TEST

1 The primary reason the angle of attack must be increased, to maintain a constant altitude during a

coordinated turn, is because the

a. Thrust is acting in a different direction, causing a reduction in airspeed and loss of lift.

b. Vertical component of lift has decreased as the result of the bank.

c. Use of ailerons has increased the drag.

2 Which is true regarding the use of flaps during level turns?

a. The lowering of flaps increases the stall speed.

b. The raising of flaps increases the stall speed.

c. Raising flaps will require added forward pressure on the yoke or stick.

3 Defines VNO as

a. Maximum operating limit speed.

b. Maximum structural cruising speed.

c. Never-exceed speed.

4 Airplane wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depends upon the

a. Rate of turn.

b. Angle of bank.

c. True airspeed

5 The stalling speed of an airplane is most affected by

a. Changes in air density

b. Variations in flight altitude.

c. Variations in airplane loading

6 During the transition from straight-and-level flight to a climb, the angle of attack is increased and lift

a. Is momentarily decreased.

b. Remains the same.

c. Is momentarily increased.

7 Load factor is the lift generated by the wings of an aircraft at any given time

a. Divided by the total weight of the aircraft.

b. Multiplied by the total weight of the aircraft.

c. Divided by the basic empty weight of the aircraft.

8 Lift on a wing is most properly defined as the

a. Force acting perpendicular to the relative wind.

b. Differential pressure acting perpendicular to the chord of the wing.

c. Reduced pressure resulting from a laminar flow over the upper camber of an airfoil, which acts

perpendicular to the mean camber.

9 While holding the angle of bank constant in a level turn, if the rate of turn is varied the load factor would

a. Remain constant regardless of air density and the resultant lift vector.

b. Vary depending upon speed and air density provided the resultant lift vector varies proportionately.

c. Vary depending upon the resultant lift vector

10 Which is true regarding the forces acting on an aircraft in a steady-state descent? The sum of all

a. Upward forces is less than the sum of all downward forces.

b. Forces is greater than the sum of all forward forces.

c. Forward forces is equal to the sum of all rearward forces.

11 What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum lift/drag ratio in a propeller-driven airplane?

Maximum

a. Gain in altitude over a given distance.

b. Range and maximum distance glide.

c. Coefficient of lift and minimum coefficient of drag.

12 The need to slow an aircraft below VA is brought about by the following weather phenomenon:

a. High density altitude which increases the indicated stall speed.

b. Turbulence which causes an increase in stall speed.

c. Turbulence which causes a decrease in stall speed.

13 In theory, if the airspeed of an airplane is doubled while in level flight, parasite drag will become

a. Twice as great.

b. Half as great.

c. Four times greater.

14 As airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum lift/drag ratio, total drag of an

airplane

a. Decreases because of lower parasite drag.

b. Increases because of increased induced drag.

c. Increases because of increased parasite drag.

15 If the airspeed is increased from 90 knots to 135 knots during a level 60 banked turn, the load factor

will

a. Increase as well as the stall speed.

b. Decrease and the stall speed will increase.

c. Remain the same but the radius of turn will increase.

16 The angle of attack at which a wing stalls remains constant regardless of

a. Weight, dynamic pressure, bank angle, or pitch attitude.

b. Dynamic pressure, but varies with weight, bank angle, and pitch attitude.

c. Weight and pitch attitude, but varies with dynamic pressure and bank angle.

17 Which statement is true, regarding the opposing forces acting on an airplane in steady-state level

flight?

a. These forces are equal.

b. Thrust is greater than drag and weight and lift are equal.

c. Thrust is greater than drag and lift is greater than weight.

18 On a wing, the force of lift acts perpendicular to, and the force of drag acts parallel to the

a. Chord line.

b. Flightpath.

c. Longitudinal axis.

19 An aircraft wing is designed to produce lift resulting from a difference in the

a. Negative air pressure below and a vacuum above the wing's surface.

b. Vacuum below the wing's surface and greater air pressure above the wing's surface.

c. Higher air pressure below the wing's surface and lower air pressure above the wing's surface.

20 In theory, if the angle of attack and other factors remain constant and the airspeed is doubled, the lift

produced at the higher speed will be

a. The same as at the lower speed.

b. Two times greater than at the lower speed.

c. Four times greater than at the lower speed.

21 20 By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane's

a. Lift, airspeed, and drag.

b. Lift, airspeed, and CG.

c. Lift and airspeed, but not drag

22 A rectangular wing, as compared to other wing planforms, has a tendency to stall first at the

a. Wingtip, with the stall progression toward the wing root.

b. Wing root, with the stall progression toward the wing tip.

c. Center trailing edge, with the stall progression outward toward the wing root and tip.

23 Stall speed is affected by

a. Weight, load factor, and power.

b. Load factor, angle of attack, and power.

c. Angle of attack, weight, and air density.

24 Which statement is true relative to changing angle of attack?

a. A decrease in angle of attack will increase pressure below the wing, and decrease drag.

b. An increase in angle of attack will decrease pressure below the wing, and increase drag.

c. An increase in angle of attack will increase drag.

25 For a given angle of bank, in any airplane, the load factor imposed in a coordinated constant-altitude

turn

a. Is constant and the stall speed increases.

b. Varies with the rate of turn.

c. Is constant and the stall speed decreases.

26 If severe turbulence is encountered during flight, the pilot should reduce the airspeed to

a. Minimum control speed.

b. Design-maneuvering speed.

c. Maximum structural cruising speed.

27 A propeller rotating clockwise as seen from the rear, creates a spiraling slipstream. The spiraling

slipstream, along with torque effect, tends to rotate the airplane to the

a. Right around the vertical axis, and to the left around the longitudinal axis.

b. Left around the vertical axis, and to the right around the longitudinal axis.

c. Left around the vertical axis, and to the left around the longitudinal axis.

28 Which is true regarding the force of lift in steady, unaccelerated flight?

a. At lower airspeeds the angle of attack must be less to generate sufficient lift to maintain altitude.

b. There is a corresponding indicated airspeed required for every angle of attack to generate sufficient lift

to maintain altitude.

c. An airfoil will always stall at the same indicated airspeed, therefore, an increase in weight will require an

increase in speed to generate sufficient lift to maintain altitude.

29 The ratio between the total airload imposed on the wing and the gross weight of an aircraft in flight is

known as

a. Load factor and directly affects stall speed.

b. Aspect load and directly affects stall speed.

c. Load factor and has no relation with stall speed.

30 (Refer to figure 1) The vertical line from point D to point G is represented on the airspeed indicator by

the maximum speed limit of the

a. Green arc.

b. Yellow arc.

c. White arc.

31 If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2,000 pounds was subjected to a 60 constant-altitude bank, the

total load would be

a. 3,000 pounds.

b. 4,000 pounds.

c. 12,000 pounds.

32 If the airplane attitude initially tends to return to its original position after the elevator control is pressed

forward and released, the airplane displays

a. Positive dynamic stability.

b. Positive static stability.

c. Neutral dynamic stability.

33 Longitudinal stability involves the motion of the airplane controlled by its

a. Rudder.

b. Elevator.

c. Ailerons.

34 Longitudinal dynamic instability in an airplane can be identified by

a. Bank oscillations becoming progressively steeper.

b. Pitch oscillations becoming progressively steeper.

c. Trilatitudinal roll oscillations becoming progressively steeper.

35 If the airplane attitude remains in a new position after the elevator control is pressed forward and

released, the airplane displays

a. Neutral longitudinal static stability.

b. Positive longitudinal static stability.

c. Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability.

36 In a rapid recovery from a dive, the effects of load factor would cause the stall speed to

a. Increase.

b. Decrease.

c. Not vary.

37 When turbulence is encountered during the approach to a landing, what action is recommended and for

what primary reason?

a. Increase the airspeed slightly above normal approach speed to attain more positive control.

b. Decrease the airspeed slightly below normal approach speed to avoid overstressing the airplane.

c. Increase the airspeed slightly above normal approach speed to penetrate the turbulence as quickly as

possible.

38 Recovery from a stall in any airplane becomes more difficult when its

a. Center of gravity moves forward.

b. Elevator trim is adjusted nosedown.

c. Center of gravity moves aft.

39 Why is it necessary to increase back elevator pressure to maintain altitude during a turn? To

compensate for the

a. Loss of the vertical component of lift.

b. Loss of the horizontal component of lift and the increase in centrifugal force.

c. Rudder deflection and slight opposite aileron throughout the turn.

40 If airspeed is increased during a level turn, what action would be necessary to maintain altitude? The

angle of attack

a. And angle of bank must be decreased.

b. Must be increased or angle of bank decreased.

c. Must be decreased or angle of bank increased.

41 Name the four fundamentals involved in maneuvering an aircraft.

a. Power, pitch, bank, and trim.

b. Thrust, lift, turns, and glides.

c. Straight-and-level flight, turns, climbs, and descents.

42 A pilot's most immediate and vital concern in the event of complete engine failure after becoming

airborne on takeoff is

a. Maintaining a safe airspeed.

b. Landing directly into the wind.

c. Turning back to the takeoff field.

43 To increase the rate of turn and at the same time decrease the radius, a pilot should

a. Maintain the bank and decrease airspeed.

b. Increase the bank and increase airspeed.

c. Increase the bank and decrease airspeed.

