Exam Models (343)

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EXAM MODELS

EXAM I

KING SAUD UNIVERSITYCOLLEGE OF PHARMACYDEPARTMENT OF PHARMACOLOGY

SECOND MID-TERM EXAMINATIONOPTO 343- OCULAR DRUGS AND PHARMACOLOGY

_____________________________________________________________

STUDENT NAME:

STUDENT ID NUMBER: ______________________________________________________________

WRITE THE LETTER (A) FOR TRUE STATEMENT AND LETTER (B)FOR FALSE STATEMENT

1.Cyclopentolate is an atropine substitute that can be used in cycloplegic

refractions and treatment of Uveitis. (A(

2.Miosis is a medical term for constriction of pupil that can be induced byphenyephrine. (B(

3.Clouded vision is sometimes the first sign of glaucoma. (B(

4.When a child born with defects that slow fluid drainage from the eye, thecondition is termed Congenital glaucoma. (A(

5.Carbonic anhydrase inhibitorsr reduce bicarbonate production in the ciliary

epithelium and are the first-line agents in glaucoma therapy. (A(

6.Carteolol reduces IOP via enhancement of aqueous humor outflow. (B(

7.Pilocarpine helps to eliminate obstructed aqueous humor flow (A.(

8(Atropine produces mydriasis, cycloplegia, and loss of light reflex. (A(

9.Carbachol causes spasm of accommodation. (A(

10.PG analogues as Latanoprost help lower IOP by increasing uveoscleraloutflow. (A(

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27.EMLA is a combination of lidocaine and prilocaine that can be used toenable painless veinpuncture and placement of IV cannula. (A(

28.The analgesic effect of NSAIDs is considerable in severe ischemic andvisceral pain. (B(

29.Acetaminophen has significant anti-inflammatory properties. (B(

30.Coxibs can be considered as true COX-2 selective inhibitors. (A(

31.NSAIDs reduce elevated body temperature as well as normal one. (B(

32.NSAIDs inhibit both early and late phases of inflammatory reaction. (B(

33.Hypersensitivity to aspirin is not a contraindication to the therapy with anyNSAIDs. (B(

34.The Rey's syndrome occurs with aspirin mainly in children or youngadults. (A.(

35.Inhibition of COX-3 could represent a primary central mechanism by whichaspirin decreases pain and fever. (B(

36.Corticosteroids are usually indicated in Herpes simplex of the eye. (B(

37.Chronic administration of corticosteroids results in posterior capsular cataracts. (A(

38.The steroid having the greatest anti-inflammatory potency is cortisone. (B(

39.The steroid having the greatest salt-retaining activity is prednisolone. (B(

40.Regular urine test for sugar and regular blood pressure measurement areamong the precautions to be taken during high dose long-term corticosteroid

therapy. (A.(

BEST WISHES AND GOOD LUCK

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EXAM II

QUESTIONS & ANSWERS

Q: List five common glucocorticoids.A: 1. Hydrocortisone

A: 2. Predisone

A: 3. Triamcinolone

A: 4. Dexamethasone

A: 5. Beclomethasone

Q: What are five possible toxic effects of Aspirin therapy?

A: 1. Gastric ulcerationA: 2. Bleeding

A: 3. Hyperventilation

A: 4. Reye's syndrome

A: 5. Tinnitus (CN VIII)

Q: What are four clinical activities of Aspirin?

A: 1. Antipyretic

A: 2. AnalgesicA: 3. Anti-inflammatory

A: 4. Antiplatelet drug.

Q: What are four clinical uses of glucocorticoids?

A: 1. Addison's disease

A: 2. Inflammation

A: 3. Immune suppression

A: 4. Asthma

Q: What are nine findings of Iatrogenic Cushing's syndrome

caused by glucocorticoid therapy?

A: 1. Buffalo hump

A: 2. Moon facies

A: 3. Truncal obesity

A: 4. Muscle wasting

A: 5. Thin skinA: 6. Easy bruisability

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A: 7. Osteoporosis

A: 8. Adrenocortical atrophy. A: 9. Peptic ulcers

Q: What are three clinical uses of the NSAIDs?

