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FIN 320 Week 6 Quiz – Strayer
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Quiz 4 Chapter 9 and 10
Chapter 9: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. Testing many different trading rules until you find one that would have worked in the past is called _______.
A. data mining
B. perceived patterning
C. pattern searching
D. behavioral analysis 2. Models of financial markets that emphasize psychological factors affecting investor behavior are called
_______.
A. data mining
B. fundamental analysis
C. charting
D. behavioral finance 3. The trin statistic is a ______ indicator.
A. sentiment
B. flow of funds
C. market structure
D. fundamental
4. The put/call ratio is a ______ indicator.
A. sentiment
B. flow of funds
C. market structure
D. fundamental 5. Relative strength is ______ indicator.
A. a fundamental
B. an economic
C. a technical
D. an international 6. Short interest is a ______ indicator.
A. sentiment
B. flow of funds
C. market structure
D. fundamental 7. Moving averages are ______ indicators.
A. sentiment
B. flow of funds
C. trend
D. fundamental
8. Market breadth is a ______ indicator.
A. sentiment
B. flow of funds
C. technical
D. fundamental 9. The cumulative tally of the number of advancing stocks minus declining stocks is called the
______________.
A. market breadth
B. market volume
C. trin ratio
D. relative strength ratio 10. A high amount of short interest is typically considered as a __________ signal, and contrarians may
consider it as a _________ signal.
A. bearish; bullish
B. bullish; bearish
C. bearish; false
D. bullish; false 11. Technical analysis focuses on _____________________.
A. finding opportunities for risk-free investing
B. finding repeating trends and patterns in prices
C. changing prospects for earnings growth of particular firms or industries
D. forecasting technical regulatory changes
12. Behavioralists point out that even if market prices are ____________, there may be _______________.
A. distorted; limited arbitrage opportunities
B. distorted; fundamental efficiency
C. allocationally efficient; limitless arbitrage opportunities
D. distorted; allocational efficiency 13. According to market technicians, it is time to sell stock in a head-and-shoulders formation when
___________.
A. the price index pierces the left shoulder
B. the price index pierces the right shoulder
C. the price index pierces the head
D. none of these options takes place 14. When a stock price breaks through the moving average from below, this is considered to be ______.
A. the starting point for a new moving average
B. a bearish signal
C. a bullish signal
D. none of these options 15. When the stock price falls below a moving average, a possible conclusion is that _____.
A. market momentum has become positive
B. market momentum has become negative
C. there is no regular pattern for this stock's market momentum
D. professional analysts' opinions are invalid until the stock price rises again
16. Following a period of falling prices, the moving average will _____.
A. be below the current price
B. be above the current price
C. be equal to the current price
D. become more volatile than it had been before prices fell 17. A moving average of stock prices _________________.
A. always lies above the most recent price
B. always lies below the most recent price
C. is less volatile than the actual prices
D. is more volatile than the actual prices 18. When the housing bubble burst in 2007, it set off the worst financial crisis _____.
A. in 25 years.
B. in 40 years.
C. in 50 years.
D. in 75 years. 19. A support level is ___________________.
A. a level beyond which the market is unlikely to rise
B. a level below which the market is unlikely to fall
C. an equilibrium price level justified by characteristics such as earnings and cash flows
D. the peak of a market wave or cycle
20. According to Kondratieff, the macro economy moves in a series of waves that recur at intervals of approximately _________________.
A. 18 months
B. 4 years
C. 8 years
D. 50 years 21. According to Elliot's wave theory, stock market behavior can be explained as _________________.
A. a series of medium-term wave cycles with no short-term trend
B. a series of long-term wave cycles with no short-term trend
C. a series of superimposed long-term and short-term wave cycles
D. sine and cosine functions 22. Conventional finance theory assumes investors are _______, and behavioral finance assumes investors are
_______.
A. rational; irrational
B. irrational; rational
C. greedy; philanthropic
D. philanthropic; greedy 23. The only way for behavioral patterns to persist in prices is if ______________.
A. markets are not weak-form efficient
B. there are limits to arbitrage activity
C. there are no significant trading costs
D. market psychology is inconsistent over time
24. In the context of a point and figure chart, a horizontal band of Xs and Os is a _____________.
A. buy signal
B. sell signal
C. congestion area
D. trend reversal 25. Even though indexing is growing in popularity, only about _____ of equity in the mutual fund industry is
held in indexed funds. This may be a sign that investors and managers __________.
A. 5%; are excessively conservative
B. 15%; overestimate their ability
C. 20%; suffer from framing biases
D. 25%; engage in mental accounting 26. If investors are too slow to update their beliefs about a stock's future performance when new evidence
arises, they are exhibiting _______.
A. representativeness bias
B. framing error
C. conservatism
D. memory bias 27. If investors overweight recent performance in forecasting the future, they are exhibiting _______.
A. representativeness bias
B. framing error
C. memory bias
D. overconfidence
28. Trading activity and average returns in brokerage accounts tend to be _________.
A. uncorrelated
B. negatively correlated
C. positively correlated
D. positively correlated for women and negatively correlated for men 29. Your two best friends each tell you about a person they know who successfully started a small business.
