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1

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Few words to say about this book:

“Study smart, not hard”- This book represents a smart approach for aspiring IELTS candidates

especially in listening.

A candidate is guaranteed to score 7 or more in listening if he/she can master the approaches to each

question type that this book provides.

Feel free to let us know your suggestion/correction regarding to this book at 01921-999222 or at

[email protected]

With all the best wishes

Tarik Hasan Founder and CEO

IELTS SPIRIT

www.ieltsspirit.com

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Index

Section 1…………….……………………4-28

Section 2…………..……………………29-59

Section 3 ……..…………..……………60-91

Section 4 ……………………………..92-120

Full test ……………………………..121-299

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Section 1

Lesson 1.1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1 and 2

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. Example In the library George found

A a book.

B a brochure. C a newspaper.

1 In the lobby of the library George saw A a group playing music.

B a display of instruments.

C a video about the festival.

2 George wants to sit at the back so they can A see well.

B hear clearly.

C pay less.

Questions 3-10

Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Summer music festival Booking form

NAME: George O’Neill ADDRESS: 3 …………Westsea POSTCODE: 4…………….. TELEPHONE: 5……………

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Date Event Price per ticket No. of tickets

5 June Instrumental group - Guitarrini £7.50 2

17 June Singer (price includes 6 ………….in garden) £6 2

22 June 7 ………..(Anna Ventura) £7.00 1

23 June Spanish Dance & Guitar Concert 8 £…………… 9…………..

NB Children / Students / Senior Citizens have 10 ………….discount on all tickets.

Lesson 1.2

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-3

Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Total Insurance Incident Report

Example

Name Answer

Michael Alexander

Address 24 Manly Street, 1 …………Sydney

Shipping agent 2…………..

Place of origin China

Date of arrival 3…………..

Reference number 601 ACK

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Questions 4-10

Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Item

Damage Cost to repair/replace

Television The 4…………needs to be replaced not known

The 5…………. cabinet The 6…………..of the cabinet is damaged 7$ ……………..

Dining room table A 8……………is split $200

Set of china Six 9……….were broken about 10 $.......... in total

Lesson 1.3

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-3

Complete the form below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Rented Properties Customer's Requirements

Name: Steven Godfrey

Example

No. of bedrooms:

Answer

four

Preferred location: in the 1 …………area of town

Maximum monthly rent: 2 £……………….

Length of let required: 3……………….

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Starting: September 1st

Questions 4-8

Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Address Booms Monthly

rent Problem

Oakington Avenue living/dining room, separate kitchen £550 no 4………….

Mead Street large living room and kitchen,

bathroom and a cloakroom £580 the 5 ……….is too

large

Hamilton Road living room, kitchen-diner, and

a 6………. £550 too 7……………

Devon Close living room, dining room, small

kitchen 8 £……… none

Questions 9 and 10

Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO facilities in the district of Devon Close are open to the public at the moment?

A museum

B concert hall

C cinema

D sports centre

E Swimmingpool

Lesson 1.4

Questions 1-10

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

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West Bay Hotel - details of job

Example Answer • Newspaper advert for staff

• Vacancies for 1……………

• Two shifts

• Can choose your 2………….(must be the same each week)

• Pay: £5.50 per hour, including a 3…………

• A 4…………..is provided in the hotel

• Total weekly pay: £231

• Dress:

a white shirt and 5………….trousers (not supplied)

a 6…………… (supplied)

• Starting date: 7………….

• Call Jane 8………..(Service Manager) before 9…………..tomorrow (Tel: 832009)

• She’ll require a 10…………..

Lesson 1.5

Questions 1-10

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

JOB ENQUIRY

Example • Work at: .....restaurant...... • Type of work: 1……………………

• Number of hours per week: 12 hours

• Would need work permit

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• Work in the: 2……………….. branch

• Nearest bus stop: next to 3……………..

• Pay: £4……………………an hour

• Extra benefits:

- a free dinner

- extra pay when you work on 5……………

- transport home when you work 6………………

• Qualities required:

- 7………………

- ability to 8………………

• Interview arranged for: Thursday 9……………… at 6 p.m.

• Bring the names of two referees

• Ask for: Samira 10…………….

Lesson 1.6

Questions 1-10

Complete the form below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Accommodation Form - Student Information

Example

Type of accommodation:

.......hall.......of residence

Name: Anu 1………….

Date of birth: 2………….

Country of origin: India

Course of study: 3……………..

Number of years planned in hall: 4…………….

Preferred catering arrangement: half board

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Special dietary requirements: no 5………… (red)

Preferred room type: a single 6…………

Interests: the 7…………

badminton

Priorities in choice of hall: to be with other students who are 8………….

to live outside the 9………….

to have a 10……………area for socialising

Contact phone number: 667549

Lesson 1.7

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-5

Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Apartments Facilities Other Information Cost

Rose Garden

Apartments

studio flat Example

entertainment programme:

Greek dancing

£219

Blue Bay

Apartments

large salt-water

swimming pool

- just 1 …………..metres from

beach

- near shops

£275

2…………….

Apartments

terrace watersports £490

The Grand - Greek paintings - overlooking 4……….. 5 £………….

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- 3……………. - near a supermarket and a

disco

Questions 6-10

Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

GREEK ISLAND HOLIDAYS

Insurance Benefits Maximum Amount

Cancellation 6 £ …………

Hospital £600. Additional benefit allows a 7 ………… to travel to resort

8 ……………. departure Up to £1000. Depends on reason

Personal belongings Up to £3000; £500 for one 9…………….

Name of Assistant Manager: Ben 10………………

Direct phone line: 081260 543216

Lesson 1.8

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-4

Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

Health Centres

Name of centre Doctor’s name Advantage

The Harvey Clinic Example

Dr Green

especially good with 1………..

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The 2 ………….Health Practice Dr Fuller offers 3………… appointments

The Shore Lane Health Centre Dr 4…………

Questions 5-6

Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO of the following are offered free of charge at Shore Lane Health Centre?

A acupuncture

B employment medicals

C sports injury therapy

D travel advice

E vaccinations

Questions 7-10

Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Talks for patients at Shore Lane Health Centre

Subject of talk Date/Time Location Notes

Giving up smoking 25th

February at 7pm room 4

useful for people

with

asthma or 7……….

problems

Healthy eating 1st March at 5pm the 8…………

(Shore Lane) anyone welcome

Avoiding injuries during

exercise 9th March

at 9……….. room 6 for all 10………….

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Lesson 1.9

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-6

Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD for each answer.

SELF-DRIVE TOURS IN THE USA

Example Name: ...Andrea.......

Address: 24 1 …………. Road Postcode: BH5 20P Phone: (mobile) 077 8664 3091 Heard about company from: 2…………. Possible self-drive tours Trip One:

• Los Angeles: customer wants to visit some 3……………..parks with her children • Yosemite Park: customer wants to stay in a lodge, not a 4……………. Trip Two:

• Customer wants to see the 5…………….on the way to Cambria • At Santa Monica: not interested in shopping

• At San Diego, wants to spend time on the 6…………….

Questions 7-10

Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Number of days Total distance Price

(per person) Includes

Trip One 12 days 7………….. km £525

• accommodation

• car

• one 8…………….

Trip Two 9 days 980 km 9 £………..

• accommodation

• car

• 10……………

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Lesson 1.10

Questions 1-10

Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Transport Survey

Example Travelled to town today: by bus Name: Luisa 1…………

Address: 2………….White Stone Rd

Area: Bradfield

Postcode: 3………..

Occupation: 4…………

Reason for visit to town: to go to the 5…………

Suggestions for improvement:

better 6…………..

have more footpaths

more frequent 7………..

Things that would encourage cycling to work:

having 8……………parking places for bicycles

being able to use a 9…………. at work

the opportunity to have cycling 10………….. on busy roads

Lesson 1.11

Questions 1-10

Complete the form below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer .

Early Learning Childcare Centre Enrolment Form

Example Parent or guardian: Carol Smith

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Personal Details Child’s name: Kate

Age: 1………… Address: 2……………. Road, Woodside, 4032 Phone: 3345 9865

Childcare Information Days enrolled for: Monday and 3…………… Start time: 4………….. am Childcare group: the 5…………. group Which meal/s are required each day? 6………….. Medical conditions: needs 7………….. Emergency contact: Jenny 8…………….Phone: 3346 7523 Relationship to child: 9………….

Fees Will pay each 10………….

Lesson 1.12

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-6 Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

THORNDYKE’S BUILDERS

Example Customer heard about Thorndyke’s from a friend

Name: Edith 1…………..

Address: Flat 4, 2………….. Park Flats

(Behind the 3………………)

Phone number: 875934

Best time to contact customer: during the 4………….

Where to park: opposite entrance next to the 5………….

Needs full quote showing all the jobs and the 6…………..

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Questions 7-10

Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

Area Work to be done Notes

Kitchen

Replace the 7………….

in the door Fix tomorrow

Paint wall above

the 8…………….

Strip paint and plaster approximately

one 9……………. in advance

Garden One 10………….. needs

replacing (end of garden)

Lesson 1.13

Questions 1-10

Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

HIRING A PUBLIC ROOM

Example • the Main Hall - seats 200

Room and cost

• the 1 ……………Room - seats 100

• Cost of Main Hall for Saturday evening: 2 £…………… + £250 deposit (3……………… payment is required)

• Cost includes use of tables and chairs and also 4……………

• Additional charge for use of the kitchen: £25

Before the event

• Will need a 5…………….. licence

• Need to contact caretaker (Mr Evans) in advance to arrange 6……………

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During the event

• The building is no smoking

• The band should use the 7………….. door at the back

• Don’t touch the system that controls the volume

• For microphones, contact the caretaker

After the event

• Need to know the 8…………… for the cleaning cupboard

• The 9……………..must be washed and rubbish placed in black bags

• All 10…………….. must be taken down

• Chairs and tables must be piled up

Lesson 1.14

Questions 1-10

Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. Example Name: Roger Brown Age: 18

Currently staying in a 1……………… during the week

Postal address: 2 17, ………………… Street, Stamford, Lines

Postcode: 3…………………..

Occupation: student and part-time job as a 4……………..

Studying 5……………..(major subject) and history (minor subject)

Hobbies: does a lot of 6………………, and is interested in the 7………………

On Youth Council, wants to work with young people who are 8……………

Will come to talk to the Elections Officer next Monday at 9…………….. pm

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Mobile number: 10…………..

Lesson 1.15

Questions 1-6

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

Free activities in the Burnham area

Example The caller wants to find out about events on

A 27 June.

B 28 June.

C 29 June.

1 The ‘Family Welcome’ event in the art gallery begins at A 10 am.

B 10.30 am.

C 2 pm.

2 The film that is now shown in the ‘Family Welcome’ event is about A sculpture.

B painting.

C ceramics.

3 When do most of the free concerts take place? A in the morning

B at lunchtime

C in the evening

4 Where will the 4 pm concert of Latin American music take place?

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A in a museum

B in a theatre

C in a library

5 The boat race begins at A Summer Pool.

B Charlesworth Bridge.

C Offord Marina.

6 One of the boat race teams A won a regional competition earlier this year.

B has represented the region in a national competition.

C has won several regional competitions.

Questions 7-10

Complete the sentences below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

Paxton Nature Reserve

7 Paxton is a good place for seeing rare…………….. all year round.

8 This is a particularly good time for seeing certain unusual………………

9 Visitors will be able to learn about………………and then collect some.

10 Part of the…………….. has been made suitable for swimming.

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Lesson 1.16

Questions 1-7

Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer

Event Cost Venue Notes

Jazz

band

Example

Tickets available

for £15

The 1………….

school

Also appearing:

Carolyn Hart (plays the 2…………….)

Duck

races

£1 per duck Start behind

the 3………..

Prize: tickets for 4……….

held at the end of the festival.

Ducks can be bought in the 5………..

Flower

show

Free 6………… Hall Prizes presented at 5 pm

by a well-known 7………….

Questions 8-10

Who is each play suitable for? Write the correct letter, A, B or C, next to Questions 8-10. A mainly for children

B mainly for adults

C suitable for people of all ages

Plays 8 The Mystery of Muldoon ……………

9 Fire and Flood………….

10 Silly Sailor……………

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Solution for section 1

Lesson 1.1

1. C

2. B

3. 48 North Avenue

4. WS6 2YH

5. 01674 553242

6. (free) drink(s)/refreshment(s)

7. (the/a) pianist/piano player

8. 10.50

9. 4

10. 50%

Lesson 1.2

1. Milperra

2. First Class Movers

3. 28 November

4. screen

5. bathroom

6. door

7. 140

8. leg

9. plates

10. 60

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Lesson 1.3

1. central

2. 600

3. 2 years

4. garage

5. garden

6. study

7. noisy

8. 595

9. B, E IN EITHER ORDER

10. B, E IN EITHER ORDER

Lesson 1.4

1. waiter(s)

2. day off

3. break

4. (free) meal

5. dark (coloured/colored)

6. jacket

7. 28 June

8. Urwin

9. 12.00 (pm)/noon/mid-day

10. reference

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Lesson 1.5

1. answer(ing) (the) phone

2. Hillsdunne Road

3. (the) library

4. 4.45

5. national holidays

6. after 11 (o’clock)

7. clear voice

8. think quickly

9. 22 October

10. Manuja

Lesson 1.6

1. Bhatt

2. 31(st) March

3. nursing

4. 2

5. meat

6. bedsit

7. theatre/theater

8. mature/older

9. town

10. shared

Lesson 1.7

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1. 300

2. Sunshade

3. balcony

4. forest/forests

5. 319

6. 10,000

7. relative

8. missed

9. item

10. Ludlow

Lesson 1.8

1. babies

2. Eshcol

3. evening

4. Gormley

5. B, E IN EITHER ORDER

6. B, E IN EITHER ORDER

7. heart

8. primary school

9. 4.30

10. ages

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Lesson 1.9

1. Ardleigh

2. newspaper

3. theme

4. tent

5. castle

6. beach/beaches

7. 2020

8. flight

9. 429

10. dinner

Lesson 1.10

1. Hardie

2. 19

3. GT82LC

4. hairdresser

5. dentist/dentist’s

6. lighting

7. trains

8. safe

9. shower

10. training

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Lesson 1.11

1. 4

2. 46 Wombat

3. Thursday

4. 8.30

5. red

6. lunch

7. glasses

8. BALL

9. aunt

10. month

Lesson 1.12

1. Pargetter

2. East

3. library

4. morning/mornings

5. postbox

6. prices

7. glass

8. cooker

9. week

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10. fence

Lesson 1.13

1. Charlton

2. (£)115 / a/one hundred (and) fifteen

3. cash

4. parking

5. music

6. entry

7. stage

8. code

9. floor/floors

10. decoration/decorations

Lesson 1.14

1. hostel

2. Buckleigh

3. PE9 7QT

4. waiter

5. politics

6. cycling

7. cinema

8. disabled

9. 4.30 (pm) / half past four

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10. 07788 136711

Lesson 1.15

1. B

2. C

3. B

4. A

5. C

6. A

7. birds

8. flowers

9. mushrooms

10. river

Lesson 1.16

1. secondary

2. flute

3. cinema

4. concert

5. market

6. Bythwaite

7. actor

8. A

9. B

10. C

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Section 2

Lesson 2.1

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-15

Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer

The Dinosaur Museum

11 The museum closes at ………….p.m. on Mondays. 12 The museum is not open on…………… 13 School groups are met by tour guides in the…………… 14 The whole visit takes 90 minutes, including ………………minutes for the guided tour. 15 There are ………………behind the museum where students can have lunch.

Questions 16-18

Choose THREE letters, A-G. Which THREE things can students have with them in the museum?

A food

B water

C cameras

D books

E bags

F pens

G worksheets

Questions 19 and 20

Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO activities can students do after the tour at present?

A build model dinosaurs

B watch films

C draw dinosaurs

D find dinosaur eggs

E play computer games

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Lesson 2.2

Questions 11-20

Question 11

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. 11 According to the speaker, the main purposes of the park are A education and entertainment. B research and education. C research and entertainment.

Questions 12-14

Label the plan below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Agricultural Park

Questions 15-20

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

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15 When are the experimental areas closed to the public? A all the year round

B almost all the year

C a short time every year

16 How can you move around the park? A by tram, walking or bicycle

B by solar car or bicycle

C by bicycle, walking or bus

17 The rare breed animals kept in the park include A hens and horses.

B goats and cows.

C goats and hens.

18 What is the main purpose of having the Rare Breeds Section? A to save unusual animals

B to keep a variety of breeds

C to educate the public

19 What can you see in the park at the present time? A the arrival of wild birds

B fruit tree blossom

C a demonstration of fishing

20 The shop contains books about A animals.

B local traditions.

C the history of the park.

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Lesson 2.3

Questions 11-16

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

THE NATIONAL ARTS CENTRE

Well known for: 11……….

Complex consists of:

concert rooms

theatres

cinemas

art galleries

public library

restaurants

a 12………..

Historical background:

1940 - area destroyed by bombs

1960s-1970s - Centre was 13………..and built

in 14…………. - opened to public

Managed by: the 15………..

Open: 16………… days per year

Questions 17-20

Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Day Time Event

Venue

Ticket price

Monday and

Tuesday

7.30 p.m. ‘The Magic Flute’ (opera

by Mozart)

17………… from £8.00

Wednesday 8.00 p.m. 18 ‘………….’ (Canadian

film)

Cinema 2 19 £…………

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Saturday and

Sunday

11 a.m. to

10 p.m.

20’…………..’ (art

exhibition)

Gallery 1 free

Lesson 2.4

Questions 11-13

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

Improvements to Red Hill Suburb

11 Community groups are mainly concerned about A pedestrian safety.

B traffic jams.

C increased pollution.

12 It has been decided that the overhead power lines will be A extended.

B buried.

C repaired.

13 The expenses related to the power lines will be paid for by A the council.

B the power company.

C local businesses.

Questions 14-20

Label the map below. Write the correct letter, A-H, next to questions 14-20.

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14 ……………… trees

15 ………………wider footpaths

16 ……………….coloured road surface

17 ……………….new sign

18 ……………….traffic lights

19 ………………. artwork

20 …………..children’s playground

Lesson 2.5

Questions 11-16

Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

SPORTS WORLD

• a new 11 ………… of an international sports goods company

• located in the shopping centre to the 12………………… of Bradcaster

• has sports 13………………. and equipment on floors 1-3

• can get you any item within 14……………. days

• shop specialises in equipment for 15…………..

• has a special section which just sells 16…………..

Questions 17 and 18

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

17 A champion athlete will be in the shop A on Saturday morning only.

B all day Saturday.

C for the whole weekend.

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18 The first person to answer 20 quiz questions correctly will win A gym membership.

B a video.

C a calendar.

Questions 19 and 20

Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO pieces of information does the speaker give about the fitness test?

A You need to reserve a place.

B It is free to account holders.

C You get advice on how to improve your health.

D It takes place in a special clinic.

E It is cheaper this month.

Lesson 2.6

Questions 11-13

Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Parks and open spaces

Name of place Of particular interest Open

Halland Common source of River Ouse 24 hours

Holt Island many different 11……….. between 12………..

Longfield Country Park reconstruction of a 2,000-year-old

13……….with activities for children

daylight hours

Questions 14-16

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Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

Longfield Park

14 As part of Monday’s activity, visitors will A prepare food with herbs.

B meet a well-known herbalist.

C dye cloth with herbs.

15 For the activity on Wednesday, A only group bookings are accepted.

B visitors should book in advance.

C attendance is free.

16 For the activity on Saturday, visitors should A come in suitable clothing.

B make sure they are able to stay for the whole day.

C tell the rangers before the event what they wish to do.

Questions 17-20

Label the map below. Write the correct letter, A-l, next to questions 17-20.

17 bird hide…………….

18 dog-walking area……………..

19 flower garden…………………

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20 wooded area…………………

Lesson 2.7

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-13

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

Winridge Forest Railway Park

11 Simon’s idea for a theme park came from A his childhood hobby.

B his interest in landscape design.

C his visit to another park.

12 When they started, the family decided to open the park only when A the weather was expected to be good.

B the children weren’t at school.

C there were fewer farming commitments.

13 Since opening, the park has had

A 50,000 visitors.

B 1,000,000 visitors.

C 1,500,000 visitors.

Questions 14-18

What is currently the main area of work of each of the following people?

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Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-H, next to questions 14-18.

People

14 Simon (the speaker) ……….

15 Liz …………..

16 Sarah ………..

17 Duncan ………..

18 Judith ………….

Area of work

A advertising

B animal care

C building

D educational links

E engine maintenance

F food and drink

G sales

H staffing

Questions 19 and 20

Complete the table below. Write THREE WORD AND/OR NUMBERS for each answer.

Feature Size Biggest challenge Target age group

Railway 1.2 km Making tunnels

Go-Kart arena 19 ……….m2 Removing mounds on the track 20 ………….year-olds

Lesson 2.8

Questions 11-13

Label the diagram below. Choose THREE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-E, next to questions 11-13. A electricity indicator B on/off switch C reset button

D time control E warning indicator

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Water Heater

Questions 14-18

Where can each of the following items be found? Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to questions 14-18.

14 pillows ,…………..

15 washing powder …………

16 key …………

17 light bulbs ………..

18 map …………..

Locations

A in box on washing machine

B in cupboard on landing

C in chest of drawers

D next to window in living room

E on shelf by back door

F on top of television

G under kitchen sink

Questions 19 and 20

Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

The best place to park in town - next to the station

Phone number for takeaway pizzas -19……………..

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Railway museum closed on 20………………….

Lesson 2.9

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-12

Choose TWO letters A-E. Which TWO facilities at the leisure club have recently been improved? A the gym

B the tracks

C the indoor pool

D the outdoor pool

E the sports training for children

Questions 13-20

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. Joining the leisure club

Personal Assessment

• New members should describe any 13……………

• The 14……………. will be explained to you before you use the equipment.

• You will be given a six-week 15……………..

Types of membership

• There is a compulsory £90 16…………….. fee for members.

• Gold members are given 17……………to all the LP clubs.

• Premier members are given priority during 18………….. hours.

• Premier members can bring some 19…………. every month.

• Members should always take their 20 …………...with them.

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Lesson 2.10

Questions 11-14

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

New city developments

11. The idea for the two new developments in the city came from

A local people.

B the City Council.

C the SWRDC.

12. What is unusual about Brackenside pool?

A its architectural style

B its heating system

C its method of water treatment

13. Local newspapers have raised worries about

A the late opening date.

B the post of the project.

C the size of the facilities.

14. What decision has not yet been made about the pool?

A whose statue will be at the door

B the exact opening times

C who will open it

Questions 15-20

Which feature is related to each of the following areas of the world represented in the playground? Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-l, next to questions 15-20.

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Features

A ancient forts

B waterways

C ice and snow

D jewels

E local animals

F mountains

G music and film

H space travel

I volcanoes

Areas of the world

15…………….Asia

16……………..Antarctica

17……………..South America

18……………..North America

19……………..Europe

20……………..Africa

Lesson 2.11

Questions 11 and 12

Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO things does Alice say about the Dolphin Conservation Trust?

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A Children make up most of the membership.

B It’s the country's largest conservation organisation.

C It helps finance campaigns for changes in fishing practices.

D It employs several dolphin experts full-time.

E Volunteers help in various ways.

Questions 13-15

Choose the correct letter, A, B, or C 13. Why is Alice so pleased the Trust has won the Charity Commission award? A It has brought in extra money.

B It made the work of the trust better known.

C 1t has attracted more members.

14. Alice says oil exploration causes problems to dolphins because of A noise.

B oil leaks.

