Focus2 Test Ans

Science Focus 2 TEST Chapter 1: Science skills

© Pearson Education Australia (a division of Pearson Australia Group Pty Ltd) 2005.

This page from the Science Focus 2 Teacher’s Resource may be photocopied for classroom use.

Name: _______________________ Class: __________ Date: _______

Instructions: Write answers in the right-hand column. Score: ___________ / 54 marks

Section A − Multiple choice (14 marks)

1 Which statement best describes scientists?

A Scientists are people who wear white coats and thick glasses. B Scientists are people who work in laboratories. C Scientists investigate new substances made by mixing different chemicals. D Scientists ask ‘What, why and how?’ and use written resources and

experiments to find answers.

D 1

2 A micrometer is A a very accurate watch or timer used to measure small time intervals. B an electrical meter used to measure tiny electric currents. C a device that measures the thickness of objects to within a fraction of a

millimetre. D a miniature test tube.

C 1

3 The reading on the scale below is

A 0.56 B 0.65 C 5.56 D 5.65

D 1




4 A series of experiments investigating one topic is called A observation. B research. C explanation. D hypothesis.

B 1

5 A Year 8 student is designing an experiment to test the effect of variables when cooking a pizza.

Which of the following is the least logical variable for this experiment? A The size of each pizza base. B The length of time the pizza is in the oven. C The day of the week on which the experiment is performed. D The temperature of the oven.

C 1

6 Which statement about observations is correct? A Observations are always quantitative. B Observations are things you see. C Observations involve some guesswork. D Observations may be made with any of the five senses.

D 1

7 The match below is approximately

A 4.0 cm long. B 4.2 cm long. C 4.4 cm long. D 4.5 cm long.

B 1




8 Which is the odd one out? A Mistake. B Parallax error. C Human reaction time. D Instrument error.

A 1

9 A measurement thought to be between 20 and 30 mm may be written as A 15 ± 5 mm. B 25 ± 5 mm. C 20 ± 10 mm. D 30 ± 10 mm.

B 1

10 A bibliography is A a list of resources used to gather information. B the study of information in the Bible. C a diagram in a scientific report. D a scientific reference book.

A 1

11 When plotting a graph of results, the independent variable A should be plotted on the horizontal axis. B should be plotted on the vertical axis. C may be plotted on either the horizontal or vertical axis. D is the heading for the graph.

A 1

12 In the graph below, as t increases, then B

A doubles. B more than doubles. C increases then levels out. D decreases.

C 1




13 Which of the following is not a prefix? A Kilo. B Centi. C Joules. D Nano.

C 1

14 A megagram is equal to A a kilogram. B 1 tonne. C one-thousandth of a gram. D one-millionth of a gram.

B 1

Section B − Written answers (40 marks)

1 Identify four well-known inventions.

Various answers (four required), eg computer, Velcro, satellites, ball point pen, light bulb, telephone, mobile phone, clock.

4

2 Define the two terms:

a qualitative observation.

b quantitative observation.

a Observation that can be written in words but not numbers.

b Observation that is stated using numbers.

2

3 Identify four possible variables in an experiment that tests the effect of a Bunsen burner flame on a beaker containing water.

The amount of water in the beaker.

The size of the beaker.

The type of Bunsen burner flame used.

The length of time the water is heated.

The purity of the water.

2




4 Brad uses a bread-making machine every morning, to bake a loaf of bread for his family’s breakfast. There are only three ingredients specified on the bread mix packet:

yeast (1.5 teaspoons), bread mix (3 cups) and water (1 cup). He uses the built-in timer to control how long the bread is cooked.

a List the variables in Brad’s bread making.

b Explain how Brad could test the effect of slightly changing the amount of yeast and water, on the final product.

a Amount of yeast, amount of bread mix, amount of water, cooking time.

b Alter the amount of yeast (eg to 1 or 2 teaspoons), but keep everything else the same, and bake a loaf. For another loaf, alter the amount of water (eg to 34 cup or 1 14 cups), but keep everything else (including amount of yeast) the same as the recipe states. Have a control – a loaf to the original mixture for comparisons.

6

5 Identify two examples of estimates.

Various answers, eg the number of people at a football match, the height of a tall tree, age of your teacher.

2

6 a Illustrate the position of an eye so the correct measurement may be read below.

b What is the correct reading?

a

b 52 mL.

2

7 Identify examples of

a an instrument error.

b a human reaction time error.

a A metal ruler expands on a hot day.

b A person takes time to react before starting or stopping a timer.

2




8 Calculate the average number of goals per game scored by a player if she scored 3, 6, 2, 4 and 15 goals in five games.

Average = (3 + 6 + 2 + 4 + 15) ÷ 5

= 30 ÷ 5

= 6 goals

2

9 Identify the main features of a scientific report.

Heading/date/partners

Aim Hypothesis (optional)

Equipment/materials used

Method

Results/observations

Discussion/analysis

Conclusion Possibly a bibliography

7

10 Recall a how many litres are in a gigalitre.

b what a micrometre is.

a 1 000 000

b 1 millionth of a metre.

2




11 The graph below shows the temperature of a room after a heater has been operating for a given time.

a Calculate the temperature of the

room when you turned on the heater.

b Calculate the temperature in the room after the heater had been on for 15 minutes.

c Calculate how long the heater had been on when the temperature was 20°C.

d Use the graph to predict the room temperature after 1 hour.

a 10°C.

b 17 to 18°C.

c approximately 23 minutes.

d about 23°C.

4

12 a Plot the following grass growth data on the grid provided.

30513215730(mm)Height 302520151050Day

b Draw a line of best fit through

your points to show any pattern that exists.

c Predict when the grass was mown.

a, b

c Between day 25 and day 30.

5

Science Focus 2 TEST Chapter 2: Atoms



Name: _______________________ Class: __________ Date: _______



1 Which of the following is an element?

A Carbon. B Paper. C Plastic. D Sugar.

A 1

2 The chemical symbol for sodium is A S B So C Na D No

C 1

3 An element is a A chemical obtained from mineral ore. B pure substance made up of only one type of atom. C group of different atoms bonded together. D synthetic substance created in the laboratory.

B 1

4 The symbol K denotes A copper. B cobalt. C polonium. D potassium.

D 1

5 Pure water is made up of numerous A atoms. B spheres. C molecules. D compounds.

C 1




6 Quartz has the chemical formula SiO2. This means that in quartz

A for every atom of silicon, there are 2 atoms of oxygen. B for every atom of oxygen, there are 2 atoms of silicon. C silicon and oxygen form groups, containing two of each type of atom. D one atom of silicon bonds with one atom of oxygen, to make a group

containing two atoms.

