Final Dms 2010 Finish

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Akademikciamik 2010 _Perfecten

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FINAL DMS 2010

Question 1-3

Mr Maesaroh,68 y/o ,LBP,PE=Kyphotic posture and there are no

signs of inflammation ,infecton and trauma.

1.According to Kapadji,their purpose of anterior and posterior

spine at physiologic curves is

A. Stabilize the linear ligament.

B.Protect the spinal cord and spine nerve

C.Support the weight of the body superior to the level of the pelvis

D.Increace vertebrae collumn resistence to axial compression

E.Posture and Locomotion

2.Pain increase in standing,sitting,walking.In standing position,the

lumbar spine is normally in a position of lordoisis.In the erect

sitting position:

A.The lumbar curve (LC) increase, pelvis and sacrum rotated to

anterior

B.The lumbar curve (LC) decrease,pelvis and sacrum rotated to

posterior

c.The lumbar curve (LC) increase,pelvis n sacrum rotate to

posterior

d.LC decrease ,pelvis n sacrum rotate to anterior

e.LC stable,pelvis n sacrum rotate to posterior

3.She often does washing and cleaning activities in crooked

position.When normal subject stands n slowly reflexes the trunk,a

lateral view of the spinous process of the thorcic area reveals:

A.A folding of posterior convexity without flat areas or

angulation.

b.A folding of a posterior convexity with flattened areas or

angulation.

c.an unfolding of posterior convexity without flat areas or

angulation.

d.an unfolding of a posterior convexity with flat areas or

angulation.

e.an unfolding of a posterior convexity n folding of anterior

convexity.

4. She does often washing & cleaning activities in crooked position.

What is the function of Rectus Abdominis & Psoas major.?

A.trunk flexion

B.trunk extension

C. trunk lateral bending

D.trunk rotation

E. trunk stabilization

5. wat is the function of erector spinae, multifidus & semispinalis

thoracis.?

A.trunk flexion

B.trunk extension

C. trunk lateral bending

D.trunk rotation

E. trunk stabilization

Question 6-7

A 55-year-old man had an accident and suffere with the left

femoral neck column fracture. He suffered from left femoral neck

column fracture. He underwent surgery operation with Austin

Moore Prosthetic implantation.

6.Head of femur connected to shaft by neck. According to kapandji

the neck shaft angle is

A.130 derajat

B.125

C.120

D.115

E.110

7. Another angle occuring in the femur is called the angle of ante-

version which is in the range from?

A. 10-12°

B. 10-15°

C. 11-12°

D. 12-14°

E. 13-15°

8. Mr. Suhendar, 25 years old is suffering with ankylosing

spondylitis. His major problem beside the lower back pain and back

stiffness is the Sacro-Iliac Joint Arthritis. According to Kapandji, the

motion of sacro-iliac joint is:

A. Up & down gliding

B. Anterior & posterior movement of ilia

C. Anterior & posterior movement ofsacrum

D. Nutation & counter nutation

E. Rotation at range 2-8°

Question 9 – 10

Mrs. Maesaroh 65 y/o suffered with right knee OA, had been

underwent physiotherapy treatment and did quadriceps

strengthening exercise

9)The purpose of patella to enhance quadriceps strength in

extension by

a) provide bony protection to distal joint surface

b) decrease distance from axis of motion (f orce arm distance)

c) prevent damaging compression force on quadriceps tendon

d) modified the area of patellar contact surface to tibiofemoral

joint

10) She’s been notified not to bend her knee / do any kind of

activities in beding knee position. How much the f orce within the

knee joint while standing in flexion position (according to

Schmidt)?

a) Force increase 0.8 times body weight at 90 degrees angle

b) Force increase 1.2 times body weight at 90 degrees angle

c) Force increase 1.8 times body weight at 90 degrees angle

d) Force increase 2.2 times body weight at 90 degrees angle

e) Force increase 2.6 times body weight at 90 degrees angle

11. Mr. Dadan 32 y.o had an anterior knee pain at the

right leg since 2 weeks ago. Altough the pa in has

already diminish, he still can't bend his knee when he

prays. Screw home mechanism of the knee joint is a

terminal rotation for the last 200 of extension. The

main advantage of this mechanism is?

A. Enhancing quadriceps strength

B. Permit human to stand errect without quadriceps

contraction

C. Stabilizing patellar movement by controlling

quadriceps contraction

D. Reducing axial compression to tibio-femoral joint

E. Coordinate contraction between quadriceps and

harmstring

12. An 18 yo woman with miliaria rubra. W hich is most

likely the affected organ?

A. Sebaceous gland

B. Holocrine

C. Apocrine

D. Merocrine

E. Hair follicle

13. A 55 yo woman with knee joint osteoarthri tis. MRI

imaging showed defects range from focal blistering

and surface irregularities. Which is most likely the

molecular basis for shock absorption within the

affected structure?

A. Electrostatic interaction of proteoglycan with

type IV collagen



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B. Ability of glycoaminoglycans to bind anions

C. Hydration of glycoaminoglycans

D. Sialic acid residues in the glycoprotein

E. Noncovalent binding of glycoaminoglycans to

protein cores

14. 42 yo woman with humerus fracture. Which is the

most likely first step of the healing?

A. Granulation tissue

B. Pannus

C. Clot

D. Internal callus

E. External callus

15. A 50 yo man with rheumatoid art hritis. Which is most

likely the initial site of damage?

A. Joint cavity

B. Epithelium synovial membrane

C. Articular cartilage

D. Ends of bone

E. Perichondrium

16. A 50 yo woman presents with blisters on her backs

and buttocks and was diagnosed with pemphigus

vulgaris. The cause of this is disruption of which likely

A. Desmosome

B. Hemidesmosome

C. Gap junction

D. Zonula adherens

E. Connections between the lamina densa and

lamina rarae in basal lamina

For 17-18

A 55 y.o man have skin nodule in face head. This nodule small,

firm, with have central cores from white keratinous material.

Microscopic feature is characteristic with round eosinophilic bodies

in the nuclei of keratinocytes.

17. Which of the following most likely of diagnosis?

A. Moluscum contagiosum

B. Condyloma accuminata

C. Verruca vulgaris

D. Hidradenitis suppurativa

E. Dermatitis allergica

18. Which of the following etiologi of disease :

A. EBV

B. Pox Virus infection

C. HPV

D. HIV

E. Influenza virus infection

A 68 yo man has pain and skin nodule in ollecranon joint.

Laboratorium examination uric acid level in the blood to be raised.

Diagnosis is Gouty trophus.

19. Which of the following microscopically of tophus?

A. Consist of cluster of eosinophilic staining urat

crystals surrounded by lymphocyte and

keratocytes

B. Consist of cluster of basophilic staining urat

crystals surrounded by osteocytes and osteoblast

C. Consist of cluster of pale staining urat crystals

surrounded by histiocytes and macrophages

D. Consist of cluster of acidophilic staining urat

crystals surrounded by chondrocytes and

monocytes

20. Which of the following most likely from laboratorium

examination of tophus?

A. Calcium urat crystals

B. Kalium urat crystals

C. Chloride urat crystals

D. Sodium urat crystals

E. Pospho urat crystals

a 60 yo man has pigmented nodule of nasal region in the face.

microscopic feature is malignant tumor of skin with tumor cell are

columnar and their nuclei are arranged paralel of each other

(palisading nuclei) in the periphery of the tumor mask.