C movement of ships.

15. Alice became interested in dolphins when A she saw one swimming near her home.

B she heard a speaker at her school.

C she read a book about them.

Questions 16-20

Which dolphin does Alice make each of the following comments about? Write the correct letter, A, B, C or D, next to questions 16-20.

Dolphins

A Moondancer

B Echo

C Kiwi

D Samson

Comments 16. It has not been seen this year…………… 17. It is photographed more than the others…………….

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18. It is always very energetic…………….. 19. It is the newest one in the scheme……………… 20. It has an unusual shape………………..

Lesson 2.12

Questions 11-15 Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. MANHAM PORT 11. Why did a port originally develop at Manham?

A It was safe from enemy attack.

B It was convenient for river transport.

C It had a good position on the sea coast.

12. What caused Manham’s sudden expansion during the Industrial Revolution? A the improvement in mining techniques

B the increase in demand for metals

C the discovery of tin in the area

13. Why did rocks have to be sent away from Manham to be processed? A shortage of fuel

B poor transport systems

C lack of skills among local people

14. What happened when the port declined in the twentieth century? A The workers went away.

B Traditional skills were lost.

C Buildings were used for new purposes.

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15. What did the Manham Trust hope to do? A discover the location of the original port

B provide jobs for the unemployed

C rebuild the port complex

Questions 16-20

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Tourist attractions in Manham

Place Features and activities Advice

copper mine specially adapted

miners’ 16…………… take visitors

into

the mountain

the mine is 17………… and

enclosed - unsuitable for children

and animals

village school classrooms and a special exhibition

of 18…………

a 19…………. is recommended

The George’

(old sailing

ship)

the ship’s wheel (was lost but has

now been restored)

children shouldn’t use

the 20……….

Lesson 2.13

Questions 11-14

Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD for each answer.

Fiddy Working Heritage Farm

Advice about visiting the farm

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Visitors should

• take care not to harm any 11……………..

• not touch any 12……………..

• wear 13………………

• not bring 14……………. into the farm, with certain exceptions

Questions 15-20

Label the map below. Write the correct letter A-I, next to Questions 15-20.

15 Scarecrow………………

16 Maze………………

17 Café……………

18 Black Barn………….

19 Covered picnic area…………..

20 Fiddy House……………

Lesson 2.14

Questions 11-20

New staff at theatre

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Questions 11 and 12

Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO changes have been made so far during the refurbishment of the theatre?

A Some rooms now have a different use.

B A different type of seating has been installed.

C An elevator has been installed.

D The outside of the building has been repaired.

E Extra seats have been added.

Questions 13 and 14

Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO facilities does the theatre currently offer to the public?

A rooms for hire

B backstage tours

C hire of costumes

D a bookshop

E a café

Questions 15 and 16

Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO workshops does the theatre currently offer?

A sound

B acting

C making puppets

D make-up

E lighting

Questions 17-20

Label the plan below. Write the correct letter, A-G, next to Questions 17-20.

Ground floor plan of theatre

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17 box office…………..

18 theatre manager’s

office……………….

19 lighting

box…………….

20 artistic director’s

office…………….

Lesson 2.15

Questions 11-15

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

Changes in Barford over the last 50 years

11 In Shona’s opinion, why do fewer people use buses in Barford these days? A The buses are old and uncomfortable.

B Fares have gone up too much.

C There are not so many bus routes.

12 What change in the road network is known to have benefited the town most? A the construction of a bypass

B the development of cycle paths

C the banning of cars from certain streets

13 What is the problem affecting shopping in the town centre? A lack of parking spaces

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B lack of major retailers

C lack of restaurants and cafes

14 What does Shona say about medical facilities in Barford? A There is no hospital.

B New medical practices are planned.

C The number of dentists is too low.

15 The largest number of people are employed in A manufacturing.

B services.

C education.

Questions 16-20

What is planned for each of the following facilities? Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to Questions 16-20.

Plans

A It will move to a new location.

B It will have its opening hours extended.

C It will be refurbished.

D It will be used for a different purpose.

E It will have its opening hours reduced.

F It will have new management.

G It will be expanded.

Facilities

16 railway station car park ………….

17 Cinema …………

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18 indoor market ………….

19 Library …………..

20 nature reserve ………….

Lesson 2.16

Questions 11-16

What does the speaker say about each of the following collections? Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to Questions 11-16. Comments A was given by one person

B was recently publicised in the media

C includes some items given by members of the public

D includes some items given by the artists

E includes the most popular exhibits in the museum

F is the largest of its kind in the country

G has had some of its contents relocated

Collections

11 20th- and 21st-century paintings ………….

12 19th-century paintings …………..

13 Sculptures …………

14 ‘Around the world’ exhibition …… ……..

15 Coins …………..

16 Porcelain and glass ……………..

Questions 17-20

Label the plan below. Write the correct letter, A-H, next to Questions 17-20.

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Basement of museum

17…………. restaurant

18…………. café

19………….. baby-changing facilities

20………….. cloakroo

---------------

Tips for IELTS Listening Map Labelling Read the instructions carefully - this is so you

know what you need to do and the maximum number of words and / or numbers you can use – in this case it is no more than two words.

Know the vocabulary of location - you need to know words commonly used to describe where things are located.

Identify where the numbers start and finish Understand the context - listen carefully at the

beginning as the speaker will give you the context. Also, look over the map. This will help you identify exactly what you are labelling - note the things that are already labelled to get a feel for where things are.

Predict the answers - as with all the listening test, it helps to predict what the answer may be. Look at the gaps and see if you can guess what you are labelling - a room, building, sports facility, street etc?

Pay particular attention to things close by Pay attention to any other clues in the map -

for example, you are given a compass icon in the corner telling you where ‘North’, ‘South’, ‘East’ and ‘West’ are. This means it is likely that these phrases will be used to direct you. So listen out for them.

Look at two questions at once - this is

something you should always do in the

listening test

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.Solution for section 2

Lesson 2.1

11. 1.30

12. 25 December/Christmas Day

13. car-park/parking lot

14. 45

15. (some) tables

16. C, F, G IN ANY ORDER

17. C, F, G IN ANY ORDER

18. C, F, G IN ANY ORDER

19. B, E IN EITHER ORDER

20. B, E IN EITHER ORDER

Lesson 2.2

11. B

12. (the) Forest

13. Fish Farm(s)

14. Market Garden

15. C

16. A

17. C

18. B

19. C

20. A

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Lesson 2.3

11. classical music/(classical/music) concerts

12. bookshop/bookstore

13. planned

14. 1983/(the) 1980s

15. City Council

16. 363

17. (the) Garden Hall

18. Three Lives

19. 4.50

20. Faces of China

Lesson 2.4

11. A

12. B

13. B

14. C

15. D

16. G

17. B

18. F

19. A

20. E

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Lesson 2.5

11. branch

12. west

13. clothing

14. 10

15. running

16. bags

17. A

18. A

19. A, E IN EITHER ORDER

20. A, E IN EITHER ORDER

Lesson 2.6

11. trees

12. Friday and Sunday

13. farm

14. C

15. B

16. A

17. A

18. I

19. F

20. E

Lesson 2.7

11. C

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12. A

13. C

14. E

15. H

16. F

17. C

18. G

19. 120

20. 5 to 12

Lesson 2.8

11. B

12. C

13. E

14. B

15. E

16. D

17. A

18. C

19. 732281

20. Thursday/Thursdays

Lesson 2.9

11. A, C IN EITHER ORDER

12. A, C IN EITHER ORDER

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13. health problems

14. safety rules

15. plan

16. joining

17. free entry

18. peak

19. guests

20. photo card / photo cards

Lesson 2.10

11. A

12. C

13. C

14. A

15. E

16. F

17. D

18. H

19. A

20. B

Lesson 2.11

11. IN EITHER ORDER C & E

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12. IN EITHER ORDER C & E

13. B

14. A

15. C

16. B

17. C

18. D

19. D

20. A

Lesson 2.12

11. B

12. B

13. A

14. A

15. C

16. trains

17. dark

18. games

19. guided tour

20. ladder/ladders

Lesson 2.13

11. animal/animals

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12. tool/tools

13. shoes

14. dog/dogs

15. F

16. G

17. D

18. H

19. C

20. A

Lesson 2.14

11. A,B IN EITHER ORDER

12. A,B IN EITHER ORDER

13. B,D IN EITHER ORDER

14. B,D IN EITHER ORDER

15. C,E IN EITHER ORDER

16. C,E IN EITHER ORDER

17. G

18. D

19. B

20. F

Lesson 2.15

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11. C

12. B

13. B

14. A

15. C

16. G

17. A

18. C

19. B

20. F

Lesson 2.16

11. E

12. D

13. G

14. B

15. C

16. A

17. F

18. H

19. C

20. B

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Section 3

Lesson 3.1

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-24

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

Field Trip Proposal

21 The tutor thinks that Sandra’s proposal A should be re-ordered in some parts.

B needs a contents page.

C ought to include more information.

22 The proposal would be easier to follow if Sandra A inserted subheadings.

B used more paragraphs.

C shortened her sentences.

23 What was the problem with the formatting on Sandra’s proposal? A Separate points were not clearly identified.

B The headings were not always clear.

C Page numbering was not used in an appropriate way.

24 Sandra became interested in visiting the Navajo National Park through A articles she read.

B movies she saw as a child.

C photographs she found on the internet.

Questions 25-27

Choose THREE letters, A-G. Which THREE topics does Sandra agree to include in the proposal?

A climate change

B field trip activities

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C geographical features

D impact of tourism

E myths and legends

F plant and animal life

G social history

Questions 28-30

Complete the sentences below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer . 28 The tribal park covers …………..hectares.

29 Sandra suggests that they share the ……………for transport.

30 She says they could also explore the local……………

Lesson 3.2

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-24

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

Honey Bees in Australia

21 Where in Australia have Asian honey bees been found in the past? A Queensland

B New South Wales

C several states

22 A problem with Asian honey bees is that they A attack native bees.

B carry parasites.

C damage crops.

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23 What point is made about Australian bees? A Their honey varies in quality.

B Their size stops them from pollinating some flowers.

C They are sold to customers abroad.

24 Grant Freeman says that if Asian honey bees got into Australia, A the country’s economy would be affected.

B they could be used in the study of allergies.

C certain areas of agriculture would benefit.

Questions 25-30

Complete the summary below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

Looking for Asian honey bees

Birds called Rainbow Bee Eaters eat only 25……………, and cough up small bits of skeleton and

other products in a pellet.

Researchers go to the locations the bee eaters like to use for 26…………..

They collect the pellets and take them to a 27 …………….for analysis.

Here 28………… is used to soften them, and the researchers look for the 29…………….of Asian

bees in the pellets.

The benefit of this research is that the result is more 30…………. than searching for live Asian bees.

Lesson 3.3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-26

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

Latin American studies

21 Paul decided to get work experience in South America because he wanted

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A to teach English there.

B to improve his Spanish.

C to learn about Latin American life.

22 What project work did Paul originally intend to get involved in? A construction

B agriculture

C tourism

23 Why did Paul change from one project to another? A His first job was not well organised.

B He found doing the routine work very boring.

C The work was too physically demanding.

24 In the village community, he learnt how important it was to A respect family life.

B develop trust.

C use money wisely.

25 What does Paul say about his project manager? A He let Paul do most of the work.

B His plans were too ambitious.

C He was very supportive of Paul.

26 Paul was surprised to be given A a computer to use.

B so little money to live on.

C an extension to his contract.

Questions 27-30

What does Paul decide about each of the following modules? Write the correct letter, A, B or C, next to questions 27-30. A He will do this. B He might do this.

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C He won’t do this.

Module

27 Gender Studies in Latin America……………

28 Second Language Acquisition…………..

29 Indigenous Women’s Lives……………

30 Portuguese Language Studies…………..

Lesson 3.4

Questions 21 and 22

Choose TWO letters, A-E. In which TWO ways is Dan financing his course? A He is receiving money from the government.

B His family are willing to help him.

C The college is giving him a small grant.

D His local council is supporting him for a limited period.

E A former employer is providing partial funding.

Questions 23 and 24

Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO reasons does Jeannie give for deciding to leave some college clubs?

A She is not sufficiently challenged.

B The activity interferes with her studies.

C She does not have enough time.

D The activity is too demanding physically.

E She does not think she is any good at the activity.

Questions 25 and 26

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Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. 25 What does Dan say about the seminars on the course? A The other students do not give him a chance to speak.

B The seminars make him feel inferior to the other students.

C The preparation for seminars takes too much time.

26 What does Jeannie say about the tutorials on the course?

A They are an inefficient way of providing guidance.

B They are more challenging than she had expected.

C They are helping her to develop her study skills.

Questions 27-30

Complete the flow-chart below. Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Advice on exam preparation

Make sure you know the exam requirements

⇩ Find some past papers

⇩ Work out your 27…………….. for revision and write them on a card

⇩ Make a 28………………….. and keep it in view

⇩ Divide revision into 29……………………for each day

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⇩ Write one 30…………….. about each topic

⇩ Practise writing some exam answers

Lesson 3.5

Questions 21-30

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

Course Feedback

21 One reason why Spiros felt happy about his marketing presentation was that A he was not nervous.

B his style was good.

C the presentation was the best in his group.

22 What surprised Hiroko about the other students’ presentations? A Their presentations were not interesting.

B They found their presentations stressful.

C They didn’t look at the audience enough.

23 After she gave her presentation, Hiroko felt A delighted.

B dissatisfied.

C embarrassed.

24 How does Spiros feel about his performance in tutorials? A not very happy

B really pleased

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C fairly confident

25 Why can the other students participate so easily in discussions? A They are polite to each other.

B They agree to take turns in speaking.

C They know each other well.

26 Why is Hiroko feeling more positive about tutorials now? A She finds the other students’ opinions more interesting.

B She is making more of a contribution.

C The tutor includes her in the discussion.

27 To help her understand lectures, Hiroko A consulted reference materials.

B had extra tutorials with her lecturers.

C borrowed lecture notes from other students.

28 What does Spiros think of his reading skills? A He reads faster than he used to.

B It still takes him a long time to read.

C He tends to struggle with new vocabulary.

29 What is Hiroko’s subject area? A environmental studies

B health education

C engineering

30 Hiroko thinks that in the reading classes the students should A learn more vocabulary.

B read more in their own subject areas.

C develop better reading strategies.

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Lesson 3.6

Questions 21-24

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

Self-Access Centre

21 Students want to keep the Self-Access Centre because A they enjoy the variety of equipment.

B they like being able to work on their own.

C it is an important part of their studies.

22 Some teachers would prefer to A close the Self-Access Centre.

B move the Self-Access Centre elsewhere.

C restrict access to the Self-Access Centre.

23 The students’ main concern about using the library would be A the size of the library.

B difficulty in getting help.

C the lack of materials.

24 The Director of Studies is concerned about A the cost of upgrading the centre.

B the lack of space in the centre.

C the difficulty in supervising the centre.

Questions 25-30

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Necessary improvements to the existing Self-Access Centre

Equipment Replace computers to create more space.

Resources The level of the 25 …………..materials, in particular, should be more clearly shown. Update the 26 …………….collection. Buy some 27 ……………..and divide them up. Use of the room Speak to the teachers and organise a 28 ………………for supervising the centre

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Install an 29…………. Restrict personal use of 30………………….on computers.

Lesson 3.7

Questions 21-30

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Study Skills Tutorial - Caroline Benning

Dissertation topic: the 21…………….

Strengths: • 22………………

• computer modelling

Weaknesses: • lack of background information

• poor 23…………….. skills

Possible strategy Benefits Problems

peer group discussion increases 24………….. dissertations tend to contain the

same 25………….

use

the 26………… service

provides

structured programme

limited 27…………..

consult study skills books are a good source

of reference

can be too 28…………

Recommendations: • use a card index

• read all notes 29………….

Next tutorial date: 30 …………..January

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Lesson 3.8

Questions 21 and 22

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

21 In her home country, Kira had A completed a course.

B done two years of a course.

C found her course difficult.

22 To succeed with assignments, Kira had to A read faster.

B write faster.

C change her way of thinking.

Questions 23-25

Complete the sentences below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer. 23 Kira says that lecturers are easier to……………….. than those in her home country.

24 Paul suggests that Kira may be more ………………. than when she was studying before.

25 Kira says that students want to discuss things that worry them or that ………………….them very much.

Questions 26-30

Answer the questions below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

26 How did the students do their practical sessions? 26…………………….

27 In the second semester how often did Kira work in a hospital? 27………………….

28 How much full-time work did Kira do during the year? 28……………….

29 Having completed the year, how does Kira feel? 29……………………

30 In addition to the language, what do overseas students need to become

familiar with? 30……………..

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Lesson 3.9

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-25

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. Global Design Competition

21 Students entering the design competition have to A produce an energy-efficient design.

B adapt an existing energy-saving appliance.

C develop a new use for current technology.

22 John chose a dishwasher because he wanted to make dishwashers A more appealing.

B more common.

C more economical.

23 The stone in John’s ‘Rockpool’ design is used

A for decoration.

B to switch it on.

C to stop water escaping.

24 In the holding chamber, the carbon dioxide A changes back to a gas.

B dries the dishes.

C is allowed to cool.

25 At the end of the cleaning process, the carbon dioxide A is released into the air.

B is disposed of with the waste.

C is collected ready to be re-used.

Questions 26-30

Complete the notes below.

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Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

• John needs help preparing for his 26…………….

• The professor advises John to make a 27…………………of his design.

• John’s main problem is getting good quality 28…………….

• The professor suggests John apply for a 29………………..

• The professor will check the 30…………………..information in John’s written report.

Lesson 3.10

Questions 21 and 22

Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO hobbies was Thor Heyerdahl very interested in as a youth? A camping B climbing C collecting D hunting E reading

Questions 23 and 24

Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which do the speakers say are the TWO reasons why Heyerdahl went to live on an island? A to examine ancient carvings

B to experience an isolated place

C to formulate a new theory

D to learn survival skills

E to study the impact of an extreme environment

Questions 25-30

Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

The later life of Thor Heyerdahl

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25. According to Victor and Olivia, academics thought that Polynesian migration from the east was impossible due to A the fact that Eastern countries were far away.

B the lack of materials for boat building.

C the direction of the winds and currents.

26. Which do the speakers agree was the main reason for Heyerdahl’s raft journey? A to overcome a research setback

B to demonstrate a personal quality

C to test a new theory

27. What was most important to Heyerdahl about his raft journey? A the fact that he was the first person to do it

B the speed of crossing the Pacific

C the use of authentic construction methods

28. Why did Heyerdahl go to Easter Island?

A to build a stone statue

B to sail a reed boat

C to learn the local language

29. In Olivia’s opinion, Heyerdahl’s greatest influence was on A theories about Polynesian origins.

B the development of archaeological methodology.

C establishing archaeology as an academic subject.

30. Which criticism do the speakers make of William Oliver’s textbook? A Its style is out of date.

B Its content is over-simplified.

C Its methodology is flawed.

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Lesson 3.11

Questions 21-25

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

Theatre Studies Course

21. What helped Rob to prepare to play the character of a doctor? A the stories his grandfather told him

B the times when he watched his grandfather working

C the way he imagined his grandfather at work

22. In the play's first scene, the boredom of village life was suggested by A repetition of words and phrases.

B scenery painted in dull colours.

C long pauses within conversations.

23. What has Rob learned about himself through working in a group? A He likes to have clear guidelines.

B He copes well with stress.

C He thinks he is a good leader.

24. To support the production, research material was used which described A political developments.

B changing social attitudes.

C economic transformations.

25. What problem did the students overcome in the final rehearsal? A one person forgetting their words

B an equipment failure

C the injury of one character

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Questions 26-30

Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to questions 26-30.

Action

A be on time

B get a letter of recommendation

C plan for the final year

D make sure the institution’s focus is relevant

E show ability in Theatre Studies

F make travel arrangements and bookings

G ask for help

Stages in doing the ‘year abroad’ option 26 in the second year of the course

27 when first choosing where to go

28 when sending in your choices

29 when writing your personal statement

30 when doing the year abroad

Lesson 3.12

Questions 21 and 22

Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO skills did Laura improve as a result of her work placement? A communication

B design

C IT

D marketing

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E organization

Questions 23 and 24

Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO immediate benefits did the company get from Laura’s work placement?

A updates for its software

B cost savings

C an-improved image

D new clients

E a growth in sales

Questions 25-30

What source of information should Tim use at each of the following stages of the work placement? Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to questions 25-30.

Sources of information

A company manager

B company’s personnel department

C personal tutor

D psychology department

E mentor

F university careers officer

G internet

Stages of the work placement procedure 25 obtaining booklet

26 discussing options

27 getting updates

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28 responding to invitation for interview

29 informing about outcome of interview

30 requesting a reference

Lesson 3.13

Questions 21-30

Choose the correct letter, A, B C. Study on Gender in Physics

21 The students in Akira Miyake’s study were all majoring in A physics. B psychology or physics. C science, technology, engineering or mathematics.

22 The aim of Miyake’s study was to investigate A what kind of women choose to study physics. B a way of improving women’s performance in physics. C whether fewer women than men study physics at college.

23 The female physics students were wrong to believe that A the teachers marked them in an unfair way.

B the male students expected them to do badly.

C their test results were lower than the male students’.

24 Miyake’s team asked the students to write about A what they enjoyed about studying physics.

B the successful experiences of other people.

C something that was important to them personally.

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25 What was the aim of the writing exercise done by the subjects? A to reduce stress

B to strengthen verbal ability

C to encourage logical thinking

26 What surprised the researchers about the study? A how few students managed to get A grades

B the positive impact it had on physics results for women

C the difference between male and female performance

27 Greg and Lisa think Miyake’s results could have been affected by

A the length of the writing task.

B the number of students who took part.

C the information the students were given.

28 Greg and Lisa decide that in their own project, they will compare the effects of A two different writing tasks.

B a writing task with an oral task.

C two different oral tasks.

29 The main finding of Smolinsky’s research was that class teamwork activities A were most effective when done by all-women groups.

B had no effect on the performance of men or women.

C improved the results of men more than of women.

30 What will Lisa and Greg do next? A talk to a professor

B observe a science class

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C look at the science timetable

Lesson 3.14

Questions 21-26

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

Rocky Bay field trip

21 What do the students agree should be included in their aims? A factors affecting where organisms live

B the need to preserve endangered species

C techniques for classifying different organisms

22 What equipment did they forget to take on the Field Trip? A string

B a compass

C a ruler

23 In Helen’s procedure section, Colin suggests a change in A the order in which information is given.

B the way the information is divided up.

C the amount of information provided.

24 What do they say about the method they used to measure wave speed? A It provided accurate results.

B It was simple to carry out.

C It required special equipment.

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25 What mistake did Helen make when first drawing the map? A She chose the wrong scale.

B She stood in the wrong place.

C She did it at the wrong time.

26 What do they decide to do next with their map?

A scan it onto a computer

B check it using photographs

C add information from the internet

Questions 27 and 28

Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO problems affecting organisms in the splash zone are mentioned?

A lack of water

B strong winds

C lack of food

D high temperatures

E large waves

Questions 29 and 30

Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO reasons for possible error will they include in their report?

A inaccurate records of the habitat of organisms

B influence on behaviour of organisms by observer

C incorrect identification of some organisms

D making generalisations from a small sample

E missing some organisms when counting

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Lesson 3.15

Questions 21-26

Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

Subject of drawing Change to be made

A 21……………..

surrounded by trees

Add Malcolm and

a 22…………….noticing

him

People who are 23…………..

outside the forest

Add Malcolm sitting on

a tree trunk

and 24…………….