A 1

7 Which of the following is a chemical change? A Sawdust is produced from wood being cut by a power saw. B Water freezes to form ice. C Fireworks explode in a colourful display. D Juice is obtained from an orange.

C 1

8 A combination reaction is best described as one in which A a substance is broken down to form two or more different substances. B a new substance is formed by the combination of two or more substances. C an insoluble, sometimes colourful, solid is formed from two liquids. D a substance reacts with oxygen.

B 1

9 A chemical reaction may be sped up by A using more concentrated reactants. B heating the reactants. C using more finely ground reactants. D all of the above.

D 1

10 A catalyst A speeds up a chemical reaction without actually combining with reactants. B dissolves chemicals that water is unable to. C is one of the ‘ingredients’ in a chemical reaction. D is a large molecule that is broken down by a smaller one.

A 1

11 In the chemical reaction: iron + sulfur → iron sulfide A iron and sulfur are products. B iron sulfide is the product. C iron, sulfur and iron sulfide are products. D sulfide is the product.

B 1




12 Which of the following famous scientists is not known for their theory of atomic structure? A Dalton. B Thomson. C Rutherford. D Newton.

D 1

13 An atom consists of A a nucleus containing neutrons and protons, surrounded by fast-moving

electrons. B central neutrons, surrounded by fast-moving electrons and protons. C central electrons, surrounded by fast-moving protons. D a mixture of protons and electrons spread evenly in a neutral ‘dough’.

A 1

14 An atom of 919F contains

A 19 protons and 9 electrons. B 9 protons, 9 electrons and 10 neutrons. C 10 protons, 9 neutrons and 9 electrons. D 9 protons, 19 neutrons and 10 electrons.

B 1

15 A phosphorus atom has an atomic number of 15. How many electrons does it have in its third (outermost) shell? A 0 B 2 C 5 D 8

C 1





1 Define each of the following.

a Element.

b Atom.

c Molecule.

d Compound.

e Mixture.

a A pure substance (made of one type of atom).

b The smallest part of an element.

c A group of atoms bonded together.

d A substance made of one type of molecule.

e Made of two or more elements, or two or more compounds, or a combination of both.

5

2 a Sketch a molecule of NH3.

b Identify the following formula.

a b CO2.

2

3 Identify and name the elements whose symbols are given below.

a Al

b Ca

c Au

d He

e O

f Mg

g Kr

h Pb

i S

j Zn

a Aluminium.

b Calcium.

c Gold.

d Helium.

e Oxygen.

f Magnesium

g Krypton.

h Lead.

i Sulfur.

j Zinc.

5




4 Identify the symbol for each of the following.

a Hydrogen.

b Chlorine.

c Silver.

d Neon.

e Europium.

f Boron.

g Iodine.

h Iron.

i Tin.

j Carbon.

a H

b Cl

c Ag

d Ne

e Eu

f B

g I

h Fe

i Sn

j C

5

5 Identify four examples of a physical change.

Various answers, eg ice melting, sharpening a pencil, dissolving sugar, grinding metal.

4

6 Identify four examples of a chemical change.

Various answers, eg iron rusting, meat cooking, wood burning, compost rotting, steam condensing.

4

7 Classify each reaction below as one of the following:

combination, decomposition, precipitation, combustion

a Methane burns in a Bunsen burner.

b Light breaks down silver chloride to form silver and chlorine.

c A solid forms when two liquids are mixed.

d Copper reacts with oxygen to form copper oxide.

a Combustion.

b Decomposition.

c Precipitation.

d Combination.

4




8 Complete each of the following chemical reactions.

a Lead nitrate + potassium iodide → lead iodide + ________ ________

b Zinc + copper chloride → ________ ________ + ________

c Iron + chlorine → ________ ________

a Lead nitrate + potassium iodide →lead iodide + potassium nitrate

b Zinc + copper chloride → zinc chloride + copper

c Iron + chlorine → iron chloride

3

9 Define each of the following in relation to a chemical reaction.

a (s)

b (l)

c (g)

d (aq)

a Solid.

b Liquid.

c Gas.

d Aqueous (spread throughout water).

4

10 Define an enzyme. A catalyst used within our bodies to break down large molecules and hence speed up digestion.

2

11 Identify three ways a chemical reaction may be sped up.

Any three of the following.

• Use more concentrated chemicals.

• Raise the temperature.

• Increase the surface area of the reactants.

• Use a catalyst (helper chemical).

3

12 Clarify by drawing a diagram the parts of an atom of lithium which has 3 protons, 4 neutrons and 3 electrons.

Show the charge (if any) on each type of particle.

4




13 Copper may be denoted by Cu6429 .

Calculate how many of each of the following are in one atom of copper.

a Neutrons.

b Electrons.

c Protons.

a 35

b 29

c 29

3

14 Yttrium may be denoted by Y89 39 .

Calculate the a mass number of yttrium.

b atomic number of yttrium.

a 89

b 39

2

15 An atom of oxygen contains 8 electrons. Calculate the number of electrons in the

a innermost shell of an atom of oxygen.

b outer shell of an atom of oxygen.

a 2

b 6

2

Science Focus 2 TEST Chapter 3: Microbes



Name: _______________________ Class: __________ Date: _______



1 The scientifically correct name for ‘germs’ is

A bugs. B disease. C flu. D microbes.

D 1

2 A scientist who studies microorganisms is known as a A microbiologist. B biologist. C microgeologist. D doctor.

A 1

3 Which of the following microbes may be seen with the naked eye? A Viruses. B Bacteria. C Fungi. D Protozoa.

C 1

4 What instrument magnifies objects up to 100 000 times? A Light microscope. B Electron microscope. C Magnifying glass. D Digital camera.

B 1

5 Bacteria are used to make A yogurt. B wine. C bread. D butter.

A 1




6 The common mushroom is an example of a A virus. B bacterium. C fungus. D plant.

C 1

7 The tiny hairs used by some protists to move around are called A flagella. B cilia. C pseudopod. D hair.

B 1

8 AIDS is caused by a A virus. B bacterium. C fungus. D protist.

A 1

9 Which fungi do we use to make food and drink such as bread, cereals, wine and beer? A Mould. B Mushrooms. C Flour. D Yeast.

D 1

10 Bacteria and protists reproduce by cell division or A binary fusion. B cellular changes. C primary fission. D binary fission.