A: 1. Antipyretic

A: 2. Analgesic

A: 3. Anti-inflammatory

Q: What are three common NSAIDS other than Aspirin?

A: Ibuprofen, Naproxen, and Indomethacin

Q: What are three possible toxicities of NSAID usage?

A: 1. Renal damageA: 2. Aplastic anemia

A: 3. GI distress

Q: What are two conditions in which COX-2 inhibitors might be

used?

A: Rheumatoid and osteoarthritis.

Q: What are two processes Corticosteroids inhibit leading todecreased inflammation?

A: 1. Phospholipase A2 is prevented from releasing arachidonic

acid

A: 2. Decreases protein synthesis thus lowering amount of

Cyclooxygenase enzymes

Q: What is a possible result of overdose of Acetaminophen?

A: Overdose produces hepatic necrosis; acetaminophenmetablolite depletes glutathione and forms toxic tissue adducts

in liver .

Q: What is the category of drug names ending in -azol (e.g.

Ketoconazole(

A: Antifungal.

Q: What is the category of drug names ending in -caine (e.g.

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Lidocaine(

A: Local anesthetic.

Q: What is the category of drug names ending in -cillin (e.g.

Methicillin(

A: Penicillin.

Q: What is the category of drug names ending in -cycline (e.g.

Tetracycline(

A: Antibiotic, protein synthesis inhibitor .

Q: What is the clincial use for Misoprostol?

A: Prevention of NSAID-induced peptic ulcers, maintains aPDA.

Q: What is the mecanism of action of the COX-2 inhibitors

(celecoxib, rofecoxib?(

A: Selectively inhibit cyclooxygenase (COX) isoform 2, which

is found in inflammatory cells nad mediates inflammation and

pain; spares COX-1 which helps maintain the gastric mucosa.

Q: What is the mechanism of action of Acetaminophen?

A: Reversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase, mostly in CNS.

Inactivated peripherally.

Q: What is the mechanism of action of Aspirin?

A: Acetylates and irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase (COX I

and COX II) to prevent the conversion of arachidonic acid to

prostaglandins.

Q: What is the mechanism of action of NSAIDs other than

Aspirin?

A: Reversibly inhibit cyclooxygenase (COX I and COX II).

Block prostaglandin synthesis.

Q: What is the mechanism of action of the glucocorticoids?

A: Decrease the production of leukotrienes and protaglandins by

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inhibiting phospholipase A2 and expression of COX-2.

Q: What is the specific clinical use of Indomethacin in

neonates?

A: Indomethacin is used to close a patent ductus arteriosus.

Q: What type of patient should not take Misoprostol and why?

A: Misoprostol is contraindicated in women of childbearing

potential because it is an abortifacient.

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EXAM III

King Saud UniversityCollege of Pharmacy

Department of Pharmacology

Final ExaminationBMT 343-ocular Drugs and Pharmacology

Student Name

Student ID Number:

PART I

SELECT THE MOST APPROPRIATE ANSWER

1. Phase I biotransformation reactions include all of the following EXCEPT:A) OxidationB) ReductionC) Glucuronidation**D) Hydrolysis

2. Disadvantages of oral administration include all of the following EXCEPT:A) Destruction by gastrointestinal enzymesB) Unsuitable in patients with vomiting or diarrhea

C) Requires larger dose than by injectionD) Lower incidence of adverse reactions**

3. Advantages of IV route of administration include all of the followingEXCEPT:A) No recall**B) No absorption problemsC) Immediate onset of actionD) Exact dose enters the blood

4. Non compliance usually occurs in:A) Lonely patients

B) At extremes of ageC) In presence of psychiatric and chronic diseaseD) All of the above **

5. Volume of distribution of the drug (Vd):A) Is inversely proportional to the clearance of a drugB) Is large if the drug remains in plasmaC) Is the volume of extracellular fluid in which the drug is in solutionD) Measures the extravscular tissue uptake of the drug**