Ice-skaters

on 25……………..

covered with ice

Add a 26…………….

for each person

Questions 27-30

Who is going to write each of the following parts of the report? Write the correct letter, A—D, next to Questions 27—30. A Helen only

B Jeremy only

C both Helen and Jeremy

D neither Helen nor Jeremy

Parts of the report

27 how they planned the project………….

28 how they had ideas for their stories…………….

29 an interpretation of their storie…………….

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30 comments on the illustrations…………….

Lesson 3.16

Questions 21 and 22

Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO characteristics were shared by the subjects of Joanna’s psychology study?

A They had all won prizes for their music. B They had all made music recordings. C They were all under 27 years old. D They had all toured internationally. E They all played a string instrument. Questions 23 and 24

Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO points does Joanna make about her use of telephone interviews? A It meant rich data could be collected.

B It allowed the involvement of top performers.

C It led to a stressful atmosphere at times.

D It meant interview times had to be limited.

E It caused some technical problems.

Questions 25 and 26

Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO topics did Joanna originally intend to investigate in her research? A regulations concerning concert dress

B audience reactions to the dress of performers

C changes in performer attitudes to concert dress

D how choice of dress relates to performer roles

E links between musical instrument and dress choice

Questions 27-30

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Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. 27 Joanna concentrated on women performers because A women are more influenced by fashion.

B women’s dress has led to more controversy.

C women’s code of dress is less strict than men’s.

28 Mike Frost’s article suggests that in popular music, women’s dress is affected by A their wish to be taken seriously.

B their tendency to copy each other.

C their reaction to the masculine nature of the music.

29 What did Joanna’s subjects say about the audience at a performance? A The musicians’ choice of clothing is linked to respect for the audience.

B The clothing should not distract the audience from the music.

C The audience should make the effort to dress appropriately.

30 According to the speakers, musicians could learn from sports scientists about A the importance of clothing for physical freedom.

B the part played by clothing in improving performance.

C the way clothing may protect against physical injury.

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Solution for section 3

Lesson 3.1

21. A

22. C

23. A

24. B

25. B, C, F IN ANY ORDER

26. B, C, F IN ANY ORDER

27. B, C, F IN ANY ORDER

28. 12,000

29. horses

30. caves

Lesson 3.2

21. A

22. B

23. C

24. A

25. insects

26. feeding/eating

27. laboratory

28. water

29. wings

30. reliable/accurate

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Lesson 3.3

21. C

22. C

23. A

24. B

25. C

26. A

27. C

28. A

29. B

30. C

Lesson 3.4

21. B, E IN EITHER ORDER

22. B, E IN EITHER ORDER

23. A, C IN EITHER ORDER

24. A, C IN EITHER ORDER

25. B

26. C

27. priorities

28. timetable

29. (small) tasks

30. (single) paragraph

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Lesson 3.5

21. B

22. C

23. B

24. A

25. C

26. B

27. A

28. B

29. C

30. B

Lesson 3.6

21. C

22. B

23. B

24. C

25. reading

26. CD

27. workbooks

28. timetable/schedule

29. alarm

30. email/emails

Lesson 3.7

21. fishing industry

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22. statistics

23. note-taking

24. confidence

25. ideas

26. student support

27. places

28. general

29. 3 times

30. 25th

Lesson 3.8

21. A

22. C

23. approach

24. mature

25. interest

26. groups/small groups

27. every second day

28. 2 weeks

29. confident

30. education system

Lesson 3.9

21. C

22. A

23. B

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24. A

25. C

26. presentation

27. model

28. material/materials

29. grant

30. technical

Lesson 3.10

21. B, C IN EITHER ORDER

22. B, C IN EITHER ORDER

23. B, E IN EITHER ORDER

24. B, E IN EITHER ORDER

25. A

26. C

27. C

28. A

29. B

30. A

Lesson 3.11

21. C

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22. A

23. A

24. B

25. B

26. E

27. D

28. A

29. G

30. C

Lesson 3.12

21. IN EITHER ORDER A & E

22. IN EITHER ORDER A & E

23. IN EITHER ORDER B & C

24. IN EITHER ORDER B & C

25. D

26. F

27. G

28. B

29. E

30. C

Lesson 3.13

21. C

22. B

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23. B

24. C

25. A

26. B

27. C

28. A

29. B

30. A

Lesson 3.14

21. A

22. A

23. C

24. B

25. B

26. B

27. A,D IN EITHER ORDER

28. A,D IN EITHER ORDER

29. C,E IN EITHER ORDER

30. C,E IN EITHER ORDER

Lesson 3.15

21. cave

22. tiger

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23. dancing

24. crying

25. grass

26. scarf

27. A

28. C

29. D

30. B

Lesson 3.16

21. B,D IN EITHER ORDER

22. B,D IN EITHER ORDER

23. A,B IN EITHER ORDER

24. A,B IN EITHER ORDER

25. B,E IN EITHER ORDER

26. B,E IN EITHER ORDER

27. C

28. A

29. A

30. C

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Section 4

Lesson 4.1

Questions 31-40

Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

Geography

Studying geography helps us to understand:

• the effects of different processes on the 31 ……….of the Earth

• the dynamic between 32…………… and population

Two main branches of study:

• physical features

• human lifestyles and their 33…………

Specific study areas: biophysical, topographic, political, social, economic, historical and 34…………… geography, and also cartography

Key point: geography helps us to understand our surroundings and the associated 35………….

What do geographers do?

• find data - e.g. conduct censuses, collect information in the form of 36………….. using computer and satellite technology

• analyse data - identify 37…………..e.g. cause and effect

• publish findings in form of:

a) maps

- easy to carry

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- can show physical features of large and small areas

- BUT a two-dimensional map will always have some 38…………

b) aerial photos

- can show vegetation problems, 39……………density, ocean floor etc.

c) Landsat pictures sent to receiving stations

- used for monitoring 40…………… conditions etc.

Lesson 4.2

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-36

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

Research on questions about doctors

31 In order to set up her research programme, Shona got A advice from personal friends in other countries.

B help from students in- other countries.

C information from her tutor’s contacts in other countries.

32 What types of people were included in the research? A young people in their first job

B men who were working

C women who were unemployed

33 Shona says that in her questionnaire her aim was A to get a wide range of data.

B to limit people’s responses.

C to guide people through interviews.

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34 What do Shona’s initial results show about medical services in Britain? A Current concerns are misrepresented by the press.

B Financial issues are critical to the government.

C Reforms within hospitals have been unsuccessful.

35 Shona needs to do further research in order to

A present the government with her findings.

B decide the level of extra funding needed.

C identify the preferences of the public.

36 Shona has learnt from the research project that A it is important to plan projects carefully.

B people do not like answering questions.

C colleagues do not always agree.

37-40 Which statement applies to each of the following people who were interviewed by Shona? Choose FOUR answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-F, next to questions 37-40.

A gave false data

B decided to stop participating

C refused to tell Shona about their job

D kept changing their mind about participating

E became very angry with Shona

F was worried about confidentiality

People interviewed by Shona

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37 a person interviewed in the street

38 an undergraduate at the university

39 a colleague in her department

40 a tutor in a foreign university

Lesson 4.3

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-34

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

Trying to repeat success

31 Compared to introducing new business processes, attempts to copy existing processes are A more attractive.

B more frequent.

C more straightforward.

32 Most research into the repetition of success in business has A been done outside the United States.

B produced consistent findings.

C related to only a few contexts.

33 What does the speaker say about consulting experts? A Too few managers ever do it.

B It can be useful in certain circumstances.

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C Experts are sometimes unwilling to give advice.

34 An expert’s knowledge about a business system may be incomplete because A some details are difficult for workers to explain.

B workers choose not to mention certain details.

C details are sometimes altered by workers.

Questions 35-40

Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

Setting up systems based on an existing process

Two mistakes

Manager tries to:

• improve on the original process

• create an ideal 35………………from the best parts of several processes

Cause of problems

• information was inaccurate

• comparison between the business settings was invalid

• disadvantages were overlooked, e.g. effect of changes on 36………………

Solution

• change 37…………

• impose rigorous 38……………

• copy original very closely:

- physical features of the 39………….

- the 40………….. of original employees

Lesson 4.4

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Questions 31-36

Australian Aboriginal Rock Paintings Which painting styles have the following features? Write the correct letter, A, B or C, next to questions 31-36. Painting Styles A Dynamic

B Yam

C Modern

Features 31 figures revealing bones ………

32 rounded figures ………

33 figures with parts missing ………..

34 figures smaller than life size ………

35 sea creatures ………..

36 plants ……….

Questions 37-40

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Rainbow Serpent Project

Aim of project: to identify the 37………. used as the basis for the Rainbow Serpent

Yam Period

• environmental changes led to higher 38……………

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• traditional activities were affected, especially 39………….s

Rainbow Serpent image

• similar to a sea horse

• unusual because it appeared in inland areas

• symbolises 40…………in Aboriginal culture

Lesson 4.5

Questions 31-40

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Mass Strandings of Whales and Dolphins

Mass strandings: situations where groups of whales, dolphins, etc. swim onto the beach and die

Common in areas where the 31 ……………. can change quickly

Several other theories:

Parasites

e.g. some parasites can affect marine animals’ 32………………………….., which they depend on for navigation

Toxins

Poisons from 33…………………… are commonly consumed by whales

e.g. Cape Cod (1988) - whales were killed by saxitoxin

Accidental Strandings

Animals may follow prey ashore, e.g. Thurston (1995)

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Unlikely because the majority of animals were not 34 ……………….when they stranded

Human Activity

35 …………………..from military tests are linked to some recent strandings

The Bahamas (2000) stranding was unusual because the whales

• were all 36…………..

• were not in a 37……………….

Group Behaviour

• More strandings in the most 38…………………. species of whales

• 1994 dolphin stranding - only the 39…………………was ill

Further Reading

Marine Mammals Ashore (Connor) - gives information about stranding 40……………..

Lesson 4.6

Questions 31-40

Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

Business Cultures

Power culture

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Characteristics of

organisation

• small

• 31 ……………..power source

• few rules and procedures

• communication by 32……………

Advantage: • can act quickly

Disadvantage: • might not act 33………….

Suitable employee: • not afraid of 34……………

• doesn’t need job security

Role culture

Characteristics of

organisation:

• large, many 35……….

• specialised departments

• rules and procedure, e.g. job 36 ……….and rules

for discipline

Advantages: • economies of scale

• successful when 37 ……….ability is important

Disadvantages: • slow to see when 38 ………..is needed

• slow to react

Suitable employee: • values security

• doesn’t want 39…………

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Task culture

Characteristics of

organisation:

• project orientated

• in competitive market or making product with short life

• a lot of delegation

Advantage: • 40………….

Disadvantages: • no economies of scale or special expertise

Suitable employee: • likes to work in groups

Lesson 4.7

Questions 31 and 32

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

31 The owners of the underground house A had no experience of living in a rural area.

B were interested in environmental issues.

C wanted a professional project manager.

32 What does the speaker say about the site of the house? A The land was quite cheap.

B Stone was being extracted nearby.

C It was in a completely unspoilt area.

Questions 33-40

Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

The Underground House

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Design

• Built in the earth, with two floors

• The south-facing side was constructed of two layers of 33………….

• Photovoltaic tiles were attached

• A layer of foam was used to improve the 34…………… of the building

Special features

• To increase the light, the building has many internal mirrors and 35…………

• In future, the house may produce more 36………….than it needs

• Recycled wood was used for the 37………… of the house

• The system for processing domestic 38………… is organic

Environmental issues

• The use of large quantities of 39…………..in construction was environmentally harmful

• But the house will have paid its ‘environmental debt’ within 40………..

Lesson 4.8

Questions 31-36

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

Wildlife in city gardens

31 What led the group to choose their topic? A They were concerned about the decline of one species.

B They were interested in the effects of city growth.

C They wanted to investigate a recent phenomenon.

32 The exact proportion of land devoted to private gardens was confirmed by A consulting some official documents.

B taking large-scale photos.

C discussions with town surveyors.

33 The group asked garden owners to

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A take part in formal interviews.

B keep a record of animals they saw.

C get in contact when they saw a rare species.

34 The group made their observations in gardens A which had a large number of animal species.

B which they considered to be representative.

C which had stable populations of rare animals.

35 The group did extensive reading on A wildlife problems in rural areas.

B urban animal populations.

C current gardening practices.

36 The speaker focuses on three animal species because A a lot of data has been obtained about them.

B the group were most interested in them.

C . they best indicated general trends.

Questions 37-40

Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

Animals Reason for population increase in

gardens Comments

37……… suitable stretches of water massive increase in urban

population

Hedgehogs safer from 38………… when in cities easy to 39…………. them

accurately

Song

thrushes

- a variety of 40………… to eat

- more nesting places available large survey starting soon

Lesson 4.9

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Questions 31-40

Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer. THE SPIRIT BEAR

General facts

• It is a white bear belonging to the black bear family.

• Its colour comes from an uncommon 31…………….

• Local people believe that it has unusual 32……………

• They protect the bear from 33……………

Habitat

• The bear’s relationship with the forest is complex.

• Tree roots stop 34…………. along salmon streams.

• The bears’ feeding habits provide nutrients for forest vegetation.

• It is currently found on a small number of 35………….

Threats

• Habitat is being lost due to deforestation and construction of 36………….by logging

companies.

• Unrestricted 37………….is affecting the salmon supply.

• The bears’ existence is also threatened by their low rate of 38…………

Going forward

• Interested parties are working together.

• Logging companies must improve their 39…………..of logging.

• Maintenance and 40………….of the spirit bears’ territory is needed.

Lesson 4.10 (IELTS 10 - Listening Practice Test 2)

Questions 31-40

Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

THE FUTURE OF MANAGEMENT

Business markets

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greater 31…………… among companies

increase in power of large 32…………… companies

rising 33…………… in certain countries

External influences on businesses

more discussion with 34…………….. before making business decisions

environmental concerns which may lead to more 35………….

Business structures

more teams will be formed to work on a particular 36………….

businesses may need to offer hours that are 37………… , or the chance to work remotely

Management styles

increasing need for managers to provide good 38…………..

changes influenced by 39…………… taking senior roles

Changes in the economy

service sector continues to be important

increasing value of intellectual property more and more 40……………workers

Lesson 4.11

Questions 31-40

Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

'Self-regulatory focus theory' and leadership

Self-regulatory focus theory

People's focus is to approach pleasure or avoid pain

Promotion goals focus on 31……………

Prevention goals emphasise avoiding punishment

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Factors that affect people's focus

The Chronic Factor

comes from one's 32…………….

The 33………….. Factor

we are more likely to focus on promotion goals when with a 34……………

we are more likely to focus on prevention goals with our boss

How people's focus affects them

Promotion Focus: People think about an ideal version of themselves, their 35…………..and their gains.

Prevention Focus: People think about their 'ought' self and their obligations

Leaders

Leadership behaviour and 36………….. affects people's focus

Transformational Leaders:

pay special attention to the 37………….. of their followers

passionately communicate a clear 38……………

inspire promotion focus in followers

Transactional Leaders:

create 39……………to make expectations clear

emphasise the results of a mistake

inspire prevention focus in followers

Conclusion

Promotion Focus is good for jobs requiring 40…………………..

Prevention Focus is good for work such as a surgeon Leaders' actions affect which focus people use

Lesson 4.12

Questions 31-33

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

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Nanotechnology: technology on a small scale

31. The speaker says that one problem with nanotechnology is that

A it could threaten our way of life.

B it could be used to spy on people.

C it is misunderstood by the public.

32. According to the speaker, some scientists believe that nano-particles

A should be restricted to secure environments.

B should be used with more caution.

C should only be developed for essential products.

33. In the speaker's opinion, research into nanotechnology

A has yet to win popular support.

B colild be seen as unethical.

C ought to be continued.

Questions 34-40

Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

Uses of Nanotechnology Transport • Nanotechnology could allow the development of stronger 34…………….. • Planes would be much lighter in weight. • 35………….. travel will be made available to the masses. Technology

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• Computers will be even smaller, faster, and will have a greater 36………….. • 37……….. energy will become more affordable. The Environment • Nano-robots could rebuild the ozone layer. • Pollutants such as 38…………. could be removed from water more easily. • There will be no 39…………. from manufacturing. Health and Medicine • New methods of food production could eradicate famine. • Analysis of medical 40…………..will be speeded up. • Life expectancy could be increased.

Lesson 4.13

Questions 31-40

Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

Ocean Biodiversity

Biodiversity hotspots

• areas containing many different species

• important for locating targets for 31…………..

• at first only identified on land

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Boris Worm, 2005

• identified hotspots for large ocean predators, e.g. sharks

• found that ocean hotspots:

- were not always rich in 32…………….

- had higher temperatures at the 33………..

- had sufficient 34…………………in the water

Lisa Ballance, 2007

• looked for hotspots for marine 35……………

• found these were all located where ocean currents meet

Census of Marine Life

• found new ocean species living:

- under the 36…………….

- near volcanoes on the ocean floor

Global Marine Species Assessment

• want to list endangered ocean species, considering:

- population size

- geographical distribution

- rate of 37…………….

• Aim: to assess 20,000 species and make a distribution 38……………… for each one

Recommendations to retain ocean biodiversity

• increase the number of ocean reserves

• establish 39…………… corridors (e.g. for turtles)

• reduce fishing quotas

• catch fish only for the purpose of 40……………..

Lesson 4.14

Questions 31-40

Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

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DESIGNING A PUBLIC BUILDING:

THE TAYLOR CONCERT HALL

Introduction

The designer of a public building may need to consider the building’s

• function

• physical and 31……………….. context

• symbolic meaning

Location and concept of the Concert Hall

On the site of a disused 32……………..

Beside a 33…………..

The design is based on the concept of a mystery

Building design

It’s approached by a 34…………… for pedestrians

The building is the shape of a 35………………

One exterior wall acts as a large 36……………..

In the auditorium:

- the floor is built on huge pads made of 37……………

- the walls are made of local wood and are 38………………in shape

- ceiling panels and 39…………… on walls allow adjustment of acoustics

Evaluation

Some critics say the 40………….. style of the building is inappropriate

Lesson 4.15

Qestions 31-40

Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

ETHNOGRAPHY IN BUSINESS

Ethnography: research which explores human cultures

It can be used in business:

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• to investigate customer needs and 31………….

• to help companies develop new designs

Examples of ethnographic research in business

Kitchen equipment

• Researchers found that cooks could not easily see the 32………… in measuring cups.

Cell phones

• In Uganda, customers paid to use the cell phones of entrepreneurs

• These customers wanted to check the 33…………… used.

Computer companies

• There was a need to develop 34……………… to improve communication between system administrators and colleagues.

Hospitals

• Nurses needed to access information about 35……………….. in different parts of the hospital.

Airlines

• Respondents recorded information about their 36……………..while travelling.

Principles of ethnographic research in business

• The researcher does not start off with a hypothesis.

• Participants may be selected by criteria such as age, 37…………….. or product used.

• The participants must feel 38……………… about taking part in the research.

• There is usually direct 39…………..of the participants.

• The interview is guided by the participant.

• A lot of time is needed for the 40……………..of the data.

• Researchers look for a meaningful pattern in the data.

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Lesson 4.16

Questions 31-40

Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

The use of soil to reduce carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

Rattan Lal: • Claims that 13% of C02 in the atmosphere could be absorbed by agricultural soils

• Erosion is more likely in soil that is 31…………….

• Lal found soil in Africa that was very 32…………..

• It was suggested that carbon from soil was entering the atmosphere

Soil and carbon: • plants turn C02 from the air into carbon-based substances such as 33…………

• some C02 moves from the 34……………of plants to microbes in the soil

• carbon was lost from the soil when agriculture was invented

Regenerative agriculture: • uses established practices to make sure soil remains fertile and 35………….

• e.g. through year-round planting and increasing the 36………….. plants that are grown

California study: • taking place on a big 37……………….. farm

• uses compost made from waste from agriculture and 38……………

Australia study: • aims to increase soil carbon by using 39…………… that are always green Future developments may include: • reducing the amount of fertilizer used in farming

• giving farmers 40……………. for carbon storage, as well as their produce

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Solution for section 4

Lesson 4.1

31. surface

32. environment

33. impact(s)/effect(s)

34. urban

35. problems

36. images

37. patterns

38. distortion(s)

39. traffic

40. weather

Lesson 4.2

31. B

32. B

33. A

34. A

35. C

36. C

37. B

38. F

39. D

40. C

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Lesson 4.3

31. B

32. B

33. B

34. A

35. combination/system

36. safety

37. attitude(s)

38. control(s)

39. factory/factories

40. skills

Lesson 4.4

31. C

32. B

33. C

34. A

35. B

36. B

37. animal/creature

38. sea/water level(s)

39. hunting

40. creation

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Lesson 4.5

31. tide/tides

32. hearing/ear/ears

33. plants/animals/fish/fishes

34. feeding

35. noise/noises

36. healthy

37. group

38. social

39. leader

40. network/networks

Lesson 4.6

31. central

32. conversation/conversations

33. effectively

34. risk/risks

35. levels

36. description/descriptions

37. technical

38. change

39. responsibility

40. flexible

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Lesson 4.7

31. B

32. A

33. glass

34. insulation

35. windows

36. electricity

37. floor/floors

38. waste

39. concrete

40. 15 years

Lesson 4.8

31. C

32. A

33. B

34. B

35. A

36. C

37. frog/frogs

38. predators

39. count

40. seed/seeds

Lesson 4.9

31. gene

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32. power/powers

33. strangers

34. erosion

35. islands

36. roads

37. fishing

38. reproduction

39. method/methods

40. expansion

Lesson 4.10

31. competition

32. global

33. demand

34. customers

35. regulation

36. project

37. flexible

38. leadership

39. women

40. self-employed

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Lesson 4.11

31. achievement/achievements

32. personality / character

33. situational

34. friend

35. aspirations / ambitions

36. style

37. development

38. vision

39. structures

40. innovation / innovations

Lesson 4.12

31. C

32. B

33. C

34. metal/metals

35. space

36. memory

37. solar

38. oil

39. waste

40. tests

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Lesson 4.13

31. conservation

32. food/foods

33. surface

34. oxygen/O2

35. mammals

36. ice

37. decline/declining/decrease

38. map

39. migration

40. consumption

Lesson 4.14

31. social

32. factory

33. canal

34. bridge

35. box

36. screen

37. rubber

38. curved

39. curtains

40. international

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Lesson 4.15

31. attitude/attitudes

32. numbers

33. time/minutes

34. software

35. patients

36. emotions/feelings

37. income

38. comfortable

39. observation

40. analysis

Lesson 4.16

31. dry

32. hard

33. sugar/sugars

34. roots

35. moist/damp/wet

36. variety

37. cattle

38. gardens/gardening

39. grasses

40. payment/payments / money

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Full tests

Test 1

(IELTS 5 - Listening Practice Test 1)

SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-4

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Dreamtime travel agency

Tour information

Example

Holiday name: Whale watch Experience

Holiday length 2 days

Type of transportation 1…………

Maximum group size 2……………

Next tour date 3……………..

Hotel name 4 The…………..

Questions 5 and 6

Choose TWO letters A-E. Which TWO things are included in the price of the tour?

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A fishing trip

B guided bushwalk

C reptile park entry

D table tennis

E tennis

Questions 7-10

Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. 7 The tour costs $..............

8 Bookings must be made no later than 8…………….. days in advance.

9 A……………………… deposit is required.

10 The customer’s reference number is…………..

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-19

Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Brand of Cot Good Points Problems Verdict

Baby Safe Easy to

11……………

• Did not have any 12…………..