44 (Refer to figure 2.) Select the correct statement regarding stall speeds. The airplane will stall

a. 10 knots higher in a power-on, 60 bank, with gear and flaps up, than with gear and flaps down.

b. 25 knots lower in a power-off, flaps-up, 60 bank, than in a power-off, flaps-down, wings-level

configuration.

c. 10 knots higher in a 45 bank, power-on stall, than in a wings-level stall with flaps up.

45 An airplane leaving ground effect will

a. Experience a reduction in ground friction and require a slight power reduction.

b. Experience an increase in induced drag and require more thrust.

c. Require a lower angle of attack to maintain the same lift coefficient.

46 One of the main functions of flaps during the approach and landing is to

a. Decrease the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.

b. Provide the same amount of lift at a slower airspeed.

c. Decrease lift, thus enabling a steeper-than-normal approach to be made.

47 The spoilers should be in what position when operating in a strong wind?

a. Extended during both a landing roll or ground operation.

b. Retracted during both a landing roll or ground operation.

c. Extended during a landing roll, but retracted during a ground operation.

48 The purpose of wing spoilers is to decrease

a. The drag.

b. Landing speed.

c. The lift of the wing.

49 Propeller efficiency is the

a. Ratio of thrust horsepower to brake horsepower.

b. Actual distance a propeller advances in one revolution.

c. Ratio of geometric pitch to effective pitch.

50 In order to achieve single engine climb performance with an engine failed in most twin prop aircraft, it is

essential to:

a. Apply full power to the live engine (firewall)

b. Minimize drag (flaps, gear, feather prop)

c. Secure the failed engine

51 If the same angle of attack is maintained in ground effect as when out of ground effect, lift will

a. increase,and induced drag will decrease.

b. decrease, and parasite drag will increase.

c. increase, and induced drag will increase

52 In order to achieve a zero sideslip condition with a failed engine on a propeller aircraft, the pilot must:

a. Bank away from the live engine up to 5

b. Center the ball on the turn and slip indicator

c. Bank into the live engine slightly

53 When dealing with aerodynamics, VMC refers to:

a. Visual Meteorological Conditions

b. Minimum airspeed at which directional control can be maintained with the critical engine inoperative

c. Maximum airspeed at which an engine can be operated with one engine

54 On an aircraft without counter-rotating props, the left engine is considered to be the critical one to fail

because of the following factors:

a. Zero sideslip condition, engine windmilling and aft legal C of G.

b. P-factor, Accelerated slipstream, Spiraling slipstream and Torque

c. No power available Vs power required, yaw towards the left engine and sideslip

55 Every physical process of weather is accompanied by or is the result of

a. A heat exchange.

b. The movement of air.

c. A pressure differentia.

56 What causes wind?

a. The Earths rotation.

b. Air mass modification.

c. Pressure differences.

57 In the Northern Hemisphere, the wind is deflected to the

a. Right by Coriolis force.

b. Right by surface friction.

c. Left by Coriolis force.

58 Why does the wind have a tendency to flow parallel to the isobars above the friction level?

a. Coriolis force tends to counterbalance the horizontal pressure gradient.

b. Coriolis force acts perpendicular to a light connecting the highs and lows.

c. Friction of the air with the Earth deflects the air perpendicular to the pressure gradient.

59 What prevents air from flowing directly from high-pressure areas to low-pressure areas?

a. Coriolis force.

b. Surface friction.

c. Pressure gradient force.

60 Which would increase the stability of an air mass?

a. Warning from below.

b. Cooling from below.

c. Decrease in water vapor.

61 Which feature is associated with the tropopause?

a. Constant height above the Earth.

b. Abrupt change in the temperature lapse rate.

c. Absolute upper limit of cloud formation.

62 A common location of clear air turbulence is

a. In an upper trough on the polar side of a jet stream.

b. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high-pressure flow.

c. South of an east/west oriented high-pressure ridge in its dissipating stage.

63 The jet stream and associated clear air turbulence can sometimes be visually identified in flight by

a. Dust or haze at flight level.

b. Long streaks of cirrus clouds.

c. A constant outside air temperature.

64 During the winter months in the middle latitudes, the jet stream shifts toward the

a. North and speed decreases.

b. South and speed increases.

c. North and speed increases.

65 Which type of jet stream can be expected to cause the greater turbulence?

a. A straight jet stream associated with a low-pressure trough.

b. A curving jet stream associated with a deep low-pressure trough.

c. A jet stream occurring during the summer at the lower latitudes.

66 Which conditions are favorable for the formation of a surface based temperature inversion?

a. Clear, cool nights with calm or light wind.

b. Area of unstable air rapidly transferring heat from the surface.

c. Broad areas of cumulus clouds with smooth, level bases at the same altitude.

67 The wind system associated with a low-pressure area in the Northern Hemisphere is

a. An anticyclone and is caused by descending cold air.

b. A cyclone and is caused by Coriolis force.

c. An anticyclone and is caused by Coriolis force.

68 Which is the true with a respect to a high- or low-pressure system?

a. A high-pressure area or ridge is an area of rising air.

b. A low-pressure area or trough is an area of descending air.

c. A high-pressure area or ridge is an area of descending air.

69 Which is the true regarding high- or low-pressure systems?

a. A high-pressure area or ridge is an area of rising air.

b. A low-pressure area or trough is an area of rising air.

c. Both high- and low-pressure areas are characterized by descending air.

70 Which is true regarding actual air temperature and dew point temperature spread? The temperature

spread

a. Decreases as the relative humidity decreases.

b. Decreases as the relative humidity increases.

c. Increases as the relative humidity increases.

71 Moisture is added to a parcel of air by

a. Sublimation and condensation.

b. Evaporation and condensation.

c. Evaporation and sublimation.

72 Which would decrease the stability of an air mass?

a. Warming from below.

b. Cooling from below.

c. Decrease in water vapor.

73 What determines the structure or type of clouds which will form as a result of air being forced to

ascend?

a. The method by which the air is lifted.

b. The stability of the air before lifting occurs.

c. The relative humidity of the air after lifting occurs.

74 When conditionally unstable air with high-moisture content and very warm surface temperature is

forecast, one can expect what type of weather?

a. Strong updrafts and stratonimbus clouds.

b. Restricted visibility near the surface over a large area.

c. Strong updrafts and cumulonimbus clouds.

75 If clouds form as a result of very stable, moist air being forced to ascend a mountain slope, the clouds

will be

a. Cirrus type with no vertical development or turbulence.

b. Cumulus type with considerable vertical development and turbulence.

c. Stratus type with little vertical development and little or no turbulence.

76 What type weather can one expect from moist, unstable air, and very warm surface temperatures?

a. Fog and low stratus clouds.

b. Continuous heavy precipitation.

c. Strong updrafts and cumulonimbus clouds.

77 The conditions necessary for the formation of stratiform clouds are a lifting action and

a. Unstable, dry air.

b. Stable, moist air.

c. Unstable, moist air.

78 Which cloud types would indicate convective turbulence?

a. Cirrus clouds.

b. Nimbostratus clouds.

c. Towering cumulus clouds.

79 Which combination of weather-producing variables would likely result in cumuliform-type clouds, good

visibility, and showery rain?

a. Stable, moist air and orographic lifting.

b. Unstable, moist air and orographic lifting.

c. Unstable, moist air and no lifting mechanism

80 What are the characteristics of stable air?

a. Good visibility, steady precipitation, stratus clouds.

b. Poor visibility, steady precipitation, stratus clouds.

c. Poor visibility, intermittent precipitation, cumulus clouds.

81 What is a characteristic of stable air?

a. Stratiform clouds.

b. Fair weather cumulus clouds.

c. Temperature decreases rapidly with altitude.

82 When an air mass is stable, which of these conditions are most likely to exist?

a. Numerous towering cumulus and cumulonimbus clouds.

b. Moderate to severe turbulence at the lower levels.

c. Smoke, dust, haze, etc., concentrated at the lower levels with resulting poor visibility.

83 Which is characteristic of stable air?

a. Cumuliform clouds.

b. Excellent visibility.

c. Restricted visibility.

84 Which is a characteristic typical of a stable air mass?

a. Cumuliform clouds.

b. Showery precipitation.

c. Continuous precipitation.

85 Which are characteristics of a cold air mass moving over a warm surface?

a. Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and poor visibility.

b. Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and good visibility.

c. Stratiform clouds, smooth air, and poor visibility.

86 Which is true regarding a cold from occlusion? The air ahead of the warm front

a. Is colder than the air behind the overtaking cold front.

b. Is warmer than the air behind the overtaking cold front.

c. Has the same temperature as the air behind the overtaking cold front.

87 The conditions most favorable to wave formation over mountainous areas are a layer of

a. Stable air at mountaintop altitude and a wind of at least 20 knots blowing across the ridge.

b. Unstable air at mountaintop altitude and a wind of at least 20 knots blowing across the ridge.

c. Moist, unstable air at mountaintop altitude and a wind of less than 5 knots blowing across the ridge.

88 One of the most dangerous features of mountain waves is the turbulent areas in and

a. Below rotor clouds.

b. Above rotor clouds.

c. Below lenticular clouds.

89 Virga is best described as

a. Streamers of precipitation trailing beneath clouds which evaporates before reaching the ground.

b. Wall cloud torrents trailing beneath cumulonimbus clouds which dissipate before reaching the ground.

c. Turbulent areas beneath cumulonimbus clouds.

90 The most severe weather conditions, such as destructive winds, heavy hail, and tornadoes, are

generally associated with.

a. Slow-moving warm fronts which slope above the tropopause.

b. Squall lines.

c. Fast-moving occluded fronts.