21. Diagnosis?

A. squamose cell carcinoma

b. Malignant melanoma

c. veruca vulgaris

d. condyloma acuminatum

e. basal cell carcinoma

22. which of the following is t he most likely Behaviour of tumor

above?

a. local invasive but grow slowly and al most never metastasis

b. local invasive with grow slowly and no metastasis

c. aggresive forms rapidly and metastasis

d. aggresive forms rapidly and never metastasis

e. local invasive but grows slowly and always metastasis

b. ans = slow growing, locally invasive, and, rarely, metastasize

a 48 yo man has nodule of buccal region in the face. microscopic

feature is malignant tumor of skin. the tumor cell arises from

keratinocyte with hyperchromatic, pleomorphism nuclei among

which there is considerable mitotic activity. more cent rally the cells

have eosinophilic cytoplasm and in several strands there is

laminated keratin a "cell nest" or "epithelial pearl"

23. nodule at buccal region, keratinocytes, 'nest cell' or

keratihyaloid pearl'. diagnosis?

a. basal cell ca

b. squamous cell ca

c. malignant melanoma

d. veruca vulgaris

e. epidermal cyst

ans = squamose cell carcinom

24.which of the following is risk factor or etiology of disease

a.hiv

b.hpv type 6

c.exposure to sun

d.exposure to radiation

e.ebv

25.3o yroldwoman has skin nodule in labia mayor of

pubis.microscopic feature is epithelial hyperplasia,papillamatous,

acanthosis, hyperkeratosis and parakeratosis which is the diagnosis

a.veruca vulgaris

b.molluscum contagiosum

c.epidermal cyst

d.condylomaaccuminata

e.hidradenitis suppurativa

26. Lucy,12y/o with chief complain papules on face and back ,

diagnosed with acne vulgaris , given tetracycline 250 mg cap orally

4 times a day after meal f or 7 days. prescription order?

a. R/ tetracycline cap 250 mg No. VII

S. 4. d.d. cap 1 1 h.a.c

b. R/ tetracycline 250 mg cap No. XV

S. 4. d.d. cap 1 p.c

c. R/ tetracycline 250 mg cap No. XXVIII

S. 4. d.d. cap 1 1h.p.c

d. R/ tetracycline 250 mg cap No. XXVIII

S. 4. d.d. cap 1 p.c

e. R/ tetracycline cap 200 mg

S. t.d.d cap 1 hac



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erythromycin 2% cream 10g for acne. Available prescription is

erymed cream contain 2% erythromycin in tube 10g.apply twice a

day.

27.proper direction for prescription order ?

A.S.s.d.d applic

B.S.b.d.d applic

C.S.t.d.d applic

D.S.q.d.d.applic

e. S.d.i.d.applic

28. the inscription and subscription?

A.erymed cream 2% No.1 tube 10g

B.erymed 2% cream 10g No.1

C.Erymed 2% cream 10g tube No.1

D.Erymed cream 2% no.1 10g

E.erymed cream 2% 10g no.1

Diagnosis: Psoriasis Vulgaris , given antihistamine Loratidine 10mg

tablet orally once a day for 1 week.

29. The inscription and subscription?

A.

Loratidine tab 10mg No.X

B. Loratidine tab No.V

C. Loratidine 10mg tab No.VII

D. Loratidine 10mg No.XV

E. Loratidine No.XIV tab

30. Loratadine 10mg tab orally once a day for 1 week…prescription

a)S.sdd tab 1

b) S.b.d.d.tab 1

c) st.d.d tab1 1.h.a.c

d) st.d.d tab1 1.h.p.c

e) q.d d tab1 1h.a.c

31. The pharyngeal apparatus consist of pharyngeal arches,

pharyngeal pouches, pharyngeal grooves, and pharyngeal

membrane and it is observed in week 4 of embryonic

development.

Which of the following pharyngeal arches is associated with

Tracher Collin syndrome?

a. Pharyngeal arch 1

b. Pharyngeal arch 2

c. Pharyngeal arch 3

d. Pharyngeal arch 4

e. Pharyngeal arch 5

32. Cleft lip and cleft palate are distinct malformations based ontheir embryological formation, even though they often occur

together.

Which of the following congenital malformation of the head and

neck region is the most common?

a. Ankyloglossia

b. Anterior cleft palate

c. Posterior cleft palate

d. Thyroglossal duct cyst

e. Unilateral cleft lip

33. The pharyngeal apparatus contributes greatly to the formation

of the head and neck. There are 5 pharyngeal arches in which one

of these is contributes in formation the muscle of facial expression.

Which of the following is give rise i nto the facial expression

muscle?

a. Somitomeric mesoderm pharyngeal arch 1

b. Somitomeric mesoderm pharyngeal arch 2

c. Neural crest derives of pharyngeal arch 1

d. Neural crest derives of pharyngeal arch 2

e. Somitomeric mesoderm pharyngeal arch 4

34. The development of the palate from the primary and secondary

palate fuse at the incisive foramen to form definitive palate.

Which of the following is secondary palate?

a. Mandibulary prominence

b. Philtrum of the lip

c. Palatine shelves

d. Palatine raphe

e. Intermaxillary segment

35. The pharyngeal apparatus contributes greatly to t he

formulation of the head and neck. The inte rmaxillary segment

forms via the fusion of the:

a. Somitometric mesoderm pharyngeal arch 1

b. Medial nasal prominences

c. Neural crest derives of pharyngeal arch 1

d. Maxillary prominences

e. mandibular prominence

36. Albinism is congenital anomalies of the integumentary system.

Which of the following statements concerning albinism is

CORRECT?

a. It is most commonly an X linked ressesive trait

b. It is characterized by dryness and scaling of the skin

c. Predisposition to benign tumors of endothelial cells

d. Is caused by a lack of enzyme tyrosinase

e. Results when mesoderm fail to produce melanin in the

skin, hair, and eyes

37. The head musculature develops from the paraxial mesoderm,

which for,s somitomeres 1-7 and occipital somites.

Which of the following pharyngeal arch muscle is the derivates of

pharyngeal arch 1?

a. The posterior belly of the digastric

b. The stylopharingeus

c. The tensor veli palatini

d. The stapedius

e. The cricopharyngeus

38. The cranium develops from the mesoderm surrounding the

developing brain and consist neurocranium and viscerocranium.

Which of the following bone is part of the cartilagineous

neurocranium?

a. The parietal bone

b. The interparietal protion of the occipital bone

c. The frontal bone



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d. The petrous part of the temporal bone

e. The nasal bones

39. The tympanic cavity contains three ossicles of the middle ear,

malleus, incus, stapes, tympanic membrane and auditory tube.

Which of the following statements is the mo st likely the tympanic

cavity?

a. It is of mesodermal origin

b. It developes from the tubotympanic recess

c. The malleus and incus develops from pharyngeal arch

2

d. The stapes develops from pharyngeal arch 1

e. It communicates with the cochlear duct

40. Which of the following is the most likely results from

premature closure of sutures on one side of the skull?

a. Microcephaly

b. Oxycephaly

c. Plagiocephaly

d. Scapocephay

e. Acrocephaly

41. Which of the following is most likel y results from fusion and

shortening of cervical vertebrae?