• Babies could trap their

13…………

in the side bar

14………….

Choice Cots Easy to

15…………..

• Side did not drop down

• Spaces between the bars were

16…………..

17…………..

Mother's

Choice

Base of cot could be

moved

• Did not have any 18………….

• Pictures could be removed

easily

19 ………

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SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-23

Choose the correct letter. A. B or C. 21 Andrew has worked at the hospital for A two years.

B three years.

C five years.

22 During the course Andrew’s employers will pay A his fees.

B his living costs.

C his salary.

23 The part-time course lasts for A one whole year.

B 18 months.

C two years.

Questions 24 and 25

Choose TWO letters A-E. What TWO types of coursework are required each month on the part-time course? A a case study

B an essay

C a survey

D a short report

E a study diary

Questions 26-30

Complete the summary below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Modular Courses

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Students study 26………….. during each module. A module takes

27…………….. and the work is very 28……………. To get a Diploma each

student has to study 29……………… and then work on 30……………. in depth.

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-35

Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. 31 According to George Bernard Shaw, men arc supposed to understand 31…………… economics

and finance.

32 However, women are more prepared to 32…………. about them.

33 Women tend to save for 33……………and a house.

34 Men tend to save for 34……………and for retirement.

35 Women who are left alone may have to pay for 35………….. when they are old.

Questions 36-40

Complete the summary below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Saving for the future

Research indicates that many women only think about their financial future when a

36…………… occurs.This is the worst time to make decisions. It is best for women

to start thinking about pensions when they are in their 37…………… A good way

for women to develop their 38……………in dealing with financial affairs would be

to attend classes in 39………… When investing in stocks and shares, it is

suggested that women should put a high proportion of their savings in 40………….

In such ways, women can have a comfortable, independent retirement.

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Test 2

(IELTS 5 - Listening Practice Test 2)

SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-10

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

LIBRARY INFORMATION

Example Minimum joining age: 13 years

For registration, must take

• two 1……………. and

• two forms of l.D. e.g. driving licence, 2………………..

Cost to join per year (without current student card): 3 £ …………

Number of items allowed: (members of public) 4……………

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Loan times: four weeks

Fines start at 5 £ …………..

Computers can be booked up to 6……………. hours in advance

Library holds most national papers, all 7……………… and magazines

Need 8………… to use photocopier

Creative Writing class

• tutor is John 9……………

• held on 10……………. evenings

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-15

Choose the correct letter, A. B or C.

BICYCLES FOR THE WORLD

11 In 1993 Dan Pearman went to Ecuador A as a tourist guide.

B as part of his studies.

C as a voluntary worker.

12 Dan’s neighbour was successful in business because he A employed carpenters from the area.

B was the most skilled craftsman in the town.

C found it easy to reach customers.

13 Dan says the charity relies on A getting enough bicycles to send regularly.

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B finding new areas which need the bicycles.

C charging for the bicycles it sends abroad.

14 What does Dan say about the town of Rivas? A It has received the greatest number of bikes.

B It has almost as many bikes as Amsterdam.

C Its economy has been totally transformed.

15 What problem did the charity face in August 2000? A It couldn’t meet its overheads.

B It had to delay sending the bikes.

C It was criticised in the British media.

Questions 16 and 17

Answer the questions below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD OR A NUMBER for each answer 16 How much money did the charily receive when it won an award? £ …………..

17 What is the charity currently hoping to buy?...............

Questions 18-20

Choose THREE letters A-G. Which THREE things can the general public do to help the charily Pedal Power?

A organise a bicycle collection

B repair the donated bikes

C donate their unwanted tools

D do voluntary work in its office

E hold an event to raise money

F identify areas that need bikes

G write to the government

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SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-30

Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

‘Student Life’ video project

Cristina Ibrahim

Enjoyed: • using the camera

• going to a British 21………….

contact with students doing other

courses

(has asked some to 22…………… with

him)

Most useful

language

practice:

• listening to instructions

• learning 23…………….

• vocabulary

listening to British students' language

because of:

- normal speed

- large amount of 24…………..

General ♦ operating video camera the importance of 27…………….

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usefulness: • working with other people:

- learning about 25……………..

- compromising

- 26…………..people

who have different views

Things to

do

differently

in

future:

• decide when to 28………… each

stage

at the beginning

• make more effort

to 29 with

the camera

don't make the film too 30………………

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-40

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

ANTARCTICA

GEOGRAPHY

• world's highest, coldest and windiest continent

• more than 31……….. times as big as the UK

• most of the area is classified as 32…………

RESEARCH STATIONS

• international teams work together

• 33…………is integrated with technical support

• stations contain accommodation, work areas, a kitchen, a 34……………and a gym

• supplies were brought to Zero One station by sledge from a 35…………. at

the edge of the ice 15 km away

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• problem of snow build-ups solved by building stations on 36……………. with

adjustable legs

FOOD AND DIET

• average daily requirement for an adult in Antarctica is approximately

37………… kilocalories

• rations for field work prepared by process of freeze-drying

RESEARCH

The most important research focuses on climate change, including

- measuring changes in the ice-cap (because of effects on sea levels and

38……………..)

- monitoring the hole in the ozone layer

- analysing air from bubbles in ice to measure 39…………… caused by human

activity

WORK OPPORTUNITIES

Many openings for 40……………… people including

- research assistants

- administrative and technical positions

Test 3

(IELTS 5 - Listening Practice Test 3)

SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-10

Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

MINTONS CAR MART

Customer Enquiry

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Example

Make: Lida

Engine size: 1…………..

Model: Max

Type of gears: 2……………..

Preferred colour: 3…………. blue

FINANCE

Customer wishes to arrange 4………….

Part exchange? yes

PERSONAL DETAILS

Name: Wendy 5………….

Title: 6………….

Address:

Postcode:

20, Green Banks 7…………

Hampshire

GU3 9EW7

Contact number: 8 (for………… only) 079S 257643

CURRENT CAR

Make: Conti

Model: Name: 9………..

Year: 1994

Mileage: maximum 70,000

Colour: metallic grey

Condition: 10………..

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ECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11 and 12

Choose TWO letters A-E. What TWO advantages does the speaker say Rexford University has for the students he is speaking to? A higher than average results in examinations

B good transport links with central London

C near London Airport

D special government funding

E good links with local industry

Questions 13—15

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD for each answer. • When application is received, confirmation will be sent

• Application processing may be slowed down by

- postal problems

- delays in sending 13…………. • University tries to put international applicants in touch with a student from the

same 14…………. who can give information and advice on - academic atmosphere

- leisure facilities

- English 15…………..and food - what to pack

Questions 16-20

Choose the correct letter. A, B or C. 16 The speaker says international students at UK universities will be A offered accommodation with local families.

B given special help by their lecturers.

C expected to work independently.

17 What does the speaker say about university accommodation on campus?

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A Most places are given to undergraduates.

B No places are available for postgraduates with families.

C A limited number of places are available for new postgraduates.

18 Students wishing to live off-campus should apply A several months in advance.

B two or three weeks in advance.

C at the beginning of term.

19 The university accommodation officer will A send a list of agents for students to contact.

B contact accommodation agencies for students.

C ensure that students have suitable accommodation.

20 With regard to their English, the speaker advises the students to A tell their lecturers if they have problems understanding.

B have private English lessons when they arrive.

C practise their spoken English before they arrive.

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SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Feedback Form

Course: Communication in Business

Course code: CB162

Dates: From 21……………to 22…………. Please give your comments on the following aspects of the course:

Good Points Suggestions for Improvement

Course organisation

• 23…………. • useful to have 24…………. at beginning of course

• too much work in 25…………… of the course - could be more evenly balanced

Course delivery • good 26…………. • some 27………… sessions went on too long

Materials and equipment • good 28……………

• not enough copies of key texts available

• need more computers

Testing and evaluation

• quick feedback from oral presentations

• marking criteria for oral presentations known in advance

• too much 29………………… • can we know criteria for marking final exams?

Other comments • excellent 30…………….

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ECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-35

Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

HOUSEHOLD WASTE RECYCLING

31 By 2008, carbon dioxide emissions need to be……………..lower than in 1990. 32 Recycling saves energy and reduces emissions from landfill sites and …………….. 33 People say that one problem is a lack of …………………. sites for household waste. • At the "bring banks’, household waste is sorted and unsuitable items removed.

34 Glass designed to be utilised for…………………..cannot be recycled with other types of glass.

35 In the UK……………….tons of glass is recycled each year.

Questions 36-40

Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Companies working with recycled materials

Material Company Product that the company manufactures

glass CLF Aggregates material used for making 36……………

paper

Martin’s office stationery

Papersave 37……….for use on farms

plastic

Pacrice 38…………….for collecting waste

Waterford 39…………….

Johnson & Jones 40……………..

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Test 4

(ELTS 5 - Listening Practice Test 4)

SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-10

Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR NUMBERS for each answer.

HOST FAMILY APPLICANT

Example Name: Jenny Chan

Present address: Sea View Guest House, 1……………

Daytime phone number: 2237676

[NB Best time to contact is 2…………..]

Age: 19

Intended length of stay: 3…………..

Occupation while in UK: student

General level of English: 4………………

Preferred location: in the 5…………….

Special diet: 6…………….

Other requirements: own facilities

own television

7…………….

to be 8……………….

Maximum price: 9 £…………….a week

i Preferred starting date: 10………………

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SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-13

Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

11 The next meeting of the soccer club will be in the…………… in King’s Park on 2 July.

12 The first event is a…………………

13 At the final dinner, players receive…………….

Questions 14-17

Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Com petition Number of Teams Games Begin Training Session (in King's Park)

Junior 14………… 8.30 am 15…………..

Senior 16…………. 2.00 pm 17……………….

Questions 18-20

Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Name of Office Bearer Responsibility

Robert Young: President to manage meetings

Gina Costello: Treasurer to 18………

David West: Secretary to 19…………

Jason Dokic: Head Coach to 20………….

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SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-24

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Box Telecom

Problems: been affected by • drop in 21………..

• growing 22…………..

• delays due to a strike

Causes of problems: • high 23…………

• lack of good 24………….

Questions 25-27

Choose the correct letter, A. B or C 25 What does Karin think the company will do? A look for private investors

B accept a takeover offer

C issue some new shares

26 Mow does the tutor suggest the company can recover? A by appointing a new managing director

B by changing the way it is organised

C by closing some of its retail outlets

27 The tutor wants Jason and Karin to produce a report which A offers solutions to Box Telecom’s problems.

B analyses the UK market.

C compares different companies.

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Questions 28-30

Which opinion does each person express about Box Telecom? Choose your answers from the box and write the letters A-F next to questions 28-30.

28 ………….Karin

29 ………….Jason

30 ………….the tutor

A its workers are motivated

B it has too little investment

C it will overcome its problems

D its marketing campaign needs improvement

E it is old-fashioned

F it has strong managers

ECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-36

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. 31 During the first week of term, students are invited to A be shown round tire library by the librarian.

B listen to descriptions of library resources.

C do an intensive course in the computer centre.

32 The speaker warns the students that A internet materials can be unreliable.

B downloaded information must be acknowledged.

C computer access may be limited at times.

33 The library is acquiring more CDs as a resource because

A they arc a cheap source of information.

B they take up very little space.

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C they are more up to date than the reference books.

34 Students are encouraged to use journals online because

A the articles do not need to be returned to the shelves.

B reading online is cheaper than photocopying articles.

C the stock of printed articles is to be reduced.

35 Why might some students continue to use reference books? A they can be taken away from the library

B they provide information unavailable elsewhere

C they can be borrowed for an extended loan period

36 What is the responsibility of the Training Supervisor? A to supervise and support library staff

B to provide orientation to the library facilities

C to identify needs and inform section managers

Questions 37-40

Which section of the university will help postgraduate students with their dissertations in the following ways? A the postgraduate’s own department or tutor

B library staff

C another section of the university

Write the correct letter, A. B or C. next to questions 37-40.

37 training in specialised computer programs ………..

38 advising on bibliography presentation ………….

39 checking the draft of the dissertation …………

40 providing language support ……….

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Test 5

(IELTS 6 - Listening Practice Test 1)

Questions 1-10

Section 1

Questions 1-4

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Notes on sports club

Example Answer

Name of club: Kingswell

Facilities available: Golf

1……………..

2………………

Classes available:

• Kick-boxing

• 3……………..

Additional facility: 4……………. (restaurant opening soon)

Questions 5-8

Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO NUMBERS for each answer.

MEMBER SHIP SCHEME

Type Use of

facilities

Cost of

classes

Times Joining Annual

Subscription

fee

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GOLD All Free Any time £250 5 £……..

SILVER All 6 £…………

from 7……….. £225 £300

BRONZE Restricted £3 from 10.30 to 3.30

weekdays only

£50 8 £……

Questions 9 and 10

Complete the sentences below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer. 9 To join the centre, you need to book an instructor’s………… 10 To book a trial session, speak to David……………….(0458 95311).

Section 2

Questions 11-16

What change has been made to each part of the theatre? Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to questions 11-16.

RIVENDEN CITY THEATRE

A doubled in number

B given separate entrance

C reduced in number

D increased in size

E replaced

F strengthened

G temporarily closed

Part of the theatre 11 box office……………

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12 shop…………

13 ordinary scats…………..

14 scats for wheelchair users…………..

15 lifts…………

16 dressing rooms…………..

Questions 17-20

Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Play Dates Starting time Tickets available Price

Royal Hunt

of the Sun

October 13th to

17……………

18 ……….pm for 19…………. 20 £

Section 3

Question 21

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

A attend a class

B write a report

C read a book

21 What is Brian going to do before the course starts?.............

Questions 22-25

Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

College

Facility

Information

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Refectory inform them 22 ………..about special dietary requirements

23…………. long waiting list, apply now

Careers advice drop-in centre for information

Fitness centre reduced 24 ………………for students

Library includes books, journals, equipment room containing audio-visual materials

Computers ask your 25 ……………to arrange a password with the technical support

team

Questions 26-30

Complete the summary below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Business Centre

The lousiness Resource Centre contains materials such as books and manuals to be used for training. It is possible to hire 26 …………….and 27……………

There are materials for working on study skills (e.g. 28…………….) and other subjects include finance and 29…………

30 …………….membership costs £50 per year.

Section 4

Questions 31-37

Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Social history of the East End of London

Period Situation

1st-4th centuries Produce from the area was used to 31 …………the people of London.

5th— 10th

centuries

New technology allowed the production of goods made of 32…………..

11th century Lack of 33…………….in the East End encouraged the growth of

businesses.

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I6th century Construction of facilities for the building of 34…………… stimulated

international trade

Agricultural workers came from other parts of 35…………….to look for

work

17th century Marshes were drained to provide land that could be 36 …………….on

I9th century Inhabitants lived in conditions of great 37 …………….with very poor

sanitation.

Questions 38-40

Choose THREE letters, A-G. Which THREE of the following problems arc mentioned in connection with 20th century housing in the East End? A . unsympathetic landlords

B unclean water

C heating problems

D high rents

E overcrowding

F poor standards of building

G houses catching fire

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Test 6

(ELTS 6 - Listening Practice Test 2)

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-5

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer

CHILDREN'S ART AND CRAFT WORKSHOPS

Example Answer

Workshops organised every: Saturday

• Adults must accompany children under 1…………………..

• Cost: £2.50

• Workshops held in: Winter House, 2………….. Street

• Security device: must push the 3……………. to open door

• Should leave car behind the 4……………

• Book workshops by phoning the 5………….. (on 200765)

Questions 6-10

Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Next two workshops

Date Workshop title Children advised to wear Please bring (if possible)

16/11 'Building 6…………..’ 7………… 8……………

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23/11 9…………. (Nothing special) 10………….

Section 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-14

Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer .

TRAIN INFORMATION

11 Local services depart from ………..….railway station.

12 National services depart from the …………….railway station.

13 Trains for London depart every ……………..each day during the week.

14 The price of a first class ticket includes………………

Questions 15-17

Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Type of ticket Details

Standard open no restrictions

Supersave travel after 8.45

Special travel after 15 ……….and at weekends

16…………. buy at least six days ahead limited numbers

17 ………..essentials

Questions 18-20

Choose THREE letters, A-G. Which THREE attractions can you visit at present by train from Trebirch? A a science museum

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B a theme park

C a climbing wall

D a mining museum

E an aquarium

F a castle

G a zoo

Section 3

Questions 21-30

Complete the tables below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Dissertation Tutorial Record (Education)

Name: Sandy Gibbons

Targets previously

agreed

Work completed Further action suggested

Investigate suitable data

analysis software

- Read IT 21………….. - Spoken to Jane Prince,

Head of the 22……………

Sign up for some software practice sessions

Prepare a 23…………. for survey

- Completed and sent for review Add questions in section three on 24…………..

Further reading about

discipline

- Read Banerjee

N.B. Couldn’t find Ericsson’s essays on managing the 25………………

Obtain from library through special loans service

New Targets Specific suggestion Timing

Do further work on Chapter 1

(Give the title:

Context 26………………)

- Add statistics on the

27…………….in various zones - Include more references to works dated after

28…………………….

By the 29……………

Prepare list of main

sections for Chapter 2

- Use index cards to help in organisation Before starting the 30

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Section 4

Questions 31-37

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

The history of moving pictures

31 Some photographs of a horse running showed A all feet oft the ground.

B at least one foot on the ground.

C two feet off the ground.

32 The Scotsman employed by Edison A designed a system to use the technology Edison had invented.

B used available technology to make a new system.

C was already an expert in motion picture technology.

33 One major problem with the first system was that A only one person could be filmed.

B people could only sec very short films.

C the camera was very heavy.

34 Rival systems started to appear in Europe after people had A been told about the American system.

B seen the American system.

C used the American system.

35 In 1895, a famous new system was developed by A a French team working alone.

B a French and German team working together.

C a German team who invented the word ‘cinema’.

36 Longer films were not made at the time because of problems involving

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A the subject matter.

B the camera.

C the film projector.

37 The ‘Lantham Loop’ invention relied on A removing tension between the film reels.

B adding three more film reels to the system.

C making one of the film reels more effective.

Questions 38-40

Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. 38 The first motion picture was called The ………………

39 ……………….were used for the first time on film in 1926.

40 Subtitles were added to The Lights of New York because of its………………..

Test 7

(IELTS 6 - Listening Practice Test 3)

Questions 1-10

Complete the form below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

OPENING A BANK ACCOUNT

Example Answer

Application for a Current bank account

Type of current account: The 1 ………… account

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Full name of applicant: Pieter Henes

Date of birth: 2…………..

Joint account holder(s): No

Current address: 3…………….Exeter

Time at current address: 4…………..

Previous address: Rielsdorf 2, Utrecht, Holland

Telephone:

work 5…………..

home 796431

Occupation: 6…………….

Identity (security): Name of his 7…………….: Siti

Opening sum: 8 €……………..

to be transferred from Fransen dank, Utrecht

Statements: Every 9……………

Requests: Supply information about the bank’s 10………… service

Section 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-13

Choose the correct letter. A, B or C.

THE HISTORY OF ROSEWOOD HOUSE

11 When the writer Sebastian George first saw Rosewood House, lie A thought lie might rent it.

B felt it was too expensive for him.

C was unsure whether to buy it.

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12 Before buying the house, George had A experienced severe family problems.

B struggled to become a successful author.

C suffered a serious illness.

13 According to the speaker, George viewed Rosewood House as A a rich source of material for his books.

B a way to escape from his work.

C a typical building of the region.

Questions 14-17

Label the map below. Write the correct letter, A-J, next to questions 14-17.

ROSEWOOD HOUSE AND GARDENS

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14 Pear Alley……………….

15 Mulberry Garden…………….

16 Shop……………

17 Tea Room…………

Questions 18-20

Complete the sentences below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

RIVER WALK

18 You can walk through the 18…………… that goes along the river bank.

19 You can go over the 19……………and then into a wooded area.

20 On your way back, you could also go up to the 20…………..

Section 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-24

Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

MARKETING ASSIGNMENT

21 For their assignment, the students must investigate one part of the……………… 22 The method the students must use to collect data is………………. 23 In total, the students must interview……………..people. 24 Jack thinks the music preferences of…………….listeners are similar.

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Questions 25-30

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Marketing Survey: Music Preferences

Age group of interviewee • 25 or under

• 45 or over

Music preferences • Pop

• 25……………… • Folk

• Easy listening

• 26……………… Medium for listening to music • Radio

• CD

• TV

• 27…………… Source of music • Music shops

• 28…………… • Internet

Places for listening to music

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• Disco

• Pub

• 29………… • Concert hall

• 30…………..

Section 4

Questions 31-34

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

IRELAND IN THE NEOLITHIC PERIOD

31 According to the speaker, it is not clear A when the farming economy was introduced to

Ireland.

B why people began to farm in Ireland.

C where the early Irish farmers came from.

32 What point does the speaker make about breeding animals in Neolithic Ireland? A Their numbers must have been above a certain level.

B They were under threat from wild animals.

C Some species died out during this period.

33 What docs the speaker say about the transportation of animals? A Livestock would have limited the distance the farmers could sail.

B Neolithic boats were too primitive to have been used.

C Probably only a few breeding animals were imported.

34 What is the main evidence for cereal crops in Neolithic Ireland? A the remains of burnt grain in pots

B the marks left on pots by grains

C the patterns painted on the surface of pots

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Questions 35-40

Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer .

STONETOOLS

35 Ploughs could either have been pulled by ………………..or by cattle.

• The farmers needed homes which were permanent dwellings.

36 In the final stages of axe-making …………….were necessary for grinding and polishing.

37 Irish axes were exported from Ireland to ………………and England.

POTTERY MAKING

• The colonisers used clay to make pots.

38 The …………..of the pots was often polished to make them watertight.

39 Clay from ……………areas was generally used.

40 Decoration was only put around the …………………of the earliest pots.

Test 8

(IELTS 6 - Listening Practice Test 4)

Questions 1-10

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Example Answer

Title of conference: Future Directions in Computing

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Three day cost: 1 £……………..

Payment by 2…………….. or on arrival

Accommodation:

Conference Centre

• 3 £……………per night

• near to conference rooms

Guest House

• 4 £……………per night

• approximately 5 …………..walk from Conference Centre

Further documents to be sent:

, • 6…………….

• an application form Location:

Conference Centre is on 7 …………….Park Road, next to the 8……………

Taxi costs 9 £……………… or take bus number 10……………...from station.

Section 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-13

Which team will do each of the following jobs?

Choose THREE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-D, next to questions 11-13. Teams A the blue team

B the yellow team

C the green team

D the red team

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11 checking entrance tickets

12 preparing refreshments

13 directing car-park traffic

Questions 14-20

Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Travel Expo

Temporary Staff Orientation Programme

Time Event Details

9.30 am Talk by Anne Smith • information about pay

• will give out the 14……………….forms

10.00

am

Talk by Peter Chen • will discuss Conference Centre plan

• will explain about arrangements for 15…………..and

fire exits

10.30

am

Coffee Break • go to Staff Canteen on the 16………………

11.00

am

Video Presentation • go to 17…………

• video title: 18…………….

12.00 Buffet Lunch • go to the 19 ……………..on 1st door

1.00 pm Meet

the 20…………..

3.00 pm Finish

Section 3

Questions 21-30

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Questions 21-25

Complete the summary below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

The School of Education Libraries

The libraries on both sites provide internet access and have a variety of 21 …………..materials on education. The Castle Road library has books on sociology, together with 22 …………..and other resources relevant to the majority of 23 …………….school subjects. The Fordham library includes resources for teaching in 24 …………….education and special needs. Current issues of periodicals are available at both libraries, although 25 ……………issues are only available at Fordham.