91 If airborne radar is indicating an extremely intense thunderstorm echo, this thunderstorm should be

avoided by a distance of at least

a. 20 miles.

b. 10 miles.

c. 5 miles.

92 What visible signs indicate extreme turbulence in thunderstorm?

a. Base of the clouds near the surface, heavy rain, and hail.

b. Low ceiling and visibility, hail, and precipitation static.

c. Cumulonimbus clouds, very frequent lightning, and roll clouds.

93 Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?

a. The start of rain.

b. The appearance of an anvil top.

c. Growth rate of clouds is maximum.

94 What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of thunderstorm?

a. Roll cloud.

b. Continuous updraft.

c. Beginning of rain at the surface.

95 During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts?

a. Mature.

b. Developing.

c. Dissipating.

96 What minimum distance should exist between intense radar echoes before any attempt is made to fly

between these thunderstorms?

a. 20 miles.

b. 30 miles.

c. 40 miles.

97 During an IFR cross-country flight you picked up rime icing which you estimate is 1/2 thick on the

leading edge of the wings. You are now below the clouds al 2000 feet AGL and are approaching your

destination airport under VFR. Visibility under the clouds is more than 10 miles, winds at the

destination airport are 8 knots right down the runway, and the surface temperature is 3 degrees

Celsius. You decide to:

a. Use a faster than normal approach and landing speed.

b. Approach and land at your normal speed since the ice is not thick enough to have any noticeable effect.

c. Fly your approach slower than normal to lessen the wind chill effect and break up the ice.

98 Frost covering the upper surface of an airplane wing usually will cause.

a. The airplane to stall at an angle of attack that is higher than normal.

b. The airplane to stall at an angle of attack that is lower than normal.

c. Drag factors so large that sufficient speed cannot be obtained for takeoff.

99 A characteristic of the stratosphere is

a. An overall decrease of temperature with an increase in altitude.

b. A relatively even base altitude of approximately 35.000 feet.

c. Relatively small changes in temperature with an increase in altitude.

100 Which feature is associated with the tropopause?

a. Absence of wind and turbulent conditions.

b. Absolute upper limit of cloud formation.

c. Abrupt change in temperature lapse rate.

101 A jet stream is defined as wind of

a. 30 knots or greater.

b. 40 knots or greater.

c. 50 knots or greater.

102 The primary cause of all changes in the Earths weather is

a. Variation of solar energy received by the Earths regions.

b. Changes in air pressure over the Earths surface.

c. Movement of the air masses.

103 If the air temperature is +8C at an elevation of 1.350 feet and a standard (average) temperature lapse

rate exists, what will be the approximate freezing level?

a. 3.350 feet MSL.

b. 5.350 feet MSL.

c. 9.350 feet MSL.

104 A common type of ground or surface based temperature inversion is that which is produced by

a. Warm air being lifted rapidly aloft in the vicinity of mountainous terrain.

b. The movement of colder air over warm air, or the movement f warm air under cold air.

c. Ground radiation on clear, cool nights when the wind is light.

105 What feature is associated with temperature inversion?

a. A stable layer of air.

b. An unstable layer of air.

c. Air mass thunderstorms.

106 Which weather conditions should be expected beneath a low-level temperature inversion layer when

the relative humidity is high?

a. Smooth air and poor visibility due to fog, haze, r low clouds.

b. Light wind shear and poor visibility due t haze and light rain.

c. Turbulence air and poor visibility due to fog, low stratus-type clouds, and showery precipitation.

107 Which force, in the Northern Hemisphere, acts at a right angle to the wind and deflects it to the right

until parallel to the isobars?

a. Centrifugal.

b. Pressure gradient.

c. Coriolis.

108 Clouds, fog, or dew will always form when

a. Water vapor condenses.

b. Water vapor is present.

c. The temperature and dew point are equal.

109 To which meteorological condition does the term dew point refer?

a. The temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated.

b. The temperature at which condensation and evaporation are equal.

c. The temperature at which dew will always form.

110 The amount of water vapor which air can hold largely depends on

a. Relative humidity.

b. Air temperature.

c. Stability of air.

111 What enhances the growth rate of precipitation?

a. Advective action.

b. Upward currents.

c. Cyclonic movement.

112 The formation of either predominantly stratiform or predominantly cumuliform clouds is dependent upon

the

a. Source of lift

b. Stability of air being lifted

c. Temperature of the air being lifted

113 Stability can be determined from which measurement of the atmosphere?

a. Low-level winds.

b. Ambient lapse rate.

c. Atmospheric pressure.

114 What determines the structure or type of clouds which form as a result of air being forced to ascend?

a. The method by which the air is lifted.

b. The stability of the air before lifting occurs.

c. The amount of condensation nuclei present after lifting occurs.

115 What type of clouds will be formed if very stable moist air is forced up slope?

a. First stratified clouds and then vertical clouds.

b. Vertical clouds with increasing height.

c. Stratified clouds with little vertical development.

116 What type clouds can be expected when an unstable air mass is forced to ascend a mountain slope?

a. Layered clouds with little vertical development.

b. Stratified clouds with considerable associated turbulence.

c. Clouds with extensive vertical development.

117 Which of the following combinations of weather producing variables would likely result in cumuliform-

type clouds, good visibility, rain showers, and possible clear-type icing in clouds?

a. Unstable, moist air, and no lifting mechanism.

b. Stable, dry air, and orographic lifting.

c. Unstable, moist air, and orographic lifting.

118 The suffix nimbus, used in naming clouds, means a

a. Cloud with extensive vertical development.

b. Rain cloud.

c. Dark massive, towering cloud.

119 What are the four families of clouds

a. Stratus, cumulus, nimbus, and cirrus.

b. Clouds formed by updrafts, fronts, cooling layers of air, and precipitation into warm air.

c. High, middle, low, and those with extensive vertical development.

120 A high cloud is composed mostly of

a. Ozone.

b. Condensation nuclei.

c. Ice crystals.

121 Which family of clouds is least likely to contribute to structural icing on an aircraft?

a. Low clouds.

b. High clouds.

c. Clouds with extensive vertical development.

122 Which clouds have the greatest turbulence?

a. Towering cumulus.

b. Cumulonimbus.

c. Altocumulus castellanus.

123 Standing lenticular clouds, in mountainous areas, indicate

a. An inversion.

b. Unstable air.

c. Turbulence.

124 The presence of standing lenticular altocumulus clouds is a good indication of.

a. A jet stream.

b. Very strong turbulence.

c. Heavy icing conditions.

125 Ice pellets encountred during flight normally are evidence that

a. A warm front has passed.

b. A warmfront is about to pass.

c. there are thunderstroms in the area

126 An air mass is a body of air that

a. Has similar cloud formations associated with it.

b. Creates a wind shift as it moves across the Earths surface.

c. Covers an extensive area and has fairly uniform properties of temperature and moisture.

127 Which weather phenomenon is always associated with the passage of a frontal system?

a. A wind change.

b. An abrupt decrease in pressure.

c. Clouds, either ahead or behind the front.

128 If you fly into severe turbulence, which flight condition should you attempt to maintain?

a. Constant airspeed (VA).

b. Level flight attitude.

c. Constant altitude and constant airspeed.

129 If severe turbulence is encountered during your IFR flight, the airplane should be slowed to the design

maneuvering speed because the

a. Maneuverability of the airplane will be increased.

b. Amount of excess load than can be imposed on the wing will be decreased.

c. Airplane will stall at a lower angle of attack, giving an increased margin of safety.

130 A pilot reporting turbulence that momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude

should report it as

a. Light turbulence.

b. Moderate turbulence.

c. Light chop.

131 What are the requirements for the formation of a thunderstorm?

a. A cumulus cloud with sufficient moisture.

b. A cumulus cloud with sufficient moisture and an inverted lapse rate.

c. Sufficient moisture, an unstable lapse rate, and a lifting action.

132 Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?

a. The start of rain at the surface.

b. Growth rate of clouds is maximum.

c. Strong turbulence in the cloud.

133 During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts?

a. Cumulus.

b. Dissipating.

c. Mature.

134 What is an indication that downdrafts have developed and the thunderstorm cell has entered the

mature stage?

a. The anvil top has completed its development.

b. Precipitation begins to fall from the cloud base.

c. A gust front forms.

135 Where do squall lines most often develop?

a. In an occluded front.

b. In a cold air mass.

c. Ahead of a cold front.

136 Which thunderstorm generally produce the most severe conditions, such as heavy hail and destructive.

a. Warm front.

b. Squall line.

c. Air mass.

137 What is indicated by the term embedded thunderstorms?

a. Severe thunderstorms are embedded within a squall line.

b. Thunderstorms are predicted to develop in a stable air mass.

c. Thunderstorms are obscured by massive cloud layers and cannot be seen.

138 Which weather phenomenon is always associated with a thunderstorm?

a. Lightning.

b. Heavy rain showers.

c. Supercooled raindrops.

139 Which procedure is recommended if a pilot should unintentionally penetrate embedded thunderstorm

activity?

a. Reverse aircraft heading or proceed toward an area of known VFR conditions.

b. Reduce airspeed to maneuvering speed and maintain a constant altitude.

c. Set power for recommended turbulence penetration airspeed and attempt to maintain a level flight

attitude.

140 Which conditions result in the formation of frost?

a. The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below freezing and small droplets of moisture are

failing.

b. When dew forms and the temperature is below freezing.

c. Temperature of the collecting surface is below the dew point of surrounding air and the dew point is

colder than freezing.