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6. All of the following statements are correct EXCEPT:A) OTC drugs could be purchased without prescriptionB) With parenteral routes, preparation must be sterile and free of pyrogensC) When a drug is given intravenously, first pass metabolism does not occur D) The protein-bound drug is the therapeutically active portion**

7. All of the following statements are incorrect EXCEPT:A) With the use of drugs in elderly, adverse drug reactions are less commonB) Anaphylactic reactions are classified as type III allergic reactionsC) The oppsition between two medications or more is known as synergismD) Drugs which are highly lipid soluble are readily absorbed from the GIT**

8. All of the following statements are correct EXCEPT:A) Placebo is an inert substance given just to please the patientB) The dose is the main factor that can modify drug actionC) Vial is designed for a single usage**D) Complexity of drug regimen causes non-compliance

9. Potency of the drug can be defined as:A) The amount of drug in relation to its effect **B) The capacity of the drug to produce maximal effect.C) The need to increase the dose to obtain the original effect.D) Genetically-determine variations in drug response.

10. All of the following statements are correct EXCEPT:A) Anaphylaxis is an immunologically-mediated drug reaction observed soon after drug administrationB) Tachyphylaxis is a rapid reduction in the effect of a given dose of a drug after onlyone or two doses

C) Pharmacogenetic defects appear spontaneous or revealed after administration of certain drugs**D) Tolerance is reduction in the effectiveness of a given drug after repeatedadministration

11. The following drug may undergo abnormal metabolism in some patientsdue to genetic variation:A) PilocarpineB) AtropineC) Isoniazid**D) Mannitol

12. Clinically important drug interactions occur with the following patientsEXCEPT:A) Severly ill patientsB) Patients at extremes of ageC) Patients with normal liver and kidney functions**D) Patients receiving multiple drugs

13. The ability of some drugs to produce fetal abnormalities when given earlyin pregnancy is termed:A) AllergyB) CarcinogenecityC) Teratogenicity**D) Idiosyncrasy

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14. Which of the following statements concerning characteristics of routes of drug administration is INCORRECT?A) Oral administration is suitable for unconscious patients**B) Sublingual administration avoids first-pass metabolismC) Intramuscular administration requires sterile techniqueD) Rectal route is suitable for young children

15. Conjugation of a drug with glucuronic acid:A) Increases its water solubility**B) Is an example of a phase I biotransformation reactionsC) Occurs in the same rate in adults and in the newbornD) Usually results in increased activity of the drug

16. Drug bound to plasma protein is:A) Therapeutically activeB) Diffusible through capillary wallC) A store from which free drug can be released**

D) Excreted by glomerular filtration

17. The capacity of the drug to produce maximal effect is termed:A) SafetyB) Efficacy**C) PotencyD) Allergy

18. An inherent qualitatively abnormal reaction to a drug due to geneticabnormality is termed:A) AllergyB) Idiosyncrasy**

C) Angioneurotic edemaD) Urticaria

19. Calculated by comparison of the AUC after IV dosage with that obtainedwhen the same dose is given by another route:A) ClearanceB) Volume of distributionC) Half-lifeD) Bioavailability**

20. Calculated by dividing the amount of drug in the body over its plasma

concentration:A) ClearanceB) Volume of distribution**C) Half-lifeD) Bioavailability

21. Calculated by dividing the dose administered by the area under the timeconcentration curve:A) Clearance**B) Volume of distributionC) Half-lifeD) Bioavailability

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22. Tropicamide:A) Induces dilation of the pupilB) Used to permit examination of retina and other deep structures of the eyeC) Used to reduce painful ciliary muscle spasmD) All of the above are true with tropicamide**

23. Regarding cycloplegics, all of the following are correct EXCEPT:A. Dilate the pupilB) Block accommodationC) Used during eye exams and operationsD) Phenyephrine is an example of cycloplegic drugs**