A 1




11 Some bacteria can undergo binary fission in as little as 20 minutes, and in seven hours will become a colony of over A 100 B 10 000 C 100 000 D 1 000 000

D 1

12 Bacteria grow and reproduce very rapidly only when the conditions are right. These conditions are A warm and dry. B cold and dry. C warm and moist. D cold and moist.

C 1

13 Identify the chemicals or drugs that kill bacteria. A Biotics. B Antibiotics. C Aspirin. D Antifungicides.

B 1

14 The capsule called a sporangium holds A spores. B eggs. C pollen. D sporangs.

A 1

15 Viruses are only able to reproduce inside a A human cell. B plant cell. C bacterium. D host cell.

D 1




16 These two microbe groups are more foe than friend. A Fungi and protists. B Viruses and bacteria. C Bacteria and fungi. D Protists and viruses.

D 1

17 Bacteria carried by fleas caused the death of one quarter of the population of Europe in the 1300s. This period is called A the Black Years. B the Black Death. C the Black Flea Deaths. D the Black European Plague.

B 1

18 The fungal disease tinea is also known as A athlete’s foot. B toe jam. C ring worm. D thrush.

A 1

19 In 1928, Alexander Fleming discovered the mould that produces A aspirin. B insulin. C penicillin. D bactrum.

C 1

20 The process whereby yeast feeds on the sugar (glucose) in fruit, vegetables or cereal grains to produce carbon dioxide gas is called A glucosis. B fermentation. C aerobic respiration. D binary fission.

B 1





1 Identify the microbes that can be seen

with a

a light microscope.

b electron microscope.

a Protists, bacteria and fungi.

b Viruses, protists, bacteria and fungi.

3

2 Identify the coarse focus, base, stage, eye piece, objective lens and mirror on the following diagram of a microscope.

6

3 Classify each of the following statements as true or false

a 1 centimetre = 0.01 metre

b 1 nanometre can be written as 1 mm.

c Fungi can only be seen with a microscope.

d An electron microscope is needed to see viruses.

e Bacteria are about 1 micrometre in size.

a True.

b False – 1 nm.

c False – seen with human eye.

d True.

e True.

5

4 The human body is home to many bacteria. Identify three areas of the body where they may be found.

Nose, skin, blood, intestines, mouth etc.

3




5 Describe how fungi feed and what function they play in the natural cycles of the environment.

They feed on dead and decaying material, helping return nutrients to the natural cycles. They are decomposers.

2

6 a Explain why the protist euglena is plant-like.

b Describe how euglena can move in water.

a Euglena is plant-like because it contains chloroplasts (or chlorophyll) and uses sunlight to made glucose (or perform photosynthesis).

b They can move rapidly using their whip-like tails or flagella.

4

7 Identify each type of bacteria shown by their shape using the following labels.

a Cocci.

b Bacilli.

c Spirilla.

3

8 Label the following structure of a virus.

3




9 Explain why care must be taken when performing experiments with bacteria or fungi.

Some students may have allergies to the bacteria or fungi used or produced by the experiments.

Bacteria and fungi can cause disease and must be handled with care.

2

10 Explain why you can become sick very quickly when even a single bacterium invades your body.

In only a few hours a single bacterium will begin to reproduce and become millions! And the more bacteria there are, the sicker you get. Your body is the perfect home for them – warm with lots of food available.

4

11 Identify the three conditions needed by bacteria to reproduce.

All bacteria need moist and warm environments. They also need a correct food source.

3

12 Draw a diagram to show how bacteria reproduce.

3

13 Define an antibiotic. Antibiotics are chemicals or drugs that kill bacteria.

2

14 Label the diagram of a fungus to show the following structures:

spores, sporangium, hyphae

4




15 Summarise how a virus reproduces. Viruses reproduce inside a host cell. They attach to the outside of a cell then enter it. They take control of the cell, making it produce new viruses. The host cell is killed when it bursts open to release the newly made viruses. These viruses then infect new cells.

6

16 Explain how vaccinations work. Vaccinations ‘infect’ you with something very similar to a virus – usually a modified virus or a harmless virus that is very similar in shape to the nasty one. Your body then makes antibodies that protect you from the real disease.

6

17 Explain why decomposition by bacteria is not always a good thing when it comes to your food.

If bacteria infect your food and decompose it they produce poisonous chemicals called toxins. If you eat the food, these toxins can make you violently ill. This is known as food poisoning.

3

18 Identify one place where decomposition by bacteria is a good thing.

Compost. 1

19 Some bacteria can destroy food while others are used to make it. Identify three foods that are made using bacteria.

Yogurt, yogurt drinks and cheese. 3

20 Identify three foods that use the fungus yeast in their production.

Bread, wine and beer. 3

21 Contrast aerobic and anaerobic respiration.

Aerobic respiration requires oxygen while anaerobic occurs in the absence of oxygen.

2




22 a Write a word equation for fermentation.

b Both wine and champagne are produced by fermentation. Explain why wine is flat while champagne is bubbly.

a Glucose → carbon dioxide + alcohol (ethanol) + energy

b The carbon dioxide gas in wine is allowed to escape before the wine is put in the bottle. The champagne is fermented in the bottle, trapping the bubbles in the champagne and making it bubbly.

3

Science Focus 2 TEST Chapter 4: Body systems



Name: _______________________ Class: __________ Date: _______



1 Which of the following is not a type of tooth?

A Molar. B Pre-molar. C Canine. D Scissor.

D 1

2 The crown of a tooth is the A tip. B space in the jaw in which the tooth sits. C part of the tooth above the gum. D inner cavity of the tooth.

C 1

3 Which of the following is the odd one out? A Digestive tract. B Gut. C Alimentary canal. D Kidney.

D 1

4 How much fluid does the digestive system produce each day? A 1 L B 2 L C 8 L D 16 L

C 1

5 Peristalsis is A the chewing of food in the mouth. B the contraction and relaxation of muscles that moves food through the

alimentary canal. C the absorption of broken-down food into the bloodstream. D the clumping together of faeces in the large intestine.

B 1




6 Which of the following is/are not found in the digestive system? A Perpoofer valve. B Sphincters. C Villi. D Chyme.

A 1

7 The liver may be described as A a J-shaped organ. B a chemical factory. C the smallest digestive organ. D the longest organ.

B 1

8 The scientific name for released digestive gases is A sulfur dioxide. B flatus. C fartus. D odourus unpleasantus.

B 1

9 When matter is moved more slowly than usual through the digestive system, which of the following is more likely to occur? A Diarrhoea. B Heartburn. C Constipation. D Vomiting.

C 1

10 The tiny filtration units in your kidneys are called A nephrons. B filtrons. C urinators. D ureters.

A 1

11 Dialysis is the medical term for A a kidney transplant. B kidney failure. C filtering of blood by a machine. D a build-up of poisonous wastes in the blood.