141 Why is frost considered hazardous to flight operation?

a. Frost changes the basic aerodynamic shape of the airfoil.

b. Frost decreases control effectiveness.

c. Frost causes early airflow separation resulting in a loss of lift.

142 In which meteorological environment is aircraft structural icing most likely to have the highest rate of

accumulation?

a. Cumulonimbus clouds.

b. High humidity and freezing temperature.

c. Freezing rain.

143 Where does wind shear occur?

a. Exclusively in thunderstorms.

b. Wherever there is an abrupt decrease in pressure and/or temperature.

c. With either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere.

144 What is an important characteristic of wind shear?

a. It is primarily associated with the lateral vortices generated by thunderstorms.

b. It usually exists only in the vicinity of thunderstorms, but may be found near a strong temperature

inversion.

c. It may be associated with either a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere.

145 Which is a characteristic of low-level wind shear as it relates to frontal activity?

a. With a warm front, the most critical period is before the front passes the airport.

b. With a cold front, the most critical period is just before the front passes the airport.

c. Turbulence will always exist in wind-shear conditions.

146 Which forecast provides specific information concerning expected sky cover, cloud tops, visibility,

weather, and obstructions to vision in a route formal?

a. Area Forecast.

b. Terminal Forecast.

c. Transcribed Weather Broadcast.

147 The Surface Analysis Chart depicts

a. Frontal locations and expected movement, pressure centers, cloud coverage, and obstructions to vision

at the time of chart transmission.

b. Actual frontal positions, pressure patterns, temperature, dew point, wind, weather, and obstructions at

the valid time of the chart.

c. Actual pressure distribution, frontal systems, cloud heights and coverage, temperature, dew point, and

wind at the time shown on the chart.

148 Which provides a graphic display of both VFR and IFR weather?

a. Surface Weather Map.

b. Radar Summary Chart.

c. Weather Depiction Chart.

149 When total sky cover is few or scattered, the height shown on the Weather Depiction Chart is the

a. Top of the lowest layer.

b. Base of the lowest layer.

c. Base of the highest layer.

150 Which weather chart depicts conditions forecast to exist at a specific time in the future?

a. Freezing Level Chart.

b. Weather Depiction Chart.

c. 12-Hour Significant Weather Prognostication Chart.

151 What is the upper limit of the low level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart?

a. 30.000 feet.

b. 24.000 feet.

c. 18.000 feet.

152 The most current en route and destination weather information for an instrument flight should be

obtained from the

a. AFSS.

b. ATIS broadcast.

c. Notices to Airman Publications.

153 What is meant by the Special METAR weather observation for KBOI? SPECI KBOI 09185AZ 32005KT

1 1/2SM RA BR OVC007 17/16 A2990 RMK RAB12

a. Rain and fog obscuring two-tenths of the sky, rain began at 1912z.

b. Rain and mist obstructing visibility, rain began at 1812Z.

c. Rain and overcast at 1200 feet AGL.

154 To best determine observed weather conditions between weather reporting stations, the pilot should

refer to

a. Pilot reports.

b. Area Forecast.

c. Prognostic charts.

155 A pilot reporting turbulence that momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude

should report it as

a. Light chop.

b. Light turbulence.

c. Moderate turbulence.

156 When turbulence causes changes in altitude and/or attitude, but aircraft control remains positive, that

should be reported as

a. Light.

b. Severe.

c. Moderate.

157 Turbulence that is encountered above 15.000 feet AGL not associated with cumuliform cloudiness,

including thunderstorms, should be reported as

a. Severe turbulence.

b. Clear air turbulence.

c. Convective turbulence.

158 What values are used for Winds Aloft Forecasts?

a. True directions and MPH.

b. True directions and Knots.

c. Magnetic direction and knots.

159 SIGMETs are issued as a warning of weather conditions which are hazardous

a. To all aircraft.

b. Particularly to heavy aircraft.

c. Particularly to light airplanes.

160 Which correctly describes the purpose of convective SIGMETs (WST)?

a. They consist of an hourly observation of tornadoes, significant thunderstorm activity, and large hail

stone activity.

b. They contain both an observation and a forecast of all thunderstorm and hailstone activity. The forecast

is valid for 1 hour only.

c. They consist of either an observation and a forecast or just a forecast for tornadoes, significant

thunderstorm activity, or hail greater than or equal 3/4 inch in diameter.

161 What type of in flight Weather Advisories provides an en route pilot with information regarding the

possibility of moderate icing, moderate turbulence, winds of 30 knots or more at the surface and

extensive mountain obscurement?

a. Convective SIGMETs and SIGMETs.

b. Severe Weather Forecast Alerts (AWW) AND SIGMETs.

c. AIRMETs and Center Weather Advisories (CWA).

162 What single reference contains information regarding volcanic eruption, that is occurring or expected to

occur?

a. In-flight Weather Advisories.

b. Terminal Area Forecast (TAF).

c. Weather Depiction Chart.

163 The Hazardous In flight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) is a broadcast service over service over

selected VORs that provides

a. SIGMETs and AIRMETs at 15 minutes and 45 minutes past the hour for the first hour after issuance.

b. Continuous broadcast of in flight weather advisories.

c. SIGMETs, CONVECTIVE SIGMETs and AIRMETs at 15 minutes and 45 minutes past the hour.

164 When are severe weather watch bulletins (AWW) issued?

a. Every 12 hours as required.

b. Every 24 hours as required.

c. Unscheduled and issued as required.

165 SIGMETs are issued as a warning of weather conditions potentially hazardous

a. Particularly to light aircraft.

b. To all aircraft.

c. Only to light aircraft operations.

166 Which meteorological condition is issued in the form of a SIGMET (WS)?

a. Widespread sand or dust storms lowering visibility to less than 3 miles.

b. Moderate icing.

c. Sustained winds of 30 knots or greater at the surface.

167 The surface Analysis Chart depicts

a. Actual pressure systems, frontal locations, cloud tops, and precipitation at the time shown on the chart.

b. Frontal locations and expected movement, pressure centers, cloud coverage, and obstructions to vision

at the time of chart transmission.

c. Actual frontal positions, pressure patterns, temperature, dew point, wind, weather, and obstructions to

vision at the valid time of the chart.

168 What important information is provided by the Radar Summary Chart that is not shown on other

weather charts?

a. Lines and cells of hazardous thunderstorms.

b. Types of precipitation.

c. Areas of cloud cover and icing levels within the clouds.

169 What is the lowest cloud in the stationary group associated with moutain wave?

a. Rotor Cloud

b. Standing Lenticular

c. Low Stratus

170 At which location does Coriolis force have the laest effect on wind direction

a. At the poles

b. Middle latitudes (30-60)c. At the Equator.

171 El codigo SKC se utiliza en el METAR cuando?

a. La Visibilidad es menos a 10 KM. Y hay nubosidad por debajo de 5000 FT.

b. La visibilidad horizontal es mayor a 10 KM. Y el cielo esta despejado.

c. La visbilidad horizontal es menor de 10 KM. Y el viento esta despejado.

172 En un mapa meteorolgico y en una carta de vuelo, un frente oculido se representa por?

a. Una linea de color prpura, tringulos y semicirculos colocados sobre ste.

b. Una linea azul y tringulos alternos colocados a lo largo de ste.

c. Una lnea de color rojo y semicirculos colocados a lo largo de ste.

173 En el tropico el mayor peligro para una aeronave en vuelo cerca o dentro de una CB es?

a. Los rayos y el granizo.

b. La turbulencia.

c. La mala visibilidad.

174 What conclusion(s) can be drawn from a 500 millibar Constant Pressure Chart for a planned flight at FL

180?

a. Winds aloft at FL 180 generally flow across the height contours.

b. Observed temperature, wind, and temperature/dew point spread along the proposed route can be

approximated.

c. Upper highs, lows, troughs, and ridges will be depicted by the use of lines of equal pressure.

175 (Refer to Figure 4) What is the height of the tropopause over Kentucky?

a. FL390.

b. FL300 sloping to FL 400 feet MSL.

c. FL340.

176 Which meteorological conditions are depicted by prognostic chart?

a. Conditions existing at the time of the observation.

b. Interpretation of weather conditions for geographical areas between reporting stations.

c. Conditions forecast to exist at a specific time shown on the chart.

177 (Refer to figure 5, SFC-PROG.) The chart symbols shown in the Gulf of Mexico at 12Z and extending

into AL, GA, SC and northern FL indicate a

a. Tropical storm.

b. Hurricane.

c. Tornado originating in the Gulf of Mexico.

178 What flight planning information can a pilot derive from constant pressure charts?

a. Clear air turbulence and icing conditions.

b. Levels of widespread cloud coverage.

c. Winds and temperatures aloft.

179 (Refer to figure 4.) What is the maximum wind velocity forecast in the jet stream shown on the high

level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart over Canada?

a. 80.

b. 103.

c. 130.

180 A prognostic chart depicts the conditions

a. Existing at the surface during the past 6 hours.

b. Which presently exist exist from the 1.000-milibar through the 700-milibar level.

c. Forecast to exist at a specific time in the future.

181 (Refer to figure 6.) What is the meaning of the symbol depicted as used on the U.S. Low-Level

Significant Weather Prog Chart?

a. Showery precipitation (e.g. rain showers) embedded in an area of continuous rain covering half or more

of the area.

b. Continuous precipitation (e.g. rain showers) covering half or more of the area.

c. Showery precipitation (e.g. thunderstorms/rain showers) covering half or more of the area.