Questions 26 and 27

Answer the questions below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. 26 Which books cannot be renewed by telephone or email? ................. 27 How much time is allowed to return recalled books? ........................

Questions 28-30

Choose THREE letters, A-G. Which THREE topics do this term’s study skills workshops cover?

A An introduction to the Internet

B How to carry out research for a dissertation

C Making good use of the whole range of library services

D Planning a dissertation

E Standard requirements when writing a dissertation

F Using the Internet when doing research

G What books and technical resources arc available in the library

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Section 4

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-34

Choose the correct letter A, B or C. 31 When did Asiatic lions develop as a separate sub-species? A about 10,000 years ago B about 100,000 years ago C about 1,000,000 years ago

32 Pictures of Asiatic lions can be seen on ancient coins from A Greece.

B The Middle East.

C India.

33 Asiatic lions disappeared from Europe A 2,500 years ago.

B 2,000 years ago.

C 1,900 years ago.

34 Very few African lions have A a long mane.

B a coat with varied colours.

C a fold of skin on their stomach.

Questions 35-40

Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

THE GIR SANCTUARY

35 The sanctuary has an area of approximately …………..square kilometres.

36 One threat to the lions in the sanctuary is……………..

37 The ancestors of the Gir Sanctuary lions were protected by a……………..

38 A large part of the lions’ …………….. consists of animals belonging to local farmers.

39 The lions sometimes…………….especially when water is short.

40 In ancient India a man would fight a lion as a test of

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Test 9

(IELTS 7 - Listening Practice Test 1)

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-5

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Transport from Airport to Milton

Example Answer

Distance: 147 miles

Options: • Car hire

- don’t want to drive

• 1…………… - expensive

• Greyhound bus

- $15 single, $27.50 return

- direct to the 2……………… - long 3……………. • Airport Shuttle

- 4…………..service - every 2 hours

- $35 single, $65 return

- need to 5……………

Questions 6-10

Complete the booking form below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer

AIRPORT SHUTTLE BOOKING FORM

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To: Milton

Date: 6…………… No. of passengers: One

Bus Time: 7…………….pm Type of ticket: Single

Name: Janet 8………..

Flight No: 9……….. From: London Heathrow

Address in Milton: Vacation Motel,

24, Kitchener Street

Fare: $35

Credit Card No: (Visa) 10…………

Section 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-16

Choose the correct letter. A, B or C. 11 PS Camping has been organising holidays for A 15 years. B 20 years. C 25 years.

12 The company has most camping sites in A France. B Italy. C Switzerland.

13 Which organised activity can children do every day of the week? A football B drama C model making

14 Some areas of the sites have a ‘no noise’ rule after A 9.30 p.m. B 10.00 p.m. C 10.30 p.m.

15 The holiday insurance that is offered by PS Camping

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A can be charged on an annual basis.

B is included in the price of the holiday.

C must be taken out at the time of booking.

16 Customers who recommend PS Camping to friends will receive A a free gift. B an upgrade to a luxury

tent. C a discount.

Questions 17-20

What does the speaker say about the following items? Write the correct letter, A, B or C, next to questions 17-20. A They are provided in all tents.

B They are found in central areas of the campsite.

C They are available on request.

17 barbecues 18 toys 19 cool boxes

20 mops and buckets

Section 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-23

Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

DIFFERENCES BETWEEN INDIVIDUALS IN THE WORKPLACE

Individuals bring different:

• ideas

• 21…………….

• learning experiences

Work behaviour differences are due to:

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• personality

• 22………………

Effects of diversity on companies:

Advantage: diversity develops 23…………..

Disadvantage: diversity can cause conflict

Questions 24-27

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

24 Janice thinks that employers should encourage workers who are

A potential leaders.

B open to new ideas.

C good at teamwork.

25 Janice suggests that managers may find it difficult to A form successful groups.

B balance conflicting needs.

C deal with uncooperative workers.

26 Janice believes employers should look for job applicants who A can think independently.

B will obey the system.

C can solve problems.

27 Janice believes managers should A demonstrate good behaviour.

B encourage co-operation early on.

C increase financial incentives.

Questions 28-30

Complete the sentences below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer. 28 All managers need to understand their employees and recognise their company’s……………..

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29 When managing change, increasing the company’s……………..may be more important than

employee satisfaction.

30 During periods of change, managers may have to cope with increased amounts of……………

Section 4

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-35

Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

SEMINAR ON ROCK ART

Preparation for fieldwork trip to Namibia in 31…………

Rock art in Namibia may be

• paintings

• engravings

Earliest explanation of engravings of animal footprints

They were used to help 32 ………..learn about tracking

But:

• Why are the tracks usually 33…………………?

• Why are some engravings realistic and others unrealistic?

• Why are the unrealistic animals sometimes half 34………………….?

More recent explanation:

Wise men may have been trying to control wild animals with 35…………….

Comment:

Earlier explanation was due to scholars over-generalising from their experience of a different culture.

Questions 36-40

Complete the sentences below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

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36 If you look at a site from a……………………, you reduce visitor pressure.

37 To camp on a site may be disrespectful to people from that………………….

38 Undiscovered material may be damaged by……………..

39 You should avoid…………………or tracing rock art as it is so fragile.

40 In general, your aim is to leave the site…………………

Test 10

(IELTS 7 - Listening Practice Test 2)

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-10

Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

CAR INSURANCE

Example Answer

Name: Patrick Jones

Address: 1……………… Greendale

Contact number: 730453

Occupation: 2……………

Size of car engine: 1200cc

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Type of car:

Manufacturer: Hewton Model: 3……………

Year: 1997

Previous insurance company: 4……………

Any insurance claims in the last five years?: Yes

If yes, give brief details:

Car was 5…………….in 1999

Name(s) of other driver(s):

Simon 6……………

Relationship to main driver: 7………………..

Uses of car:

- social

- 8…………………

Start date: 31 January

Recommended Insurance arrangement

Name of company: 9………………..

Annual cost: 10 $......................

Section 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11 and 12

Label the map below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

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Questions 13-18

Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Attraction Further Information

STOP A:

Main Booking Office:

First boat: 8 a.m.

Last boat: 13………… p.m.

Palace • has lovely 14…………..

STOP B: 15……………. • has good 16………… of city centre

STOP C: Museum • bookshop specialising in the

17……………of the local

area

STOP D: Entertainment Complex • 18…………..cinema

• bowling alley

• video games arcade

Questions 19 and 20

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. 19 How often do the Top Bus Company tours run? ....................

20 Where can you catch a Number One Sightseeing Tour from? ................

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Section 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-26

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. 21 The Antarctic Centre was established in Christchurch because A New Zealand is a member of the Antarctic Treaty.

B Christchurch is geographically well positioned.

C the climate of Christchurch is suitable.

22 One role of the Antarctic Centre is to A provide expeditions with suitable equipment.

B provide researchers with financial assistance.

C ensure that research is internationally relevant.

23 The purpose of the Visitors’ Centre is to A provide accommodation.

B run training sessions.

C show people what Antarctica is like.

24 Dr Merrywhether says that Antarctica is A unlike any other country. B extremely beautiful. C too cold for tourists.

25 According to Dr Merrywhether, Antarctica is very cold because A of the shape of the continent.

B it is surrounded by a frozen sea.

C it is an extremely dry continent.

26 Dr Merrywhether thinks Antarctica was part of another continent because A he has done his own research in the area.

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B there is geological evidence of this.

C it is very close to South America.

Questions 27 and 28

Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR TWO NUMBERS for each answer.

ANTARCTIC TREATY

Date Event 1870 Polar Research meeting

27……………. 1st International Polar Year

1957 Antarctic Treaty was proposed

1959 Antarctic Treaty was 28……………

Questions 29 and 30

Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO achievements of the Antarctic Treaty are mentioned by the speakers? A no military use

B animals protected

C historic sites preserved

D no nuclear testing

E fishing rights protected

Section 4

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-35

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

Left and Right Handedness in Sport

31 Anita first felt the Matthews article was of value when she realized A how it would help her difficulties with left-handedness.

B the relevance of connections he made with music.

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C the impressive size of his research project.

32 Anita feels that the findings on handedness will be of value in A helping sportspeople identify their weaknesses.

B aiding sportspeople as they plan tactics for each game.

C developing suitable training programmes for sportspeople.

33 Anita feels that most sports coaches

A know nothing about the influence of handedness.

B focus on the wrong aspects of performance.

C underestimate what science has to offer sport.

34 A German study showed there was greater ‘mixed handedness’ in musicians who A started playing instruments in early youth.

B play a string instrument such as the violin.

C practise a great deal on their instrument.

35 Studies on ape behaviour show that A apes which always use the same hand to get food are most successful.

B apes have the same proportion of left- and right-handers as humans.

C more apes are left-handed than right-handed.

Questions 36-40

Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Sport Best

laterality

Comments

Hockey mixed

laterality

• hockey stick has to be used in 36………..

• mixed-handed players found to be much

more 37…………… than others

Tennis single

laterality

• gives a larger relevant field of 38…………….

• cross-lateral players make 39…………too late

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Gymnastics cross

laterality

• gymnasts’ 40………….. is important for performances

Test 11

(IELTS 7 - Listening Practice Test 3)

Questions 1-10

Questions 1 and 2

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Example Answer

Type of job required: Part-time

Student is studying 1…………… Student is in the 2………….year of the course.

Questions 3-5

Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Position Available Where Problem

Receptionist in the 3…………. evening lectures

4………… in the Child Cane Centre too early

Clerical Assistant in the 5…………. evening lectures

Questions 6-10

Complete the form below.

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Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer

Section 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-16

Choose the correct letter. A, B or C.

SPONSORED WALKING HOLIDAY

11 On the holiday, you will be walking for

STUDENT DETAILS

Name: Anita Newman

Address: 6…………

Room No. 7………..

Other skills: Speaks some Japanese

Position available:

8 ………….at the English

Language Centre

Duties:

Respond to enquiries and 9…………..

Time of interview:

Friday at 10……………a.m.

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A 6 days.

B 8 days.

C 10 days.

12 What proportion of the sponsorship money goes to charity?

A……… B……… C………..

13 Each walker’s sponsorship money goes to one A student.

B teacher.

C school.

14 When you start the trek you must be A interested in getting fit.

B already quite fit.

C already very fit.

15 As you walk you will carry A all of your belongings.

B some of your belongings.

C none of your belongings.

16 The Semira Region has a long tradition of A making carpets.

B weaving blankets.

C carving wood.

Questions 17-20

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Complete the form below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

ITINERARY

Day 1 arrive in Kishba

Day 2 rest day

Day 3 spend all day in a 17…………..

Day 4 visit a school

Day 5 rest day

Day 6 see a 18…………. with old carvings

Day 7 nest day

Day & swim in a 19……………

Day 9 visit a 20……………

Day 10 depart from Kishba

Section 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21 and 22

Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

OCEAN RESEARCH

The Robotic Float Project

• Float is shaped like a 21…………… • Scientists from 22…………… have worked on the project so far

Questions 23-25

Complete the diagram below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

THE OPERATIONAL CYCLE

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Questions 26-30

In what time period can data from the float projects help with the following things? Write the correct letter, A, B or C, next to questions 26-30. A At present

B In the near future

C In the long-term future

26 understanding of El Niño…………..

27 understanding of climate change…………

28 naval rescues………….

29 sustainable fishing practices……………

30 crop selection……………..

Section 4

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Questions 31-40

Questions 31-34

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

Hotels and the tourist industry

31 According to the speaker, how might a guest feel when staying in a luxury hotel? A impressed with the facilities

B depressed by the experience

C concerned at the high costs

32 According to recent research, luxury hotels overlook the need to A provide for the demands of important guests.

B create a comfortable environment.

C offer an individual and personal welcome.

33 The company focused their research on A a wide variety of hotels.

B large, luxury hotel chains.

C exotic holiday hotels.

34 What is the impact of the outside environment on a hotel guest? A It has a considerable effect.

B It has a very limited effect.

C It has no effect whatsoever.

Questions 35-40

Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

A company providing luxury serviced apartments aims to:

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• cater specifically for 35…………… travellers

• provide a stylish 36………….. for guests to use

• set a trend throughout the 37…………..

Traditional holiday hotels attract people by:

• offering the chance to 38…………. their ordinary routine life

• making sure that they are cared for in all respects - like a 39…………

• leaving small treats in their rooms - e.g. cosmetics or 40 ………..

Test 12

(IELTS 7 - Listening Practice Test 4)

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-6

Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer

HOMESTAY APPLICATION

Example Answer

Surname: Yuichini

First name: 1……………

Sex: female

Nationality: Japanese

Passport number: 2……………..

Age: 28 years

Present address: Room 21C, Willow College

Length of homestay: approx 3……………

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Course enrolled in: 4……………….

Family preferences:

- no 5…………..

- no objection to 6…………….

Questions 7-10

Answer the questions below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. 7 What does the student particularly like to eat?

8 What sport does the student play?

9 What mode of transport does the student prefer?

10 When will the student find out her homestay address?

Section 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-14

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. 11 What kind of tour is Sally leading? A a bus tour B a train tour C a walking tour

12 The original buildings on the site were A houses. B industrial buildings. C shops.

13 The local residents wanted to use the site for A leisure. B apartment blocks. C a sports centre.

14 The Tower is at the centre of the A nature reserve. B formal gardens. C Bicentennial Park.

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Questions 15-17

Label the plan below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Questions 18-20

Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Nature Reserve

Facility Activity

The Mangroves boardwalk 18………..

Frog Pond outdoor classroom 19……………

The Waterbird Refuge 20…………. bird watching

Section 3

Questions 21 and 22

Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

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The presentation will last 15 minutes.

There will be 21………….. minutes for questions. The presentation will not be 22…………….

Questions 23-26

What do the students decide about each topic for the geography presentation? A They will definitely include this topic. B They might include this topic. C They will not include this topic.

Write the correct letter, A, B or C, next to questions 23-26.

23 Geographical Location …………….. 24 Economy …………….. 25 Overview of Education System…………. 26 Role of English Language ……………..

Questions 27-30

Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Information/visual aid Where from?

Overhead projector the 27…………

Map of West Africa the 28………….

Map of the islands a tourist brochure

Literacy figures the 29………….

30………….on school places as above

Section 4

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-33

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

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Monosodium Glutamate (MSG)

31 The speaker says the main topic of the lecture is A the history of monosodium glutamate.

B the way monosodium glutamate works.

C where monosodium glutamate is used.

32 In 1908, scientists in Japan A made monosodium glutamate.

B began using kombu.

C identified glutamate.

33 What change occurred in the manufacture of glutamate in 1956? A It began to be manufactured on a large scale.

B The Japanese began extracting it from natural sources.

C It became much more expensive to produce.

Questions 34-40

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Monosodium Glutamate (MSG)

• MSG contains

- glutamate (78.2%)

- sodium (12.2%)

- 34…………….. (9.6%)

• Glutamate is found in foods that contain protein such as 35………….. and 36…………….

• MSG is used in foods in many different parts of the world.

• In 1900 Kikunae Ikeda discovered a 37……………

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• Our ability to detect glutamate makes sense because it is so 38………… naturally.

• John Prescott suggests that:

- sweetness tells us that a food contains carbohydrates.

- 39…………. tells us that a food contains toxins.

- sourness tells us that a food is spoiled.

- saltiness tells us that a food contains 40………….

Test 13

(IELTS Plus 1 - Listening Practice Test 1)

Section 1: Questions 1-10

Tip Strip * Note how many different types of questions there are. In this case, there are four: multiple choice, note completion, selecting from a list and short answer.

Look at the instructions for each set of questions. Read the questions; try to predict the context of the conversation. Look at the questions again to see exactly what information you must listen out for. Underline any key words in the main part of the questions with options. Then look at the options and make sure you understand how they differ from each other.

Questions 1-3

Listen to the telephone conversation between a student and owner of a paragliding school and answer the questions below Choose the correct letters A-D. Example Which course does the man suggest? A. 2 day C. 5 day

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B. 4 day D. 6 day

1. How much is the beginner’s course? A $190

B $320

C $330

D $43

2. What does the club insurance cover? A injury to yourself

B injury to your equipment

C damage to other people’s property

D loss of personal belongings

3. How do the girls want to travel? A public transport

B private bus

C car

D bicycle

Questions 4-7 Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

TELEPHONE MEMO

Name: Maria Gentle Address: C/o Mr & Mre 4………… 5 …………..Newcastle Fax no: 0249 6………….. Type of Card : 7…………..

Question 8

Check TWO letters A-G Which TWO of the following items must people take with them?

A sandals

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B old clothes

C pullover

D shirt with long sleeves

E soft drinks

F hat

G sunglasses

Question 9

Choose TWO letters A-G. Which TWO accommodation options mentioned are near the paragliding school?

A camping

B youth hostel

C family

D backpackers’ inn

E caravan park

F bed and breakfast

G cheap hotel

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Question 10 Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for your answer Which weekend do the girls decide to go? 10 ……..

Section 2 Questions 11-20 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer

GOODWOOD CAR SHOW Type of car: Dueeenberq J-type Number made: 11……….

Type of body: 12………….

Engines contained capsules of mercury to ensure a 13………… trip.

Top speed: 14………. kilometres per hour.

Sold as a 15………….

Main attraction: 16…………..

Type of car: LeyatHelica

Number built: 17……….

Car looks like a 18……….. without 19…………….

Steering used the 20…………..

Tip

Section 2 is always a talk by one speaker. Look at the questions and the title of the task. Try to guess the context from the language and the picture.

Note that all the questions here are note completion format. Turn the notes into questions in your head, e.g. Number made = How many were made? Do this for all the questions before you listen.

Decide what type of information is missing (noun, number, adjective?). The questions follow the order of the text. There are two parts to this listening. This will help to orientate you.

SECTION 3

Questions 21- 22

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Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Research details: Title of project: 2 …………. Focus of project: entertainment away from 22…………… Tip

Section 3 can have between 2 and 4 people speaking. The voices will sound quite different. The questions follow the order of the text. Note how many different types of questions there are. In this case there are four: note completion,

charts and diagrams, multiple choice and completing a chart. Look through the questions to get an idea of the topic. Look carefully at the graphs. Reading the questions and underlining key words will help

you make sense of the graphs, e.g. Question 24: 'relative popularity ... cinemas'. Each column in the bar chart represents how popular each cinema is in relation to the other. Look at C: Which is the most popular cinema in this graph? Which is the least popular? Questions 23-26

Choose the correct letters A-C. 23. Which chart shows the percentage of cinema seats provided by the different cinema houses?

A Chart A

B Chart B

C Chart C

24. Which graph shows the relative popularity of different cinemas?

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A Graph A

B Graph B

C Graph C

25. What did Rosie and Mike realise about the two theatres? A The prices were very similar.

B They were equally popular.

C They offered the same facilities.

26. Which graph shows comparative attendance for cinema and theatre?

A Graph A

B Graph B

C Graph C

Questions 27-30

Complete the chart about the different music clubs below. Choose the correct words in the list. A. Poor B. OK C. Excellent

Club

Type of

music

Quality

of venue

The Blues

Club

Blues 27……….

The

Sansue

South

American

28………………

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Pier Hotel Folk 29……………

Baldrock

Cafe

Rock 30……………..

ECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-32

Complete the notes using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Main focus of lecture: the impact of 31………….. on the occurrence of dust storms. Two main types of impact:

1. break up ground surface, e.g. off-road vehicle use 2. remove protective plants, e.g. 32………….

Questions 33-36

Complete the table using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Name of area Details

USA ‘dust bowl’ Caused by mismanagement of farmland

Decade renamed the 33…………

West Africa Steady rise in dust storms over 20-year period

Arizona Worst dust clouds arise from 34……………

Dust deposits are hazardous to 35……….

Sahara Increased wind erosion has occurred along with long-term 36…………….

Questions 37-40

Complete the flow chart using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Drying-up of Aral Sea

Intensive 37 …………...in Central Asian Republics

Drop in water in major tributaries

Total volume of water in lake reduced by 38…………..

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Increase in wind-blown material

Lake has become more 39…………..

Serious effects on 40………….. nearby

Test 14 (IELTS Plus 1 - Listening Practice Test 2)

SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-4

Circle the correct letters A-C. Example Which course is the man interested in? A. English

B. Mandarin

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C. Japanese

1. What kind of course is the man seeking? A Daytime

B Evenings

C Weekends

2. How long does the man want to study? A 12 weeks

B 6 months

C 8 months

3. What proficiency level is the student? A Beginner

B Intermediate

C Advanced

4. When does the man want to start the course?

A March

B June

C September

Questions 5-10

Complete the form. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Language Centre

Client Information Card

Name: Richard 5……………

E-mail address: 6…………………[email protected]

Date of birth: 7…………. 1930

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Reason for studying Japanese: 8…………….

Specific learning needs: 9………………..

Place of previous study (if any): 10 ………………

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-12

Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer 11. The story illustrates that dogs are 11……………… animals.

12. The people of the town built a 12………………. of a dog.

Questions 13-20 Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

TYPE OF

WORKING DOG

ESSENTIAL CHARACTERISTICS

FOR THE JOB

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION

Sheep dogs Smart, obedient Herd sheep

and 13…………….. them

Guide dogs Confident and 14…………. Training paid for by 15…………..

Guard dogs and

16…………..dogs

Tough and courageous Dogs and trainers available through

17…………..

Detector dogs Need to really 18……………. In Sydney they catch 19………..a

month

Transport dogs Happy working 20………………. International treaty bans huskies

from Antarctica

SECTION 3:

Questions 21-23

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Questions 21-23 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS or A NUMBER for each answer.

Braille - a system of writing for the blind

Louis Braille was blinded as a child in his 21………….

Braille invented the writing system in the year 22……………….

An early writing system for the blind used embossed letters.

A military system using dots was called 23……………

Questions 24-27

Circle the correct letters A-C. 24. Which diagram shows the Braille positions?

oooo

oooo

oooo

oo

oo

oo

ooo

ooo

A B C

25. What can the combined dots represent? A both letters and words B only individual words C only letters of the alphabet

26. When was the Braille system officially adopted? A as soon as it was invented

B two years after it was invented

C after Louis Braille had died

27. What is unusual about the way Braille is written? A It can only be written using a machine.

B The texts have to be read backwards.

C Handwritten Braille is created in reverse.

Questions 28-30

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List THREE subjects that also use a Braille code. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD for each answer. 28…………… 29……………. 30…………..

ECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-35

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS or A NUMBER for each answer

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Question: Can babies remember any 31…………..?

Experiment with babies: Apparatus:

baby in cot

colourful mobile

some 32…………. Re-introduce mobile between one and 33……………… later. Table showing memory test results

Baby’s age Maximum memory span

2 months 2 days

3 months 34…………

21 months several weeks

2 years 35………….

Questions 36-40 Research questions: Is memory linked to 36…………….. development? Can babies 37……………. their memories? Experiment with older children: Stages in incident:

a) lecture taking place

b) object falls over c) 38……………..

Table showing memory test results

Age % remembered next day % remembered after 5 months

Adults 70% 39………….

9-year-olds 70% Less than 60%

6-year-olds Just under 70% 40…………..

Test 15

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(IELTS Plus 1 - Listening Practice Test 3)

Section 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-4 Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS or A NUMBER for each answer

Conference Registration Form Example Name of Conference: Beyond 2000 Name: Melanie Ms 1…………….

Address: Room 2…………, at Women's College Newtown

Faculty: 3……………

Student No: 4…………..

Questions 5-10 Circle the correct letters A-C.