C 1




12 Kidney stones can cause extreme pain. A recently developed method to eliminate kidney stones uses A ultrasound. B lasers. C chemicals. D surgery.

A 1

13 The function of plasma is to A fight infection. B carry carbon dioxide. C carry the red blood cells, white blood cells and platelets around the body. D determine blood type.

C 1

14 The pulmonary vein carries A deoxygenated blood to the lungs. B newly oxygenated blood to the lungs. C deoxygenated blood to the rest of the body (not the lungs). D newly oxygenated blood to the heart.

D 1

15 Which of the following refers to a lower heart chamber? A Atrium. B Septum. C Ventricle. D Valve.

C 1

16 Which of the following is closest to a normal ECG?

A

B

C

D

B 1




17 An artery may become narrowed due to a build-up of A dead blood cells. B cholesterol. C angina. D polyunsaturates.

B 1

18 What two recent scientific developments have helped heart sufferers? A Ultrasonic treatment. B Chemicals to lower cholesterol. C Heart valves and pacemakers. D Polyunsaturates.

C 1

19 What fraction of the human body is made up of water?

A 101

B 31

C 21

D 32

D 1

20 Which of the following shows the approximate percentages of three major gases in inhaled air? A 50% nitrogen, 49% oxygen, 1% carbon dioxide. B 79% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 0.04% carbon dioxide. C 79% nitrogen, 14% oxygen, 6% carbon dioxide. D 59% nitrogen, 41% oxygen, 0.04% carbon dioxide.

B 1

21 Which of the following is not a property of alveoli? A Their cell walls are only one cell thick. B They lie close to the walls of capillaries. C They have a dry surface to allow efficient diffusion. D They are shaped to give maximum surface area.

C 1




22 Most oxygen is transported in the bloodstream A bound to haemoglobin. B as gaseous oxygen molecules. C bound to platelets. D as dissolved carbon dioxide molecules and hydrogen carbonate ions.

A 1

23 We need fibre because A it contains large amounts of vitamins and minerals. B it provides bulk which helps move substances through the digestive system. C it is the major source of energy in foods. D it is used for growth and repair.

B 1

24 Pasta, bread and rice are foods that are all rich in A carbohydrates. B proteins. C fats. D vitamin C.

A 1

25 Which of the following diseases is caused by a lack of vitamins? A Hepatitis C. B AIDS. C Scurvy. D Polio.

C 1

26 Which two of the following are minerals? A Calcium. B Potassium. C Folic acid. D Riboflavin.

A

B

1

27 From which one of the following categories should you have most serves each day for a healthy diet? A Vegetables. B Meat and meat alternatives. C Breads and cereals. D Milk and milk products.

C 1




28 Which food item is high in kilojoules and high in calcium? A Ice-cream. B Can of soft drink. C Hamburger. D Margarine.

A 1

29 Obesity A is an eating disorder in which sufferers unrealistically perceive they need to

lose weight. B involves binge eating followed by purging. C is a condition in which a person is more than 24 per cent overweight. D is a town where a large number of OBE recipients reside.

C 1

30 Respiration is a chemical reaction which A occurs only in the body cells of animals. B always has oxygen as a reactant. C involves a sequence of reactions. D is endothermic (absorbs energy).

C 1


1 Identify the tooth type for the function

of

a biting.

b grinding.

c cutting.

a Canine.

b Molar or pre-molar.

c Incisor.

3




2 Label the tooth diagram below with the tooth type and function where indicated.

4

3 Explain how acid is created in the mouth, and what can it cause.

Bacteria in the mouth transform sugar in food into acid which can cause tooth decay.

2

4 Identify the parts of the digestive system on the following diagram.

5




5 Identify the location in the digestive system where

a stools form.

b insulin is produced.

c nutrients pass through villi.

d considerable heat energy is produced.

e saliva produced.

f peristalsis occurs.

g you find hydrochloric acid.

h digestion begins.

a Large intestine.

b Pancreas.

c Small intestine.

d Liver.

e Mouth.

f All along the digestive tract.

g Stomach.

h Mouth.

4

6 a Identify the end-product of digestion that provides energy to cells.

b How is this substance transported around the body?

c Give two ways this end-product is stored in the body.

a Glucose.

b In the bloodstream.

c As glycogen in the liver, or as fat elsewhere around the body (eg around the belly).

4

7 Explain a a stomach ulcer.

b a possible cause of cirrhosis.

a Damage to the mucous lining of the stomach.

b Excessive alcohol consumption, hepatitis

2

8 Identify two waste products produced by cells in your body.

Carbon dioxide, water. 1

9 Classify the following in the order in which fluid flows, starting with the first stage.

bladder, kidney, urethra, ureter.

Kidney, ureter, bladder, urethra. 2




10 Explain the main function of

a red blood cells.

b white blood cells.

c platelets.

d antigens.

a Oxygen transport.

b Destruction of germs.

c Formation of fibrin for clotting.

d Fighting foreign objects in the blood.

4

11 Assess whether a person with type B+ blood could safely

a donate blood to a person with type B− blood.

b donate to a person with type O+ blood.

c receive blood from a donor with type O+ blood.

a No.

b No.

c Yes.

3

12 Label the heart diagram below. 4

13 Identify the type of blood tubes that

a are one cell thick.

b carry blood at low pressure.

c have the thickest outer layer.

a Capillaries.

b Veins.

c Arteries.

3

14 Describe the role of the lungs in the circulatory system.

They oxygenate the blood, so it is ready to be delivered to all parts of the body.

2




15 Identify four structures which air passes through on its journey from the atmosphere to the alveoli in your lungs.

Any four of:

• nose.

• pharynx.

• trachea.

• larynx.

• bronchus.

• bronchiole.

4




16 The questions that follow refer to the diagram below of the human respiratory system.

Identify the structure shown (use the numbers 1 to 8 to answer) that

a prevents food from entering the trachea.

b contracts and flattens when you breathe in.

c filters, warms and humidifies air.

d contracts to raise the rib cage when you breathe in.

e is the site of gaseous exchange between the lungs and the bloodstream.

f is a bronchus.

a 2

b 7

c 1

d 8

e 6

f 4

6




17 Describe what happens to each of the following structures during expiration (breathing out).

a Ribs (raised or lowered?).

b Diaphragm (flattens or is dome-shaped?)

c Pressure in the chest cavity (increases or decreases?).

d Intercostal muscles (contract or relax?).

a Lowered.

b Dome-shaped.

c Increases.

d Relax.

