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32105 i
mmL )1(2
ss msmssmsmS )1(2
for s=141421.12 S
1,0,1 sm
for EM-wavestotal energy density:
21
2
21212
21
0
0
00
B
E
Eu B
maxmax
0
0
21
1
BE
BE
s
s
# of photons
wave number vector: kp
01
22
2
2
2
mc
tcthe Klein-Gordon equation:
)(),()(
puesx sxpi
for FREE ELECTRONS
electrons positrons
)(),()(
pvesx sxpi
±1 or 1,2
u va spinor
satisfying:
0)( umcp u 0)( umcp
v
Note for each: with
p
c
Ep
; 2242 cpcmE
i.e. we write ),()( pEupv ss s E,p for u3, u4
Notice: now we express all terms of the “physical” (positive) energy of positrons!
(or any Dirac, i.e. spin ½ particle: muons, taus, quarks)
tistisrk
s
ehveguedk
tr
2)2(),(
3
3
The most GENERAL solutions will be LINEAR COMBINATIONS
s
s sdk3 k g h
linear expansion coefficients
Insisting {(r,t), (r´,t)}= {†(r,t), †(r´,t)}=0(in recognition of the Pauli exclusion principal), or, equivalently:
{(r,t), †(r´,t)} =3(r – r)respecting the condition on Fourier conjugate fields:
forces the g, h to obey the same basic commutation relation (in the “conjugate” momentum space)
)(),(),,( 3 kkskhskg
where gg(k,s), hh(k,s),
the gg(k,s), hh(k,s) “coefficients” cannot simple be numbers!
tistisrk
s
evheugedk
tr
3
3
2)2(
),(
s
s sdk3 k g h
††
tistisrk
s
ehveguedk
tr
2)2(),(
3
3
s
s sdk3 k g h
(x) = ue-ixp/h
u(p)
1
0
cpz
E+mc2
c(px+ipy)E+mc2
0
1
c(pxipy)E+mc2
cpz
Emc2
1
0
cpz
Emc2
c(px+ipy)
Emc2
1
0
c(pxipy)Emc2
cpz
Emc2
This form automatically satisfied the Klein-Gordon equation.
But the appearance of the Dirac spinorsmeans the factoring effort isolated what
very special class of particles?
We were able to solve Dirac’s (free particle) Equation by looking forsolutions of the form:
u(p) a “spinor” describing either spin up or down components
What about vector (spin 1) particles?
Again try to look for solutions of the form
(x) = (p)e-i xp/h
Polarization vector (again characterizing SPIN somehow)
but by just returning to the Dirac-factored form of the Klein-Gordon equation, will we learn anything new?
What about MASSLESS vector particles? (the photon!)
01
22
2
2
2
mc
tc
01 2
2
2
2
tcbecomes: or
22
2
2
1
tc
2 = 0
Where the d’Alembertian operator: 2
The fundamental mediators offorces: the VECTOR BOSONS
the Klein-Gordon equation:
2 = 0is a differential equation you have already
solved in Mechanics and E & M
Classical Electrodynamics J.D.Jackson (Wiley)derives the relativistic (4-vector) expressions for Maxwells’ equations
0
0
1
tB
cE
B
can both be guaranteed
by introducing thescalar V and vector A
“potentials” tA
cVE
AB
1
which form a 4-vector: (V;A)along with the charge and current densities: (c;J)
Then the single relation:
JB
E
ctE
c
41
4
JAA
c
4)( completely summarizes:
Potentials can be changed by a constant for example, the arbitrary assignmentof zero gravitational potential energy( )
leaving everything invariant.or even AA
In solving problems this gives us the flexibility to “adjust” potentials for our convenience
The Lorentz Gauge The Coulomb Gauge A A
0 0
In the Lorentz Gauge:
JAAc
4)( JAc
40
and a FREE PHOTON satisfies:
0A
The VECTOR POTENTIAL from E&M isthe wave function in quantum mechanics
for the free photon!
a “vector particle” with 4 components (V;A)
so continuing (with our assumed form of a solution)/)( xipaexA
(p)
like the Dirac u,a polarization vectorcharacterizing spin
Substituting into our specialized Klein-Gordon equation:(for massless vector particles)
0A0
pp
022 p
cE
E2=p2c2
just as it should for a massless particle!
only for free photons
/)( xipaexA (p)
Like we saw with the Dirac u before, has components!
How many? 4
A = 0
The Lorentz gauge constrains A0 p = 0
p00.p = 0
while the Coulomb Gauge p = 0which you shouldrecognize as the
familiar conditionon em waves
but not all of them are independent!
Obviously only 2 of these 3-dim vectors can be linearly independent such that p = 0
Why can’t we have a basis of 3 distinct polarization directions?We’re trying to describe spin 1 particles! (mspin = 1, 0, 1)
spin 1 particles: mspin = 1 , 0 , +1alignedanti-
aligned
The m=0 imposes a harsher constraint (adding yet another zero to all the constraints on the previous page!)
The masslessness of our vector particle implies ???v = c
In the photon’s own framelongitudinal distances collapse.
How can you distinguish mspin = 1 ?
Furthermore: with no frame travelingfaster than c, can never change a ’s spin by changing frames.
What 2 independent polarizations are then possible?
tistisrki eCeCedk
trA
213
3
2)2(),(
The most general solution: s where s = 1, 2 or s = 1
titisrki eCeCedk
trA
213
3
2)2(),(
moving forward moving backward
Notice here: no separate ANTI-PARTICLE (just one kind of particle with 2 spin states)Massless force carriers have no anti-particles.
Finding a Klein-Gordon Lagrangian
022 cmpp
0222 cm
xii
2
The Klein-Gordon Equation02
22
cm
or
Provided we can identify the appropriatethis should be derivable by
The Euler-Lagrange Equation
0
)(
i
i
L
L L
2
22
21
2
1
mc
tcL
I claim the expression
2
2
2
1
mc
xx
2
2
2
1
mc
serves this purpose
2
2
002
1
mczzyyxx
0
)(
i
i
L LL
0000
0 2
1
)(
tc
xxxx
x
x
)(2
1
)(
L L
L L
2
222
2
1
cm L
02
mc
You can show (and will for homework!) show the Dirac Equation can be derived from:
)( 2mci LDIRAC(r,t)
We might expect a realistic Lagrangian that involves systems of particles
= LK-G + LDIRAC L(r,t)describes
e+e objectsdescribesphotons
)()(),( 2221 mitr
but each termdescribes free
non-interactingparticles
L+ LINT
But what does terms look like?How do we introduce the interactions the experience?
We’ll follow (Jackson) E&M’s lead:
A charge interacts with a field through:
)(INT AJV
L);(
);(
AVA
JJ
AJ
current-field interactions
the fermion(electron)
the boson(photon) field
Ae )(INT L from the Dirac
expression for J
antiparticle(hermitian conjugate)
state
particlestate
What does such a PRODUCT of states mean?
Recall the “state functions”Have coefficients that must
satisfy anticommutation relations.They must involve operators!