182 (Refer to figure 5, SFC-400MB.) The U.S. Low Level Significant Weather Surface Prog Chart at 00Z

indicates that northwestern Colorado and eastern Utah can expect

a. Moderate or greater turbulence from the surface to FL 240.

b. Moderate or greater turbulence above FL 240.

c. No turbulence is indicated.

183 (Refer to figure 7.) What weather conditions are depicted within the area indicated by arrow E?

a. Occasional cumulonimbus, 1/8 to 4/8 coverage, bases below 24.000 feet MSL, and tops at 40.000 feet

MSL.

b. Frequent embedded thunderstorms, less than 1/8 coverage, and tops at FL370.

c. Frequent lighting in thunderstorms at FL370.

184 (Refer to figure 7.) What weather conditions are depicted within the area indicated by arrow D?

a. Forecast isolated thunderstorm, tops at FL 440, more than 1/8 coverage.

b. Existing isolated cumulonimbus clouds, tops above 43.000 feet with less than 1/8 coverage.

c. Forecast isolated embedded cumulonimbus clouds with tops at 43.000 feet MSL, and less than 1/8

coverage.

185 (Refer to figure 7.) What weather conditions are predicted within the area indicated by arrow C?

a. Light turbulence at FL 370 within the area outlined by dashes.

b. Moderate turbulence at 32.000 feet MSL.

c. Moderate to sever CAT has been reported at FL 320.

186 (Refer to figure 7.) What information in indicated by arrow A?

a. The height of the tropopause in meters above sea level.

b. The height of the existing layer of CAT.

c. The height of the tropopause in hundreds of feet above MSL.

187 (Refer to figure 7.) What weather conditions are depicted within the area indicated by arrow F?

a. 1/8 to 4/8 coverage, occasional embedded thunderstorms, maximum tops at 51.000 feet MSL.

b. Occasionally embedded cumulonimbus, bases below 24.000 feet with tops to 48.000 feet.

c. 2/8 to 6/8 coverage, occasional embedded thunderstorms, tops at FL 540.

188 A ceiling is defined as the height of the

a. Highest layer of clouds or obscuring phenomena aloft that covers over 6/10 of the sky.

b. Lowest layer of clouds that contributed to the overall overcast.

c. Lowest layer of clouds or obscuring phenomena aloft that is reported as broken or overcast.

189 What significant sky condition is reported in this METAR observation? METAR KBNA 1250Z 33018KT

290V360 1/2SM R31/2700FT +SNBLSNFG VV0008 00/M03 A2991RMK RERAE42SNB42

a. Runway 31 ceiling is 2700 feet.

b. Sky is obscured with vertical visibility of 800 feet.

c. Measured ceiling is 300 feet overcast.

190 The body of a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) covers a geographical proximity within a

a. 5 nautical mile radius of the center of an airport.

b. 5 statute mile radius from the center of an airport runway complex.

c. 5 to 10 statute mile radius from the center of an airport runway complex.

191 Which primary source should be used to obtain forecast weather information at your destination for the

planned ETA?

a. Area Forecast.

b. Radar Summary and Weather Depiction Charts.

c. Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF).

192 A VRB wind entry in a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) will be indicated when the wind is

a. 3 knots or less.

b. 6 knots or less.

c. 9 knots or less.

193 When the visibility is greater than 6 SM on a TAF it is expressed as

a. 6PSM.

b. P6SM.

c. 6SMP.

194 What is the forecast wind at 1800z in the following TAF? KMEM 091740Z 1818 00000KT 1/2SM RAFG

OVC005=

a. Calm.

b. Unknown.

c. Not recorded.

195 From which primary source should you obtain information regarding the weather expected to exist at

your destination at your estimated time of arrival?

a. Weather Depiction Chart.

b. Radar Summary and Weather Depiction Chart.

c. Terminal Aerodrome Forecast.

196 Which is true regarding the use of airborne weather-avoidance radar for the recognition of certain

weather conditions?

a. The radarscope provides no assurance of avoiding instrument weather conditions.

b. The avoidance of hail is assured when flying between and just clear of the most intense echoes.

c. The clear area between intense echoes indicates that visual sighting of storms can be maintained when

flying between the echoes.

197 When is the wind-group at one of the forecast altitudes omitted at a specific location or station in the

Winds and Temperature ALOFT Forecast (FD)? When the wind

a. Is less 5 knots.

b. Is less 10 knots.

c. At the altitude is within 1.500 feet of the station elevation.

198 When are severe weather watch bulletins (WW) issued?

a. Every 12 hours as required.

b. Every 24 hours as required.

c. Unscheduled and issued as required.

199 SIGMETs are issued as a warning of weather conditions potentially hazardous.

a. particularly to light aircraft.

b. to all aircraft.

c. only to light aircraft operations.

200 A pilot planning to depart at 1100z on an IFR flight is particularly concerned about the hazard of icing.

What sources reflect the most accurate information on icing conditions (current and forecast) at the

time of departure?

a. Low-level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart, and the Area Forecast.

b. The Area Forecast, and the Freezing Level Chart.

c. Pilot weather reports (PIREPs), AIRMETs, and SIGMETs

201 Cual es la cantidad de octas de nubes cuando se reporta BKN?

a. De 3 a 5.

b. De 5 a 7.

c. De 1 a 2.

202 Una expresin Aproximacin Visual:

a. La puede solicitar el piloto o ser iniciada por el controlador

b. La ordena el controlador

c. Cancelo plan instrumentos, continuo plan visual

203 Una autorizacin de salida en plan IFR debe contener en su orden:

a. Limite, Va, Mantenga y Restricciones

b. Va, Mantenga, Limite y Restricciones

c. Restricciones, Limite, Mantenga, Va

204 La respuesta radar de un respondedor en MODO 3/A cdigo 2000 es:

a. Vuelo militar en misin especial

b. Vuelo VFR en Colombia

c. Solicito asignacin de cdigo

205 Una aeronave llegando a Cali con FL240 y estima el VOR de CLO a las 22:20, recibe la siguente

autorizacin: "Autorizado al VOR de CLO, descienda y mantenga 15,000 FT, hora prevista de

aproximacin 22:35", al tener una falla de comunicacin.a. Inciar el descenso sobre el VOR de CLO a las 22:35 desde FL240 siempre y cuando haya colacionado

la autorizacin.

b. Inciar el descenso sobre el VOR de CLO a las 22:35 desde 15000 FT siempre y cuando haya

colacionado la autorizacin.

c. Inciar el descenso sobre el VOR de CLO a las 22:20 desde FL240 siempre y cuando haya colacionado

la autorizacin.

206 En la fraseologa normalizada, en la autorizacin a la espera en un fijo no debe faltar:

a. tiempo de alejamiento y EAT

b. Tiempo de alejamiento y ETA

c. Nombre de radioayuda y EAT

207 Si estamos volando en espacio areo Clase A, esperamos:

a. Autorizaciones para IFR

b. Autorizaciones IFR e informacin VFR

c. Informacin de aeronaves en VFR

208 En el contenido de una autorizacin IFR debemos colacionar:

a. Solo los SIDs, niveles y restricciones

b. Con decir RECIBIDO es suficiente

c. Toda la autorizacin

209 Bajo que situacin un piloto puede cambiar su plan de vuelo IFR a VFR

a. Cuando lo solicite el controlador

b. Si esta volando en espacio areo Clase A

c. Si esta volando en espacio areo Clase D

210 De una aeronave secuestrada con flaps abajo despus de aterrizar significa:

a. Djenme solo, no intervengan

b. La situacin esta desesperada

c. Pueden subir, situacin controlada

211 Durante una aproximacin por referencia visual, se espera que:

a. El piloto asume la navegacin pero la separacin VFR/IFR la hace ATS

b. El control ceda su responsabilidad al piloto por ser vuelo VFR

c. El piloto es responsable de la separacin con otros trnsitos IFR y VFR

212 what designed airspace associated with an airport becomes inactive when the tower at that airport is

not in operation?

a. Class D, which then becomes Class C.

b. Class D, which then becomes Class E.

c. Class B.

213 En el espacio areo CTR se:

a. Organiza el trnsito en el crculo de aerdromo

b. Establecen secuencias de aproximacin por instrumentos

c. Provee separacin de aeronaves en ruta

214 La mxima velocidad de una aeronave categora A en un circulo de espera a 12.000 es:(OACI)

a. 170 Kts

b. 230 kts

c. 240 kts

215 En una aproximacin IFR, se llama FAF al punto donde una aeronave:

a. Inicia la aproximacin intermedia

b. Esta alineada con la pista para aterrizar

c. Efecta la espera en fijo primario

216 Si un vuelo IFR nocturno se realiza en una FIR, ser un vuelo:

a. NO controlado

b. Controlado como todo IFR

c. Controlado si las condiciones son IMC

217 Si una aeronave militar intercepta una aeronave civil en vuelo y le hace la siguiente seal: Baja tren de

aterrizaje y mantiene luces de aterrizaje encendidos, esto significa:

a. Sgame

b. Prosiga

c. Aterrice aqu

218 Un piloto esta en la obligacin de notificar a los servicios ATS respecto a la hora estimada a un punto

de notificacin, cuando exista una diferencia del que aparece en el plan de vuelo actualizado de

(minutos):

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

219 Una aeronave aproximando a Bogota con 170000 FT y estimando el VOR de BOG a las 09:32 UTC,

recibe la siguente autorizacin: "Autorizado al VOR de BOG, descienda y mantenga 13000 FT, hora

prevista de aproximacin 09:55", luego sufre falla de comunicacin

a. Inciar el descenso sobre el VOR de BOG a las 09:55 desde 13000 FT siempre y cuando haya

colacionado la autorizacin y est IMC.

b. Iniciar descenso y aproximacin tan pronto como se le presente la falla.

c. Aterrizar en el aerdromo adecuado mas cercano si esta en condiciones VMC.