Registration for: 5 A

Half day

B

Full day

C

Full conference

Accommodation required: 6 A

Share room/share bathroom

B

Own room/share bathroom

C

Own room with bathroom

Meals required: 7 A

Breakfast

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B

Lunch

C

Dinner

Friday SIGs: 8 A

Computers in Education

B

Teaching Reading

C

The Gifted Child

Saturday SIGs: 9 A

Cultural Differences

B

Music in the Curriculum

C

Gender Issues

Method of payment: 10 A

Credit Card

B

Cheque

C

Cash

Section 2 Questions 11-20

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Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Name of Beach

Location Geographical

Features Other information

Bandela 1 km from Bandela 11………….

surrounded by 12………..

safe for children/

non-swimmers

Da Porlata

east comer of island area around beach is 13………..

can hire 14…………..

San Gett

just past 'Tip of Cain’ 15………… beach on island

check 16………….. on beach in rough weather

Blanaka 17………….. comer surrounded by 18……….

can go caving and diving

Dissidor close to Blanaka need to walk over 19………..

need to take some 20………….

Section 3 Questions 21-30 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS or A NUMBER for each answer.

Procedure for Bookshops

Keep database of course/college details.

In May, request 21………. from lecturers.

Categorise books as - essential reading

- 22………. reading

- background reading

When ordering, refer to last year’s 23………..

- type of course

- students’ 24…………

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- own judgement

Procedure for Publishers

Send 25………..to course providers

Use websites

Compose personal 26………….to academic staff

Send 27………… to bookstores

Students

Main objective is to find books that are good 28……….

Also look for books that are 29………. and 30…………….

Section 4

Question 31-40

Questions 31

Circle the correct letters A-C. 31. At the start of her talk Rebecca points out that new graduates can find it hard to A get the right work.

B take sufficient breaks.

C motivate themselves.

Questions 32-33

Check TWO letters A-E. Which TWO of the following does Rebecca say worry new artists? A A earning enough money

B B moving to a new environment

C C competing with other artists

D D having their work criticised

E E getting their portfolios ready

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Questions 34-35

Circle the correct letters A-C.

34. Rebecca decided to become an illustrator because it A afforded her greater objectivity as an artist.

B offered her greater freedom of expression.

C allowed her to get her work published.

35. When she had developed a portfolio of illustrations, Rebecca found publishers

A more receptive to her work.

B equally cautious about her work.

C uninterested in her work.

Questions 36-40 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Suggestions for Developing a Portfolio

Get some artwork printed in magazines by entering 36…………

Also you can 37………… mock up book pages.

Make an effort to use a variety of artistic 38…………..

Aim for recognition by dividing work into distinct 39…………..

Possibly use 40………………

Test 16 (IELTS Plus 1 - Listening Practice Test 4)

Section 1 Questions 1-10

Complete the notes below.

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Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS or A NUMBER for each answer.

Event Details

Example Type of event: Dragon Boat Race Race details

Day & date: 1………………..

Place: Brighton 2…………….

Registration time: 3……………

Sponsorship

- aim to raise over 4……………..pounds (£) as a team and get a free t-shirt

- free Prize Draw for trip to 5………….

Team details

- must have crew of 20 and elect a 6……………

- under 18s need to have 7……………to enter

- need to hire 8……………

- advised to bring extra 9…………..

- must choose a 10………………….. for the team

Section 2

Questions 11-15

Complete the notes below. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

KIWI FACT SHEET

Pictures of kiwis are found on 11…………..

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The name ‘kiwi’ comes from its 12…………

The kiwi has poor sight but a good 13…………

Kiwis cannot 14………………

Kiwis are endangered by 15………….

Questions 16-17 Complete the notes below. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Kiwi Recovery Program

Stage of program Program involves

16………….. Looking at kiwi survival needs

Action Putting science into practice

17…………… Schools and the website

Questions 18-20 Complete the flow chart below. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS or A NUMBER for each answer. OPERATION NEST EGG

18……………

19……………

Chicks returned to wild

RESULT

Survial rate increased from 20………….

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Section 3

Questions 21-24

Circle the correct letters A-C. 21 The professor says that super highways A lead to better lifestyles.

B are a feature of wealthy cities.

C result in more city suburbs.

22 The student thinks people A like the advantages of the suburbs.

B rarely go into the city for entertainment.

C enjoy living in the city.

23 The professor suggests that in five years’ time A City Link will be choked by traffic.

B public transport will be more popular.

C roads will cost ten times more to build.

24 The student believes that highways A encourage a higher standard of driving.

B result in lower levels of pollution.

C discourage the use of old cars.

Questions 25-26 Label the two bars identified on the graph below.

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Choose your answers from the box and write them next to Questions 25-26. 25……………..

26…………….

Questions 27-28

Check TWO letters A-F. Which TWO facts are mentioned about Copenhagen? A live street theatre encouraged

B 30% of citizens walk to work

C introduction of parking metres

D annual reduction of parking spots

E free city bicycles

F free public transport

Questions 29-30

Check TWO letters A-F. Which TWO reasons are given for the low popularity of public transport? A buses slower than cars

B low use means reduced service

C private cars safer

D public transport expensive

E frequent stopping inconvenient

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F making connections takes time

Section 4

Questions 31-32

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Reasons for preserving food

Available all year For 31………….. In case of 32…………….

Questions 33-37

Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Method of preservation Advantage Disadvantage

Ultra-high temperature (UHT

milk) 33…………..

spoils the taste

canning inexpensive risk of 34………….

refrigeration stays fresh without processing requires 35………….

36………….. effective time-consuming.

drying long-lasting, light

and 37……………...

loses nutritional

value

Questions 38-40

Label the diagram. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

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38…………..

39…………..

40………….

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Test 17

(IELTS Plus 1 - Listening Practice Test 5)

SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-6

Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS or A NUMBER for each answer.

CUSTOMER ORDER FORM

Example: ORDER PLACED BY: John Carter ACCOUNT NUMBER 1…………. COMPANY NAME 2……………

Envelopes Size A4 normal Colour 3…………….. Quantity 4……………... Photocopy paper Colour 5…………….. Quantity 6………………

Questions 7-9

List THREE additional things that the man requests. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer . 7………………

8………………

9………………

Question 10

Complete the notes. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for your answer.

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Special instructions: Deliver goods 10…………..

SECTION 2 Questions 11-20

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Artist’s Exhibition General details: Place: 11………… No. 1 12…………..

Dates: 6th October – 13……………..

Display details:

jewellery

furniture

ceramics

14…………..

sculpture

Expect to see: crockery in the shape of 15……………

silver jewellery, e.g. large rings containing 16…………..a shoe sculpture made out of 17…………

Go to demonstrations called: 18………….

Artist’s Conservatory

Courses include:

Chinese brush painting

19…………….

silk painting

Fees include:

Studio use

Access to the shop

Supply of 20…………

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SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-23

Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. According to Alison Sharp, bear ancestors date back 21………….. years. Scientists think bears were originally in the same family as 22……………. The Cave Bear was not dangerous because it 23……………..

Questions 24-28

Choose the correct bear species in each question. 24 Which is the most recent species? 24…………..

25 Which is the largest looking bear? 25……………

26 Which is the smallest bear? 26………………..

27 Which bear eats plants? 27………………..

28 Which bear eats insects? 28………………..

Questions 29-30

Check TWO letters A-F. Which TWO actions are mentioned to help bears survive? A breeding bears in captivity

B encouraging a more humane attitude

C keeping bears in national parks

D enforcing international laws

E buying the speaker’s book

F writing to the United Nations

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Section 4

Questions 31-36 Choose the correct letters A-C. 31 The speaker compares a solar eclipse today to a A religious experience.

B scientific event.

C popular spectacle.

32 The speaker says that the dark spot of an eclipse is A simple to predict.

B easy to explain.

C randomly occurring.

33 Concerning an eclipse, the ancient Chinese were A fascinated.

B rational.

C terrified.

34 For the speaker, the most impressive aspect of an eclipse is the A exceptional beauty of the sky.

B chance for scientific study.

C effect of the moon on the sun.

35 Eclipses occur rarely because of the size of the A moon.

B sun.

C earth.

36 In predicting eclipses, the Babylonians were restricted by their A religious attitudes.

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B inaccurate observations.

C limited ability to calculate.

Questions 37-40

Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Date of

eclipse Scientists Observation

1715 Halley 37…………… who

accurately predicted an eclipse

1868 Janssen and

Lockyer discovered 38…………..

1878 Watson believed he had found 39………..

1919 Einstein realised astronomers had

misunderstood 40………….

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Test 18 (IELTS Plus 2 - Listening Practice Test 1)

SECTION 1

Questions 1-9

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

ENQUIRY ABOUT BOOKCASES

Example Answer Number of bookcases available: ...two...

Both bookcases

Width: 1……………..(cm)

Made of: 2……………..

First bookcase

Cost: 3…………… pounds

Colour: 4…………….

Number of shelves: six (four are 5………….)

Second bookcase

Colour: dark brown

Other features

- almost 80 years old

- has a 6…………. at the bottom

- has glass 7…………

Cost: 8………… pounds

Details of seller

Name: Mrs 9………….

Address: 41 Oak Rise. Stanton.

Questions 10

Choose the correct letter A. B or C. Which map shows the correct location of the seller’s house? ………….

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Questions 11-13

Complete the summary below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Charity Art Sale

The paintings will be displayed in the Star Gallery and in a nearby 11 ………….

The sale of pictures will begin at 12…………. (pm) on Thursday, and there will be refreshments

beforehand.

The money raised will all be used to help 13……………. children in New Zealand and other

countries.

Questions 14-20

Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Artist Personal information Type of painting

Don

Studley

• daughter is recovering

from a problem with her

back

• self-taught artist

• pictures of

the 14………… of

New Zealand

James

Chang

• originally from Taiwan

♦ had a number

of 15………. there

• 16………… paintings

• strong colours

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Natalie

Stevens

• has shown pictures in

many countries

• is an artist and a

website 17……….

• soft colours, various media

• mainly does 18…………..

Christine

Shin

• lived in New Zealand

for 19…………..

• Korean

• paintings are based

on 20…………..

• watercolours of New

Zealand landscapes

SECTION 3 (Questions 21-30)

Section 3 is a conversation about an academic topic such as a course, project, assignment or piece of research It usually involves two or three speakers, who may be students and/or tutors.

Questions 21-25

What instructions were the students given about their project? A they must do this

B they can do this if they want to

C they can't do this

Write the correct letter A. B or C next to Questions 21-25. 21 Choose a writer from a list provided.

22 Get biographical information from the Internet

23 Study a collection of poems.

24 Make a one-hour video.

25 Refer to key facts in the writer’s life.

Questions 26-30

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Other requirements for the project

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extract chosen from the author's work must reflect the 26……….. of the author.

students must find sound effects and 27…………. to match the texts they choose.

students must use a 28………….. of computer software programs to make the video.

students must include information about the 29………………..of all material

Criteria for assessment

completion of all components - 25%

30…………… (must represent essence of author's work) - 50% artistic and technical design of

video - 25%

SECTION 4

Section 4 is a talk or lecture on an academic topic. There is only one speaker. There is no break in the middle, so you must look through all the questions in the time given at the beginning.

Questions 31-33

Choose the correct answer A. B or C 31 ’Extremophiles' are life forms that can live in A isolated areas.

B hostile conditions.

C new habitats.

32 The researchers think that some of the organisms they found in Antarctica are A new species.

B ancient colonies.

C types of insects.

33 The researchers were the first people to find life forms in Antarctica A in the soil.

B under the rock surface.

C on the rocks.

Questions 34-40

Complete the sentences below.

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Write ONE WORD for each answer.

How the extremophiles survive

Access to the sun's heat can create a 34……….. for some organisms. The deeper the soil, the higher the 35……….. of salt. Salt can protect organisms against the effects of 36…………. even at very low temperatures. All living things must have access to 37…………. water. Salt plays a part in the process

of 38………….. which prevents freezing. The environment of 39 is similar to the dry valleys of Antarctica. This research may provide evidence of the existence of extraterrestrial life

forms and their possible 40 on other planets.

Test 19 (IELTS Plus 2 - Listening Practice Test 2)

SECTION 1

Questions 1-3

Choose the correct letter, A. B or C Example: Martin wants to

A sell a flat.

B rent a flat. C buy a flat.

1 What is Martin’s occupation? A He works in a car factory.

B He works in a bank.

C He is a college student.

2 The friends would prefer somewhere with A four bedrooms.

B three bedrooms.

C two bathrooms.

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3 Phil would rather live in A the east suburbs.

B the city centre.

C the west suburbs.

Questions 4-10

Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Details of flats available

Location Features Good (+) and bad (-) points

Bridge Street, near

the 4....................

• 3 bedrooms

• very big living

room

(+) 5…………… (£) a month

(+) transport links

(-) no shower

(-) could be 6……………

7…………….

• 4 bedrooms

• living room

• 8………………..

(+) 9………….. and

well equipped

(+) shower

(+) will be 10…………..

(-) £800 a month

SECTION 2

Questions 11-15

Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

The British Library

11 The reading rooms are only open for group visits on……………

12 The library was officially opened in……………..

13 All the library rooms together cover……………..m2.

14 The library is financed by the……………

15 The main function of the library is to provide resources for people doing………….

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Questions 16-20

Label the plan below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Plan of the British Library

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SECTION 3

Questions 21-25

Choose the correct answer A. B or C

Project on work placement

21 The main aim of Dave's project is to A describe a policy.

B investigate an assumption.

C identify a problem.

22 Dave’s project is based on schemes in A schools.

B colleges.

C universities.

23 How many academic organisations returned Dave's questionnaire? A 15

B 50

C 150

24 Dave wanted his questionnaires to be completed by company A Human Resources Managers.

B Line Managers.

C owners.

25 Dr Green wants Dave to provide a full list of A respondents.

B appendices.

C companies.

Questions 26-30

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Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Notes on project Introduction - improve the 26……….. of ideas - include a 27…………. of 'Work Placement' - have separate sections for literature survey and research 28………….. and methods Findings Preparation stage - add summary

29………….. development - good Constraints on learning - provide better links to the 30………….from research

SECTION 4

Questions 31-35

Complete the sentences below

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

31 Bilingualism can be defined as having an equal level of communicative……………. in two or more languages.

32 Early research suggested that bilingualism caused problems with……………… and mental development.

33 Early research into bilingualism is now rejected because it did not consider the………….. backgrounds of the children

34 It is now thought that there is a…………….. bilingualism and cognitive skills in children.

35 Research done by Ellen Bialystok in Canada now suggests that the effects of bilingualism also apply to……………..

Questions 36-40 Choose the correct letter A, B or C. 36 In Dr Bialystok's experiment, the subjects had to react according to A the colour of the square on the screen.

B the location of the square on the screen.

C the location of the shift key on the keyboard.

37 The experiment demonstrated the 'Simon effect’ because it involved a conflict between

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A seeing something and reacting to it.

B producing fast and slow reactions.

C demonstrating awareness of shape and colour.

38 The experiment shows that, compared with the monolingual subjects, the bilingual subjects A were more intelligent.

B had faster reaction times overall.

C had more problems with the 'Simon effect'.

39 The results of the experiment indicate that bilingual people may be better at A doing different types of tasks at the same time.

B thinking about several things at once.

C focusing only on what is needed to do a task.

40 Dr Bialystok's first and second experiments both suggest that bilingualism may A slow down the effects of old age on the brain.

B lead to mental confusion among old people.

C help old people to stay in better physical condition.

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Test 20 (IELTS Plus 2 - Listening Practice Test 3)

SECTION 1

Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Council Youth Scheme Application for Funding for Group Project

Example Answer

Name Ralph Pearson

Contact address 1…………. Drayton DR6 8AB

Telephone number 01453 586098

Name of group Community Youth Theatre Group

Description of group

amateur theatre group

(2…………. members)

involved in drama 3…………..

Amount of money requested 4……………..(£)

Description of project to produce a short 5 ………….play for

young children

Money needed for

6………….. for scenery

costumes

cost of 7…………….

8……………

sundries

How source of funding will be credited acknowledged in the 9……….. given to

audience

Other organisations approached for

funding (and outcome)

National Youth Services - money

was 10………….

Questions 11-15

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Choose the correct answer, A, B or C 11 Joanne says that visitors to Darwin are often surprised by A the number of young people.

B the casual atmosphere.

C the range of cultures.

12 To enjoy cultural activities, the people of Darwin tend to A travel to southern Australia.

B bring in artists from other areas.

C involve themselves in production.

13 The Chinese temple in Darwin A is no longer used for its original purpose.

B was rebuilt after its destruction in a storm.

C was demolished to make room for new buildings.

14 The main problem with travelling by bicycle is A the climate.

B the traffic.

C the hills.

15 What does Joanne say about swimming in the sea? A It is essential to wear a protective suit.

B Swimming is only safe during the winter.

C You should stay in certain restricted areas.

Questions 16-20

What can you find at each of the places below? Choose your answers from the box and write the correct letter A-H next to Questions 16-20.

A a flower market

B a chance to feed the fish

C good nightlife

D international arts and crafts

E good cheap international food

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F a trip to catch fish

G shops and seafood restaurants

H a wide range of different plants

16 Aquascene

17 Smith Street Mall

18 Cullen Bay Marina

19 Fannie Bay

20 Mitchell Street

Questions 21-23

Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS breach answer. Effects of weather on mood 21 Phil and Stella's goal is to………. the hypothesis that weather has an effect on a person's mood. 22 They expect to find that 'good' weather (weather which is………..) has a positive effect on a person's mood. 23 Stella defines effect on mood' as an……….. the way a person feels.

Questions 24-27 What information was given by each writer? Choose your answers from the box and write the letters A-F next to Questions 24-27.

A the benefits of moving to a warmer environment

B the type of weather with the worst effect on mood

C how past events affect attitudes to weather

D the important effect of stress on mood

E the important effect of hours of sunshine on mood

F psychological problems due to having to cope with bad weather

24 Vickers

25 Whiteboume

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26 Haverton

27 Stanfield

Questions 28-30

Choose THREE letters A-H. Which THREE things do Phil and Stella still have to decide on? A how to analyse their results

B their methods of presentation

C the design of their questionnaire

D the location of their survey

E weather variables to be measured

F the dates of their survey

G the size of their survey

H the source of data on weather variables

Questions 31-32

Choose TWO letters A-F Which two of the following problems are causing concern to educational authorities in the USA? A differences between rich and poor students

B high numbers dropping out of education

C falling standards of students

D poor results compared with other nationalities

E low scores of overseas students

F differences between rural and urban students

Questions 33-34

Choose TWO letters A-F According to the speaker, what are two advantages of reducing class sizes? A more employment for teachers

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B improvement in general health of the population

C reduction in number of days taken off sick by teachers

D better use of existing buildings and resources

E better level of education of workforce

F availability of better qualified teachers

Questions 35-40

Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

USA RESEARCH PROJECTS INTO CLASS SIZES

State Schools involved Number of

students

participati

ng

Key findings Problems

Tenness

ee

about 70 schools in

total 35…

……

significant benefit

especially

for 36………… p

upils

• lack of agreement

on implications of

data

Californ

ia

37……….. schools 1.8 million very little benefit • shortage

of 38…………, espe

cially in poorer areas

• no proper method

for 39……….. of pro

ject

Wiscons

in

14 schools (with

pupils

from 40………..fam

ilies)

similar results to

Tennessee project

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Test 21 (IELTS Plus 2 - Listening Practice Test 4)

SECTION 1

Questions 1-6

Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. Budget accommodation in Queenstown, New Zealand

Accommodation Price (dormitory) Comments

Travellers’ Lodge Example fully booked

Bingley’s US$ 1………..

• in town centre

• cafe with regular 2………….nights

• sundeck

Chalet Lodge US$ 18.00

• located in a 3………… alpine setting

• 10 mins from town centre

• 4……….. are welcome

Globetrotters US$ 18.50

• in town centre

• 5……….. included

• chance to win a 6…………

Questions 7-10

Who wants to do each of the activities below?

Write the correct letter, A. B or C next to Questions 7-10. 7 bungee jump

8 white-water rafting

9 jet-boat ride

10 trekking on wilderness trail

A only Jacinta

B only Lewis

C both Jacinta and Lewis

SECTION 2

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Questions 11-14

Choose the correct letter. A, B or C. 11 Jack says that in London these days, many people A see cycling as a foolish activity.

B have no experience of cycling.

C take too many risks when cycling.

12 If people want to cycle to school or work. CitiCyclist helps them by A giving cycling lessons on the route they take.

B advising them on the safest route to choose.

C teaching them basic skills on quiet roads first.

13 Jack works with some advanced cyclists who want to develop A international competitive riding skills.

B knowledge of advanced equipment.

C confidence in complex road systems.

14 CitiCyclist supports the view that cyclists should A have separate sections of the road from motor traffic.

B always wear protective clothing when cycling.

C know how to ride confidently on busy roads.

Questions 15-17

List THREE types of organisations for which CitiCyclist provides services. A training courses

B schools

C local councils

D individuals

E companies

Questions 18-20 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

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website address: citicyclist.co.uk

phone: 18………..

cost (single person): 19……….. £ per lesson

usual length of course: 20……….. (except complete beginners)

SECTION 3

Questions 21- 23

Answer the questions below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

21 What do Sharon and Xiao Li agree was the strongest aspect of their presentation?.........

22 Which part of their presentation was Xiao Li least happy with?..........

23 Which section does Sharon feel they should have discussed in more depth?...........

Questions 24-27 Choose the correct letters A-C. 24 Sharon and Xiao Li were surprised when the class said A they spoke too quickly.

B they included too much information.

C their talk was not well organised.

25 The class gave Sharon and Xiao Li conflicting feedback on their A timing.

B use of visuals.

C use of eye contact.

26 The class thought that the presentation was different from the others because A the analysis was more detailed.

B the data collection was more wide-ranging.

C the background reading was more extensive.

27 Which bar chart represents the marks given by the tutor? A Graph A

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B Graph B

C Graph C

Questions 28-30

Complete the sentences below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

28 The tutor says that the…………. of the presentation seemed rather sudden.

29 The tutor praises the students’ discussion of the………… of their results.

30 The tutor suggests that they could extend the…………. review in their report.

Questions 31-33

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. The World Health Organisation says a healthy city must

have a 31……………..and clean environment.

meet the 32………….. of all its inhabitants.

provide easily accessible health services.

encourage ordinary people to take part in 33…………..

Questions 34-40

Complete the table below.

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Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer

Place /

Project Aim Method Achievement

Sri Lanka Community

Contracts

System

to upgrade

squatter

settlements

the 34…………… construct

ed infrastructure, e.g. drains,

paths

• better housing and

infrastructure

• provided

better 35………………….. opp

ortunities

Mali cooperative

to improve

sanitation in city

• 36…………..graduates

organising garbage

collection

• public education

campaign

via 37………. discussion

groups

• greater environmental

awareness

• improved living conditions

Egypt (Mokattam)

38 …………

…..

to

support disadvan

taged women

women provided

with the 39…………….. e

quipment for sewing and

weaving

• rise in the 40………….

and quality of life of young

women

Test 22 (IELTS Plus 2 - Listening Practice Test 5)

SECTION 1

Questions 1-7

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C Example The woman says she is interested in

A part-time employment.

B a permanent job.

C unpaid work.

1 The librarian says that training always includes A computer skills.

B basic medical skills.

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C interpersonal skills.

2 All library service volunteers have to A record their arrival and departure.

B stay within ‘staff only' sections.

C wear a uniform.