A. Spina bifida

B. Klippel Feil Syndrome

C. Achondroplasia

D. Scapocephaly

E. Treacher Collins Syndrome

42. The skeletal muscle derived from paraxial mesoderm, which

gives rise to somites and somitomeres. Which is most likely gives

rise to flexor muscle of neck and vertebral column and intercostal

muscles?

A. cervical somites C3-C5

B. occipital somites

C. Epimere

D. Hypomere

E. Preotic somites

43. The mesodermal swelling median tongue bud and distal tongue

buds develop in the floor of t he pharynx at pharyngeal arch 1 a nd

the distal tongue buds overgrow the median to ngue bud and fuse

in the midline, forming the oral part of the tongue and innervation

by cranial nerve. Which CN in specially taste sensation from oral

part of tongue?

A. V

B. VII

C. IX

D. X

E. XII

Question 44-47

You are second year medical student in traumatology emergency

room. You are introducing to mr.dudi, 35 yo with multiple injuries

due to a bar fight. The police brought him to emergency

department in a bad general condition wit h impaired

consciousness.

44. what mr. dodi suffered?

a. mild head injury

b. concussion

c. contusion

d. axonal shearing lesion

e. epidural hematoma

45. what else he suffered?

a. axonnotmesis

b. neuropraxia

c. neurotmesis

d. seddon axonotmesis

e. second degree nerve damage

46. other he suffered?

a. moderate dysfunction of facial nerve

b. moderate severyly dysfunction of facial nerve

c. mild dysfunction of facial nerve

d. severe dysfunction of facial nerve

e. total paralysis

47..Mr Dodi suffered from

A.simple fracture

B.compound fracture

C.comminuted fracture

D.complex fracture

E.greenstick fracture

48..On primary survey, there is……..

A.The problem on airway control

B.The problem on cervical control

C.Not a shock

D.The problem of circulation

E.Not a problem of disabilities

49. You are the doctor on duty in the general out patient clinic.

Mrs. Imas, 53 yo a housewife came to your clinic with the chief

complain of the pain at right knee since 2 weeks. Last time, she has

already felt mild pain on her right knee for about 3 month but it

was better after she took a rest for a night. She felt night knee

stiffness in the morning and worse when walking or standing. Prior

visited you she has visited 3 general practioner doctor but there

were no improvement at all. After that she could not sit, cannot do

daily activities. She ask the doctor if it is because of her high uric

acid concentration

A. autoimmune arthritis

b. gout arthiris

c. rheumatoid arthritis

d. degenerative joint disease

e. chronic inflammatory disease

Question 50 to 52

A 17 yo girl come to primary health care with chief complain of

erythematous papules, some were associated with pain over the

face and back since 1 year ago. The dermato logical status revealed

skin lesion with regional distribution on the face and back

presented as multiple lesions consisted of comedones,

erythematous papule and anthropic scars. The doctor treated t he

patient with topical 0.001% tretinoin cream.

50.Which skin structure listed below was the most possible

affected by this patient’s skin disorder?

A. hair follicle

b. eccrine gland

c. pilosebaceous unit

d. apocrine gland

e. basal layer of epidermis

51. what was the normal flora of the skin listed below had the role

in the pathogenesis of this disease?

a. candida sp

b. micrococci sp

c. streptococci sp

d. staphylococcus sp



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e. propionibacterium sp

52. what is the mechanism of action of the treatment given by the

doctor?

a. antiseptic

b. comedolytic

c. antimicrobial

d. antiandrogen

e. decrease the sebum production

For question number 53 to 54, refer to scenario below:

a 6-year-old child was taken by his mother to a primary health care

with chief complain of painful pustules on the scalp and face since

3 days ago. The dermatological status revealed skin lesions with

regional distribution, on the frontal area of the scalp and

forehead,presented as 5 numbers of pustules.

53. what was the laboratory examination needed to confirm the

diagnosis in this patient?

a. Tzanck smear

b. Gram stain smear

c. KOH examination

d. Ziehl Nielsen examination

e. Wet mount preparation with NaCl

54. which skin structure listed below was most possible involved fo

the patient’s skin disorder?

a. hair follicle

b. eccrine glands

c. sebaceous unit

d. spinous layer of epidermis

e. granular layer of epidermis


a 31-year-old man, came to a primary health care with chief

complaint of recurrent erythematous plaque with thick scales, non-

pruritic, on the buttocks, on the elbows, and both knees since 3

years ago. The dermatological status revealed skin lesions with

regional distribution, on the sacrum,elbows, and knees, presented

as multiple lesions with fine border, consisted of erythematous

plaque with glossy, thick, layered scales. The KOH examination did

not reveal any fungal element.

55.what was the most possible diagnosis in this patient

a. tinea corporis

b. herpes zoster

c. psoriasis vulgaris

d. nummular dermatitis

e. seborrheic dermatitis

56. the doctor concluded that t here was a disorder of keratinocyte

differentiation in this case. Which part of the epidermis had an

active mitosis?

a. stratum basale

b. stratum spinosum

c. Stratum granulosum

d. stratum lucidum

e. stratum corneum

57. the doctor concluded that t here was a disorder of keratinocyte

differentiation in this case. What is the normal transit time for a

basal cell, from the time it loses contact with basal layer to the

time it enters the stratum corneum?

a. 7 days

b. 14 days

c. 28 days

d. 36 days

e. 46 days


An 18-year-old male teenager, came to primary health care with

chief complain black dots, some erythematous solid elevated lesion

with diameter less 5mm in size and some any circumscribed, raised

cavity containing pus, on his both cheeks a nd his forehead.

58. what is term for the elevated lesion with less than 5mm in sizes

in this patient?

A. nodule

b. plaque

c. papule

d. pustule

e. vesicle

59. what is the diagnosis of this disesase?

a. miliaria

b. rosacea

c. folliculitis

d. acne vulgaris

e. perioral dermatitis

60. what is the pathogenesis of black dots in this patient?

a. infection

b. rupture of follicular wall

c. epidermal hyperproliferation

d. inflammation of follicular ostium

e. accumulation of corneocyte and sebum

For questions number 61 – 66, refer to the scenario below

A 30-year-old housewife, came to primary health care with chief

complaint of recurrent painful cracked skin on both palms since 1

year ago. The dermatological status revealed fissures and scales.

The doctor treated the patient with topical 0.05% clobestasol

propionate ointment.

61. What is the most possible diagnosis in t his patient?

A. Atopic Dermatitis

B. Nummular Dermatitis

C. Irritant Contact Dermatitis

D. Statis Dermatitis

E. Seborrheic Dermatitis

62. What is the pathomechanismof this case?

a) Hypersensitivity type 1 reaction

b)Hypersensitivity type 2 reaction

c) Hypersensitivity type 3 reaction

d) Hypersensitivity type 4 reaction

e) Direct cytotoxic effect

63.which skin function was impaired in this case?

A) Skin as a barrier

B) Skin as mechanical shock protection

C) Skin as storage and active metabolism organ

D) Skin as insulates the body against external heat

E) Skin as insulates the body against external cold

64. what was the process that caused scaling in this patient?