4

18 Identify five types of nutrients, and give an example of a food rich in each one.

Carbohydrates − bread.

Lipids − margarine.

Proteins − meat.

Vitamins − orange juice.

Minerals − milk.

5

19 Identify the part of food or nutrient that

a assists chemical reactions in the body.

b repairs body tissue.

c is required in small amounts for good health.

d provides a rich source of energy.

a Water.

b Protein.

c Vitamins or minerals.

d Lipids.

4

20 Classify the following in order from least required each day to most required each day for a healthy diet.

fruits, indulgence items, milk and milk products, breads and cereals, vegetables, meat and alternatives.

Indulgence items, meat and alternatives, milk and milk products, fruits, vegetables, breads and cereals.

3

21 a Describe the process of aerobic respiration by writing a chemical equation.

b State whether the reaction is exothermic or endothermic.

c Define the process of aerobic respiration.

a C6H12O6(aq) + 6O2(g) → 6CO2(g) + 6H2O(l) + energy

b Exothermic.

c A process that takes place with oxygen (uses oxygen).

4




22 Describe the function of an enzyme. Enzymes speed up a chemical reaction without being used up in the reaction.

2

23 Identify

a the two products of anaerobic respiration in yeast cells.

b two industrial uses of the anaerobic respiration reaction in yeast cells.

c the product of anaerobic respiration in human muscle cells.

a Carbon dioxide and ethanol.

b Beer/wine making and bread making.

c Lactic acid.

3

24 Recall two reasons why a person at rest would need energy.

Any two of:

• heart beat.

• breathing.

• repair of tissues.

• kidney function.

2

Science Focus 2 TEST Chapter 5: Electricity



Name: _______________________ Class: __________ Date: _______



1 A neutral object is one that contains

A no charges. B an equal number of positive and negative charges. C only neutrons. D an excess of one type of charge.

B 1

2 Which of the following will attract each other? A Two positive charges. B Two negative charges. C A neutral charge and a positive charge. D None of the above.

C 1

3 A large device used to demonstrate the effects of static electricity is the A Electrostatic precipitator. B Vandenburg ioniser. C Van de Graaff generator. D Steffi Graf imitator.

C 1

4 A dangerous static charge may build up on an aircraft due to A charges in the atmosphere being attracted to the aircraft’s metallic body. B chemical reactions involving aircraft exhaust gases. C movement of air against the outside of the aircraft. D electrical discharges from the instrument panel.

C 1

5 Lightning occurs when A charge flows between clouds. B charge flows between a cloud and the ground. C charge flows from one part of a cloud to another part of the same cloud. D all of the above.

D 1




6 Lines representing electric fields are A always evenly spaced. B always curved. C closer together near charges. D drawn with arrows showing the direction a negative charge would move if

free to do so.

C 1

7 Voltage is the A number of charges passing a point in a circuit every second. B measure of the energy given to or lost by moving charges. C number of charges in a cell. D time taken for a charge to move around a circuit once.

B 1

8 Which circuit below shows how to measure voltage and current for a single globe in a circuit?

A 1

9 A battery is A a group of cells. B another name for a single cell. C a collection of objects in a circuit. D one of the ends of a cell or the terminals of a power supply.

A 1

10 Which of the following is a good conductor? A Plastic. B Copper. C Water. D Air.

B 1

11 In an electric circuit, resistance is A a connection terminal that is difficult to unscrew or tighten. B something which does not allow any charge to flow. C a component connected the wrong way around. D something that restricts the flow of charge, transferring energy in the

process.

D 1




12 A photovoltaic cell is a A solar cell. B technical term for a light bulb. C high voltage source. D circuit symbol used to denote a voltage source such as a battery or cell.

A 1

13 The circuit below contains

A 3 globes in parallel. B 3 globes in series. C globe in series with 2 globes in parallel. D 2 globes in parallel with one globe in series.

C 1

14 When a globe is removed from the circuit below

A the other two will continue to glow just as brightly as before. B the other two will glow more brightly than before. C the other two will glow less brightly than before. D all globes will go out.

A 1

15 What will happen to the current leaving the cell in the circuit below if point X is joined to point Y with a copper connecting wire? A It will stay the same. B It will be one third of its previous value. C It will initially triple and possibly ‘blow’ the globe. D No current will flow, but no globe will be damaged.

C 1




16 What would happen if all the power points in part of your home were wired in series? A The voltage would be too great and damage anything plugged into one of

them. B If more than one power point was being used, the voltage would be too

small for devices to operate normally. C They would work normally as long as used sensibly (ie not overloaded) −

power points are frequently wired in parallel with each other. D All power points would have to be ‘on’ in order for any to work.

D 1


1 Describe the force between each of the

following as A (attract), R (repel) or N (no force).

a

b

c

d

a R

b A

c R

d A

4




2 Explain the science behind a situation in which a person experiences a static electricity effect.

Various answers, eg friction between a person’s shoes and carpet produce charge separation so the person becomes charged. When they touch a metal hand rail, negative charges flow into or out of the rail (depending on the sign of the charge on the person), causing a mild electric shock.

3

3 Predict where you think the word ‘photostat’ comes from.

The word is another term for photocopy, a process which uses light (hence the ‘photo’ at the start of the word) and static electricity to copy an original.

2

4 An electric charge produces an electric field. Explain what happens to the size of an electric field when

a you move closer to the charge.

b the size of the charge is increased.

a It increases.

b It increases.

2

5 Identify several electric field lines by drawing them on the diagram below.

3




6 Explain why the metal foil strips at the lower end of the electroscope below repel each other, despite the rod not touching the device.

The positive charges in the rod attract negative charges in the lower strips, leaving the lower strips with an excess of positive charges. Since each lower strip is positive, they repel each other.

2

7 Describe the direction of conventional current in the conductor below.

To the right. 2

8 Complete these sentences.

a ________ is a measure of the rate at which charge flows, and is measured in ________.

b ________ is a measure of the energy given to or lost by charges, and is measured in ________.

a Current is a measure of the rate at which charge flows, and is measured in amperes (or amps).

b Voltage is a measure of the energy given to or lost by charges, and is measured in volts.

4

9 Identify the basic ‘ingredients’ in a cell or battery.

Two different metals (eg copper and zinc) and an acid.

2

10 a Define a conductor.

b Define an insulator.

c Identify two examples of a conductor.

d Identify two examples of an insulator.

a A substance that allows electricity to flow through it.

b A substance that does not normally allow electricity to flow through it.

c Copper, tungsten.

d Plastic, glass.