220 Vat is defined as speed at threshold based on 1.3 times stall speed in the landing configuration as:

a. Maximum certificated landing mass

b. Minimum certificated landing mass

c. Maximum certificated takeoff mass

221 La prioridad mxima de aterrizaje para aeronaves es?

a. Aeronaves VIP1.

b. Aeronaves ambulancia.

c. Aeronaves en emergencia.

222 What is the maximum indicated airspeed allowed in the airspace underlyning Class B airspace?

a. 156 Knots.

b. 200 Knots.

c. 230 Knots.

223 Straight departure is one in which the initial departure track is within:

a. 5 of the alignment of the runway center line

b. 15 of the alignment of the runway center line

c. 25 of the alignment of the runway center line

224 For IFR operations off established airways, ROUTE OF LIGHT portion of an IFR plane should list VOR

navigational aids which are no more than

a. 40 miles apart

b. 70 miles apart

c. 80 miles apart

225 The initial approach segments, commences at and ends at

a. IF and FAF

b. IAF and IF

c. IF and OM

226 Flight procedures for racetrack and reversal procedures are based on average achieved bank angle of:

a. 30 Bank angle

b. 25 Bank angle, or the bank angle giving a rate of turn of 3/second, wichever is less.

c. 45 bank angle

227 While maintaining a constant heading, a relative bearing of 15 doubles in 6 minutes. The time to the

station being used is

a. 3 minutes

b. 6 minutes

c. 12 minutes

228 The optimum Glide Path angle of an ILS is:

a. 4.0

b. 3.0

c. 1.5

229 The maximum aircraft operations holding speed (kts) above 14.000 ft to 20.000 ft, according OACI:

a. 230

b. 240

c. 265

230 Each required flight crewmembers is required to keep his or her shoulders harness fastened

a. during takeoff and landing only when passengers are aboard the aircraft

b. while the crewmembers are at their station unless he or she is unable to perform requires duties

c. during takeoff and landing unless he or she is unable to perform required duties

231 En caso de una bomba abordo que se requiera de una accin inmediata se deber utilizar el cdigo:

a. Bravo Romeo

b. Bravo Wiskey

c. Bravo Tango

232 In class A airspace, the following flights are permitted:

a. VFR only

b. IFR only

c. Special VFR only

233 The difference between MDA and DA is:

a. MDA is for Precision approach and DA is for non Precision approach

b. MDA is Minimum departure altitude and DA is decision altitude

c. MDA is for non precision approach and DA is for precision approach

234 For the purposes of wake turbulence separation, ATC classifies aircraft as:

a. Heavy, large and small

b. A, B, C,D

c. Number of engines

235 The MINIMUM altitude to intercept the glide slope path on a precision approach is:

a. Minimum altitude leaving VOR in final approach

b. Glide Slope intercept altitude

c. DA value for this procedure

236 The difference among a PUBLISHED ROUTE and UNPLUBLISHED ROUTE is:

a. PUBLISHED route include minimum en-route altitude and the other do not

b. PUBLISHED is for IFR flights only and UNPUBLISHED is for VFR flights only

c. PUBLISHED is authorized route and UNPUBLISHED is non authorized route

237 EXPECTED APPROACH TIME means the time:

a. The flight is estimating arrive at the primary navigation aid

b. The flight is clear for approach

c. In case of communication failure, it is the time at which an approach must begin.

238 RADAR CONTACT is defined as:

a. The situation which exists when the radar position of a particular aircraft is seen on a radar display.

b. The situation which exists when the radar position of a particular aircraft is seen and identified on a

radar display.

c. None of the above

239 Clearance limit is:

a. The point at which as aircraft is expected to reduce airspeed

b. The point until the aircraft is expected to maintain visual reference and keeps clear of clouds

c. The point at which an aircraft is granted an air traffic control clearance

240 THRESHOLD is defined as:

a. The beginning of that portion of the runway usable for landing

b. The beginning of that portion of the runway used for warm-up.

c. The beginning of that portion of the takeoff runway

241 If an airplane is consuming 95 pounds of fuel per hour at a cruising altitude of 6500 feet and the

groundspeed is 173 knots , how much fuel is required to travle 450 NN?

a. 112 kg

b. 265 pounds

c. 284 pounds

242 En una aproximacin ADF la altura mnima de descenso es de:

a. 500 pies

b. 450 pies

c. 350 pies

243 Los pilotos de transporte de lnea y copilotos con licencia comercial de aviones deben realizar una

serie de proeficiencias y repasos al ao para cumplir con los requisitos de la UAEAC, en cuanto a

simuladores de vuelo se refiere, el nmero de estos es de:

a. Dos veces al ao

b. Tres veces al ao

c. Cada 2 aos

244 Como se interpreta si las luces PAPI se observan desde su avion totalmente blancas:

a. Voy en trayectoria .

b. Voy ligeramente alto.

c. Voy muy alto.

245 La UTA es un espacio areo:

a. Categoria A, con vuelos IFR y VMC.

b. Categoria A restringido a instrumentos.

c. Categoria B nicamente.

246 Cal es la cantidad mxima de horas anuales que un piloto con licencia PCA, que vuela para una

empresa de servicio aereo regular y una aeronave de mas de 5700 KGS puede volar?

a. 500 Horas

b. 700 Horas

c. 900 Horas

247 Se define como rea de maniobras en un aerdromo a:

a. La utilizada o definida como rea de vuelo para operacin de aeronaves sujeta a restricciones o

limitaciones.

b. Todo tipo de area de movimiento en la cual se desplace una aeronave.

c. Parte del aerdromo que se utiliza para despegues, aterrizajes y rodaje de aeronaves excluyendo las

plataformas.

248 Se define como aerova:

a. El rea controlada por la torre de control

b. El rea comprendida entre dos aeropuertos conformada por 2 radio ayudas y con un ancho de 12

Millas nuticas.

c. El rea de control dispuesta en forma de corredor y equipada con ayudas para la navegacin.

249 Se considera combustible bsico para el despacho de una aeronave:

a. El suficiente para volar del aeropuerto de origen a destino.

b. El suficiente para volar de origen a destino ms el alterno.

c. El suficiente para volar de origen a destino ms extra.

250 Se considera combustible de reserva para el despacho de una aeronave:

a. El suficiente para volar y aterrizar en el aeropuerto alterno ms lejano incluido en el plan de vuelo.

b. El suficiente para sostener por 30 minutos.

c. El suficiente para sostener por 45 minutos.

251 Se considera combustible mnimo para el despacho de una aeronave:

a. El suficiente para llegar de origen a destino.

b. El suficiente para llegar de origen a destino mas reserva.

c. La suma de combustible bsico + reserva + contingencia(si aplica) + sostenimiento.

252 El RAC comprende:

a. 9 partes

b. 11 partes

c. 24 partes

253 El RAC se define como:

a. Reglamento del aire de Colombia.

b. Reglamento Aeronutico de Colombia

c. Reglamento de Aviones Colombia

254 La parte cuarta del RAC corresponde a:

a. Aerdromos e instalaciones

b. Personal Aeronutico

c. Normas de aeronavegabilidad y Operacin de aeronaves

255 La parte Sptima del RAC corresponde a:

a. Personal Aeronutico

b. Normas de Aeronavegabilidad y Operacin de Aeronaves

c. Rgimen Sancionatorio

256 Para poder servir como copiloto de una empresa de transporte areo regular, este debe de haber

cumplido con un chequeo de rutas dentro de un perodo de:

a. 12 meses

b. 18 meses

c. 24 meses

257 La palabra Notam se define como:

a. Notice to the Aircraft.

b. Notice to the Airman

c. Notice to the Air maintenance operator

258 El Lmite de horas mensuales para un tripulante de aeronaves en Colombia segn el RAC es de:

a. 80 horas

b. 90 horas

c. 85 horas

259 Una calle de rodaje de baja velocidad forma ngulo de:

a. 120 con respecto el eje longitudinal de la pista.

b. 90 con respecto al eje longitudinal de la pista.

c. 90 con respecto a la torre de control.

260 El control de horas mensuales y anuales de un tripulante de vuelo es responsabilidad de:

a. El operador.

b. El tripulante

c. La Aeronutica Civil

261 El tiempo mximo de servicio de un tripulante de cabina de mando para tripulacin sencilla de

aeronaves de transporte areo regular es de:

a. 12 horas

b. 12:30 horas

c. 14 horas

262 Espacio areo controlado visual por TWR:

a. ATZ

b. CTR

c. TMA

263 El RAC permite libre acceso a la cabina de mando de una aeronave comercial a:

a. Un controlador de trfico areo

b. Un inspector de la UAEAC

c. Un inspector de la Fuerza Area Colombiana

264 La responsabilidad Final en la operacin de una aeronave depende de:

a. La UAEAC

b. El piloto al mando

c. La empresa explotadora

265 El RAC exige que por encima de ___________ se debe llevar suficiente oxgeno para suministro de

todos los miembros de la tripulacin en caso de una despresurizacin.

a. 11.000 pies

b. 10.000 pies

c. 12.000 pies

266 De acuerdo al RAC, para despachar una aeronave cuando el aeropuerto de origen esta por debajo de

los mnimos de aterrizaje se requiere tener:

a. Un aeropuerto alterno de despegue ubicado a 30 minutos de vuelo a velocidad normal de crucero con

un motor inoperativo.

b. Un aeropuerto alterno de despegue ubicado a 45 minutos de vuelo a velocidad normal de crucero con

un motor inoperativo.

c. Un aeropuerto alterno de despegue ubicado a 1 hora de vuelo a velocidad normal de crucero con un

motor inoperativo.