That's it, you decide; if they can do it, so can you. This is an example of _____________.
A. mental accounting
B. framing bias
C. conservatism
D. representativeness bias 30. Which of the following is not a sentiment indicator?
A. Confidence index
B. Short interest
C. Odd-lot trading
D. Put/call ratio 31. Which of the following is considered a sentiment indicator?
A. A 200-day moving average
B. Short interest
C. Credit balances in brokerage accounts
D. Relative strength
32. An investor holds a very conservative portfolio invested for retirement, but she takes some extra cash she earned from her year-end bonus and buys gold futures. She appears to be engaging in ___________.
A. overconfidence
B. representativeness
C. forecast errors
D. mental accounting 33. Which of the following analysts focus more on past price movements of a firm's stock than on the
underlying determinants of its future profitability?
A. Credit analysts
B. Fundamental analysts
C. Systems analysts
D. Technical analysts 34. A trin ratio of greater than 1 is considered a __________.
A. bearish signal
B. bullish signal
C. bearish signal by some technical analysts and a bullish signal by other technical analysts
D. trend reversal signal 35. Contrarian investors consider a high put/call ratio a __________.
A. bearish signal
B. bullish signal
C. trend confirmation signal
D. signal to enter the options market
36. The ratio of the average yield on 10 top-rated corporate bonds to the average yield on 10 intermediate-grade bonds is called the __________.
A. bond price index
B. confidence index
C. relative strength index
D. trin ratio 37. An investor needs cash to pay some hospital bills. He is willing to use his dividend income to pay the bills,
but he will not sell any stock to do so. He is engaging in ___________.
A. overconfidence
B. representativeness
C. forecast errors
D. mental accounting 38. Bill and Shelly are friends. Bill invests in a portfolio of hot stocks that almost all his friends are invested in.
Shelly invests in a portfolio that is totally different from the portfolios of all her friends. Both Bill's and Shelly's stocks fall 15%. According to regret theory, _________________________________________.
A. Bill will have more regret over the loss than Shelly
B. Shelly will have more regret over the loss than Bill
C. Bill and Shelly will have equal regret over their losses
D. Bill's and Shelly's risk aversion will increase in the future 39. The most common measure of __________ is the spread between the number of stocks that advance in
price and the number of stocks that decline in price.
A. market breadth
B. market volume
C. odd-lot trading
D. short interest
40. Jill is offered a choice between receiving $50 with certainty or possibly receiving the proceeds from a gamble. In the gamble a fair coin is tossed, and if it comes up heads, Jill will receive $100; if the coin comes up tails, she will receive nothing. Jill chooses the $50 instead of the gamble. Jill's behavior indicates __________________.
A. regret avoidance
B. overconfidence
C. that she has a diminishing marginal utility of wealth
D. prospect theory loss aversion 41. When the market breaks through the moving average line from below, a technical analyst would probably
suggest that it is a good time to ___________.
A. buy the stock
B. hold the stock
C. sell the stock
D. short the stock 42. If you believed in the reversal effect, you should __________.
A. buy bonds this period if you held stocks last period
B. buy stocks this period that performed poorly last period
C. buy stocks this period that performed well last period
D. do nothing if you held the stock last period 43. According to technical analysts, a shift in market fundamentals will __________.
A. be reflected in stock prices immediately
B. lead to a gradual price change that can be recognized as a trend
C. lead to high volatility in stock market prices
D. leave prices unchanged
44. According to market technicians, a trin statistic of less than 1 is considered a __________.
A. bearish signal
B. bullish signal
C. volume decline
D. signal reversal 45. It is difficult to test the Kondratieff wave theory because _________.
A. it applies to only Russian stocks
B. its main proponent found contrary research results
C. only two independent data points are generated each century
D. the stock market is too volatile to generate smooth waves 46. A _________ is a value above which it is difficult for the market to rise.
A. book value
B. resistance level
C. support level
D. confidence level 47. _____________ is a tool that can help identify the direction of a stock's price.
A. Prospect theory
B. Framing
C. A moving average
D. Conservatism
48. If the utility you derive from your next dollar of wealth increases by less than a loss of a dollar reduces it, you are exhibiting __________.
A. loss aversion
B. regret avoidance
C. mental accounting
D. framing bias 49. In technical analysis, __________ is a value below which the market is relatively unlikely to fall.
A. book value
B. resistance level
C. support level
D. the Dow line 50. A possible limit on arbitrage activity that may allow behavioral biases to persist is _______.
A. technical trends in prices
B. momentum effects
C. fundamental risk
D. trend reversals 51. If you are not a contrarian, you consider a high put/call ratio to be a __________.
A. bearish signal
B. bullish signal
C. trend confirmation signal
D. signal to enter the options market
52. On day 1, the stock price of Ford was $12 and the automotive stock index was 127. On day 2, the stock price of Ford was $15 and the automotive stock index was 139. Consider the ratio of Ford to the automotive stock index at day 1 and day 2. Ford is __________ the automotive industry, and technical analysts who follow relative strength would advise __________ the stock.