A) swelling of the skin

B) proliferation of fibrous tissue

c) surface excavations of epidermis

d) linear loss of continuity of the skin’s surface

e) shedding of the outer-most layer of the stratum corneum

65) whatwas the process that caused fissuresin this patient?

A. Defect of the epidermis and dermis

B. Surface excavations of the epidermis

C. Linear loss of continuity ofthe skin’ssurface

D.Deposit of serum dries on the surface of the skin



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E. Loss of a portion or all of the viable epidermal

66) What is the mechanism of action of the topical treatment given

by the doctor?

1. Antibacterial

2. Antiviral

3. Antifungal

4. Antiinflammation

5. Antihistamine

For questions number 67 to 68, refer to the scenario below :

A 25 year-old-man, textile fabric employer, came to primary health

care with chief complain of painful erythematous macules and

blisters on the dorsal aspect of hand after got splashed with fabric

dye solution. The dermatological status revealed a solita ry lesion,

measuring 8X7 cm, presented as vesicles and blisters on an

erythematous maculae.

67) What was the most possible diagnosis in this pa tient?

1. Frictional dermatitis

2. Photocontact dermatitis

3.

Allergic contact dermatitis

4. Acute irritant contact dermatitis

5. Chronic cumulative irritant contact dermatitis

68) What is the definition of blister:

1. Fluid cavity larger than 0.5cm

2. Localized accumulation of purulent material deep on

the dermis

3. Circumscribed raised cavity in the epidermis

containing pus

4. Solid, round palpable lesion that has d iameter larger

then 0.5cm

5. Encapsulated cavity/sac containing fluid/semisolid

material

69) A player is kicked on t he front of his leg during a soccer game,

and a large bruise develops. Hematoma deep to the crural fascia

can create extreme pressure within the anterior compartment of

the leg, compressing structures within it.

Which of the following is the most likely finding resulting from this

anterior compartment syndrome?

1. Numbness on the dorsal of foot

2. Inability to plantarflex foot

3. Inability to invert foot

4. Inability to evert foot

5. Footdrop

70) In an adult, the co nus medullaris of the spinal cord is normally

positioned at which vertebral body levels?

a) T10-T12

b) T12-L3

c) L2-L4

d) L5-S1

e) S2-S4

71. Difficulty in swallowing was due to involvement of muscle that

elevates the tongue. wotf muscle is the most likely appropriate?

A. Genioglossus

B) Hyoglossus

c) stylogolussus

d) Stylohyoid

E) Stylopharngeus

72. During insertion of an IV canula in median cubital vein. Patient

lost his feeling on the radial side of the forearm. Which nerve is the

most likely appropriate for that injury?

a) musculocutaneous

b) superficial radial nerve

c) lateral antebrachial cutaneous

d) medial antebrachial cutaneous

e) posterior antecubital cutaneous

73.A 6 Year child,whose medical history includes a ra ther difcullt

birth has a permanently flited head posture with the right ear near

the right shoulder and face turned upwards and to tthe left

which of the following muscle was very likey damage from birth?

A.Sternoicleidomastiod

B.Anterior scalene

C.omohyoid

D.trapezius

E.Platysma

74.irragiton of the maxillary sinus t hrough its opening is supportive

measure to accelerate the resolution of a maxillary sinus

infection.wotf nasal space is the most likely approach to the sinus

opening?

a. choana

b. inferior meatus

c. middle meatus

d. superior meatus

e. sphenoethmoidal recess

75. Action of group constrictor pharyngeal muscle is to constrict

the phatyngeal cavity. Which nerve is the most l ikely innervate the

muscle..

A) Glossopharnygeal nerve

B) spinal Accessory nerve

C) Sympathetic trunk

D) Hypoglossal nerve

E) Vagus nerve

76. during industrial accident, sheet metal lacerate the anterior

surface of the worker wrist at the junction of his wrist and hand.

No abnormalities found, but the skin on the numb side of the hand.

Which nerve is affected

A) lateral antebrachial cutaneous

b) medial antebrachial cutaneous

c. median

d. radial

e. ulnar

77. Infection in oral cavity can spread to the neck region. One of

the regions is the triangle in which the superior branch of the ansa

cervicalis separates from the hypoglossal nerve.

Which of the following triangle is the most likely appropriate?

A. carotid

B. occipital

C. muscular

D. submental

E. subclavian

78. Which of the following muscle can produce the expression of

grimace?

A. platysma

B. buccinator

C. zygoamticus major

D. levator anguli oris

E. levator labii superioris.

79. an elderly woman presented with severe pain beneath her left

eye, radiating into the lowe eyelid, lateral side of the nose and

upper lip.which nerve is involve..

a) supraorbital

b. infraorbital

c. zygomatic

d. buccal

e. mental



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80. a saphenous cutdown is a surgical procedure that i nvolves

cutting through the skin to locate t he greater saphenous vein in

order to insert a cateter to cannula.

where is the best way to find that vessel?

a. anterior to the medial malleolus

b. through rhe saphenous opening

c. anterior to the medial epicondyle

d. tributaries ro the posterior tibial vein

e. subcutaneous branches of the posterior tibial artery

81. during insertion of an iv cannula in the medial cubital vein,

patient suddenly lot his feeling on t he radialside of the forearm.

Which of the following nerve is the most likely appropriate for

thatinjury?

a. Musculocutaneous

b. Superficial radial nerve

c. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous

d. Medial antebrachial cutaneous

e. Posterior antebrachial cutaneous

82.a 30-year-old boxer receives a blow to the right eye. Soon after

that he was unable to secrete tears from the eye. What is the most

likely location of the injury?

a.lateral superior orbit

b.lateral inferior orbit

c.medial superior orbit

d.medial inferior orbit

83. a27-year-old man comes to the outpatient clinic with chief

complaint falls onto his outstretched hand. You suspect a fracture

of a carpal bone.

Whichof the following bones is most likely fracture?

a.lunate

b.pisiform

c.capitate

d.scaphoid

e.triquetrium

For questions number 84 to 86, refer to the options below :

Choose in CORRECT name to each participant in the sliding

filament theory :

A.Troponin

b.Tropomyosin

c.Myosin

d.Actin

e.ATP

84.Has a binding site for calcium

85.Responsible for disconnectingthe cross bridges

86.Hasa binding site for ATP

87. one of these is not function of the skin

a.thermoregulation

bmechanical barrier

c.protection against infectious agent

d.radiation barrier

e.pressure barrier

88. What is the predisposition factor at joint contracture?

a.imbalance of agonist-antagonistmuscles

b.pain of the muscles of the joint

c.hypotonic of muscle of the joint

d.twitching of muscle of the joint

e.hypertrophy of muscle of the joint

89. In physiology of a motor nerve fiber is stimulated, the impulse

arriving at the nerve ending :

a.release cholinesterase which byquata reaction cause muscle

contraction

b.create an action potential at the motor end plate by the

formation of prostigmine like substance

c.release electrical impulse to muscle fiber causing a contraction

d.activate release ACTH which in turn stimula tes the motor end

plate to form a propagated action potential

e.allthe above are correct

90. histology of bone on Haversian cana ls have been described as

containing:

a. a capillary vessels & extracellular fluid

b. a capillary and venule vessels

c. an ateriol, a venule, and a lymphatic vessels

d. an arteriol and avenule vessels

e. an arteriol, a venule, a lypmhatic, a nerve fibers, and

extracellular fluid

91.calcitonin

a.inhibits interstitial(jejunal) absorption of Ca2+

and Po4-

b.decrease osteoclasctic activity

c.activity is associated with increase alkaline phosphotases

d.reduces urinary excretion of phosphotases Ca2+

e.all above correct

92.pseudoarthrosis (non-union) as one of the complication

fracture:

a.the fracture gap is filled with fibrous tissue

b.of the arthrotic type is due to poor blood supply

c.of the hypertrophic type can be treated by ORIF

d. has a cavity lined by synovium

e.all above correct

93. in the treatment of tetanus

a.tetanus toxoid should be given intravenous as soon as possible

b.wound debridement should be undertake prior to any ot her

therapy

c.human antitetanus immunoglobulin should be given immediately

in patients at risk

d.penicillin or metronidazole therapy should be administreted

e.all above correct

94.19 yo male, came to hospital with a pain at the back and unable

to walk as a chief complaint. He complained about persistent pain

since 3 months ago and concomitantly unable t o walk since 1 week

ago. He also complained about night sweat, loss of appetite as well

as loss of body weight. He looks so skinny and both of his lower

limb muscle are wasted. Laboratory revealed elevated ESR and low

Hb, otherwise are normal. Vertebral X-ray revealed compression

fracture at T12 with kyphotic deformity. W hat is the possible cause

of the neurologic deficit in this patient?

a. compression of the spinal cord by the bony fragments

b. compression of the spinal roots by the bo ny fragments

c. compression of the spinal ligaments by the bony fragments

d. compression of the spinal foramen by the bony fragments

e. compression of the spinal canal by the bony fragments

95. A 23 yo male came to the emergency room with pain at the left

leg as the chief complain. Pain occurred after the felt down from a

staircase. He was complaining deformity and swelling below the

left knee, which also unable to move that part. No wound was

found. He felt down 5 hours ago. For the last one hour he

complained about constant pain belom the left knee.

What is the definitive procedure for this patie nt?

a.reduction

b.fixation

c.fasciotomy

d.splinting

e.traction



8



96. A 13yo junior high school student complained abo ut pain and

swelling at her right ankle joint after fell down during sport activity

at her school. She was still able to walk, but painfully.

What is the most common mechanism of this injury?

a.inversion type twist

b.eversion type twist

c.pronation type twist

d.supination type twist

e.extension type twist

97. Which of the following is the most appropriate radiological

exam at minimum requirement to rule out concomitant fracture of

this condition?

a.AP projection of the ankle joint

b.Lateral projection of the ankle joint

c.AP and lateral projection of the ankle joint

d.AP, lateral, and mortice projection of the ankle joint

e.AP, lateral, and tangential projection of the anklejoint

98. How long is the most sufficient period of immobilization as a

treatment for this condition?

a.1 week

b.2 week

c.3 week

d.4 week

e.5 week

99.which of the following is the most common predisposing factor

of this condition

a. lack of positioning

b. lack of strengthening

c. lack of stretching

d. lack of conditioning

100.A 9 yo boy came to a dentist for a routine dental exam and

possible cause of the caries. What bac causes this

a.streptococcus haemolyticus

b.streptococcus mutants

c. staphylococcus epidermidis

d.staphylococcus areus

e. staphylococcus haemolyticus

101. Some bacteria produce an internal structure known as

endospore. This structure is produce by the vegetative cells by

process called sporogenesis. WOTF are the most likely bacteria

produce such structure

a. Mycobacterium tubercolusis

b. Chlamydia trachomatic

c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

d. Clostridium tetani

e. Proteus vulgaris

102. A 32-years old man suffered from abscess formation of the oil

secreting gland of the upper right eyelid for two days. The most

common cause of this disease is

a. Propionibacterium acne

b. Haemophilus aegypticus

c. Staphylococcus aureus

d. Corynebacterium sp

e. Candida albicans

103. The skin and the mucous membrane always harbor so me

microorganism, some of them are the resident flora, a relatively

fixed type of microorganism regularly found in the area. WOTF

organism not fit to that category

a. Staphylococcus sp

b. Streptococcus sp

c. Propionibacterium

d. Mycobacterium

e. Diphteroid

104. Most of normal flora of the skin are gram (+) bacteria, but

some are gram (-). WOTF organism fit into the second category

a. Staphylococcus sp

b. Staphylococcus sp

c. Staphylococcus sp

d. Diphteroid

e. Propionibacterium

105. These bacteria are normal flora of the skin and mucous

membrane, but sometimes they may produce serious disease such

as endocarditis. What bacteria most likely cause such disease?

a. Propionibacterium

b. Alfa streptococcus

c. Peptostreptococcus

d. Micrococcus

e. Diphteroid

106. A 30-years old man came to the outpatient clinic with

complaint of toothace on the right lower jaw, 3 years ago. The

tooth was filled and underwent nerve treatment, o nly ¾ part of the

crown is left and excreting pus, checked is swollen. The diagnosis

was abscess caused by gangrene pulpa. The doctor gave antibiotic

and analgesic/anti-inflammation and recommended to see

dentistry for tooth extraction. WOTF drug that proper given to

overcome the pain?

a. Mefenamic acid

b. Phenylbutazon

c. Acetosal

d. Meloxicam

e. Methampiron

107. A 45-years old man cameto the outpatient clinic with

complaint

A drug to overcome headache. After physical examination

Abdomen is the side effect of drug that he took for relieving his

What is the most likely drug that taken by the patient and causes

a. Mefenamic acid



9



b. Paracetamol

c. Acetosal

d. Celecoxib

e. Fenoprofen

108. A 15-year-old boy came to outpatient clinic with complaint of

headache, pharyngeal pain and high temperature. This patient was

diagnosed acute bacterial tonsilopharyngitis. The doctor gave

antipyretic.

Which of the following drug is the safest antipyretic?

a. Phenylbutazon

b. Salicylic acid

c. Indomethazin

d. Paracetamol

e. Na-diclofenac

109. Local anesthetics interfere with the movement of which ion as

a fundamental basis for their action?

a. Oxygen

b. hydrogen

c. Pottasium

d. Sodium

e. Calcium

110. Frequently vasocontrictors are combined with local anasthetic

to delay absorption of the anesthetic from its injection site.

What is the most widely employed agent?

a. Dopamin

b. Phenylephrine

c. Levonordephrine

d. Coccaine

e. Epinephrine

111. A 28-years-old woman came to out-patient department with

pain in her tooth. From oral examinaton she suffered dental

caries. Before taking further treatment, the doctor gave her

NSAID to reduce the inflammation and pain. It was also

known that the patient are 6- months old pregnant. Which of

the following is the safest NSAID for this patient?

a. Salicylate

b. Metampyrone

c. Metenamic acid

d. Paracetamol

e. Ibuprofen

112. A 20 yo woman comes to your clinic with headache. You

want to give her NSAID to reduce the pain but from past

history she had peptic ulcer. Which of the f ollowing is the

most appropriate NSAID for this patient:

a. Piroxicam

b. Ibuprofen

c. Paracetamol

d. Metampyrone

e. Salicylate

113. A 17 yo woman comes to your clinic with disturbing pain

during menstruation. Which of following is the strongest

NSAID approproate for this patient?

a. Mefenamic acid

b. Paracetamol

c. Metampyrone

d. Salicylate

e. Piroxicam

114. An 18 yo woman with chief complained of papules on face

and back, diagnosed of acne vulgaris. The doctor planned to

give systemic treatment with tetracycline 500 mg cap orally

3 times a day after meal f or 5 days. Which of the following is

the proper prescription for the patient?

a. R/ Tetracyclin cap 500 mg No. V; S.t.d.d. cap. 1. 1. h.a.c

b. R/ Tetracyclin cap 500 mg No. XV; S.t.d.d. cap. 1. p.c

c.

