Exam Name PGO - CET 2019 Total Questions 100 Questionsview.mahacet.org/mahacet/admin/news_document/PGO... · Total Questions PGO - CET 2019 100 Exam Name :: Questions 1. Erb’s paralysis

Total Questions

PGO - CET 2019

100

Exam Name :

:

Questions 1. Erb’s paralysis leads to loss of the following movements of upper limb:

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

Supination of the forearmA

Pronation of the forearmB

Adduction of the armC

Medial rotation of the armD

Questions 2. Which impression is seen on the mediastinal surface of the left lung


Marks 1

Arch of aortaA

Superior vena cavaB

Arch of azygos veinC

Inferior vena cavaD

Questions 3. Which of the following is the branch of the posterior cord of brachial plexus?


Marks 1

Medial pectoral nerveA

Musculocutaneous nerveB

Axillary nerveC

Lateral pectoral nerveD

Questions 4. Bipolar neurons are NOT seen in-


Marks 1

Olfactory epithelium of nasal cavityA

RetinaB

Sensory ganglion of cochlear nerveC

Anterior horn cellsD

Questions 5. All are monosynaptic reflexes EXCEPT


Marks 1

Ankle jerkA

Abdominal reflexB

Knee jerkC

Tricep jerkD

Questions 6. The conduction velocity in amyelinated fiber is directly related to-


Marks 1

Amount of axon branchingA

Length of FibreB

Diameter of FibreC

Diameter of dendritesD

Questions 7. Purkinje cells in cerebellum are-


Marks 1

Input cellsA

Output cellsB

InterneuronsC

Glial componentsD

Questions 8. Erythropoietin is increased in-


Marks 1

Blood lossA

ExerciseB

High altitudeC

StarvationD

Questions 9. Which of the following parameter is the best to assess renal glomerular function?


Marks 1

Urea clearanceA

Inulin clearanceB

Creatinine clearanceC

Para-amino hippurate clearanceD

Questions 10. Which one of the following is associated with ‘One carbon metabolism’?


Marks 1

Pyridoxal phosphateA

TetrahydrofolateB

Thiamine pyrophosphateC

BiocytinD

Questions 11. Understanding more about the forms of occupation enhances the ability of occupationaltherapist to deal with problems of -


Marks 1

Self-careA

WorkB

OccupationC

All of the aboveD

Questions 12. Treatment approach used for patient with long standing disability would be-


Marks 1

BiomechanicalA

NeurodevelopmentalB

RehabilitativeC

PsychosocialD

Questions 13. Short term goals while treating patient is established


Marks 1

By each professional & are specifically related to the expertise of that disciplineA

In collaboration with the patient & other members of the rehabilitation teamB

By patientC

By the patient's physicianD

Questions 14. TOWER work sample Test has all of the following occupational areas for assessment EXCEPT


Marks 1

LetteringA

PlumbingB

Mail ClerkC

DrawingD

Questions 15. The level of independence when the patient requires assistance with 50% of the task will be-


Marks 1

SupervisionA

Minimal AssistanceB

Moderate AssistanceC

Maximum AssistanceD

Questions 16. All of the following are principles of ADL compensation for Muscle Weakness EXCEPT


Marks 1

Activities performed in gravity assistA

Use of Powered toolsB

Heavy utensilsC

Increase Friction on toolsD

Questions 17. Safest anti-hypertensive in pregnancy induced hypertension is-


Marks 1

ClonidineA

PropranololB

Alpha Methyl dopaC

LosartanD

Questions 18. Choice of Diuretic in Pulmonary edema is-


Marks 1

AcetazolamideA

FrusemideB

HydrochlorthiazideC

MannitolD

Questions 19. Which of the following terms refer to a malignant tumor of mesenchymal origin:


Marks 1

Carcinoma.A

Hepatoma.B

Hematoma.C

Sarcoma.D

Questions 20. Cells most sensitive to hypoxia are


Marks 1

Myocardial cellsA

NeuronsB

HepatocytesC

Renal tubular epithelial cellsD

Questions 21. Negative staining is used to demonstrate -


Marks 1

FimbriaeA

FlagellaB

CapsuleC

Cell wallD

Questions 22. Vaccine stimulates our -


Marks 1

Active immunityA

Passive immunityB

Both Active and passive immunityC

Innate immunityD

Questions 23.

Vocational Training is an important factor during ____ period.


Marks 1

AdolescenceA

YouthB

InfancyC

Middle ageD

Questions 24. Intelligent Quotient (IQ) is calculated by using following formula:


Marks 1

MA/CA*100A

CA/MA*100B

(MA+CA)/MA*100C

(MA+CA)/CA*100D

Questions 25. Hallucination is a disorder of -


Marks 1

thoughtA

perceptionB

impulseC

ideaD

Questions 26. The Most common hallucination in schizophrenia is -


Marks 1

AuditoryA

VisualB

OlfactoryC

TactileD

Questions 27.