A. outperforming; buying
B. outperforming; selling
C. underperforming; buying
D. underperforming; selling 53. At the end of July, the average yields on 10 top-rated corporate bonds and 10 intermediate-grade bonds
were 7.65% and 8.42%, respectively. At the end of August, the average yields on 10 top-rated corporate bonds and 10 intermediate-grade bonds were 6% and 6.71%, respectively. The confidence index _________ during August, and bond technical analysts are likely to be ________.
A. increased; bullish
B. increased; bearish
C. decreased; bullish
D. decreased; bearish 54. On a particular day, there were 890 stocks that advanced on the NYSE and 723 that declined. The volume
in advancing issues was 80,846,000, and the volume in declining issues was 70,397,000. The common measure of market breadth is __________.
A. -10,449,000
B. -167
C. 167
D. 10,449,000
55. On a particular day, there were 920 stocks that advanced on the NYSE and 723 that declined. The volume in advancing issues was 80,846,000, and the volume in declining issues was 70,397,000. The trin ratio is __________, and technical analysts are likely to be __________.
A. .90; bullish
B. .90; bearish
C. 1.11; bullish
D. 1.11; bearish 56. An accumulation of cash by mutual funds may be viewed by technical traders as a __________ indicator.
A. bullish
B. neutral
C. bearish
D. trend reversal 57. A point and figure chart:
I. Gives a sell signal when the stock price penetrates previous lowsII. Tracks significant upward or downward movementsIII. Has no time dimensionIV. Indicates congestion areas
A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I, III, and IV only
D. I, II, III, and IV
58. When technical analysts say a stock has good "relative strength," they mean that in the recent past __________.
A. it has performed well compared to its closest competitors
B. it has exceeded its own historical high
C. trading volume in the stock has exceeded the normal trading volume
D. it has outperformed the market index 59. Technical traders view mutual fund investors as _________ market timers.
A. excellent
B. frequent
C. neutral
D. poor 60. An important assumption underlying the use of technical analysis techniques is that
___________________.
A. security prices adjust rapidly to new information
B. security prices adjust gradually to new information
C. security dealers will provide enough liquidity to keep price changes relatively small
D. all investors have immediate and costless access to information 61. If the put/call ratio increases, market contrarians may interpret this as what kind of signal?
A. Buy signal
B. Sell signal
C. Hold signal
D. This is not interpreted as a signal
62. The tendency of investors to hold on to losing investments is called the ________.
A. overweighting effect
B. head-in-the-sand effect
C. disposition effect
D. prospector effect 63. Which one of the following best describes fundamental risk?
A. A stock is overpriced, but your fund does not allow you to engage in short sales.
B. Your models indicate a stock is mispriced, but you are not sure if this is a real profit opportunity or a model input error.
C. You buy a stock that you believe is underpriced, and the underpricing persists for a long time, hurting your short-term results.
D. A stock is trading in two different markets at two different prices. 64.
The trin on day 2 is ___.
A. .72
B. 1.04
C. .92
D. .55
65.
The confidence index on day 1 is _____.
A. .82
B. .89
C. .92
D. 1.09 66.
The breadth on day 3 is _______.
A. -70
B. 10
C. 90
D. 170
67.
The cumulative breadth for the first 2 days is ___.
A. -240
B. -50
C. 110
D. 250 68.
Cumulative breadth for the 4 days is ___, which is ___.
A. -140; bullish
B. -140; bearish
C. -300; bullish
D. -300; bearish
69.
From day 1 to day 4, the trin has ___ and is ___.
A. increased; bullish
B. increased; bearish
C. decreased; bullish
D. decreased; bearish 70.
From day 1 to day 4, the confidence index has _____. This is _____.
A. increased; bullish
B. decreased; bullish
C. increased; bearish
D. decreased; bearish
71. Problems with behavioral finance include:
I. The behavioralists tell us nothing about how to exploit any irrationality.II. The implications of behavioral patterns are inconsistent from case to case, sometimes suggesting overreaction, sometimes underreaction.III. As with technical trading rules, behavioralists can always find some pattern in past data that supports a behavioralist trait.
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III only
D. I, II, and III 72. A major problem with technical trading strategies is that ________.
A. it is very difficult to identify a true trend before the fact
B. it is very difficult to identify the correct trend after the fact
C. it is so easy to identify trends that all investors quickly do so
D. Kondratieff showed that you can't identify trends without 48 to 60 years of data 73. The Elliott wave theory gives a buy signal when you can identify a primary bull trend by identifying
_________.
A. when the long-term direction of the market is positive
B. when the long-term direction of the market is negative
C. when the long-term direction of the market is stable
D. good stocks without regard to the long-term direction of the market
74. In 1997 CSX successfully purchased a significant share of Conrail. Immediately after the first offer was announced and the acquisition eventually consummated, the price of CSX fell below preacquisition levels and took many years to recover. This may be an example of ________________.