Tetracyclin cap No. XV; S.t.d.d. cap. 1. 1. h.p.c

d. Tetracyclin cap. No XV 500 mg; S.t.d.d. 3 cap. 1. p.c

e. Tetracyclin cap 500 mg; S.t.d.d. cap. 1. h.a.c

115. A 50 yo woman comes to the o utpatient clinic with a chief

complaint pain on her both knees since a week ago. Pain was

felt particularly in the morning. The doctor diagnoses

rheumatoid arthritis, and he wants to give his patient

Diclofenac sodium emulgel, 1 %, number of tube 1, q uantity

of tube 20g, twice a day. Which of the following is the

signature in Latin term on theprescription order for topical

preparation?

a. S.s.d.d.applic

b. S.b.d.d.applic

c. S.t.d.d.applic

d. S.q.d.d.applic

e. S.d.i.d.applic

116. A 55 yo woman comes to the outpatient clinic with a chief

complain pain on her both knees since week ago. Pain is felt

particularly in the morning. The doctor diagnoses

Rheumatoid Arthritis, & wants to give his patient Diclofenac

sodium 50mg tab orally thrice a day 1 hour after meal for

5days. Which of the following is the signat ure in Latin term

on the prescription?

a. S.s.d.d. tab 1

b. S.t.d.d tab 1

c. S.t.d.d. tab 1. 1 h.a.c

d. S.t.d.d. tab 1. 1 h.p.c

e. S.q.d.d. tab 1. 1 h.a.c

117. Morphine produces an analgesic effect due to:

a. A block of potassium efflux from a neuron; b.d.d.

part.dol.applic

b. An increase in C-AMP accumulation in a neuron; S.t.d.d.

part.dol.applic

c. A decrease in intracellular Ca in a neuron; S.b.d.d. part. dol.

Applic

d. Interaction with a G protein in the neuron; S.d.d. part. dol.

Applic

e. An increase in calcium channel phosphorylation in the

neuron; S.t.d.d. part.dol.applic

For questions number 118 to 122, refer to the options

below:

a. α-keratin

b.

collagen

c. elastin

d. hyaluronic acid

e. myosin

f. actin

118. These molecules serve as lubricants in the synovial fluid of

joint.

119. The synthesis of these molecules requires vitamin C.



10 Akademikciamik 2010 _Perfecten


120. These molecules aggregation forming structure called thick

filament.

121.these molecules that are constituent of almost entire dry

weight of hair

122.molecules produces two way stretch with elasticity

123.which epidermal layer found in thick skin

a.stratum spinosum

b.stratum corneum

c.stratum graulosum

d.stratum lucidium

e.stratum basale

124.from the basement membrane outward, the strata of the

epidermis are:

A. Corneum, granulosum, spinosum, basale

B. Basale, spinosum, granulosum, corneum

C. Lucidum, basale, granulosum, corneum

D. Granulosum, spinosum, basale, corneum

E. Basale, granulosum, spinosum, corneum

125. What are the most abundant cells found in the epidermis?

A. Melanocytes

B. Merkel cells

C. Keratinocytes

D. Langerhans cells

E. Epithel cells

126. The terms thick and thin refer to the relative thickness of the:

A. Entire integument

B. Cutaneous and subcutaneous layers

C. Epidermis only

D. Dermis only

127. which of the following makes no significant contribution of

skin color?

A. Hemoglobin

B. Keratin

C. Melanin

D. Carotene

E. Vitamin A

128. Dermal structure that originate from invagination of the

epidermis include:

A. The accessory organs of the intergument

B. Sweat and sebaceous glands

C. The intergumentary appendages

D. Nails and hair

E. All the above

129. 2major region of the dermis are the superficial __________

layer and deeper ___________layer

A. Collagenous; elastic

B. papillary; reticular

C. reticular; papillary

D. areolar; adipose

E. desmosomes; tight junction

130. The dermal papillae interlock with deep projection of

epidermis is called:

A. Epidermal ridges

B. The papillary layer

C. Desmosomes

D. Tight junctions

E. Reticular

131. Stretch marks, or striae, are the result of

A. Excessive stretching of the epidermis

B. Torn collagen fibers in the dermis

C. An overabundance of elastic fibers

D. Hiperactivity of elastic fibers

E. All the above

132. Which statement about the subcutaneous layer is

false?

A. It consists of areolar connective tissue and

adipose connective tissue

B.

It stabilizes the position of the skin and binds it

to the underlying tissue

C. Corresponding to larger body size, it is normally

thicker in men than in women

D. Also called the hypodermis or superficial fascia,

it is not part of the integument

133. Both hair and nails are composed mainly of dead cells

packed with

A. Melanin

B. Collagen

C. Carotene

D. Keratin

E. Elastin

134. The lunula, eponychium, and hyponichium are all

structures associated with a

A. Sweat gland

B. Nail

C. Hair

D. Hair follicle

E. Hair root

135. The connective tissue root sheath and epithelial root

sheath are both components of the

A. Hair follicle

B. Hair root

C. Hair bulb

D. Hair papilla

E. Nail

136. Which type of gland secretes a lipid ma terial that

coats the epidermis and hair shafts to provide

lubrication and inhibit bacterial growth?

A. Sebaceous

B. Sudoriferous

C. Eccrine

D. Apocrine

E. Merocrine

137. Which selection correctly pairs the type of cartilage

with one of its locations in the body?

A. Hyaline cartilage, trachea

B. Fibrocartilage, epiphyseal plates

C. Elastc cartilage, menisci

D. Hyaline cartilage, epiglotis

E.

Elastic cartilage, epiglotis

138. Fibrocartilage is found in which of these structures?

A. Auricle of the ear and external auditory canal

B. Larynx and articular surfaces of bones

C. Intervertebral discs and pubic symphysis

D. Patellar joint

E. Shoulder joint

139. Hemopoiesis is the process of

A. Bone formation

B. Cartilage formation





C. Blood cell formation

D. Entrapment of blood vessels by developing

bone

E. Blood cell deterioration

140. Which bone cell secrete osteoid (the initial semisolid

form of bone)?

A. Osteocytes

B.