‘Calcanel gait’, pattern characterized by greater than normal amounts of dorsiflexion and kneeflexion during stance phase and a shorter than normal step length on affected side, is seen inweakness of ____ muscles:


Marks 1

Dorsiflexors of ankleA

Plantarflexors of ankleB

Knee extensorsC

knee flexorsD

Questions 28. The linear forces mainly cause-


Marks 1

Floating effectA

Directional effectB

Tension effectC

Rotational effect.D

Questions 29.

The ratio of the effort arm to the resistance arm is known as-


Marks 1

Mechanical efficiencyA

Mechanical advantageB

Mechanical energyC

Mechanical disadvantageD

Questions 30. During locking of knee joint in a closed chain motion, the motion of femur -


Marks 1

extends on the tibiaA

slides and then rolls on the tibiaB

extends and medially rotates on the tibiaC

only rolls on the tibia.D

Questions 31. The trick movement used in ulnar nerve palsy to substitute for interosseous action is done by-


Marks 1

Extensor pollicis longusA

Flexor digitorum profundusB

Extensor digitorumC

Extensor indicesD

Questions 32. Jean Piaget identified the following categories of plays EXCEPT


Marks 1

PracticeA

SymbolicB

DramaticC

ConstructionalD

Questions 33. Which of the following is NOT an indication for functional cast bracing?


Marks 1

Fracture of long bonesA

Intra-articular fracturesB

Patients with minimal displacementC

Patients without sensory lossD

Questions 34. In assembly subtest of Purdue pegboard scoring is done by counting ---


Marks 1

Number of PinsA

Number of CollarsB

Number of complete assembly onlyC

Number of parts assembledD

Questions 35. The motor relearning program is founded upon all of the following areas EXCEPT


Marks 1

theories of learning and motivationA

theories of behaviourB

research in human movement scienceC

research in motor skill acquisitionD

Questions 36. “Maturation is the primary influence of growth and development due to innate and endogenousfactors” was emphasized by


Marks 1

Erik EriksonA

Sigmund FreudB

Jean PiagetC

Arnold GesellD

Questions 37. Magnesium level in blood increases in --


Marks 1

Uncontrolled DMA

Liver cirrhosisB

Kidney failureC

Chronic alcoholismD

Questions 38. Loud S1 in mitral stenosis is seen in-


Marks 1

Prolonged flow through mitral valveA

1st degree heart blockB

Calcification of the valveC

Immobilization of the valveD

Questions 39. Which one of the following does not cause pulsus paradoxus?


Marks 1

Severe aortic regurgitationA

Cardiac tamponadeB

Constrictive pericarditisC

Acute severe bronchial asthmaD

Questions 40.

Alzheimer’s disease, true is all EXCEPT


Marks 1

Anterograde amnesiaA

DysdiadochokinesiaB

Receptive aphasiaC

Absence of Recognition of familiar facesD

Questions 41. Punch drunk state is associated with --


Marks 1

AlcoholismA

ChoreaB

ParkinsonismC

Alzheimer’s diseaseD

Questions 42.

Which vaccine is NOT given in AIDS patients -


Marks 1

DPTA

BCGB

RabiesC

MeaslesD

Questions 43. Delayed wound healing in diabetes mellitus is due to--


Marks 1

impaired collagen synthesisA

decreased tensile strengthB

impaired fibroblastic reactionC

all of aboveD

Questions 44.

The most common cause of surgical wound infection is--


Marks 1

Staph.aureusA

StreptococcusB

PseudomonasC

AnaerobesD

Questions 45. Deep skin burns is treated with


Marks 1

Split thickness graftA

Full thickness graftB

Amniotic membraneC

Synthetic skin derivativesD

Questions 46. Commonest site of fracture leading to fat embolism -


Marks 1

Tibia fractureA

Humerus fractureB

Femur fractureC

Ulna fractureD

Questions 47. The pathognomonic sign of traumatic fracture is--


Marks 1

CrepitusA

RednessB

SwellingC

TendernessD

Questions 48. Decreased mineralization of Epiphyseal plate in a growing child is seen in -


Marks 1

RicketsA

OsteomalaciaB

ScurvyC

OsteoporosisD

Questions 49. Following are the examples of non rigid environment EXCEPT


Marks 1

AgeA

WatchB

HeatC

NoiseD

Questions 50. The relationship of Stimuli & Response to human expectation is-


Marks 1

CompatibilityA

ControlsB

Phasing of trailsC

Transfer of trainingD

Questions 51.

Which of the following is NOT a Cluster A Personality Disorder?


Marks 1

SchizoidA

NarcissisticB

ParanoidC

SchizotypalD

Questions 52. Which of the following is more commonly associated with Anorexia Nervosa?