24. Regarding antiglaucoma drugs:A) Mannitol pulls fluid out of tissuesB) Timolol suppresses secretion of aqueous humor and may cause bradycardiaC) Acetazolamide decreases production of aqueous humor D) All of the above are true**

25. Miosis is a medical term for constriction of pupil. It can be induced by all of the following drugs EXCEPT:A) Morphine.B) HaloperidolC) CarbacholD) Phenylephrine**

26. The following is sometimes the first sign of glaucoma:A) Red eyesB) Clouded visionC) Eye pain

D) Impaired vision**

27. Atropine produces all of the following effects EXCEPT:A) MydriasisB) CycloplegiaC) Reduction of IOP**D) Loss of light reflex

28. The following are true EXCEPT:A) Atropine produces passive mydriasisB) Phenylephrine produces active mydriasisC) Carbachol causes spasm of accommodation

D) Cyclopentolate decreases aqueous humor production **

29. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors:A) The first-line agents in glaucoma therapyB) Should be used immediately during the initial interventionC) Reduce bicarbonate production in the ciliary epitheliumD) All of the above are true statements**

30. All of the following statemwents are correct EXCEPT:A) Acetazolamide acts by direct inhibition of CA enzyme on ciliary epithelium.B) Carteolol is a non-selective beta blocker C) Apraclonidine is a selective α2 agonistD) Latanoprost is atropine substitute**

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31. Vasoconstrictors are often added to local anesthetics to:A) Increase systemic absorptionB) Minimize bradycardiaC) Prolong the duration of action**D) Prevent hypotension

32. The following local anesthetic can be used for topical application only:A) LidocaineB) ProcaineC) MepivacaineD) Benzocaine**

33. The following is an amide -type local anesthetic with long duration of action:A) ProcaineB) TetracaineC) Bupivacaine**

D) Mepivacaine

34. Contraindications of local anesthetics include all EXCEPT:A) Cardiac diseaseB) Severe hepatic dysfunctionC) Diabetes mellitusD) None of the above**

35. With infiltration anesthesia, all of the following are correct EXCEPT:A) The LA is injected directly into tissueB) Most local anesthetic drugs are used in infiltration anesthesiaC) Epinephrine is often added

D) Used safely with tissues supplied by end arteries as fingers and nose**

36. Main risks of spinal anesthesia include all of the following EXCEPT:A) Bradycardia and hypotensionB) Respiratory depressionC) Venous thrombosis**D) Postoperative urinary retension

37. Dose limits for prilocaine should be strictly observed because of:A) HypotensionB) ThrombosisC) Methemoglobinemia**

D) Migraine

38. Topical anesthesia in the form of EMLA is commonly used in:A) Painless veinpunctureB) Placement of IV cannulaC) Ascites drainageD) All of the above

39. With local anesthetics, all of the following are true EXCEPT:A) Allergic reactions are more likely to occur in ester type than in amide type.B) Chronic use of NSAIDs decreases the efficacy of local anestheticsC) Esters are completely metabolized by liver by P450 system**D) Amides are distributed in highly perfused organs as brain, heart, and liver

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40. Treatment of allergic conjunctivitis includes:A) Topical antihistaminics as emedastine difumarateB) Mast cell stabilizers as lodoxamide trimethamineC) Topical steroid preparations as loteprednolD) All of the above**

41. With the use of topical ester steroid drops, all are true EXCEPT:A) Monitor IOP if used for more than 10 daysB) Long-term use is associated with cataractsC) Suspect fungal invasion in any persistent corneal ulcerationD) Used freely without any caution in hypertensive patients**

42. Concerning conjunctivitis, all are true EXCEPT:A) There is no effective treatment for viral conjunctivitisB) In chlamydia conjunctivitis, children can be treated with tetracycline**C) Eye discharge of bacterial conjunctivitis is generally thick and coloredD) A severe form of conjunctivitis accompanies erythema multiform

43. The mechanism of action of antibacterial agents is as stated EXCEPT:A) Erythromycin blocks bacterial protein synthesisB) Trimethoprim competitively inhibits the incorporation of PABA into DHFA**C) Chloramphenicol inhibits peptide bond formation during bacterial protein synthesisD) Ampicillin inhibits the formation of peptides cross-linkage during bacterial cell wallsynthesis