A. loss aversion
B. mental accounting
C. overreaction
D. managerial overconfidence 75. An investor has her money segregated into checking, savings, and investments. The allocation among the
categories is subjective, yet the investor spends freely from the checking account and not the others. This behavior can be explained as _______________.
A. loss aversion
B. mental accounting
C. overreaction
D. winner's curse 76.
Identify the resistance-level stock price.
A. $40
B. $42
C. $44
D. $46
77.
Identify the support level stock price.
A. $40
B. $42
C. $44
D. $46 78. Investors gravitate toward the latest hot stock even though it has never paid a dividend. Even though net
income is projected to fall over the current and next several years, the price of the stock continues to rise. What behavioral concept may explain this price pattern?
A. Overconfidence
B. Loss aversion
C. Mental accounting
D. Calendar bias 79. During a period when prices have been rising, the _________ will be _______ the current price.
A. relative strength index; declining with
B. relative strength index; declining faster than
C. moving average; above
D. moving average; below
80. An investor purchases shares of an index fund. The investor could take on the same level of risk by taking out a loan and purchasing a higher-risk specialty fund. The Sharpe ratio on this complete portfolio is higher than her existing investment. What behavioral concept prevents the investor from taking out the loan and investing in the index fund?
A. Framing bias
B. Excessive volatility
C. Loss aversion
D. Mental accounting 81. The price of a stock fluctuates between $43 and $60. If the time frame referenced encompasses the primary
trend, the $43 price may be considered the ___________.
A. intermediate trend level
B. minor trend level
C. resistance level
D. support level
82.
The moving average generates buy signal(s) _____.
A. on days 3, 11, and 15
B. on days 2 and 16
C. on days 5, 9, and 13
D. on no days
83.
The moving average generates sell signals _____.
A. on days 3, 11, and 15
B. on days 7, 15, and 18
C. on days 5, 9, and 13
D. on day 16 84. The price of a stock fluctuates over a period of 10 days. The movement of the stock price below the 10-day
minimum price of $25 triggers a rash of selling. The $25 price might now be considered the _______________.
A. congestion area
B. penetration point
C. resistance level
D. support level 85. Trend analysts who follow bonds are most likely to monitor the ____________.
A. confidence index
B. odd-lot trading
C. short interest
D. trin statistic
86. You find that the confidence index is down, the market breadth is up, and the trin ratio is down. In total, how many bullish signs do you have?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3 87. You find that the trin ratio is up, the market breadth is down, and the market has closed below its 50-day
moving average. In total, how many bearish signs do you have?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Chapter 10: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. The invoice price of a bond is the ______.
A. stated or flat price in a quote sheet plus accrued interest
B. stated or flat price in a quote sheet minus accrued interest
C. bid price
D. average of the bid and ask price 2. Sinking funds are commonly viewed as protecting the _______ of the bond.
A. issuer
B. underwriter
C. holder
D. dealer 3. A collateral trust bond is _______.
A. secured by other securities held by the firm
B. secured by equipment owned by the firm
C. secured by property owned by the firm
D. unsecured
4. A mortgage bond is _______.
A. secured by other securities held by the firm
B. secured by equipment owned by the firm
C. secured by property owned by the firm
D. unsecured 5. A debenture is _________.
A. secured by other securities held by the firm
B. secured by equipment owned by the firm
C. secured by property owned by the firm
D. unsecured 6. If you are holding a premium bond, you must expect a _______ each year until
maturity. If you are holding a discount bond, you must expect a _______ each year until maturity. (In each case assume that the yield to maturity remains stable over time.)
A. capital gain; capital loss
B. capital gain; capital gain
C. capital loss; capital gain
D. capital loss; capital loss 7. Floating-rate bonds have a __________ that is adjusted with current market
interest rates.
A. maturity date
B. coupon payment date
C. coupon rate
D. dividend yield
8. Inflation-indexed Treasury securities are commonly called ____.
A. PIKs
B. CARs
C. TIPS
D. STRIPS 9. In regard to bonds, convexity relates to the _______.
A. shape of the bond price curve with respect to interest rates
B. shape of the yield curve with respect to maturity
C. slope of the yield curve with respect to liquidity premiums
D. size of the bid-ask spread 10. A Japanese firm issued and sold a pound-denominated bond in the United
Kingdom. A U.S. firm issued bonds denominated in dollars but sold the bonds in Japan. Which one of the following statements is correct?