Marks 1

Social PhobiaA

DepressionB

Obsessive Compulsive DisorderC

Delusional DisorderD

Questions 53. Which of the following is used for the treatment of Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder(ADHD) in children?


Marks 1

ModafinilA

ClozapineB

AmitriptylineC

MethylphenidateD

Questions 54. Neologism is disorder of:


Marks 1

Thought ContentA

Thought FormB

Thought StreamC

Thought PossessionD

Questions 55.

According to the American College of Rheumatology Classification of Global Functioning Status inpatients with Rheumatoid Arthritis, when a patient is “limited in ability to perform usual self-care,vocational, and avocational activities”, it is classified as the______class.


Marks 1

IA

IIB

IIIC

IVD

Questions 56. Flexion of the PIP joint and hyperextension of the DIP joint is a characteristic of the followingdeformity--


Marks 1

BoutonniereA

Swan neckB

MalletC

TriggorD

Questions 57.

According to New York Association Functional Classification, the category that includes patientswith cardiac disease resulting in marked limitation in physical activity is classified as ____ class.


Marks 1

IA

IIB

IIIC

IVD

Questions 58. One MET is equal to oxygen consumption of-


Marks 1

3.5 ml of oxygen/kg/minA

4.0 ml of oxygen/kg/minB

2.5 ml of oxygen/kg/minC

5.0 ml of oxygen/kg/minD

Questions 59. The 2 primary methods of achieving exercise goals in a cardiac patient are-


Marks 1

Continuous and discontinuous exerciseA

Strenuous exerciseB

Light exerciseC

Heavy exerciseD

Questions 60. In RA the common deformity seen in the wrist is-


Marks 1

Wrist flexion and radial deviationA

Wrist extension and radial deviationB

Wrist flexion and ulnar deviationC

Wrist extension and ulnar deviationD

Questions 61. Disadvantage of PTB-SC (patellar tendon bearing – supra condylar) prosthesis is--


Marks 1

Less Medio lateral stabilityA

Less Antero posterior stabilityB

Less Postero lateral stabilityC

All of the aboveD

Questions 62. During prehensile drill for UE prosthesis following sequence should be followed EXCEPT


Marks 1

Hard to softA

Soft to hardB

Gross to fineC

Geometrical shapes to uneven shapesD

Questions 63.

_____ is flexor tendon Zone which coincides with carpal Tunnel Zone.


Marks 1

IIIA

IVB

VC

VID

Questions 64. Average period of immobilisation for most split thickness skin grafting done for burns wound is:


Marks 1

1-2 daysA

3-5 daysB

5-7 daysC

7-10 daysD

Questions 65. In Erb- Duchene’s obstetrical Brachial plexus injury, there is involvement of the following roots:


Marks 1

C5-C6A

C6-C7B

C7-C8C

C8-T1D

Questions 66. Posterior Interosseous nerve palsy is distinguished from high radial nerve palsy by preservationof the following muscle


Marks 1

BrachioradialisA

Extensor carpi ulnarisB

Extensor digitorumC

Extensor pollicis longusD

Questions 67. A comprehensive battery to test that yields objective measures regarding client's current levelof function & their abilities to perform work related tasks is


Marks 1

Work conditioningA

Work capacity evaluationB

Work sample testC

Functional Capacity evaluationD

Questions 68. All of the following comprise of variables included in human environment EXCEPT


Marks 1

Identity of personA

Biophysical StatusB

Cognitive skillsC

Temporal AdaptationD

Questions 69. The RUMBA test was originated by the AOTA as a method used in


Marks 1

DocumentationA

InterventionB

ResearchC

Quality AssuranceD

Questions 70. Whirpool is an example of


Marks 1

ConductionA

ConversionB

ConvectionC

ConnectionD

Questions 71. All of the following are progressive phases in physiologic stages during sexual response cycleEXCEPT


Marks 1

ExcitementA

PlateauB

VolitionC

ResolutionD

Questions 72. A home based therapist must assess the following during a home visit:


Marks 1

Impact of the child’s disability on family dynamicsA

Inter-relationship of performance componentsB

Provide emotional support to the care giversC

Enhance child’s developmentD

Questions 73. The most common type of subluxation in a hemiplegic patient is-


Marks 1

AnteriorA

PosteriorB

InferiorC

SuperiorD

Questions 74. The stereotyped mass movement patterns are called-


Marks 1

Limb synergiesA

Reflex patternsB

Motor patternsC

Isolated movement patternsD

Questions 75. Treatment protocols for motor behavior problems emphasize using


Marks 1

Repetitive movementsA

Passive movementsB

Functional tasksC

Active movementsD

Questions 76. The neuro-developmental treatment was developed by


Marks 1

Carr & ShepherdA

Bobath & B. BobathB

Margaret Rood’sC

BrunnstromD

Questions 77. In stage i to ii of Brunnstrom the basic limb synergies are elicited using:


Marks 1

ReflexesA

Passive movementsB

SplintageC

PositioningD

Questions 78. The infants first behavior of becoming mobile and exploring the environment is


Marks 1

CreepingA

RollingB

Pivot proneC

CrawlingD

Questions 79. A wrist driven wrist hand orthoses is indicated in clients having wrist extensor strength


Marks 1

2 or greaterA

2+ or greaterB

3 or greaterC

3+ or greaterD

Questions 80.