3 The woman would be entitled to a contribution towards the cost of A transport by minibus.

B parking at the library.

C public transport.

4 One recent library project involved A labelling historical objects.

B protecting historical photographs.

C cataloguing historical documents.

5 At present, the library is looking for people to A record books onto CD.

B tell stories to children.

C read books to the blind.

6 The woman says she is interested in a project involving A taking library books to people in hospital.

B delivering library books to people at home.

C driving the disabled to the library.

7 The woman agrees to work for A two hours per week.

B four hours per week.

C six hours per week.

Questions 8-10

Choose THREE letters A-G. Which THREE of the following must be provided by all volunteers?

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A civil conviction check

B signed copy of commitment

C certificates to indicate qualifications

D emergency contact information

E date of birth

F signature of parent or guardian

G referees

SECTION 2

Questions 11-14

Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

11 ‘Canadian Clean Air Day' will be held on 11……….

12 Air pollution may be responsible for 12…………. deaths every year in Canada.

13 The sector most responsible for smog-producing pollutants is 13………….

14 Scientists now know that even 14……….. of pollutants can be harmful.

Questions 15-20 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Reducing Air Pollution Individual action

respond to the 15………… Challenge' walk, cycle or car-pool to work use public transit

16…………… 17…………… your domestic equipment

Government action emission reduction in the 18……………. region of US and Canada move towards 19 ……………( e.g. less sulphur in gasoline & diesel) reduction of pollutants from 20…………… and power plants.

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SECTION 3 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Field Trip to Kenya

Area of country: the 21…………. of Kenya

Accommodation: Marich Pass Field Studies Centre

in traditional 'bandas' (bring mosquito 22………………..)

study areas: 23……………, lecture room, outdoor areas

Type of environment: both 24……………………and semi-arid plains

Activities:

interviews (with interpreters)

25……………….. (environment and culture)

morphological mapping

projects (all connected with 26………………. issues)

Jack’s group did project on: 27……………… supply and quality issues

Expeditions:

to Sigor (a 28…………………) to study distribution

to the Wei Wei valley to study agricultural production

to a 29………………

Evaluation:

logistics - well run

gave insight into lives of others

provided input for his 30

Questions 31-34

Complete the flow chart below.

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Write ONE WORD for each answer

Research methodology

Stage

1

Discussion with supermarket department manager to decide on the

store’s 31……….. for the website

Decision to investigate website use as a 32…………… way for customers to

communicate problems

Stage

2

Design of questionnaire to identify customers’ experiences and 33…………. to

problems

Data collected from 34………….. with customers in four branches of the

supermarket

Analysis of responses

Questions 35-40

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C 35 Which pie chart shows the percentage of respondents who experienced a problem in the supermarket?

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A Chart A

B Chart B

C Chart C

36 Which pie chart shows the reasons why customers failed to report the problem directly to supermarket staff?

A Chart A

B Chart B

C Chart C

37 How might the student's website help the supermarket, according to the manager? A It would support the expansion of the company.

B It would allow the identification of problem areas.

C It would make the company appear more professional.

38 The student says one problem is that some customers A do not have computer skills.

B do not have their own computer.

C do not have access to a computer.

39 Further observation of website use is necessary because of A the small size of the sample.

B the need to evaluate the objectives.

C the unrepresentative nature of the respondents.

40 One positive result of the website for the supermarket staff could be A greater support from management.

B less chance of unfair complaints.

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C greater cooperation between staff.

Test 23 (IELTS Plus 2 - Listening Practice Test 6)

SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Report on abandoned vehicle

Example Answer

Name of caller Mrs Shefford

Address 41, 1………….

Barrowdale

WH4 5JP

Telephone 2………….

Vehicle location in 3…………… near main road (A69)

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Type of vehicle 4…………….

Make Catala

Model 5………………

Present colour of vehicle 6……………..

Vehicle number S 322 GEC

General condition poor - one 7…………. cracked windscreen

Length of time at site 8……………….

Land belongs to 9……………….

Last owner no information available

Other notes vehicle does not belong to a 10……………

resident

..

SECTION 2

Questions 11-17

Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

The story of John Manjiro

11 Manjiro started work as a………….. when he was still a young boy.

12 He spent…………. on a deserted island before he was rescued.

13 He became friends with William Whitfield, who was a ship's………….

14 The cost of Manjiro's………….. in America was covered by the Whitfield family.

15 Manjiro eventually returned to Japan, where he carried out important work as a teacher

and………….

16 Fairhaven and Tosashimizu are now officially…………….

17 Every two years, the John Manjiro………….. is held in Fairhaven.

Questions 18-20

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Write the correct letter A-l next to Questions 18-20. Label the map below.

18 ……….. Whitfield family house

19 ……….. Old Oxford School

20 ………… School of Navigation

SECTION 3

Questions 21-23 Choose the best answer, A, B or C 21 What is the main thing Julia feels she has gained from her experience in retail? A better understanding of customer attitudes

B improved ability to predict fashion trends

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C more skill in setting priorities in her work

22 Why is Julia interested in doing the postgraduate course? A It will enable her to develop new types of technology.

B It will allow her to specialise in a design area of her choice.

C It will provide managerial training focusing on her needs.

23 What would Julia like to do after she has completed the postgraduate course? A work overseas

B start her own business

C stay in an academic environment

Questions 24-27 What does each university facility have? Choose your answers from the box and write the correct letter A-G next to Questions 24-27.

A laboratories

B rooms for individual study

C inter-disciplinary focus

D introductory course

E purpose-built premises

F cafeteria

G emphasis on creative use

24 Library

25 Computer Centre

26 Photomedia

27 Time Based Media

Questions 28-30 Complete the summary below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

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MA in Fashion Design: Assessment

Assessment includes three 28……………. which take place at the end of the stages of the degree.

Final assessment is based on a project, and includes the student's 29…………… in the form of a

written report, and the 30………….. to which representatives of fashion companies are invited.

SECTION 4 Questions 31-40 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Laughter

The nature of laughter

laughter is a 31 …………..process - involves movement and sound

it is controlled by our 32………….

Reasons for laughter

only 10% of laughter is caused by jokes / funny stories

may have begun as sign of 33………….. after a dangerous situation

nowadays, may help to develop 34………….. within a group

connected to 35…………. (e.g. use of humour by politicians or bosses)

may be related to male / female differences (e.g. women laugh more at male speakers)

may be used in a 36………….way to keep someone out of a group

Benefits of laughter

safe method for the 37………….. of emotions such as anger and sadness

provides good aerobic exercise

leads to drop in levels of stress-related 38……………

improves the 39………… can stop 40……………. and improve sleep

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Test 27

(Band 5-6.5

Complete IELTS 2 - Listening Practice Test 2)

SECTION 1

Questions 1-5

Complete the form below.

HOTEL

Booking Form

Example Answer

Arrival date: 23rd August

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Length of stay: 1……………

Type of accommodation: 2……………

Name: Mr and Mrs 3……………. and children

Address: 29 Tower Heights, Dunbar 4……………

Postcode: EH47 2GK

Contact telephone: 5……………

Purpose of trip: holiday

Questions 6-10 Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Tourist Board

Questions for holidaymakers

Favourite activity: 6……………

Beaches: busy but 7…………

Shop staff: are sometimes 8…………..

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Waiters: 9………….. and quick

Suggestions: need some 10………….. for hire

SECTION 2

Questions 11-15

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

ORANA WILDLIFE PARK

Facts about Orana

Orana means 11……………

The park has animals from a total of 12…………..

The animals come from many parts of the world.

Things to do at Orana

13………… the giraffes at 12 or 3 p.m.

Touch the animals in the 14………….. (good for children).

Watch the cheetahs doing their 15……………. at 3.40.

Questions 16-20 Label the plan below.

Write the correct letter, A-I, next to questions 16-20.

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16 New Zealand birds

17 African village

18 Picnic area

19 Afternoon walkabout meeting place

20 Jomo’s Cafe

SECTION 3

Questions 21-27

Choose the correct letter A, B or C. 21 The students did the study skills course because A it was part of their syllabus.

B they needed it to prepare for an exam.

C their tutor recommended it

22 Why did Sylvie and Daniel use a questionnaire? A Other students preferred the method.

B It reduced the preparation time.

C More information could be obtained.

23 How often did the students meet in class for the course? A once a week

B twice a week

C every weekday

24 Why did Daniel like the course? A It improved his confidence.

B It focused on economics articles.

C It encouraged him to read more books.

25 What did the students like about Jenny? A her homework assignments

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B her choice of study material

C her style of teaching

26 Which chart below shows how useful students found the course in general?

A Chart A

B Chart B

C Chart C

27 Which graph below shows how useful students found the different parts of the course?

A Chart A

B Chart B

C Chart C

Questions 28-30

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Complete the sentences. Use NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. 28 Good note-taking improves concentration during………….

29 Making notes with the help of a………….. is useful.

30 Having a………….. on note paper makes notes easier to read.

Questions 31-40 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

AIRPORT DESIGN

Can compare a past airport to a 31………….

Now, can compare an airport to a small 32………….

Reasons for changes

Greater passenger numbers because of

33…………..(e.g. package deals)

34…………… (e.g. meetings)

Need to create a good 35………….. of a country

airports called 'gateways’

Types of change

Inside the building

many big 36……………. provide space and light [e.g. Beijing airport)

calm atmosphere with easy movement reduces 37…………….for passengers

The exterior of the building

designed to match the surroundings

e.g. - the shape of the 38 ……………on the Arctic Circle airport, Norway

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- the 39……………. outside airports in India and Thailand

structural design reduces 40…………… and costs

Test 23 (Complete IELTS (Bands 5 – 6.5) - Listening Practice Test 3)

Questions 1-10

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Traditional Samoan Houses

Overall design

house: round or 1……………

no walls

2…………….. : to shelter occupants from wind and rain

floor: 3…………. to control temperature

Roof

dome-shaped and thatched using 4……………leaves

5…………… sides prevent dampness

high top permits 6………………. loss

Supporting posts

made using wood from the 7…………… around the village

used to show 8………….. of chiefs and speakers at meetings

attached using rope made by the 9…………….. in the village

rope pulled tightly to form a 10……………. around beams and post

Questions 11-15 Complete the form below.

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Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

International Social Club

Name: Jenny Foo

Age: 21

Nationality: 11………………

Address: 12……………… Road, Bondi

Mobile phone: 13………………

Occupation: 14………………

Free-time interests: Singing and 15…………….

Questions 16-20 Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. 16 According to Don, what might be a problem for Jenny?

A her accent

B talking to her colleagues

C understanding local people

17 How many members does the club have now?

A 30

B 50

C 80

18 How often does the club meet?

A once a week

B once every two weeks

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C once a month

19 What is the club’s most frequent type of activity?

A a talk

B a visit

C a meal

20 The main purpose of the club is to help members to

A meet Australians.

B learn about life in Australia.

C enjoy themselves together.

Questions 21-25 Choose the correct letter, A, B or C . 21 According to Debbie, why do some people fail to eat a balanced diet? A They don’t know how to cook.

B They don’t have enough time to cook.

C They don’t feel hungry enough to cook.

22 Debbie recommends that staff should keep fit by

A using a gym.

B taking up a new sport.

C changing some daily activities

. 23 Which benefit of exercise does Debbie think is most important? A It helps you sleep.

B It keeps your heart healthy.

C It improves mental skills.

24 What advice does Debbie give the nurses about health and safety? A to avoid drinking coffee

B to use the canteen at night

C to take regular breaks

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25 When she talks about hygiene, Debbie asks the nurses to A wash their hands regularly.

B keep away from germs.

C help with the cleaning.

Test 24 (Complete IELTS (Bands 5 – 6.5) - Listening Practice Test 4)

SECTION 1

Questions 1-5 Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

KT Furniture Customer Order Form

Customer details

Example Answer

Caller’s name Sue Brown

Company name: 1……………

Address: 2…………..Trading Estate.

210 New Hampton Road South Down

Contact number: 3………….(mobile)

Delivery option: 2, no 4………..

Method of payment: credit card, type: 5…………..

Questions 6-10

Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

item code colour quantity

Office chairs ASP 23 6………….. 5

7……………. 8…………. 2

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Leather sofa DFD 44 9………… 1

10…………… TX 22 silver 1

SECTION 2

Questions 11-17

Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Marathon - tips for spectators

11 To enjoy the day, make sure you…………… it first.

12 Travel…………. within the city centre.

13 Wear……….. on the day.

14 Check the…………. the night before the marathon.

15 Let the…………. give drinks to runners.

16 Stay on one side of the road to avoid…………….

17 Don’t arrange to meet runners near the…………..

Questions 18-20 What does the speaker say about the following forms of transport? Write the correct letter, A, B, C, D or E, next to questions 18-20. 18 taxis

19 trams

20 buses

A will take more passengers than usual

B will suit people who want to see the start of the race

C waiting times will be longer than usual

D will have fewer staff than usual

E some work schedules will change

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SECTION 3

Questions 21-26

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

21 What does Ahmed say about last week’s seminar?

A He wasn’t able to get there on time.

B He didn’t know all the students.

C He couldn’t understand everything.

22 What does the tutor say about Ahmed’s preparation for the seminar?

A He was better prepared than some students.

B He completed some useful work.

C He read some useful articles.

23 What does Ahmed say about his participation in the seminar?

A He tended to speak to his neighbour only.

B He spoke when other students were talking,

C He felt embarrassed when students looked at him.

24 What does Ahmed worry about most in seminars?

A speaking at the right time

B taking enough notes

C staying focused

25 What does Ahmed say about his role in the group?

A He hasn’t thought about it.

B He’d like to change it.

C He feels he is acting a part.

26 At the next seminar, Ahmed’s tutor suggests that he should

A give other students more help with their work.

B observe the behaviour of other students.

C ask other students for their views.

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Questions 27-28

Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO strategies does the tutor suggest for the next seminar? A speak more frequently

B behave in a confident manner

C sit next to someone helpful

D listen to what other people say

E think of questions to ask

Questions 29-30 Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO suggestions does the tutor make about taking notes?

A plan them before the seminar

B note down key words that people say

C note points to say later

D include self-analysis

E rewrite them after the seminar

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Complete the notes below.

DESERT PLANT

Background

• Deserts found in what is known as a 31…………. (or dry area).

• Annual rainfall, if any, amounts to a 32…………..

• Soil contains a lot of salt and 33……………

General adaptations of desert plants

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• They can 34…………and store water.

• They have features that reduce water loss.

Examples of adaptations

• Saguaro Cactus: stores water in its 35…………..

• Barrel Cactus: can 36……….. or shrink according to weather

• Old Man Cactus: has 37……………….that reflect the sun

• Prickly Pear Cactus: has 38 …………… to keep away animals

• Desert Spoon: leaves are 39………….. to reduce water loss

• Aloe Plant: leaf surface acts like a 40…………….. covering and keeps water inside

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Test 25 (Complete IELTS (Bands 6.5 – 7.5) - Listening Practice Test 1) Questions 1-5 Label the map below.

Write the correct letter, A-H, next to questions 1-5

1 …………… recreation centre

2 …………… health centre

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3 …………… swimming pool and sauna

4 …………… health-food store

5 ……………. Jenny’s Restaurant

ECTION 2

Choose TWO letters, A-E.

Questions 6-7 Which TWO activities will students do as part of Amanda’s assignment?

A analyse their own speech

B record other students’ speech

C read something from a book

D repeat part of a lecture

E remember part of a lecture

Questions 8-9 Which TWO features must Amanda check when she chooses the extract? A the time it takes to read

B the overall organisation

C the number of words

D the number of sentences

E the inclusion of key ideas

SECTION 3

Questions 10-13

Which comments do the speakers make about each lecture? Choose FOUR answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-F, next to Questions 10-13. Lectures 10………….. History of English

11…………... Gestures and signs

12…………… Intonation patterns

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13 …………... Language and rhythm

Comments A The content is repetitive.

B It took a long time to write.

C It was shorter than the others.

D It was well structured.

E The content is relevant.

F The topic was popular.

Questions 14-15

Answer the questions below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. Which TWO pieces of equipment will the students use in the study?

14…………..

15…………..

SECTION 4 Questions 16-20

Complete the sentences below.

Write ONE OR TWO WORDS for each answer.

16. Ordinary people can provide a news story, a……………. or a video when no professional journalist is present.

17. Amateur journalists often report on subjects which would be of little interest to a large………….

18. In the past, someone who wanted to express an opinion used to write a ………………. while now they write a blog.

19. An amateur journalist’s subject is more likely to be a…………. rather than national or international news.

20. Amateur news websites, such as Ohmynews in South Korea, earn money from…………….

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Questions 21-25 Complete the flow chart below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

How to write an article

Put the main facts at the beginning to attract

attention.

Use a model in the shape of a 21……………..to build up details.

Include 22……………..from people involved.

Check the accuracy of your 23……………

Rewrite, making sure paragraphs are short.

Don’t write a 24……………

Add a picture to accompany the article.

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Finally, write an attractive 25………………

Test 26 (Complete IELTS (Bands 6.5 – 7.5) - Listening Practice Test 2)

SECTION 1

Questions 1-6 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. Customer name: Igor Petrov Length of holiday: 1…………….

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Will pay up to £ 2……………….

Told him about 3………………for advance payment

Needs quote for 4………………during holiday

Requires 5……………… on plane

Must check if he needs a 6……………..

Questions 7-10 Complete the table below. Write ONE OR TWO WORDS for each answer .

Eco-holidays

Type of holiday Accommodation Advantage

Dumbarton

Tablelands

watching animals house in a 7…………. close to nature

Bago Nature

Reserve

live with

a 8…………..

village house learn about way of life

San Luis Island working in

a 9…………..

hostel holiday location

without 10…………

SECTION 2

Questions 11-15 Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. 11 What problem does Fumiko have with her psychology project? A She isn’t interested in the topic.

B She can’t find enough information.

C She doesn’t know what to focus on.

12 What point does Victor make about Fumiko’s tutor? A He explores his students’ key interests.

B He is a very hard-working member of staff.

C He uses a limited range of project titles.

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13 What has Fumiko already read on her topic? A book extracts

B journal articles

C internet material

14 According to Mr Dresden, Fumiko’s project must include A some graphic data.

B a bibliography.

C a public survey.

15 Victor and Fumiko arrange to A get in contact in half an hour.

B meet up in the library.

C have lunch together.

Questions 16-20 Complete the flow chart below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Fumiko’s plan

Define 16 ……………..using a diagram

Background: relationships in the 17……………… , e.g. apes

Present an overview of the 18…………….. for human relationships, e.g. work, home

Look at six 19…………….. involved in a friendship (plus survey)

Predict the future 20……………….. on friendship

SECTION 3 You are going to hear someone giving a lecture on a traditional Japanese form of stitching called sashiko.

Questions 21-30

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Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. 21 The word sashiko means ……………….

22 In the beginning, sashiko was ……………..rather than decorative.

23 In the past, warm fabrics such as…………..were not available in some parts of Japan.

24 Warm clothes were produced by using sashiko to join…………… of material.

25 Traditional sashiko designs included one called……………….

26 In the towns of ancient Japan, workers such as………………. wore sashiko garments.

27 It used to be essential for someone married to a…………….. to know how to do sashiko.

28 Sashiko was not needed when…………………. began in northern Japan.

29 Modern sashiko patterns include stripes and…………… shapes.

30 Unfortunately,…………………. are not as interested in old clothes as in other ancient craft

objects.

Section 4 Questions 31-40 Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Graduate Fair Registration TGS Global

Graduate details

Area of work: Example: Marketing

Name: Dominika 31………….

Nationality: 32………………..

Email address: 33…………………@qmail.com

University: London

Type of course: 34…………………. BA

Date available: 35…………………..

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Personal information

Other activities: organised a 36……………… charity

Interests: 37……………..

Previous job(s): 38……………..

Career plans: wants to be a 39…………….

Heard about fair through: 40…………………

Test 27 (Complete IELTS (Bands 6.5 – 7.5) - Listening Practice Test 4)

Questions 1-5

Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Wright’s Employment Agency

Registration form

Name: Helen SHEPARD

Address: 18 Henley Street, Mill Town

Post code: 1………………

Telephone: 07945 76674

Looking for 2………………work.

Experience:

• 3…………… in residential children’s home

• waitressing

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• cleaning in hotel

Own transport? 4……………..

Availability: not night shifts, can start 5……………..

Questions 6-10 Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer .

Job Location Hours Hourly rate

Hylands Hotel

cleaning,

waitressing,

kitchen work)

Near 6………….. Shift work

No later

than 10 pm

£6.75

plus 7……………..

The Cedars

(home for

elderly)

Hamilton Terrace 8…………

Some

weekends

and

evenings

£6.10

Looking

after 9…………..

Poplar Street 2-3 hours

each

morning

10…………… plus

transport

Questions 11-15

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. 11 The main purpose of the new Arts Centre is to provide

A entertainment and education opportunities

B education and local business opportunities

C entertainment and local business opportunities

12 Where can the permanent art exhibits be found?

A Exhibition Room A

B Exhibition Room B

C The Rees Gallery

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13 The Drawing Workshop is for

A teenagers

B cartoonists

C local artists

14 The Youth Band and Choir are performing

A twice in the Gilbert Theatre

B at two different venues

C in the theatre and the Moffat Hall

15 The last event of the evening

A is in the Studio Theatre

B is a musical event

C is by a local performer

Questions 16-20 Label the plan below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

SECTION 3

Question 21 Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. Why was the tutor initially concerned about the Mel’s choice of subject?

A There was not enough information on the subject.

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B The subject was not new or different.

C Mel had taken a different approach to the subject.

Questions 22-25 Write the correct letter, A, B or C next to questions 22-25.

Mel should

A include it

B remove it

C increase it

22 the introduction ………

23 statistics about flooding ……..

24 acknowledgement of visual material ……….

25 a graph about rainfall ………

Questions 26-30

Complete the flow chart. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Advice on presentation

Be well prepared with content and equipment

Prepare slides with main points and visuals.

No bright colors, 26………. or sound effects.

Stand in a central position.

Make 27……………. with audience.

Use a 28…………… mouse or keyboard.

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Speak slowly.

Don't memorize or read.

Use cue cards as a 29…………...

Deal with 30……………. from audience at end.

SECTION 4

Questions 31-37 Choose the correct letter A, B or C . 31 What is the percentage of people who make a phone call every day?

A 47%

B 92%

C 53%

32 What is the percentage of young people who text every day?

A 15%

B 90%

C 65%

33 On average men

A send fewer texts than women

B send shorter texts than women

C have fewer contacts than women

34 Originally, text messaging was created as A an internal messaging system

B a new commercial venture for a mobile phone company

C a way of sending greetings to friends and family

35 Early texters were limited by

A incompatibility between mobile phone networks

B unsophisticated mobile phones

C expensive mobile phones

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36 Abbreviated texting language

A is unpopular with many people

B was created due to limitations in text length

C has caused children's language skills to decline

37 On average, children who text

A have better speaking skills than those who don’t

B have better reading and writing skills than those who don’t

C do not show any difference in their language skills

Questions 38-40 Choose THREE letters A-G. Which three uses of text messaging were mentioned in the survey?

A taking part in a competition

B booking a hotel room C buying an airline ticket D following a package delivery

E making a doctor’s appointment

F making a donation

G voting in an election

Test 29 (Complete IELTS (Bands 6.5 – 7.5) - Listening Practice Test 3)

Questions 1-5 Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer

Example

Length of stay:

Answer

5 nights

Date of arrival: 1………………

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Family name: 2………………

Contact number: 3………………

Camp facilities: 4………….., water and 5…………….