A. Both bonds are examples of Eurobonds.
B. The Japanese bond is a Eurobond, and the U.S. bond is termed a foreign bond.
C. The U.S. bond is a Eurobond, and the Japanese bond is termed a foreign bond.
D. Neither bond is a Eurobond. 11. The primary difference between Treasury notes and bonds is ________.
A. maturity at issue
B. default risk
C. coupon rate
D. tax status
12. TIPS offer investors inflation protection by ______________ by the inflation rate each year.
A. increasing only the coupon rate
B. increasing only the par value
C. increasing both the par value and the coupon payment
D. increasing the promised yield to maturity 13. You would typically find all but which one of the following in a bond contract?
A. A dividend restriction clause
B. A sinking fund clause
C. A requirement to subordinate any new debt issued
D. A price-earnings ratio 14. To earn a high rating from the bond rating agencies, a company would want to
have:
I. A low times-interest-earned ratioII. A low debt-to-equity ratioIII. A high quick ratio
A. I only
B. II and III only
C. I and III only
D. I, II, and III
15. According to the liquidity preference theory of the term structure of interest rates, an increase in the yield on long-term corporate bonds versus short-term bonds could be due to _______.
A. declining liquidity premiums
B. an expectation of an upcoming recession
C. a decline in future inflation expectations
D. an increase in expected interest rate volatility 16. __________ are examples of synthetically created zero-coupon bonds.
A. COLTS
B. OPOSSMS
C. STRIPS
D. ARMs 17. A __________ bond gives the bondholder the right to cash in the bond before
maturity at a specific price after a specific date.
A. callable
B. coupon
C. puttable
D. Treasury 18. TIPS are an example of _______________.
A. Eurobonds
B. convertible bonds
C. indexed bonds
D. catastrophe bonds
19. Bonds issued in the currency of the issuer's country but sold in other national markets are called _____________.
A. Eurobonds
B. Yankee bonds
C. Samurai bonds
D. foreign bonds 20. You buy a TIPS at issue at par for $1,000. The bond has a 3% coupon. Inflation
turns out to be 2%, 3%, and 4% over the next 3 years. The total annual coupon income you will receive in year 3 is _________.
A. $30
B. $33
C. $32.78
D. $30.90 21. The bonds of Elbow Grease Dishwashing Company have received a rating of C by
Moody's. The C rating indicates that the bonds are _________.
A. high grade
B. intermediate grade
C. investment grade
D. junk bonds 22. Bonds rated _____ or better by Standard & Poor's are considered investment
grade.
A. AA
B. BBB
C. BB
D. CCC
23. Consider the liquidity preference theory of the term structure of interest rates. On average, one would expect investors to require _________.
A. a higher yield on short-term bonds than on long-term bonds
B. a higher yield on long-term bonds than on short-term bonds
C. the same yield on both short-term bonds and long-term bonds
D. none of these options (The liquidity preference theory cannot be used to make any of the other statements.)
24. Consider two bonds, A and B. Both bonds presently are selling at their par value
of $1,000. Each pays interest of $120 annually. Bond A will mature in 5 years, while bond B will mature in 6 years. If the yields to maturity on the two bonds change from 12% to 14%, _________.
A. both bonds will increase in value but bond A will increase more than bond B
B. both bonds will increase in value but bond B will increase more than bond A
C. both bonds will decrease in value but bond A will decrease more than bond B
D. both bonds will decrease in value but bond B will decrease more than bond A 25. You hold a subordinated debenture in a firm. In the event of bankruptcy you will
be paid off before which one of the following?
A. Mortgage bonds
B. Senior debentures
C. Preferred stock
D. Equipment obligation bonds
26. Bonds with coupon rates that fall when the general level of interest rates rise are called _____________.
A. asset-backed bonds
B. convertible bonds
C. inverse floaters
D. index bonds 27. _______ bonds represent a novel way of obtaining insurance from capital markets
against specified disasters.
A. Asset-backed bonds
B. TIPS
C. Catastrophe
D. Pay-in-kind 28. The issuer of ________ bond may choose to pay interest either in cash or in
additional bonds.
A. an asset-backed
B. a TIPS
C. a catastrophe
D. a pay-in-kind 29. Everything else equal, the __________ the maturity of a bond and the __________
the coupon, the greater the sensitivity of the bond's price to interest rate changes.
A. longer; higher
B. longer; lower
C. shorter; higher
D. shorter; lower
30. Which one of the following statements is correct?
A. Invoice price = Flat price - Accrued interest
B. Invoice price = Flat price + Accrued interest
C. Flat price = Invoice price + Accrued interest
D. Invoice price = Settlement price - Accrued interest 31. A __________ bond gives the issuer an option to retire the bond before maturity at
a specific price after a specific date.
A. callable
B. coupon
C. puttable
D. Treasury 32. Which of the following possible provisions of a bond indenture is designed to ease
the burden of principal repayment by spreading it out over several years?
A. Callable feature
B. Convertible feature
C. Subordination clause
D. Sinking fund 33. Serial bonds are associated with _________.
A. staggered maturity dates
B. collateral
C. coupon payment dates
D. conversion features
34. In an era of particularly low interest rates, which of the following bonds is most likely to be called?
A. Zero-coupon bonds
B. Coupon bonds selling at a discount
C. Coupon bonds selling at a premium
D. Floating-rate bonds 35. Consider the expectations theory of the term structure of interest rates. If the yield
curve is downward-sloping, this indicates that investors expect short-term interest rates to __________ in the future.