Patient above this level of spinal cord lesion requires lifelong attendant for his ADL


Marks 1

C3A

C4B

C5C

C6D

Questions 81. Following tendons are used for reconstruction of medial collateral ligament of the Knee Joint


Marks 1

Semi tendinosis, semi membranosis, gracialisA

Sartorius, gracialis , semimembranosisB

Sartorius, semitendinosis, gracialisC

Sartorius, adductor magnus, semi membranosisD

Questions 82. In Ankylosing Spondylitis, the first joint to be affected is


Marks 1

AnkleA

HipB

Sacro iliacC

KneeD

Questions 83. The most common position of dislocation for shoulder joint is


Marks 1

AnteriorA

InferiorB

PosteriorC

Antero inferiorD

Questions 84. Following closed reduction in anterior shoulder dislocation, external rotation beyond this degreeshould be prevented


Marks 1

35A

40B

45C

50D

Questions 85. These muscles act during screw movement of the knee joint is


Marks 1

Hamstrings, gastrocnemiusA

Gastrocnemius, popliteusB

Popliteus, quadricepsC

Quadriceps, soleusD

Questions 86. All of the following behavior are associated with impaired decision making EXCEPT-


Marks 1

AmbivalenceA

DependenceB

IndecisivenessC

AssertivenessD

Questions 87. ‘La-bella indifference’ is seen in which of the following disorder--


Marks 1

HysteriaA

Pain disorderB

Conversion disorderC

Panic disorderD

Questions 88. To develop interest and stimulate co-ordinated movements in children with Intellectual disability,which of the following method is MOST used—


Marks 1

Encourage delicate movement.A

Skipping exerciseB

Improving fine motor co-ordinationC

Dancing to musicD

Questions 89.

As identified by Mosey, all of the following elements should be present for therapeutic use of self,EXCEPT-


Marks 1

HumorA

Perception of individualityB

Authoritative behaviorC

Respect for dignityD

Questions 90. The use of ‘trial and error learning’ and ‘inductive reasoning’, is part of which stage of allen’scognitive levels-


Marks 1

Level 3 -manual actionsA

Level 4-goal directed actionsB

Level 5-exploratory actionsC

Level 6-planned actionsD

Questions 91. The process by which a patient discovers a correct sequence of alternatives leading to the goal,is termed as-


Marks 1

CompetencyA

Problem solvingB

Social skillC

Decision makingD

Questions 92. Use of ‘bio-feedback’ is based on which of the frame of reference-


Marks 1

Behavioral forA

Moho forB

Developmental forC

Cognitive disability forD

Questions 93.

Following are the examples of direct selection method to control assistive technology devicesEXCEPT


Marks 1

Computer keyboardA

Phone number padB

Pressing the TV channel numberC

Mouth stickD

Questions 94.

Following are the principles of Community Based Rehab EXCEPT-


Marks 1

Delivered highly specialized servicesA

Change appropriate to adapt to disabilityB

Transfer appropriate knowledgeC

Increase level of knowledgeD

Questions 95. Following is the advantage of giving gel filled cushion in the wheelchair.


Marks 1

Temperature sensitiveA

Self-contouringB

Heavy to moveC

Light weightD

Questions 96. The following budget varies from one institute to other depending completely on the policy ofthe organization EXCEPT.


Marks 1

Development budgetA

Personal budgetB

Revenue & expense budgetC

Student education budgetD

Questions 97. A gap between person’s capability and the demand of their environment is called as


Marks 1

InabilityA

DisabilityB

ImpairmentC

HandicapD

Questions 98. Which of the following is the first step in starting the research process?


Marks 1

Searching sources of information to locate problem.A

Survey of related literatureB

Identification of problemC

Searching for solutions to the problemD

Questions 99. The essential qualities of a researcher are


Marks 1

Spirit of free enquiryA

Reliance on observation and evidenceB

Systematization or theorizing of knowledgeC

All the aboveD

Questions 100. Which data presentation method is used to depict the relationship between two quantitativevariables,


Marks 1

Dot mapsA

Road mapB

Scatter diagramC

Line diagramD

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Exam Name PGO - CET 2019 Total Questions 100 Questionsview.mahacet.org/mahacet/admin/news_document/PGO... · Total Questions PGO - CET 2019 100 Exam Name :: Questions 1. Erb’s paralysis