Questions 6-10 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Site code: 6…………….

Location:

Drive past the offices and 7……………

Keep going until you reach the 8………….

Then turn left.

Remember: Do not leave 9……………

Return the 10………………

Questions 11-14

What does the speaker say about the following natural food colourings? Write the correct letter, A-F, next to questions 11-14. 11………. green

12……… brown

13 ………red

14 ………blue

A It is made using another food product.

B The ingredients are difficult to find.

C It is also used to dye cosmetics.

D Sales fell then increased.

E It can be used to give processed food a uniform colour.

F It is less popular than other dyes.

Questions 15-17

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Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D. 15 When we buy new clothes, our

A friends may not like the colours we choose.

B choice may be based on the colours we see.

C ideas about fashion may not be up to date.

16 Colourists are people who

A decide which colours suit us best.

B create the dyes that are used to make clothes.

C predict which colours will be fashionable in the future.

17 What does the speaker say about the colours we wear?

A The colours we like change as we get older.

B Most people prefer light colours to dark ones.

C We worry too much about the colour of clothes.

Questions 18-20 Complete the sentences below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer. 18 Both a product and its…………. must appeal to consumers.

19 Green indicates that businesses care about the……….

20 Blue helps people to think in a more……….way.

Questions 21-26

Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

International student mobility

Questions Findings

What is the total number? • about 3 million

• Not every country uses the

same 21……….for an

international student.

• Figure may be much higher.

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What is the global 22……….? • Figures may be inaccurate.

• 23……….. organisations may

be ignored.

Where do students come from? Big increases in figures for North

America and 24………..

Are

student 25…………… changing?

• more 26…………

• a spirit of exchange

Questions 21-26

Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

International student mobility

Questions Findings

What is the total number? • about 3 million

• Not every country uses the

same 21………… for an

international student.

• Figure may be much higher.

What is the global 22……….. ? • Figures may be inaccurate.

• 23………… organisations may

be ignored.

Where do students come from? Big increases in figures for North

America and 24……………

Are student 25………. changing? • more 26…………

• a spirit of exchange

Questions 27 and 28

Choose TWO letters, A-E. When choosing a course, which TWO factors did students consider important? A how expensive the course is

B the reputation of the institution

C the distance from home

D the qualifications of the tutors

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E how useful the qualification will be

Questions 29-30

Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO incentives would encourage graduates to return home? A scholarships for higher degrees

B research grants

C special housing

D lower tax rates

E special work zones

Questions 31-40

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

LIONS

Lion history

• Found today in Africa and a 31……………..in India

• Have lived on every continent apart from Antarctica and 32………….

• Killed by early humans:

a) in competition for food

b) for 33………..

Cave paintings

• 34………… confirms European lions much bigger than African lions

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• Date of first appearance of mane 35………..

Purpose of mane

• Mane is comparable to 36……….. in some ways

• Researchers first believed mane used for 37…………. during fights

The lion expert ’s study

• Made some 38……….. with different manes

• 39……………manes attracted female lions

Conclusion: mane is a 40……………

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Solution

Test 1

1. by minibus / a minibus 21. B

2. 15/15 people 22. A

3. April (the) 18th 23. C

4. Pallisades 24. B, D IN EITHER ORDER

5. B, D IN EITHER ORDER 25. B, D IN EITHER ORDER

6. B, D IN EITHER ORDER 26. full-time

7. 280 27. a term / one term

8. 14 28. intensive

9. 20% 29. two modules / (for) two terms

10. 39745T 30. a topic / one topic

11. move around / move about 31. politics

12. brakes 32. learn

13. fingers 33. children’s education / their children’s

education

14. satisfactory 34. a car

15. put (it) together 35. nursing care

16. too wide 36. crisis

17. dangerous 37. early twenties

18. wheels 38. confidence

19. (the) best / (the) best buy / safe 39. money management

20. sharp 40. low-risk investments

Test 2

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1. (passport) photos / (passport)

photographs

21. home / student's home

2. (a) bank statement 22. (have) dinner / come to dinner / go to

dinner

3. 125 (per year) 23. technical words

4. 8 24. slang

5. 1.50 25. cooperating / cooperation

6. 48 26. persuading

7. local papers / local newspapers 27. editing

8. (a) card / cards 28. complete

9. Grantingham 29. experiment

10. Friday 30. long

11. C 31. 58

12. C 32. desert

13. A 33. science

14. C 34. hospital / small hospital

15. A 35. ship

16. 75,000 36. platforms

17. computers 37. 3,500

18. C, E, F IN ANY ORDER 38. currents / ocean currents

19. C, E, F IN ANY ORDER 39. (the) pollution

20. C, E, F IN ANY ORDER 40. young

Test 3

1. 1.4 litres /1.4 liters 21. 5th May

2. automatic 22. July 16th

3. light / sky 23. clear / was clear

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4. credit 24. (an/the) outline / (a/the) course outline

5. Harries 25. (the) 2nd half

6. Dr / Doctor 26. (standard of) teaching / (standard of)

teachers

7. Alton 27. discussion / group discussion

8. messages 28. handouts

9. Lion 29. written work

10. reasonable 30. student support / support for students

11. C, E IN EITHER ORDER 31. 12.5%

12. C, E IN EITHER ORDER 32. incineration plants

13. references 33. drop-off

14. country 34. cooking

15. weather 35. 500,000

16. C 36. roads

17. C 37. soil conditioner

18. A 38. containers

19. B 39. pencils

20. C 40. business cards

Test 4

1. 14 Hill Road 21. sales

2. between 9 and 9.30 / 9-9.30 22. competition

3. 1 year 23. interest rates / rates of interest

4. intermediate 24. training

5. North-West 25. A

6. vegetarian 26. B

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7. (a) (real) garden 27. A

8. (the) only guest 28. C

9. 100 29. B

10. 23rd March / Monday 23rd March 30. D

11. clubhouse 31. B

12. picnic 32. A

13. prizes 33. A

14. 10 34. C

15. Wednesday afternoon(s) 35. A

16. 4 36. B

17. Sunday afternoon(s) 37. B

18. collect (the) fees / collect (the) money 38. A

19. send (out/the) newsletter(s) 39. B

20. supervise (the) teams 40. C

Test 5

1. (a) keep-fit (studio) 21. A

2. swimming 22. in advance

3. yoga (classes) 23. nursery

4. (a) salad bar 24. annual fee

5. 500 25. tutor

6. 1 26. laptops, printers IN EITHER ORDER

7. 10 (am). 4.30 (pm) 27. laptops, printers IN EITHER ORDER

8. 180 28. report writing

9. assessment 29. marketing

10. Kynchley 30. Individual

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11. B 31. feed

12. G 32. metal/ leather

13. C 33. restrictions

14. A 34. ships

15. E 35. England

16. D 36. built

17. (October (the)) 19th 37. poverty

18. 7 38. C, E, F IN ANY ORDER

19. Monday, Thursday 39. C, E, F IN ANY ORDER

20. 18 40. C, E, F IN ANY ORDER

Test 6

1. 8 21. catalog(ue)s

2. (in/on) Tamer 22. computer centre/center

3. green button 23. checklist

4. library 24. teaching experience

5. education department 25. classroom

6. castles 26. review

7. old clothes 27. schools

8. bottle tops 28. ((the) year) 2000

9. Undersea Worlds 29. end of term

10. silver paper 30. research

11. King Street 31. A

12. central 32. B

13. half hour/30 minutes 33. C

14. refreshments 34. A

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15. 10.15 35. A

16. Advance 36. C

17. (seat) reservations 37. A

18. C, D, G IN ANY ORDER 38. Great Train Robbery

19. C, D, G IN ANY ORDER 39. Sound effects

20. C, D, G IN ANY ORDER 40. poor sound quality

Test 7

1. Select 21. entertainment industry

2. 27.01.1973 22. telephone interviews

3. 15 Riverside 23. 30/thirty

4. 2 weeks 24. male and female

5. 616295 25. jazz

6. engineer 26. classical

7. mother 27. concerts

8. 2,000 28. department stores

9. month 29. club

10. internet 30. opera house

11. C 31. C

12. A 32. A

13. C 33. A

14. H 34. B

15. F 35. people

16. B 36. water, sand IN EITHER ORDER

17. D 37. Scotland

18. field 38. outside

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19. footbridge 39. local

20. viewpoint 40. tops

Test 8

1. 75 21. reference

2. cheque/check 22. textbooks

3. 15 23. secondary

4. 25 24. primary

5. 10 minute(s’)/min(s’) 25. back

6. conference pack 26. overdue books/ones

7. South 27. 7 working days

8. library 28. C, E, F IN ANY ORDER

9. 5 29. C, E, F IN ANY ORDER

10. 21A 30. C, E, F IN ANY ORDER

11. D 31. B

12. A 32. A

13. C 33. B

14. tax 34. C

15. security 35. 1,450

16. ground floor 36. disease

17. lecture room 311 37. (wealthy) prince

18. Safety at Work 38. diet

19. Main Hall 39. attack humans

20. team leaders 40. leadership

Test 9

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1. (a) taxi/cab 21. attitude(s)

2. city centre/center 22. gender/sex

3. wait 23. creativity/creativeness

4. door-to-door 24. A

5. reserve (a seat) 25. B

6. (the) 17th(of) October 26. A

7. 12.30 27. B

8. Thomson 28. culture

9. AC 936 29. profit(s)

10. 3303 8450 2045 6837 30. stress/strain

11. B 31. April

12. A 32. children

13. B 33. repeated

14. C 34. human

15. C 35. magic

16. A 36. distance

17. C 37. culture

18. A 38. fire(s)

19. C 39. touching

20. B 40. intact

Test 10

1. 27 Bank Road 21. B

2. (a) dentist 22. A

3. Sable 23. C

4. Northern Star 24. B

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5. stolen 25. A

6. Paynter 26. B

7. brother-in-law 27. 1882 (to/-) (18)83

8. (travel(ling/ing)) (to) work 28. signed

9. Red Flag 29. A, D IN EITHER ORDER

10. 450 30. A, D IN EITHER ORDER

11. City Bridge 31. C

12. Newtown 32. B

13. 6.30 33. C

14. (formal) garden 34. A

15. (Tower) Restaurant 35. A

16. view(s) 36. 2 directions

17. history 37. confident

18. 7 screen 38. vision

19. every 20 minutes 39. corrections

20. (from/the) Central Station 40. balance

Test

1. business 21. cigar

2. third 22. 13 (different) countries

3. Sport(s) Centre 23. activated

4. (a) cleaner 24. 50 km(s)

5. Library 25. temperature

6. International House 26. A

7. B659 27. C

8. (an) office assistant 28. A

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9. answer (the) phone 29. B

10. 11.30 30. C

11. B 31. B

12. C 32. B

13. A 33. A

14. C 34. C

15. B 35. business

16. A 36. kitchen

17. forest 37. world

18. temple 38. escape

19. waterfall 39. baby

20. village 40. chocolate

11

Test 1 2

1. Keiko 21. 5

2. J06337 22. assessed

3. 4 months 23. A

4. (Advanced) English (Studies) 24. B

5. (young) children 25. A

6. pets 26. C

7. seafood 27. media room

8. tennis 28. resources room

9. trains/(the) train 29. embassy

10. this/that afternoon 30. statistics/stats

11. C 31. B

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12. B 32. C

13. A 33. A

14. B 34. water

15. car park 35. IN EITHER ORDER meat, cheese

16. rose garden 36. IN EITHER ORDER meat, cheese

17. cafe 37. 5th/new taste

18. cycling 38. common

19. biology lesson(s) 39. bitterness

20. viewing shelter 40. minerals

Test 13

1. C 21. Out and About

2. C 22. (the) university/campus

3. D 23. B

4. McDonald/Macdonald/MacDonald 24. B

5. Post Office Box/PO Box 676 25. B

6. 775431 26. A

7. credit card/Visa 27. Poor

8. D,F (both required for one mark, either order) 28. Excellent

9. A, F (any order) 29. OK

10. after (the) exams 30. Excellent

11. 473 31. human activity/activities

12. (open) 2/two(-)seater 32. farming and drainage

13. smooth 33. Dirty Thirties/30s

14. 180 34. dry thunderstorms

15. frame and engine 35. machine operators

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16. instrument panel/instruments/stop-watch 36. drought

17. 30 37. irrigation

18. light aircraft/plane 38. two-thirds

19. wings 39. salty/saline/toxic

20. rear wheels 40. crops/plants/agriculture

Test 14

1. B 21. father's workshop

2. A 22. 1824

3. B 23. night writing

4. C 24. B

5. Hagerty 25. A

6. ricky45 26. C

7. 29(th) February 27. C

8. business 28. mathematics/maths

9. conversation/to communicate 29. science

10. (at) school 30. music

11. loyal 31. (particular) events

12. statue 32. string

13. (possibly) count 33. 14 days

14. gentle (nature) 34. (a) fortnight/2 weeks/two weeks

15. donations/donors 35. six months

16. search and rescue 36. language

17. (international) database 37. retrieve/recall/recover

18. love their food/love food/love eating 38. (an) argument

19. 80 people 39. 70%

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20. in a team 40. 40%

Test 15

1. Mitchell 21. (course) booklists/reading list(s)

2. 66 22. recommended

3. Education 23. sales figures

4. 994578ED 24. year (group)

5. C 25. catalogues

6. B 26. letters/correspondence

7. B 27. inspection/free copies

8. A 28. value (for money)

9. C 29. clear/easy to use

10. A 30. easy to use/clear

11. fishing village 31. C

12. pine trees 32. A OR D IN EITHER ORDER

13. marshland/marsh(es) 33. A OR D IN EITHER ORDER

14. sunbeds and umbrellas 34. A

15. longest 35. B

16. flag system/flags 36. (a) competition(s)

17. north(-)west 37. design and print

18. white cliffs 38. styles/techniques

19. sand(-)banks 39. categories

20. food and drink 40. two/2 names

Test 16

1. Sun(day) 2nd July 21. C

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2. MARINA 22. A

3. 9.30 23. A

4. 1000 24. B

5. Hong Kong 25. Sydney

6. (team) captain 26. Frankfurt

7. parents' permission 27. A OR D IN EITHER ORDER

8. (20/twenty) life jackets 28. A OR D IN EITHER ORDER

9. clothes/clothing/set of clothes 29. B OR F IN EITHER ORDER

10. name 30. B OR F IN EITHER ORDER

11. stamps and coins 31. export/transit (overseas)

12. (shrill) call 32. food shortages

13. sense of smell 33. lasts longer/lasts much longer

14. fly 34. food-poisoning/poisoning

15. introduced animals 35. electricity/electricity supply/supply of

electricity/power

16. (scientific) research 36. chemical preservation/add (adding)

chemicals/using chemicals

17. global education 37. cheap to store

18. eggs (are) collected 38. (hot) soup

19. chicks (are) reared 39. (heated) belt

20. 5% to 85% 40. powdered soup/dried soup/dry sou

Test 17

1. 692411 21. 40 million

2. Rainbow Communications 22. dogs/the dog

3. white 23. only ate plants

4. two/2 boxes 24. Polar Bear

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5. light blue 25. Brown Bear

6. 10 packs/10 packets 26. Sun Bear

7. (coloured) floppy disks/computer

disks/discs/disks

27. Giant Panda

8. (a/one) wall calendar 28. Sloth Bear

9. (a/new) catalogue 29. B OR E IN EITHER ORDER

10. before 11.30/not after 11.30/by 11.30 30. B OR E IN EITHER ORDER

11. Royal Museum 31. C

12. Queen's Park Road/Rd 32. B

13. 10th Dec(ember) 33. C

14. metal work 34. B

15. (garden) 35. A

16. coloured stones 36. C

17. (white) paper 37. first person

18. Face to Face 38. (a)new element/helium

19. pencil drawing 39. (the) lost planet/(the) new

planet/Vulcan

20. all materials 40. gravity

Test 18

1. 75 21. A

2. wood 22. C

3. 15 23. B

4. cream 24. C

5. adjustable 25. B

6. cupboard 26. interests and style/ style and

interests

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7. doors 27. visuals

8. 95 28. range

9. Blake 29. source

10. B 30. content

11. cafe 31. B

12. 7:30 32. B

13. (the) disabled 33. A

14. birds 34. microclimate

15. (art) exhibitions 35. concentration

16. abstract 36. frost

17. designer 37. liquid

18. portraits 38. supercooling

19. two/2 years/yrs 39. Mars

20. photographs/photos 40. locations

Test 19

1. B 21. B

2. A 22. C

3. C 23. A

4. bus station 24. B

5. 450 25. A

6. noisy 26. organisation

7. Hills Avenue 27. definition

8. dining room 28. aims

9. modern 29. Key Skills

10. quiet 30. evidence

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11. Sundays 31. proficiency

12. 1998 32. learning

13. 100,000 33. social and economic

14. government 34. positive

15. research 35. adults

16. Conference Centre/Center 36. A

17. information desk 37. A

18. bookshop 38. B

19. King(’)s Library 39. C

20. stamp display 40. A

Test 20

1. 230 South Road 21. investigate

2. 18 22. sunny and warm

3. activities (and/&) workshops 23. change

4. 250 24. F

5. interactive 25. D

6. material 26. C

7. insurance 27. B

8. publicity 28. B. F, H (in any order)

9. programme 29. B. F, H (in any order)

10. not available/unavailable 30. B. F, H (in any order)

11. A 31. A, D (in either order)

12. C 32. A, D (in either order)

13. B 33. B

14. A 34. E

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15. C 35. 12000

16. B 36. minority

17. E 37. all

18. G 38. teachers

19. H 39. evaluation

20. C 40. poor

Test 21

1. 19.75 21. (the/their) technique

2. theme 22. (answering) (the/students') questions

3. quiet 23. (the/their) solutions

4. children 24. A

5. breakfast 25. B

6. (free) sky(-)dive 26. B

7. A 27. C

8. C 28. end

9. B 29. limitations

10. C 30. literature

11. B 31. safe

12. A 32. basic needs

13. C 33. local government

14. C 34. residents

15. B,C,E IN EITHER ORDER 35. economic

16. B,C,E IN EITHER ORDER 36. secondary school

17. B,C,E IN EITHER ORDER 37. films

18. 020 7562 4028 38. Women's Centre

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19. 27.50 39. skills

20. 3 hours/hrs 40. status

Test 22

1. B 21. northwest

2. A 22. spray

3. C 23. (a) (small) library

4. B 24. mountains

5. A 25. field observation

6. A 26. development

7. B 27. water

8. B, D, G in any order 28. market town

9. B, D, G in any order 29. national park

10. B, D, G in any order 30. dissertation

11. June 6th 31. requirements

12. 5000 32. private

13. transportation 33. attitudes

14. low levels 34. interviews

15. Commuter 35. B

16. plant trees 36. C

17. upgrade 37. B

18. border 38. B

19. clean(er) fuels 39. A

20. factories 40. C

Test 23

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1. Lower Green(e) Street/St 21. A

2. 01778 552387 22. B

3. field 23. B

4. van 24. D

5. Flyer 2000 25. G

6. blue 26. C

7. flat tyre/tire 27. E

8. 8/eight days 28. progress reviews

9. Hill Farm Estate 29. (critical) reflection

10. local 30. exhibition

11. fisherman 31. physical

12. six/6 months 32. instincts

13. captain 33. relief

14. education 34. (social) bonds

15. interpreter 35. power

16. sister cities 36. negative

17. Festival 37. release

18. I 38. hormones

19. B 39. immune system

20. E 40. bad dreams

Test 24

1. 2 weeks 21. C

2. family room 22. B

3. Shriver 23. A

4. Scotland 24. A

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5. 0131 99 46 5723 25. B

6. swimming 26. C

7. clean 27. B

8. too helpful 28. lectures

9. polite 29. diagram

10. bicycles 30. margin

11. welcome 31. bus station

12. 70 species 32. city

13. handfeed 33. mass tourism

14. farmyard 34. international business

15. exercise run 35. impression

16. B 36. areas

17. G 37. stress

18. E 38. roof

19. C 39. garden

20. H 40. energy

Test 25

1. oval 14. economist

2. blinds 15. dancing

3. stones 16. C

4. sugar cane 17. B

5. steep 18. B

6. heat 19. A

7. forest 20. A

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8. status 21. B

9. old people 22. C

10. pattern 23. A

11. Malaysian 24. C

12. 13 Anglesea 25. C

13. 040 422 9160

Test 26

1. Dress your Best 21. C

2. Kirby 22. B

3. 09356 788 545 23. A

4. charge 24. C

5. American Express 25. A

6. dark 26. B

7. glass desks 27. D OR E IN EITHER ORDER

8. TG 586 28. D OR E IN EITHER ORDER

9. yellow 29. A OR C IN EITHER ORDER

10. coffee table 30. A OR C IN EITHER ORDER

11. plan 31. rain shadow

12. on foot 32. few inches

13. sensible clothes 33. minerals

14. forecast 34. collect

15. volunteers 35. stem

16. accidents 36. expand

17. finish line 37. white hairs

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18. C 38. thorns

19. B 39. tough

20. E 40. plastic

Test 27

1. C 14. mobile phone

2. B 15. digital recorder

3. H 16. photo

4. E 17. organisation

5. A 18. letter

6. A OR D IN EITHER ORDER 19. local issue

7. A OR D IN EITHER ORDER 20. advertising

8. B, E (in either order) 21. pyramid

9. B, E (in either order) 22. quotations

10. D 23. figures

11. F 24. conclusion

12. E 25. headline

13. C

Test 28

1. 2 weeks 21. little stitches

2. 1750 22. functional

3. discount 23. wool

4. travel insurance 24. layers

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5. vegetarian meals 25. sea wave

6. visa 26. firemen

7. tree 27. farmer

8. family 28. rail travel

9. school 29. diamond

10. cars 30. collectors

11. C 31. Alexandrovna

12. A 32. Russian

13. C 33. dom54

14. B 34. full time

15. A 35. 21 of July

16. key terms 36. competition

17. animal world 37. cooking and swimming

18. contexts 38. children's tutor

19. stages 39. project manager

20. influences 40. friend

Test 29

1. MT4 7HV 21. B

2. full-time 22. C

3. voluntary work 23. A

4. no 24. A

5. immediately 25. B

6. Leisure Centre 26. animation

7. meals 27. eye contact

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8. 7 am-3 pm 28. wireless

9. disabled lady 29. memory aid

10. £6.80 30. questions

11. A 31. A

12. C 32. B

13. A 33. B

14. B 34. A

15. B 35. A

16. Box Office 36. B

17. Stage Door Cafe 37. B

18. Temporary Exhibition rooms 38. A/D/F

19. Studio 39. A/D/F

20. Cloakrooms 40. A/D/F

Test 30

1. 23rd July 21. definition

2. HEPWORTH 22. breakdown

3. 07968 355630 23. private

4. electricity 24. Europe

5. drain 25. destinations

6. SEW 47 26. competition

7. swimming pool 27. B EITHER E

8. laundry 28. B EITHER E

9. litter 29. B EITHER D

10. shower key 30. B EITHER D

11. E 31. forest

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12. A 32. Australia

13. D 33. clothing

14. F 34. fossil evidence

15. B 35. unknown

16. C 36. human hair

17. A 37. protection

18. packaging 38. toy lions

19. environment 39. long dark

20. creative 40. status symbol

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***All of the above tests were reproduced courtesy of Cambridge official practice test by Cambridge University

and Top Tips for IELTS by British Council.

Compiled by: Kawser Mahmud

Initiated by: IELTS SPIRIT

Proofread by: The Bible of IELTS book management Team.