A. increase
B. decrease
C. not change
D. change in an unpredictable manner 36. A convertible bond has a par value of $1,000, but its current market price is $975.
The current price of the issuing company's stock is $26, and the conversion ratio is 34 shares. The bond's market conversion value is _________.
A. $1,000
B. $884
C. $933
D. $980
37. A convertible bond has a par value of $1,000, but its current market price is $950. The current price of the issuing company's stock is $19, and the conversion ratio is 40 shares. The bond's conversion premium is _________.
A. $50
B. $190
C. $200
D. $240 38. A coupon bond that pays interest of 4% annually has a par value of $1,000,
matures in 5 years, and is selling today at $785. The actual yield to maturity on this bond is _________.
A. 7.2%
B. 8.8%
C. 9.1%
D. 9.6% 39. A coupon bond that pays interest of $60 annually has a par value of $1,000,
matures in 5 years, and is selling today at an $84.52 discount from par value. The yield to maturity on this bond is _________.
A. 6%
B. 7.23%
C. 8.12%
D. 9.45%
40. A coupon bond that pays interest of $60 annually has a par value of $1,000, matures in 5 years, and is selling today at a $75.25 discount from par value. The current yield on this bond is _________.
A. 6%
B. 6.49%
C. 6.73%
D. 7% 41. A callable bond pays annual interest of $60, has a par value of $1,000, matures in
20 years but is callable in 10 years at a price of $1,100, and has a value today of $1055.84. The yield to call on this bond is _________.
A. 6%
B. 6.58%
C. 7.2%
D. 8% 42. A coupon bond that pays interest semiannually has a par value of $1,000, matures
in 8 years, and has a yield to maturity of 6%. If the coupon rate is 7%, the intrinsic value of the bond today will be __________.
A. $1,000
B. $1,062.81
C. $1,081.82
D. $1,100.03
43. A coupon bond that pays interest annually has a par value of $1,000, matures in 5 years, and has a yield to maturity of 12%. If the coupon rate is 9%, the intrinsic value of the bond today will be _________.
A. $856.04
B. $891.86
C. $926.47
D. $1,000 44. A coupon bond that pays semiannual interest is reported in the Wall Street Journal
as having an ask price of 117% of its $1,000 par value. If the last interest payment was made 2 months ago and the coupon rate is 6%, the invoice price of the bond will be _________.
A. $1,140
B. $1,170
C. $1,180
D. $1,200 45. A Treasury bond due in 1 year has a yield of 6.3%, while a Treasury bond due in 5
years has a yield of 8.8%. A bond due in 5 years issued by High Country Marketing Corp. has a yield of 9.6%, while a bond due in 1 year issued by High Country Marketing Corp. has a yield of 6.8%. The default risk premiums on the 1-year and 5-year bonds issued by High Country Marketing Corp. are, respectively, __________ and _________.
A. .4%; .3%
B. .4%; .5%
C. .5%; .5%
D. .5%; .8%
46. A zero-coupon bond has a yield to maturity of 5% and a par value of $1,000. If the bond matures in 16 years, it should sell for a price of __________ today.
A. $458.11
B. $641.11
C. $789.11
D. $1,100.11 47. Yields on municipal bonds are typically ___________ yields on corporate bonds
of similar risk and time to maturity.
A. lower than
B. slightly higher than
C. identical to
D. twice as high as 48. You purchased a 5-year annual-interest coupon bond 1 year ago. Its coupon
interest rate was 6%, and its par value was $1,000. At the time you purchased the bond, the yield to maturity was 4%. If you sold the bond after receiving the first interest payment and the bond's yield to maturity had changed to 3%, your annual total rate of return on holding the bond for that year would have been approximately _________.
A. 5%
B. 5.5%
C. 7.6%
D. 8.9%
49. Analysis of bond returns over a multiyear horizon based on forecasts of the bond's yield to maturity and reinvestment rate of coupons is called ______.
A. multiyear analysis
B. horizon analysis
C. maturity analysis
D. reinvestment analysis 50. $1,000 par value zero-coupon bonds (ignore liquidity premiums)
The expected 1-year interest rate 1 year from now should be about _________.
A. 6%
B. 7.5 %
C. 9.02%
D. 10.08%
51. $1,000 par value zero-coupon bonds (ignore liquidity premiums)
One year from now bond C should sell for ________ (to the nearest dollar).
A. $857
B. $842
C. $835
D. $821 52. $1,000 par value zero-coupon bonds (ignore liquidity premiums)
The expected 2-year interest rate 3 years from now should be _________.