Osteoprogenitor cells

C. Osteoblasts

D. Ostoeclasts

E. Progenitor cells

141. which of the following are components of compact bone, but

not of an......(soal ga lengkap)

a. perforating canals and circumferential lamellae

b. central canal and concentric lamellae

c. osteocytes, lacunae and canaliculi

d. central canal and canaliculi

e. all of the part of an osteon

142. at each of a long bone is an expanded, knobby region called

the:

a. head

b. metaphysis

c.diaphysis

d. epiphysis

e. tail

143. which of the following does not accurately describe spongy

bone?

a. contains slightly larger osteons than compact bone

b. composed of parallel lamellae with ostoecytes in between

c. provides great resistance to stresses applied in many directions

d. forms an open meshwork narrow plates called trabeculae

144. yellow bone marrow contains a large proportio n of:

a. reticulocytes

b. fatty tissue

c. fibroblast

d.elastic fibers

e. protein

145. interstitial growth of a bone occurs in the:

a. articular cartilage

b. epiphyseal plate

c. diaphyseal line

d. center of the shaft

e. interstitial growth

146. a typical bone has which of the following major sets of blood

vessels?

a. primary,secondary, and tertiary

b. haversian, volkmann’s and connecting

c. epiphyseal, metaphyseal and diaphyseal

d. nutrient, metaphyseal and periosteal

e. arterail, venous, capillary

147. Which of the following t hyroid gland hormone encourages ca

dispersion into bone and inhibits osteoclast activity?

a. growth hormone

b. somatostatin

c. calcitonin

d. thyroid hormone

e. calcium

148. ___produces new bone, while______reabsorb bone

a. osteoclasts, osteocytes

b. osteoblasts, osteoclasts

c. osteoclasts, osteoblasts

d. osteocytes, osteoblasts

e. osteoblast, osteocytes

149. The 3 structural classes of articulation are:

a. sychondroses, symphyses, and fibrous joints

b. syarthroses, amphiarthroses and diarthroses

c. fibrous, cartilaginous, and synovial joints

d. gomphoses, sutures, synostoses

e. syndesmoses, sympyses and ampiarthroses

150. what are the 3 functional joints

a. synarthroses, amphiarthroses, diarthroses

b.planar, condyloid, ball and socket

c.uniaxial,biaxial, multiaxial

d. syndesmoses, symphyses, ampiarthroses

e. gomphoses, sutures, synostoses

151. epiphysial plates in gliding below is an example of what

articulation

A synohondrosis

B Symphysis

C syndesmosis

D Synostosis

E suture

152.Articulating bones separated only by a pad of a fibrocartilage

to

A .Plantar joint

B.Suture

C.synovial joint

D symphysis

E syndstosis

153. Which term describes a joint injury in which the articulating

bone have separated ?

A. Sprain

B. Strain

C.Dislocation

D. Bursitis

e. fracture

154.the types of muscle tissue are

A. Voluntary ,involuntary ,Cardiac

B. Skeletal ,cardiac ,smooth

C. Striated, unstriated,rough

D.Striated ,skeletal,Voluntary

E. Red muscle ,White muscle ,involuntary

155.The layer of dense irregular connective tissue that surround

the entire Skeletal Muscle is the

A. Sarcolemea

B. Perimysium

C.Eudomysium

D.Epimysium

E.Myofibril

156. What is the cell membrane of muscle fiber called?

a. endomysium

b. sarcomere

c. sarcolemma

d. myofibril

e. myofilaments

157. A thick, fibrous connective tissue cord that attaches a muscle

to abone is called:

a. a ligament

b. a tendon

c. a raphe

d. an aponeurosis

e. a sarcolemma





158.Which structure extend into the sacroplasm as a network of

deep invagination of the sarcolemma

A. Transverse tubule

B. Sacroplasmic Reticulum

C. Terminal cisternae

D. Cross bridge

E. Neuromuscular junction

159. The functional contractile unit of a skeletal muscle fiber are

the:

A.Myofilament

B.Transverse tubule

C. Sarcomeres

D.Sarcolemmae

E.Actinomyosin

160. A reduction in muscle size, Tone, power is called

A .Atrophy

B. Spasm

C.Hypertrophy

D.Hyperplasia

E.Dystrophy

161. A muscle impulse travels deep into muscle fiber along:

A. The sarcolemma

B. T-tubule membrane

C. The endomysium

D. Myofibrils

E. Action potential

162. When stimulated by muscle impulse, what do t he terminal

cisternae release into sarcoplasm?

A. Sodium, Na+

B. Calcium, Ca2+

C. Adenosine triphosphate, ATP

D.

Acetylcholine, Ach

E. Kalium, K+

163. Systemic effects of major burn include:

A. Increase in venous return

B. Increase in cardiac preload

C. Decrease in systemic vascular resistance

D. Increase in pulmonary vascular resistance

E. Hyperproteinaemia

164. in the primary treatment of burn

a. the first priority is to assess the precentage surface area of burn

b. the first priority is to provide initial basic fluid resuscitation

c. once fluid resuscitation hascommenced, other trauma should be

excluded

d. a 30% partial thickness burn injury with combined severe head

injury (gcs 7) should initially be managed by neurosurgeons if

combined care is not available

e. singed nasal hair should prompt immediate intubation

165. with respect to pediatric burns wotf is true?

a. they have lower energy needs

b. they have thicker skin

c. they have larger surface area to body mass ratio

d. renal concentrating ability is better than adult

e. hypertropic scarring is less common

166. which one of the following contributes to poor wound

healing?

a. hepatitis C

b. vit A deficiency

c. vit B deficiency

d. dm

e. autism

167. a young man was brought with a burn injury. on examining

you remember the following about full thickness burn

a. the hair follicle and sweat gland are likely to be spared

b. the patient felt no sensation on the burn site

c. bullous lesion are often seen

d. 10% of burn carries a 80% mortality

e. electrical burns are usually split thickness

168. You are the first medical at tendance to arrive at the scene of

accident. what should you do first when Acutely injured patient,

assuming that person had already moved out t he danger?

A. Clear airway

B.

Stabilize cervical spine

C. arrest arterial hemorrhage

D. relieve tension pneumothorax

E. Check conscious level

169. After successful resuscitation, wotf is the commonest cause of

death in patient with multiple skeletal and soft tissues injury

A. Renal failure

B. Hipovolemic shock

C. Septic shock

D. Pulmonary embolism

E. ventilator failure

170. wotf statement about Orbital blow out fracture is most

accurate

A. It is nearly always associated with diplopia on looking

forward

B. It usually follow penetrating injury

C. The roof of orbit is usual site of fracture

D.

either fat or muscle may be caught in the fracture

E. there is usually an associated cranial nerve injury

171. A 24-year old male, came to your emergency department

while you are on duty. He came with history of burn from burned

stove. His kitchen didn’t have any window. On physical exa m, you

could find he had partial thickness burn about 50% of TBSA. Which

one of the cause below most likely is ca use of death?

A. Severe burn injury

B. Inhalation injury

C. Circumferential burn

D. Hypertrophic scars

E. Acute renal failure

172. An 18 year old male came to your emergency department,

because of motorcycle accident with examination, he had

decreased consciousness & significant bleeding from the mouth

and nose. He complained difficulty opening his lower jaw. What is

the 1st

priority for this patient?

A. Give 100% O2 immediately

B. Put Barton Sling around the mandible

C. Maintain for the patency of airway

D. Diagnosis the fracture quickly

E. Put an intravenous line

173. A 15 year old boy with history of scalding injury 2 weeks ago.

The most probable grade of the burn injury?

A. Grade I

B.

Grade IIa

C. Grade IIb

D. Grade III

E. Grade IV


A 15 year old boy with history of scalding injury 2 weeks ago.