267 La separacin vertical mnima entre dos aeronaves operando en espacio areo RVSM es de:

a. 500 pies

b. 1.000 pies

c. 2.000 pies

268 Se define en una aproximacin de precisin como DH (Decision Height) a:

a. La altura mnima en la cual una aeronave debe iniciar una aproximacin frustrada en caso de no tener

contacto visual.

b. La altura mnima a la que puede descender una aeronave con el piloto automtico enganchado.

c. Un punto geogrfico exacto, que coincide con una altura especifica en la cual una aeronave de no

tener contacto visual debe iniciar una aproximacin frustrada.

269 De acuerdo al RAC, se pierde autonoma para actuar como piloto al mando o copiloto de una aeronave

si en los_____ das precedentes no se han efectuado _____ despegues y aterrizajes.

a. 60 y 3

b. 90 y 3

c. 60 y 2

270 Durante una aproximacin por referencia visual, se espera que:

a. El control ceda su responsabilidad al piloto por ser un vuelo VFR

b. El piloto sea responsable de la separacin con otros trnsitos IFR y VFR

c. El piloto asuma la navegacin pero la separacin VFR/IFR la efectu el ATS.

271 Una aeronave vuela dentro de un FIR con:

a. Altitudes

b. Alturas

c. Niveles de vuelo

272 En una aproximacin IFR, se denomina FAF (Final Approach Fix) al punto donde una aeronave:

a. Inicia la aproximacin intermedia

b. Inicia la maniobra de aproximacin frustrada

c. Se encuentra alineada con la pista para aterrizar

273 Si un vuelo IFR nocturno se realiza en un FIR, ser un vuelo:

a. NO controlado

b. Controlado si las condiciones son IMC

c. NO controlado si las condiciones son VMC

274 La legislacin Area Colombiana se encuentra publicada en:

a. Manual de Reglamentos Aeronuticos

b. Cdigo de comercio

c. AIP de Colombia

275 Si una aeronave militar intercepta una aeronave civil en vuelo y le hace la siguiente seal: Baja tren de

aterrizaje y mantiene luces de aterrizaje encendidos, esto significa:

a. sgame

b. Aterrice aqu

c. Usted esta en peligro. Sgame

276 Un piloto esta en la obligacin de notificar a los servicios ATS respecto a la hora estimada a un punto

de notificacin, cuando exista una diferencia de la que aparece en el plan de vuelo actualizado de:

a. 1 minuto

b. 2 minutos

c. 3 minutos

277 La expresin aeronave OSCAR PAPA significa una aeronave en vuelo de:

a. Operacin VIP presidencial

b. Ambulancia

c. Orden pblico

278 De acuerdo al RAC, el piloto al mando de una aeronave podr desviarse de una autorizacin emitida

por el ATC s:

a. Esta pone en riesgo la seguridad del vuelo.

b. Una situacin de emergencia es declarada

c. a y b son correctas

279 Cuando una aeronave se encuentre en una situacin de emergencia que ponga en peligro la seguridad

de las personas o de las aeronaves y se requiera de tomar medidas que infrinjan los reglamentos o

procedimientos locales, el piloto al mando deber pasar un informe escrito dentro de los siguientes:

a. 5 das

b. 8 das

c. 10 das

280 Para recobro de autonoma como Piloto Comercial de aviones despus de un receso de 90 das, el

tripulante deber efectuar_____ despegues y aterrizajes ante un instructor calificado, en el equipo que

desea recobrar autonoma.

a. 4

b. 3

c. 5

281 El cumplimiento de las normas aeronuticas en Colombia es principal funcin de:

a. El ministerio de transporte

b. La UAEAC

c. La secretara de transporte Areo de Colombia

282 Para actuar como tripulante efectivo de una aeronave en Colombia, se deber tener en posesin

siempre:

a. Licencia Expedida por la Aeronutica Civil de Colombia y Certificado Medico

b. Certificado de Carencia de Estupefacientes y Certificado de antecedentes disciplinarios

c. a y b son correctas

283 Cuando una aeronave se aproxime de frente con otra, las dos variaran su rumbo para evitar una

colisin de acuerdo a los siguientes parmetros:

a. Ambas aeronaves viraran a la derecha

b. Ambas aeronaves viraran a la izquierda

c. La aeronave de mayor envergadura iniciara un ascenso y por consecuente la otra un descenso.

284 De acuerdo a lo establecido en el RAC, excepto cuando sea necesario para el despegue o aterrizaje

de una aeronave o cuando lo autorice la autoridad competente, no se efectuaran vuelos IFR a un nivel

inferior a la altitud mnima establecida de:

a. 2.000 pies por encima del obstculo mas alto en un radio de 5 millas en terreno montaoso.

b. 1.000 pies por encima del obstculo mas alto en un radio de 5 millas en terreno no montaoso.

c. a y b son correctos

285 Las condiciones mnimas de alcance visual en Colombia por encima de 10,000 pies sern de

a. 8 km 5 millas

b. 5 km 3 millas

c. 8 millas 5 kms

286 Cada vez que el piloto al mando de una aeronave ejerza la autoridad de emergencia, deber reportar a

la UAEAC en los siguientes:

a. 5 das hbiles

b. 8 das hbiles

c. 10 das hbiles

287 La responsabilidad de reportar irregularidades mecnicas que ocurran durante el tiempo de vuelo es

de:

a. El piloto al mando

b. El tcnico de mantenimiento

c. El explotador de la aeronave

288 La responsabilidad de que se efecte un prevuelo antes de iniciar un vuelo en una aeronave es de:

a. El piloto al mando

b. El copiloto

c. El tcnico de mantenimiento

289 El reglamento del aire es parte de:

a. El Manual de Operaciones de Vuelo de un operador

b. El Reglamento Aeronutico de Colombia

c. El Manual de Reglamentos Aeronuticos

290 Se define como hora prevista de aproximacin:

a. Hora en la que el ATC prev que una aeronave que llega despus de experimentar una demora,

abandone el fijo de espera para completar su aproximacin, a fin de aterrizar

b. La hora en la cual se estima que una aeronave aterrice en su aeropuerto de destino

c. Ninguna de las anteriores

291 La altura mnima de decisin para una aproximacin ILS categora I es igual:

a. 100 pies

b. 200 pies

c. 250 pies

292 Se considera como aproximacin de precisin:

a. ILS

b. VOR DME

c. Contacto radar

293 Si volamos en condiciones VMC queremos decir que:

a. Estamos en condiciones de vuelo visual y volando IMC

b. Estamos en condiciones de vuelo visual y nuestro plan de vuelo puede ser IFR

c. Todas las respuestas anteriores son ciertas

294 If on an IFR flight plan, you are advised to be in radar contact, you must:

a. Obey all instructions from ATC regardless

b. Obey all instructions from ATC only while in cloud

c. Follow all possible instructions and advise ATC when unable to comply.

295 When flying a commercial route you are familiar with and you are in congested airspace, you may

instead of reading back all clearances and instructions repetitively simply:

a. Say Roger to ATC without repeating your call sign or flight number again, once you know ATC

recognizes your voice

b. Simply click your mike when answering obvious things to ATC. So as to not congest the frequency

c. Read back all clearances including your call sign and or flight # even if this is going to congest the

frequency even more.

296 You must advice ATC if you cannot climb or descent to your assigned altitude if you cannot maintain at

least:

a. No restriction if cleared at pilot discretion

b. 500 ft on climb and 1.500 ft on descent

c. 500 FPM

297 An IFR clearance must include the following:

a. Dep. Airport, aircraft ID. Flight level and route

b. Only the aircraft ID and transponder code if advised as filed on a passenger carrying

c. Aircraft ID, Clearance limit, Dep. Procedure, route and transponder code

298 You are expected to read back clearances containing altitude assignments, radar vectors or any

instructions requiring verification:

a. True

b. False

c. As well as those containing wind direction and intensity

299 If while on a hold and this is not your IAF, you lose 2 way voice communications, you should:

a. Leave the hold at the EFC time

b. Immediately fly in VMC and land as soon as possible

c. Stay on the hold until your EAT

300 You filed from SKBO to SKMD W23-ABL-W36-FELIX-W25-RNG. Just before ABL you experience 2

way Com. Failure and just before this you were told to fly ABL Direct RNG. With regards to the correct

route to fly you should:

a. Maintain present course and filed altitude until Com is reestablished

b. Continue your flight route as per original flight plan as it was read back on ground to clearance delivery

before takeoff.

c. As you cross ABL, fly direct RNG

301 During preflight of a transport category aircraft that undergoes a progressive maintenance program the

ELT should:

a. Tested and when done, ensure the switch is selected to ARMED

b. Tested by selecting 243 mhz on the radio and listening for a tone when the switch is selected to ON

c. Selected to ARMED and if absolutely necessary to test, it should only be done by selecting it to ON for

no more than 3 seconds during ONLY the first 5 minutes of every hour

302 Sealar lo que es cierto

a. El MMEL (Master MEL) lo prepara el explotador

b. El MEL es ms restrictivo que el MMEL (Master MEL)

c. El MEL es preparado por el explotador del avin

303 Which report should be made to ATC without a specific request when not in radar contact?

a. Entering instrument meteorological conditions.

b. When leaving final approach fix inbound on final approach.

c. Correcting an E.T.A. any time a previous E.T.A. is in error in excess of 2 minutes.