4




11 Identify two examples of a resistance in a circuit.

Globe filament, electric jug element. 2

12 State the reading on each meter below.

Each meter is either a voltmeter or ammeter and is connected correctly. Assume globes in the same circuit are identical.

a

b

c

a M1 = 2 A, M2 = 4.5 V, M3 = 2 A

b M4 = 4 A, M5 = 2 A, M6 = 6 V

c M7 = 3 A, M8 = 4.5 V, M9 = 1 A, M10 = 9 V

10




13 Consider the circuit below.

Identify which other globes would go out if

a globe B blows.

b globe D blows.

c globe A blows.

d a copper wire is used to create a short circuit from X to Y (assume no globes blow).

a C

b E, F

c B, C, D, E, F, G

d C, G

4

14 Consider the party light circuit below.

a What would be the effect on the

other globes in the circuit if one globe blew?

b How could the circuit be redesigned so that if a globe blows, none of the others do?

a Two neighbouring globes would go out.

b It should be arranged so there are 15 branches in parallel, each containing only 1 globe.

3

Science Focus 2 TEST Chapter 6: Ecology



Name: _______________________ Class: __________ Date: _______



1 All living plants and animals in a particular region may be described as

A a community. B an organism. C the environment. D an ecosystem.

A 1

2 A biome refers to A a chemical pollutant. B an artificial environment such as a greenhouse. C areas having similar climatic conditions. D a biogeographical region.

C 1

3 A habitat is A the most specific level possible for an organism’s ‘address’. B the broadest category for an organism’s address. C an organism’s typical behaviour. D a specific area such as a sand dune or tree.

D 1

4 Physical characteristics or behaviours that help an organism live in a particular environment are called A attributes. B adaptations. C camouflage. D instincts.

B 1




5 Which of the following is an abiotic factor that influences where an organism can live? A Humidity. B Predation. C Human intervention. D Competition from other organisms.

A 1

6 Salinity is a measure of A the number of organisms in a particular region. B the acidity of soil. C the amount of water vapour in the air. D the salt content of water.

D 1

7 The original source of all energy used by organisms is A plants. B water. C glucose. D the Sun.

D 1

8 A secondary consumer is A a plant. B an animal that eats plants. C an animal that eats an animal that eats plants. D an omnivore.

C 1

9 Each ‘link’ in a food chain is A a plant. B an animal. C an organism. D a carnivore.

C 1

10 Communities with high biodiversity are more likely to survive environmental changes because they A contain more than one type of food source for the organisms within them. B have denser plant growth, which insulates the community from such

changes. C are generally popular tourist attractions and are protected by law. D consist of large numbers of only a few species.

A 1




11 The number of producers in a food chain is A less than the number of producers. B the same as the number of consumers. C greater than the number of consumers. D possibly any of the above, depending on the organisms involved.

C 1

12 A decomposer is A an animal that eats another animal. B a plant that loses its leaves in winter. C an organism which breaks down organic matter so it is recycled. D an animal that uses sound as its main method of communication.

C 1

13 The interaction between a remora (a type of sucker fish) and a shark to which it attaches is an example of commensalism because A the remora benefits, but the shark is harmed. B the remora benefits, but the shark is unaffected. C the remora is unaffected, but the shark is harmed. D both fish benefit from their relationship.

B 1

14 The impact of humans on the ecosystem increased suddenly after the A environmental convolution. B mechanical inspiration. C climatic illusion. D industrial revolution.

D 1

15 A pollutant is A a substance created by human activity that harms the environment. B a natural or artificial substance that makes the environment unhealthy for

some organisms. C a gas such as sulfur dioxide that is able to reach the atmosphere. D something produced when a fossil fuel is burnt.

B 1

16 The greenhouse effect occurs because gases released into the atmosphere cause A plants to grow too quickly and rob the atmosphere of vital gases. B heat to be trapped on the Earth. C the hole in the ozone layer to increase in size. D the atmosphere to become too thin and allow more energy to escape from

the Earth.

B 1

17 Which of the following are introduced species as far as Australia is concerned? A Rabbit. B Carp. C Pig. D All of the above.

D 1




18 Frogs in Australia are considered to be environmental indicators because A they are the most common Australian animal and so may be easily caught

and studied. B they are at the bottom of the food chain. C they breathe through their skin and depend on water, so pollutants tend to

affect them strongly. D they change colour in response to pollutants.

C 1


1 Classify the following in order from

smallest to largest:

biome, microhabitat, biosphere, habitat, biogeographical region

Microhabitat, habitat, biome, biogeographical region, biosphere.

3

2 Match each of the following with one of the regions given in the previous question.

a Just under the surface of some desert sand.

b The part of our planet where life exists.

c Grassland.

d A tussock of grass.

e Australia.

a Microhabitat.

b Biosphere.

c Biome.

d Habitat.

e Biogeographical region.

5

3 Identify two examples of

a organisms.

b the non-living environment.

a Eucalyptus tree, kangaroo.

b Rainfall, temperature.

4

4 Describe the characteristics of an organism which lives most of its life under the desert sand.

Strong claws for burrowing, poor eyesight or no eyes. Nostrils covered by protective hair.

2




5 Animal species suffer reductions in populations during or immediately after a fire. Identify how some escape the fire.

Mobile animals such as birds, kangaroos and wallabies may be able to move out of burning areas to safer refuges. Wombats and echidnas may survive by seeking shelter in burrows or logs. Reptiles and amphibians also take refuge underground.

3

6 Identify

a an animal and describe two physical adaptations.

b an animal (it may be the same one as above) and describe two behavioural adaptations.

a Echidna − fur colour, spines.

b Echidna − rolls into ball if attacked, digs into earth when attacked if ground is soft enough.

4

7 Describe how each of the following affects organisms. Give a specific examples.

a Temperature.

b Humidity.

c Light availability.

d Acidity.

a Digestion, respiration, excretion and reproduction are all affected by temperature.

b Humidity affects how much water an organism loses.

c Plants rely on light to be able to carry out photosynthesis.

d Plants and animals have a preferred acidity level for optimum growth/chance of survival.

4

8 Clarify each of the following factors that affect where an organism can live.

a Competition.

b Dispersal.

c Predation.

d Human intervention.

a Animals must compete for a limited food supply. Plants compete for nutrients in the soil.

b Plants depend on the wind or other animals to spread throughout a region. Animals can move about by themselves.

c An organism may be eaten by another.

d Humans can affect the environment dramatically, eg by clearing land or polluting.

4




9 Identify a biotic factor and an abiotic factor (in that order) that may affect a kookaburra.

Various answers, eg

• Biotic − availability of trees for nesting.