174. What is the phase of wound healing process in patient

A. Inflammation phase

B. Haemostatic phase





C. Proliferation phase

D. Remodelling phase

E. Maturation phase

175. Which of the following statement TRUE regarding superficial

partial thickness burn?

A. Most common cause due to sunlight

B.

Healed after 4 weeks

C. Painless at the injury site

D. Contracture frequent complication

E. Bullous lesion of the skin

176. Which of these statement is regarding keloid?

A. An elbow knee ankle are predilection area of keloid

B. Spontaneously healed after 2 years

C. Occur after week or month after initial injury

D. Recurrent rate is lower compare hypertrophic scar

E. Keloid doesn’t grow larger from the initial injury site

177. Which of the following is a criteria of burn patient to specialist

A. Burn more than 50 percent TBSA due to sunburn

B.

Increase voltage electrical burn

C. Superficial burn 20 percent TBSA partial t hickness

burn

D. Partial thickness burn, 10 TBSA on posterior trunk of

adult male

E. Partial thickness burn, 2 percent of TBSA on lef t thigh

of 2 years old boy

178. which of the following structures belongs to the femoral bone

A. Spiral groove

B. Transverse process

C. Pubic tubercle

D. Trochanter

E. Greater tubercle

179. which of the following bones belong to Axial bone

A. Sternum

B. Clavicula

C. Fibula

D. Tibia

E. Scapula

180. which of the following structures belongs to carpal bone

A. Talus

B. cuneiform

C. Metacarpal

D. Scaphoid

E. Calcaneus

181. Which of the following muscles forms the medial

boundary of the axilla?A. Serratus anterior

B. Subscapularis

C. Pectoralis major

D. Rhomboid

E. Pectoralis minor

182. Which one of the muscles that crosses both the

shoulder and elbow joint?

A. Coracobrachialis

B. Deltoideus

C. Biceps brachii

D. Brachioradialis

E. Brachialis

183. Which of the following statement is true about

posterior compartment of the forearm?

A. The muscles of this compartment produce

flexion

B. The muscles are innervated by radial nerve

C. The muscles are innervated by median nerve

D. The superficial muscles have the origin at the

medial epicondyle of humerus

E. Pronator teres is one of the muscles

184. Which of the following muscles plays an important

role in reinforcing the shoulder joint as the rotator

cuff?

A. Teres major

B. Deltoid

C. Serratus anterior

D. Teres minor

E. Pectoral major

185. Which of the following muscles has the origin at the

medial epicondyle of the humerus?

A. Deep flexor digitorum

B. Extensor carpi ulnaris

C. Extensor carpi radialis

D. Pronator teres

E. Pronator quadratus

186. Which of the following muscles would be paralyzed

when the deep branch of the ulnar nerve i njured?

A. Hypothenar muscles

B. Palmaris longus

C. Thenar muscles

D. Flexor carpi radialis

E.

Supinator

187. Which of the following statements is true concerning

the femoral nerve?

A. Is the branch if the sacral plexus

B. Innervates the biceps femoris

C. Gives branch the fiburalis nerve

D. Passes superficial to the inguinal ligament

E. Is the branch of the lumbar plexus


the obturator nerve?

A. Is the branch of the lumbar plexus

B. Innervates the semimembranosa

C.

Passes through the femoral canal

D. Passes through ischiadic foramen

E. Innervates the quadriceps femoris


the median nerve

A. Is the branch of the posterior cord of the

brachial plexus

B. Innervates the biceps brachii muscle

C. Gives branch the posterior interosseus nerve

D. Passes superficial to the carpal tunnel

E. Is the branch of the lateral and medial cord of

the brachial plexus

190.

If the fracture occurs at the neck of the fibula, the

bone fragments usually injured

A. Lateral sural cutaneus

B. Tibial nerve

C. Common peroneal nerve

D. Deep peroneal

E. Saphenous nerve

191. An 18 – year – old patient has been improperly f illed with

axillary – type crutches, which have put on the posterior cord of





the brachial plexus. Which of the following terminal nerve would

most likely be affected?

A. Axillary nerve

B. Musculocutaneous nerve

C. Median nerve

D. Radial nerve

E. Ulnar nerve

192. A 24-year-old man is noted to have a midshaft humeral

fracture after falling from a scaffold.Which of the is the following

muscle tests would you perform to test th e integrity of the radial

nerve?

A.flexion of forearm at elbow joint

B.flexion of hand at wrist joint

C.extension of hand at wrist joint

D.abduction of index,middle, ring and little finger

E.adduction of index,middle, ring and little finger

193. A 12 year-old boy is diagnosed with an upper brachial plexus

injury after falling from a tree.He presents with his right upper arm

at his side due to loss of abducton. The muscle primary responsible

for abduction of the arm at shoulder are the

A.deltoid and biceps brachii muscles

B.deltoid and supraspinatusmuscles

C.deltoid and infraspinatusmuscles

D.infraspinatus and supraspinatusmuscles

E.choracobrachialis and supraspinatusmuscles

194. Injury to the lateral cord of the brachial plexus will also injure

its continuation, the musculocutaneous nerve. Which of t he

following findings would you observe in a patient with this injury ?

a. weakness of abduction of the arm at the shoulder

b. weakness of abduction of the arm at the shoulder

c. weakness of extension of the forearm at the elbow

d. weakness of flexion of the forearm at the elbow

e.weakness of supination of the forearm and hand

195.A 22-year-old man is brough to the emergency department

with a knife injury to the axilla. The physician suspects injury to the

lower brachial plexus. Which of the follo wing nerves is most likely

to be affected?

a. axillary nerve

b. musculocutaneous nerve

c. vagus nerve

d. radial nerve

e. ulnar nerve

196.you are examining an axial (cross section) magnetic resonance

imaging (MRI) scan of the wrist and have identified the carpal

tunnel. The structure that forms the anteri or wall of the tunnel is

the :

a.palmaraponeurosis

b.volar carpal ligament

c.flexor retinaculum

d.extensor retinaculum

e.deep fascia

197.you are evaluating a radiograph of the only bony articulation

between the upper limb and trunk.

whichof the following joint you are evaluating?

a.glenohumeral joint

b.acromioclavicular joint

c.humeroclavicular joint

d.coracoclavicular joint

e.sternoclavicular joint

198) You are explaining the anatomy of the shoulder to young

athlete who has injury on one of his shoulders. You tell him the

chief stability to this joint is from the :

a. glenohumeral ligaments

b. acromioclavicular ligament

c. rotator cuff muscles

d. coracoclavicular ligaments

e. coracohumeral ligaments

199) Your patient with hip dislocation is also exhibiting weakness

of extension of the thigh at the hip joint. This would indicate

possible damage to the :

A. Femoral nerve

B. Obturator nerve

C. Common fibular portion of the sciatic nerve

D. Tibial portion of the sciatic nerve

E. Saphenous nerve

200) Your patient has the ankle joint injury. You concerned that

your patient’s medial deltoid ligament may have been torn from its

proximal attachment.

Which of the following would you palpate f or tenderness ?

a. The medial aspect of the tibial shaft

b. The lateral aspect of the fibular shaft

c. The medial malleolus

d. The lateral malleolus

e. The calcaneus

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