304 For which speed variation should you notify ATC?

a. When the ground speed changes more than 5 knots.

b. When the average true airspeed changes 5 percent or 10 knots, whichever is greater.

c. Any time the ground speed changes 10 MPH.

305 What does declaring minimum fuel to ATC imply?

a. Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport.

b. Emergency handling is required to the nearest useable airport.

c. Merely an advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should any undue delay occur.

306 When ATC has not imposed any climb or descent restrictions and aircraft are within 1,000 feet of

assigned altitude, pilots should attempt to both climb and descend at a rate of between

a. 500 feet per minute and 1,000 feet per minute.

b. 500 feet per minute and 1,500 feet per minute.

c. 1,000 feet per minute and 2,000 feet per minute.

307 For IFR planning purposes, what are the compulsory reporting points when using VOR/DME or

VORTAC fixes to define a direct route not on established airways?

a. Fixes selected to define the route.

b. There are no compulsory reporting points unless advised by ATC.

c. At the changeover points.

308 What action should you take if your No. 1 VOR receiver malfunctions while operating in controlled

airspace under IFR? Your aircraft is equipped with two VOR receivers. The No. 1 receiver has

VOR/Localizer/Glide Slope capability, and the No. 2 has only VOR/Localizer capability.

a. Report the malfunction immediately to ATC.

b. Continue the flight as cleared, no report is required.

c. Continue the approach and request a VOR or NDB approach.

309 During an IFR flight in IMC, a distress condition is encountered, (fire, mechanical, or structural failure).

The pilot should

a. Not hesitate to declare an emergency and obtain an amended clearance.

b. Wait until the situation is immediately perilous before declaring an emergency.

c. Contact ATC and advise that an urgency condition exists and request priority consideration.

310 During the en route phase of an IFR flight, the pilot is advised Radar service terminated. What action

is appropriate?

a. Set transponder to code 1200.

b. Resume normal position reporting

c. Activate the IDENT feature of the transponder to re-establish radar contact.

311 During an IFR flight in IMC, you enter a holding pattern (at a fix that is not the same as the approach

fix) with an EFC time of 1530. At 1520 you experience complete two-way communications failure.

Which procedure should you follow to execute the approach to a landing?

a. Depart the holding fix to arrive at the approach fix as close as possible to the EFC time and complete

the approach.

b. Depart the holding fix at the EFC time, and complete the approach.

c. Depart the holding fix at the earliest of the flight planned ETA or the EFC time, and complete the

approach.

312 Which procedure should you follow if you experience two-way communications failure while holding at

a holding fix with an EFC time? (The holding fix is not the same as the approach fix.)

a. Depart the holding fix to arrive at the approach fix as close as possible to the EFC time.

b. Depart the holding fix at the EFC time.

c. Proceed immediately to the approach fix and hold until EFC.

313 Which procedure should you follow if, during an IFR flight in VFR conditions, you have two-way radio

communications failure?

a. Continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable.

b. Continue the flight at assigned altitude and route, start approach at your ETA, or, if late, start approach

upon arrival.

c. Land at the nearest airport that has VFR conditions.

314 What altitude and route should be used if you are flying in IMC and have two-way radio

communications failure?

a. Continue on the route specified in your clearance, fly at an altitude that is the highest of last assigned

altitude, altitude ATC has informed you to expect, or the MEA.

b. Fly direct to an area that has been forecast to have VFR conditions, fly at an altitude that is at least

1,000 feet above the highest obstacles along the route.

c. Descend to MEA and, if clear of clouds, proceed to the nearest appropriate airport. If not clear of

clouds, maintain the highest of the MEAs along the clearance route.

315 In the event of two way radio communications failure while operating on an IFR clearance in VFR

conditions the pilot should continue

a. By the route assigned in the last ATC clearance received.

b. The flight under VFR and land as soon as practical.

c. The flight by the most direct route to the fix specified in the last clearance.

316 While flying on an IFR flight plan, you experience two-way communications radio failure while in VFR

conditions. In this situation, you should continue your flight under

a. VFR and land as soon as practicable.

b. VFR and proceed to your flight plan destination.

c. IFR and maintain the last assigned route and altitude to your flight plan destination.

317 What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads ... CRUISE SIX THOUSAND ...?

a. The pilot must maintain 6,000 feet until reaching the IAF serving the destination airport, then execute

the published approach procedure.

b. Climbs may be made to, or descents made from, 6,000 feet at the pilots discretion.

c. The pilot may utilize any altitude from the MEA/MOCA to 6,000 feet, but each change in altitude must

be reported to ATC.

318 What is the recommended climb procedure when a nonradar departure control instructs a pilot to climb

to the assigned altitude?

a. Maintain a continuous optimum climb until reaching assigned altitude and report passing each 1,000

foot level.

b. Climb at a maximum angle of climb to within 1,000 feet of the assigned altitude, then 500 feet per

minute the last 1,000 feet.

c. Maintain an optimum climb on the centerline of the airway without intermediate level offs until 1,000 feet

below assigned altitude, then 500 to 1500 feet per minute.

319 When departing from an airport not served by a control tower, the issuance of a clearance containing a

void time indicates that

a. ATC will assume the pilot has not departed if no transmission is received before the void time.

b. The pilot must advise ATC as soon as possible, but no later than 30 minutes, of their intentions if not off

by the void time.

c. ATC will protect the airspace only to the void time.

320 What response is expected when ATC issues an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?

a. Read back the entire clearance as required by regulation.

b. Read back those parts containing altitude assignments or vectors and any part requiring verification.

c. Read-back should be unsolicited and spontaneous to confirm that the pilot understands all instructions.

321 Which clearance items are always given in an abbreviated IFR departure clearance? (Assume radar

environment.)

a. Altitude, destination airport, and one or more fixes which identify the initial route of flight.

b. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name, Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

c. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

322 On the runup pad, you receive the following clearance from ground control: CLEARED TO THE

DALLAS-LOVE AIRPORT AS FILED--MAINTAIN SIX THOUSAND--SQUAWK ZERO SEVEN ZERO

FOUR JUST BEFORE DEPARTURE--DEPARTURE CONTROL WILL BE ONE TWO FOUR POINT

NINER. An abbreviated clearance, such as this, will always contain the

a. Departure control frequency.

b. Destination airport and route.

c. Requested enroute altitude.

323 When may ATC request a detailed report of an emergency even though a rule has not been violated?

a. When priority has been given.

b. Any time an emergency occurs.

c. When the emergency occurs in controlled airspace.

324 Which clearance procedures may be issued by ATC without prior pilot request?

a. DPs, STARs, and contact approaches.

b. Contact and visual approaches.

c. DPs, STARs, and visual approaches.

325 What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads ...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...?

a. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching the IAF serving the destination airport, then execute the

published approach procedure.

b. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000.

c. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including

6,000, but each change in altitude must be reported to ATC.

326 A CRUISE FOUR THOUSAND FEET clearance would mean that the pilot is authorized to

a. Vacate 4,000 feet without notifying ATC.

b. Climb to, but not descend from 4,000 feet, without further ATC clearance.

c. Use any altitude from minimum IFR to 4,000 feet, but must report leaving each altitude.

327 While on an IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance.

What action must be taken?

a. Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as possible.

b. Squawk 7700 for the duration of the emergency.

c. Submit a detailed report to the chief of the ATC facility within 48 hours.

328 An abbreviated departure clearance ...CLEARED AS FILED... will always contain the name

a. And number of the STAR to be flown when filed in the flight plan.

b. Of the destination airport filed in the flight plan.

c. Of the first compulsory reporting point if not in a radar environment

329 14 CFR part 1 defines VLE as

a. Maximum landing gear extended speed.

b. Maximum landing gear operating speed.

c. Maximum leading edge flaps extended speed.

330 14 CFR part 1 defines VNE as

a. Maximum landing gear extended speed.

b. Never-exceed speed.

c. Maximum nose wheel extend speed.

331 14 CFR part 1 defines VY as

a. Speed for best rate of descent.

b. Speed for best angle of climb.

c. Speed for best rate of climb.

332 Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the

airplane is controllable?

a. VS.

b. VS1.

c. VSO.

333 Define Calibrated Air Speed?

a. Normal operating speed.

b. Is the indicated airspeed corrected for instrument errors, position error

c. Speed corrected by Warm climate.

334 14 CFR part 1 defines VF as

a. Design flap speed.

b. Flap operating speed.

c. Maximum flap extended speed.

335 Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed in a specified

configuration?

a. VS.

b. VS1.

c. VSO.

336 Which airspeed would a pilot be unable to identify by the color coding of an airspeed indicator?

a. The never-exceed speed.

b. The power-off stall speed.

c. The maneuvering speed.

337 If a standard rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 360?

a. 1 minute.

b. 2 minutes.

c. 3 minutes.

338 To determine pressure altitude prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to

a. The current altimeter setting.