• Abiotic − climate.

3

10 Classify each of the following as a herbivore, carnivore or omnivore.

a Crocodile.

b Deer.

c Blue-tongue lizard.

a Carnivore.

b Herbivore.

c Omnivore.

3

11 Draw arrows identifying the links between the following animals in a possible food web.

snake, garden skink, kookaburra, fly

3




12 a Explain why a food web is more accurate than a food chain.

b Use arrows to identify several connections in the food web below.

a Because organisms usually have more than one food source.

b

4

13 Choose one of the terms listed to describe each of the following interactions.

mutualism, competition, amensalism, herbivory, parasitism, predation

a A small bird picks insects from a rhinoceros’s hide.

b Wallabies using a particular route repeatedly eventually wear a trail in the bush.

c A tick burrows into the skin of a stumpy tail lizard, causing minor skin irritation.

d A koala eats the leaves on a branch of a gum tree.

a Mutualism (both benefit).

b Amensalism (one harmed, one unaffected).

c Parasitism (one benefits, one caused problems).

d Herbivory (animal feeds, plant not killed).

4




14 a Use the graph below to estimate what the human population was in the year 2000.

b Predict the range of values that the population will lie between in the year 2020.

a 7200 million.

b 7500 million to 9000 million.

3

15 Identify four types of waterway and ocean pollution.

Any four of:

• Sewage.

• Agricultural run-off.

• Sediment.

• Inorganic chemicals.

• Salinisation.

4

16 Describe the cause of two of the types of pollution in the previous question.

Various answers, eg

• Sewage: waste water produced in our homes (from washing up, showers and baths, toilets).

• Salinisation: removal of trees causes a rise in the groundwater level, bringing salts closer to the surface.

2

17 Outline the problems caused by two different introduced species.

Various answers, eg

• Feral pigs damaging native plants and nesting sites.

• European carp churning mud, dirtying water and damaging roots of water plants.

2




18 Propose two ways of encouraging conservation of our native plants and animals.

Various answers, eg

• Monitor populations of endangered species for signs of decreasing numbers.

• Set aside more areas as national parks/protected habitats.

2

Science Focus 2 TEST Chapter 7: Plant systems



Name: _______________________ Class: __________ Date: _______



1 The male part of a flower is made up of the

A stigma, style and ovary. B petals and sepals. C anther and filament. D nectary and ovule.

C 1

2 The openings in plant leaves that allow gases in and out and control water loss are called A the epidermis. B stomata. C mesophyll cells. D the cuticle.

B 1

3 Which type of transport tube carries water and minerals from the roots in plants? A Chlorophyll. B Phloem. C Stoma. D Xylem.

D 1

4 A vascular bundle is a A bunch of flowers or plant cuttings. B group of tubes within a plant. C group of guard cells on the underside of a leaf. D plant root system.

B 1




5 In which of these plant leaf cells is the maximum rate of photosynthesis expected to occur? A Epidermal cells. B Palisade cells. C Xylem cells. D Mesophyll cells.

B 1

6 If carbon dioxide, water and chlorophyll are placed in a test tube in the sunlight A glucose and bubbles of oxygen will be produced immediately. B glucose and bubbles of oxygen will be produced, but only after a long

period of time. C no reaction will occur because one reactant is missing. D no reaction will occur because necessary enzymes are missing.

D 1

7 Photosynthesis may be considered a two-stage process. Which of the following occurs during stage 1? A Energy is released by chlorophyll molecules. B Energy is trapped by chlorophyll molecules. C Carbon dioxide is released. D Starch molecules are made.

B 1

8 An experiment was conducted using the set-up shown below.

The volume of gas collected in the test tube after 2 hours would not be affected by the A size of the test tube. B mass of plant used. C intensity of the light source. D temperature of the solution.

A 1




9 At night the starch in leaves is reconverted to glucose. This is called A photosynthesis. B Benzyme release. C destarching. D respiration.

C 1

10 The process of using oxygen to release energy from food is called A photosynthesis. B respiration. C breathing. D elimination.

B 1

11 Respiration is a chemical reaction which A occurs only in the body cells of animals. B always has oxygen as a reactant. C involves a sequence of reactions. D is endothermic (absorbs energy).

C 1

12 Which colour of light is not absorbed by chlorophyll? A Green. B Red. C Blue. D Orange.

A 1




13 The graph below shows the amount of oxygen produced by a plant as light intensity was increased under two different sets of conditions.

Which of the following would explain the difference between graphs X and Y? A Graph X was obtained with the plant in orange light, graph Y with the plant

in red light. B Graph X was obtained with the plant at a higher temperature than for graph

Y. C Graph X was obtained with the plant in a higher concentration of carbon

dioxide than for graph Y. D Graph X was obtained using a larger mass of plant than for graph Y.

A 1


1 Label the following parts of a plant

stem cross-section using the terms below.

xylem, phloem, cambium, vascular bundle

4




2 Identify two functions of

a the roots.

b the stem.

a Support the plant and get water and minerals.

b Support the plant, transport water and minerals up to the leaves and food from the leaves back to the roots.

4

3 Flowering plants may either be self-pollinated or cross-pollinated.

a Define cross-pollination.

b Propose two ways in which cross-pollination can be made to occur.

a Cross-pollination occurs when pollen is transferred from the anther of one flower to the stigma of another flower.

b By wind or the action of insects.

4

4 A particular flower has its stigma placed higher than its anthers. Predict whether this flower could be self-pollinated. Explain your answer.

This flower would not be a self-pollinator.

The pollen cannot fall ‘upwards’ from the anther to the stigma.

2




5 The diagram below shows a section through a plant leaf.

Identify which label (1 to 8) represents

a an epidermal cell.

b a palisade cell.

c a xylem vessel.

d a chloroplast.

e a stoma cell.

a 2

b 7

c 5

d 6

e 1

5

6 Propose explanations for

a plants in the desert growing very slowly.

b plants not being found in the ocean at depths greater than 300 m.

a Desert plants must close their stomata during the heat of the day to avoid water loss. With stomata closed, gaseous exchange is stopped. Therefore photosynthesis cannot occur at these times.

b Light cannot penetrate to these depths. Without light, photosynthesis (and therefore plant growth) is not possible.

4

7 a Write a chemical equation for the process of photosynthesis.

b Identify two other requirements (apart from the reactants) for photosynthesis to occur.

c Define the reaction as either exothermic or endothermic.

a 6CO2(g) + 6H2O(l) → C6H12O6(aq) + 6O2(g)

b Light and chlorophyll.

c Endothermic.