44. Which of the following conditions is not desirable for an ideal antibiotic?A) To be distributed in all tissue fluids at effective concentrationsB) To have a prolonged duration of actionC) To have bacteria not develop resistance to it

D) To be bactericidal rather than bacteriostatic**

45. Calcium salts inhibit the intestinal absorption of the following agent:A) ChloramphenicolB) ErythromycinC) Tetracyclines**D) Phenoxymethylpenicillin

46. Allergic reactions to penicillin:A) In an individual indicates that a cephalosporin may be safely givenB) Can be relied on to disappear spontaneously with passage of timeC) In healthy people should always be managed by an attempt at hyposensitization

D) May take the form of anaphylactic shock which can be fatal**

47. Resistance to penicillin can be caused by which of the following?A) Amidase activityB) Decarboxylase activityC) Beta-lactamase (penicillinase) activity**D) Lack of specific receptor

48. Clavulanic acid is important because it:A) Easily penetrates gram-negative organismsB) is specific for gram-positive organismsC) Inactivates bacterial beta-lactamase**D) Has a spectrum of activity similar to penicillin G

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49. All of the following are second-generation cephalosporins EXCEPT:A) Cefaclor B) Cephalexin**C) CefuroximeD) Cefotetan

50. All of the following statements are correct EXCEPT:A) Chloramphenicol can cause depression of bone marrow functionsB) Calcium-fortified products can be used safely when taking fluoroquinolones **C) Erythromycin estolate can cause cholestatic hepatirisD) Cutaneous infection with candida albicans may be treated by miconazole cream

51. All of the following statements are correct EXCEPT:A) Amoxicillin with clavulanic acid is a useful treatment for preseptal cellulitesB) Pyrimethamine: prescribed for cases of active ocular toxoplasmosisretinochoroiditisC) Azithromycin should be avoided in chlamydial conjunctivitis**

D) Doxycycline is commonly used for blepharitis

52. Potential serious side-effects associated with cephalosporins include:A) Hypersensitivity reactionsB) Pseudomembraneous colitisC) HypoprothrombinemiaD) All of the above**

53. Concerning Co-trimoxazole, all of the following are incorrect EXCEPT:A) Is a combination of trimethoprim and clavulanic acidB) Is more effective in purulent infectionsC) Is more effective against gram-negative organisms

D) The second choice antibiotic for cases of preseptal cellulites or lacrimal infectionsin patients who have contraindications to other antibiotics **

54. Concerning fluoroquinolones, all of the following are true EXCEPT:A) Fluoroquinolones are bacteriostatic antibiotics**B) Fluoroquinolones block bacterial DNA gyrase essential for DNA synthesisC) Ciprofloxacin is a common fluoroquinolone prescribed for urinary tract infectionsD) Resistance to fluoroquinolones has been growing in recent years

55. Regarding acyclovir, all of the following statements are true EXCEPT:A) The first oral antiviral drug approved for herpetic infectionsB) Acyclovir disrupts viral DNA synthesis in infected host cells

C) Because of acyclovir’s long half-life, it must be taken once a day for initialinfectionsD) Before prescribing, determine if a patient has any renal, hepatic, neurologicalproblems or hypoxia

56. Concerning morphine, all of the following are true EXCEPT:A) Causes papillary constrictionB) Should be avoided in bronchial asthmaC) Undergoes significant first-pass metabolismD) Used safely during pregnancy**

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57. Concerning codeine, all of the following are correct EXCEPT:A) Is a useful antitussiveB) Is partially metabolized into morphine in the bodyC) Is effective as analgesic as morphine**D) Is widely used in fixed-ratio combinations

58. Concerning analgesic effect of morphine:A) Continuous dull pain is relieved more effectively than shooting, intermittent painB) Nociceptive pain is effectively relievedC) Neuropathic pain often responds poorly to opioidsD) All of the above statements are true**