A. 9.55%
B. 11.74%
C. 14.89%
D. 13.73%
53. The __________ of a bond is computed as the ratio of the annual coupon payment to the market price.
A. nominal yield
B. current yield
C. yield to maturity
D. yield to call 54. A bond has a par value of $1,000, a time to maturity of 10 years, and a coupon rate
of 8% with interest paid annually. If the current market price is $750, what is the capital gain yield of this bond over the next year?
A. .72%
B. 1.85%
C. 2.58%
D. 3.42% 55. Consider the following $1,000 par value zero-coupon bonds:
The expected 1-year interest rate 2 years from now should be _________.
A. 7%
B. 8%
C. 9%
D. 10%
56. Which of the following bonds would most likely sell at the lowest yield?
A. A callable debenture
B. A puttable mortgage bond
C. A callable mortgage bond
D. A puttable debenture 57. A 1% decline in yield will have the least effect on the price of a bond with a
_________.
A. 10-year maturity, selling at 80
B. 10-year maturity, selling at 100
C. 20-year maturity, selling at 80
D. 20-year maturity, selling at 100 58. Consider the following $1,000 par value zero-coupon bonds:
The expected 1-year interest rate 3 years from now should be _________.
A. 7%
B. 8%
C. 9%
D. 10%
59. Consider the following $1,000 par value zero-coupon bonds:
The expected 1-year interest rate 4 years from now should be _________.
A. 16%
B. 18%
C. 20%
D. 22% 60. You can be sure that a bond will sell at a premium to par when _________.
A. its coupon rate is greater than its yield to maturity
B. its coupon rate is less than its yield to maturity
C. its coupon rate is equal to its yield to maturity
D. its coupon rate is less than its conversion value 61. A corporate bond has a 10-year maturity and pays interest semiannually. The
quoted coupon rate is 6%, and the bond is priced at par. The bond is callable in 3 years at 110% of par. What is the bond's yield to call?
A. 6.72%
B. 9.17%
C. 4.49%
D. 8.98%
62. Consider a 7-year bond with a 9% coupon and a yield to maturity of 12%. If interest rates remain constant, 1 year from now the price of this bond will be _________.
A. higher
B. lower
C. the same
D. indeterminate 63. Under the pure expectations hypothesis and constant real interest rates for
different maturities, an upward-sloping yield curve would indicate __________________.
A. expected increases in inflation over time
B. expected decreases in inflation over time
C. the presence of a liquidity premium
D. that the equilibrium interest rate in the short-term part of the market is lower than the equilibrium interest rate in the long-term part of the market
64. The yield to maturity on a bond is:
I. Above the coupon rate when the bond sells at a discount and below the coupon rate when the bond sells at a premiumII. The discount rate that will set the present value of the payments equal to the bond priceIII. Equal to the true compound return on investment only if all interest payments received are reinvested at the yield to maturity
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. I, II, and III
65. Yields on municipal bonds are generally lower than yields on similar corporate bonds because of differences in _________.
A. marketability
B. risk
C. taxation
D. call protection 66. Assuming semiannual compounding, a 20-year zero coupon bond with a par value
of $1,000 and a required return of 12% would be priced at _________.
A. $97.22
B. $104.49
C. $364.08
D. $732.14 67. A discount bond that pays interest semiannually will:
I. Have a lower price than an equivalent annual payment bondII. Have a higher EAR than an equivalent annual payment bondIII. Sell for less than its conversion value
A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II, and III
68. A 6% coupon U.S. Treasury note pays interest on May 31 and November 30 and is traded for settlement on August 10. The accrued interest on the $100,000 face amount of this note is _________.
A. $581.97
B. $1,163.93
C. $2,327.87
D. $3,000 69. The yield to maturity of a 10-year zero-coupon bond with a par value of $1,000
and a market price of $625 is _____.
A. 4.8%
B. 6.1%
C. 7.7%
D. 10.4% 70. Consider a newly issued TIPS bond with a 3-year maturity, par value of $1,000,
and coupon rate of 5%. Assume annual coupon payments.
What is the nominal rate of return on the TIPS bond in the first year?
A. 5%
B. 5.15%
C. 8.15%
D. 9%
71. Consider a newly issued TIPS bond with a 3-year maturity, par value of $1,000, and coupon rate of 5%. Assume annual coupon payments.
What is the real rate of return on the TIPS bond in the first year?
A. 5%
B. 8.15%
C. 7.15%
D. 4% 72. On May 1, 2007, Joe Hill is considering one of the following newly issued 10-year
AAA corporate bonds.
Suppose market interest rates decline by 100 basis points (i.e., 1%). The effect of this decline would be ______.
A. The price of the Wildwood bond would decline by more than the price of the Asbury bond.
B. The price of the Wildwood bond would decline by less than the price of the Asbury bond.
C. The price of the Wildwood bond would increase by more than the price of the Asbury bond.
D. The price of the Wildwood bond would increase by less than the price of the Asbury bond.
73. On May 1, 2007, Joe Hill is considering one of the following newly issued 10-year AAA corporate bonds.
If interest rates are expected to rise, then Joe Hill should ____.