4




8 Identify the plant cell structures in which the following processes occur.

a Stage 1 of respiration.

b Stage 2 of respiration.

c Photosynthesis.

a Cytoplasm.

b Mitochondria.

c Chloroplasts.

3

9 Identify three ways in which the glucose produced during photosynthesis may be used by a plant.

Any three of:

• Converted to starch for storage.

• Converted to cellulose for cell walls.

• Used in respiration for energy.

• Converted to other sugars for transport.

• Converted to oils and proteins.

3

10 The graph below shows the effect of light intensity on the rate of photosynthesis.

Explain

a why the rate increases in the first section (I) of the graph.

b why the rate does not increase in the second section (II) of the graph.

a Greater light intensity means more light energy is available, enabling faster photosynthesis.

b In this section some other factor (eg carbon dioxide level) is limiting the rate of reaction.

4




11 An experiment was conducted using the flasks shown below. All flasks contained water, were at the same temperature and were in sunlight.

After two hours the carbon dioxide level in each flask was measured.

a Identify the flask (A–D) in which the carbon dioxide level would be lowest after two hours.

b Explain how you arrived at your choice in part (a).

a Flask D.

b Photosynthesis would occur in flasks C and D. This would lower the carbon dioxide level. Respiration would also occur in these flasks, but more so in flask C, which contains both plant and animal. Respiration would raise the carbon dioxide level. Overall, the level would be lower in flask D.

4

12 Which colour of light is strongly absorbed by

a water?

b green algae?

c red algae?

a Red.

b Red.

c Blue (or green).

3

13 a Write a chemical word equation for the process of aerobic respiration.

b Does this reaction absorb or release energy?

c What does the word ‘aerobic’ mean?

a Glucose + oxygen Carbon dioxide + water (+ energy)

b It releases energy.

c ‘With oxygen’ (using oxygen).

4

Science Focus 2 TEST Chapter 8: Astronomy



Name: _______________________ Class: __________ Date: _______



1 Astronomy is the study of the

A Earth. B solar system. C Milky Way. D universe.

D 1

2 A meteorite is A a small meteor. B a space rock that misses the Earth. C a small chunk of space rock that hits the Earth. D a piece of space junk originating from the Earth.

C 1

3 Asteroids are also known as A megameteors. B minor planets. C planet killers. D dirty snowballs.

B 1

4 Which type of non-planetary space rock orbits the Sun (ie is a member of the solar system)? A Asteroid. B Comet. C Meteor. D Shooting star.

B 1

5 Which of the following contribute to the formation of a comet’s tails? A The Earth’s gravity. B The solar wind. C The size of the comet. D The Earth’s atmosphere.

B 1




6 Most of the stars you see at night are A meteors. B galaxies. C planets. D suns.

D 1

7 A light year is A the distance between the Earth and the Sun. B the distance light travels in a year. C the diameter of the Milky Way galaxy. D the time taken for a planet to revolve around its sun.

B 1

8 Our nearest multiple star system is A Alpha Centauri. B Ceres. C the Southern Cross. D Orion.

A 1

9 The dark circle shown on the celestial sphere below denotes a particular

A altitude. B azimuth. C right ascension. D declination.

D 1

10 An ecliptic is A the duration of an eclipse. B an object that blocks light from the Sun. C the path followed by the Sun on the celestial sphere. D a circular star chart used to locate stars during any time of year.

C 1




11 Which of the following magnitudes indicates the faintest star? A 0 B 0.5 C 1.0 D -0.6

C 1

12 Which of the following is a major space-based telescope? A Bubble. B Hubble. C Keck. D Tech.

B 1

13 The Milky Way is part of a larger group called A the big dipper. B the local group. C the Andromeda super galaxy. D the spiral arm.

B 1

14 A geostationary orbit is one in which the satellite A moves in the same rotational direction and at the same speed as the Earth. B moves in a path at right angles to the rotation of the Earth. C moves in the same rotational direction as the Earth, but more quickly. D moves in the same rotational direction as the Earth, but more slowly.

A 1

15 The transponder in a satellite like Intelsat 5 A ‘cleans up’ and boosts a signal received by the satellite. B sends signals to a hand-held GPS receiver on the Earth. C measures temperature and pressure using special sensors. D analyses light reflected from the Earth’s surface.

A 1





1 Examine the descriptions and match

each one to the names in the list below.

meteor, meteorite, asteroid, comet

a Dirty snowball a few kilometres in diameter with long period orbits around the Sun.

b Flaming meteoroid.

c Large irregular-shaped object, potentially dangerous to the Earth.

d Piece of space rock which occasionally hits the Earth usually without causing serious damage.

a Comet.

b Meteorite.

c Asteroid.

d Meteor.

4

2 a Identify the point from which the meteor shower shown below originates.

b What is this point called?

a

b The radiant.

2

3 Identify a the location of the asteroid belt.

b the approximate number of asteroids in the belt.

a Between Mars and Jupiter.

b Billions.

2




4 Classify the space rocks as either comets, meteors or asteroids.

a Ceres and Ida.

b Hale−Bopp and Shoemaker−Levy 9.

c The Orionids.

a Asteroids.

b Comets.

c Meteors.

3

5 List four things a giant space rock collision with the Earth might cause.

Firestorms, earthquakes, tsunamis, giant dust cloud/s.

4

6 Identify three constellations. Various answers, eg

Libra, Crux, Centaurus, any zodiac sign.

3

7 The position of a star is marked on the celestial sphere below as a dot.

Define

a the right ascension of the star.

b the declination of the star.

Identify

c on the sphere the position of a star whose coordinates may be described as RA 10 h, DEC 30°.

a 16 h.

b −45°.

c

3




8 Define three different types of galaxy. Also sketch each type.

Clockwise from top: spiral, elliptical and barred spiral.

6

9 Complete these sentences about parts of the Milky Way galaxy.

a An ________ cluster contains a few hundred stars within the spiral arm of the galaxy.

b A ________ cluster may be seen with the naked eye as a fuzzy star, but actually contains up to a million stars.

a Open.

b Globular.

2

10 Identify the types of waves detected by

a an optical telescope.

b a radio telescope.

a Light waves.

b Radio waves.

2

11 Recall

a how high above the Earth’s surface a satellite in geostationary orbit is.

b what it means when a satellite is in an asynchronous orbit.

c which kind of orbit observation satellites are usually placed in.

d which kind of orbit communication satellites are usually placed in.

a 36 000 km.

b The satellite moves in the same rotational direction as the Earth, but more quickly.

c Asynchronous.

d Geostationary.

4

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Focus2 Test Ans