C New half Moon D Full Moon

13. The ocean tides are caused by

I the gravitational force of the Moon II the gravitational force of the Sun III the rotation of the Earth A I and II only B I and III only C II and III only D I, II and III

14. The following information is about a type of tide. - The high tides are very high. - The low tides are very low. - It occurs when the Earth, Moon and Sun are in a line.

The tide is called as

A spring tide B neap tide C high tide D low tide


15. Which of the following information is not correctly matched with the satellites launched in space exploration? A Sputnik I The first man-made satellite to orbit the Earth. B Luna 3 To orbit and take photographs of the Moon. C Apollo The first probe that is launched to explore Mars. D Shenzhou 5 China’s first manned spacecraft that orbits around the

Earth.

16. Which of the following have contributed to the modern-day space exploration? I Man-made satellites II Space probes III Telescopes A I and II only B I and III only C II and III only D I, II and III

17. What are the uses of Earth-observation satellites (EOS)? I Observe the Earth from space to predict the weather II Detect forest fires and oil spills III Monitor behaviors of every individual on Earth A I and II only B I and III only C II and III only D I, II and III

18. What is the advantage of using space shuttle? A Does not need to bring along its fuel. B Does not need to bring along an oxygen supply. C Saves cost in terms of fuel consumption. D Reusable.


19. The following information is about a technology used for space exploration.

- Is a Launched in 1988 - Provides a platform for scientists to carry out researches in space.

The technology is A International Space Station (ISS) B Space station Skylab C Earth-observation satellites (EOS) D Voyager 2

20. Which of the following is not the reason to continue space exploration? A To forecast weather and reduce disaster risks B To make communication effectively and easily C To help in the advancement of physics and other sciences D To create a war in space

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FS+ Science Mathayom 3 - e-pelangithai.com