A. prefer the Wildwood bond to the Asbury bond
B. prefer the Asbury bond to the Wildwood bond
C. be indifferent between the Wildwood bond and the Asbury bond
D. The answer cannot be determined from the information given. 74. On May 1, 2007, Joe Hill is considering one of the following newly issued 10-year
AAA corporate bonds.
If the volatility of interest rates is expected to increase, then Joe Hill should __.
A. prefer the Wildwood bond to the Asbury bond
B. prefer the Asbury bond to the Wildwood bond
C. be indifferent between the Wildwood bond and the Asbury bond
D. The answer cannot be determined from the information given. 75. One-, two-, and three-year maturity, default-free, zero-coupon bonds have yields
to maturity of 7%, 8%, and 9%, respectively. What is the implied 1-year forward rate 1 year from today?
A. 2.07%
B. 8.03%
C. 9.01%
D. 11.12%
76. If the quote for a Treasury bond is listed in the newspaper as 98:09 bid, 98:13 ask, the actual price at which you can purchase this bond given a $10,000 par value is _____________.
A. $9,828.12
B. $9,809.38
C. $9,840.62
D. $9,813.42 77. If the price of a $10,000 par Treasury bond is $10,237.50, the quote would be
listed in the newspaper as ________.
A. 102:10
B. 102:11
C. 102:12
D. 102:13 78. A bond pays a semiannual coupon, and the last coupon was paid 61 days ago. If
the annual coupon payment is $75, what is the accrued interest? (Assume 182 days in the 6-month period.)
A. $13.21
B. $12.57
C. $15.44
D. $16.32
79. A bond has a flat price of $985, and it pays an annual coupon. The last coupon payment was made 90 days ago. What is the invoice price if the annual coupon is $69?
A. $999.55
B. $1,002.01
C. $1,007.45
D. $1,012.13 80. If the quote for a Treasury bond is listed in the newspaper as 99:08 bid, 99:11 ask,
the actual price at which you can sell this bond given a $10,000 par value is _____________.
A. $9,828.12
B. $9,925
C. $9,934.37
D. $9,955.43 81. A bond has a 5% coupon rate. The coupon is paid semiannually, and the last
coupon was paid 35 days ago. If the bond has a par value of $1,000, what is the accrued interest?
A. $4.81
B. $14.24
C. $25
D. $50
82. The price on a Treasury bond is 104:21, with a yield to maturity of 3.45%. The price on a comparable maturity corporate bond is 103:11, with a yield to maturity of 4.59%. What is the approximate percentage value of the credit risk of the corporate bond?
A. 1.14%
B. 3.45%
C. 4.59%
D. 8.04% 83. You buy a bond with a $1,000 par value today for a price of $875. The bond has 6
years to maturity and makes annual coupon payments of $75 per year. You hold the bond to maturity, but you do not reinvest any of your coupons. What was your effective EAR over the holding period?
A. 10.4%
B. 9.57%
C. 7.45%
D. 8.78% 84. You buy an 8-year $1,000 par value bond today that has a 6% yield and a 6%
annual payment coupon. In 1 year promised yields have risen to 7%. Your 1-year holding-period return was ___.
A. .61%
B. -5.39%
C. 1.28%
D. -3.25%
85. You buy a 10-year $1,000 par value zero-coupon bond priced to yield 6%. You do not sell the bond. If you are in a 28% tax bracket, you will owe taxes on this investment after the first year equal to _______.
A. $0
B. $4.27
C. $9.38
D. $33.51 86. You buy a 10-year $1,000 par value 4% annual-payment coupon bond priced to
yield 6%. You do not sell the bond at year-end. If you are in a 15% tax bracket, at year-end you will owe taxes on this investment equal to _______.
A. $9.10
B. $4.25
C. $7.68
D. $5.20 87. An investor pays $989.40 for a bond. The bond has an annual coupon rate of
4.8%. What is the current yield on this bond?
A. 4.8%
B. 4.85%
C. 9.6%
D. 9.7% 88. If the coupon rate on a bond is 4.5% and the bond is selling at a premium, which
of the following is the most likely yield to maturity on the bond?
A. 4.3%
B. 4.5%
C. 5.2%
D. 5.5%
89. The price of a bond (with par value of $1,000) at the beginning of a period is $980 and at the end of the period is $975. What is the holding-period return if the annual coupon rate is 4.5%?
A. 4.08%
B. 4.5%
C. 5.1%
D. 5.6% 90. A bond was purchased at a premium and is now selling at a discount because of a
change in market interest rates. If the bond pays a 4% annual coupon, what is the likely impact on the holding-period return if an investor decides to sell now?
A. Increased
B. Decreased
C. Stayed the same
D. The answer cannot be determined from the information given. 91. The ___________ is the document that defines the contract between the bond
issuer and the bondholder.
A. indenture
B. covenant agreement
C. trustee agreement
D. collateral statement