59. Psychological effects of opioids include:A) A foggy sensationB) Euophoria, more common when opiods are given to a patient with pain or to addictC) A "Kick" or "thrill" sensation when given to an addict by rapid IV injectionD) All of the above**

60. Opioid resistant pains include all of the following EXCEPT:A) Post-herpetic neuralgiaB) Tension headacheC) Chronic pain due to terminal illness and cancer**D) Increased intracranial pressure

61. Concerning naloxone, all of the following are true EXCEPT:A) Is a competitive opiod antagonistB) Is an effective treatment of opioid overdoseC) Has a long duration of action than naltrexone**D) Has an extensive first-pass effect

62. Adverse effects of an opioid analgesic include all of the following EXCEPT:A) Urinary retensionB) Diarrhea**C) DysphoriaD) Constriction of bronchial smooth muscle

63. Contraindications of morphine include all of the following EXCEPT:A) Chronic obstructive pulmonary diseaseB) Myocardial infarction**C) Prostatic hypertrophyD) Biliary colic

64. The analgesic effect of NSAIDs:A) Is evident in pain due to arthritis, surgery and toothache**B) Is considerable in severe ischemic and visceral painC) Undergoes toleranceD) Its intensity is greater than that obtained by opioids

65. The following drug lacks significant anti-inflammatory activity:A) IndomethacinB) Acetaminophen**C) PiroxicamD) Phenylbutazone

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66. All of the following statements are correct EXCEPT:A) Hypersensitivity to aspirin is a contraindication to the therapy with any NSAIDsB) Chronic salicylate administration increases the incidence of duodenal ulcersC) The risk of analgesic nephropathy increases with the use of analgesiccombinationsD) Aspirin can be used safely in viral febrile illness in children**

67. Rofecoxib can be considered:A) True COX-2 selective inhibitor**B) Relatively selective COX-2 inhibitor C) Relatively selective COX-1 inhibitor D) Non-selective COX inhibitor

68. Corticosteroids are usually indicated in all of the following EXCEPT:A) Herpes simplex of the eye**B) Status asthmaticusC) Nephrotic syndrome

D) Collagen disease

69. Chronic administration of corticosteroids results in all EXCEPT:A) Increased susceptibility to infectionB) Hyperkalemia**C) HypertensionD) Posterior capsular cataracts

70. The steroid having the greatest anti-inflammatory potency is:A) CortisoneB) PrednisoloneC) Dexamethazone**

D) Triamcinolone

72. The steroid having the greatest mineralocorticoidal activity is:A) TriamcinoloneB) PrednisoloneC) Fludrocortisone**D) Hydrocortisone

73. Corticosteroids should be used with the greatest of caution in patientswith:A) Diabetes mellitusB) Bacterial infections

C) Depressive psychosisD) All of the above**

74. Regarding classes of opioids:A) Endorphins are opioids produced naturally in the bodyB) Morphine is the first alkaloid isolated from opiumC) Heroin is a semi-synthetic opioid and pethidine is a synthetic oneD) All of the above statements are true**

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75. All of the following statements are correct EXCEPT:A) Amiodarone can cause corneal opacitiesB) Tramadol is a dual-action NSAIDC) Butorphanol is a mixed opioid agonist-antagonistD) Hydrocodone tends to cause more sedation and GI problems than codeine does**

76. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT:A). Oral supplements containing antioxidants with zinc and cupper can cause areduction in the rate of age-related macular degenerationB) Crystalluria and subsequent renal damage are potential adverse effects of sulfadiazineC) Homatropine has a much shorter duration of action as a mydriatic than atropineD) Pilocarpine blocks the parasympathetic innervation to the conjunctival bloodvessels**

77. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT:A) Procaine may interfere with the antibacterial action of sulfonamides

B) Acyclovir has selectivity for herpes DNA polymeraseC) In sensitive subjects, aspirin increases the formation of leukotrienes in lung tissueD) Allergic reaction can be brought on only by the original form of the drug **

78. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT:A) Cytokines regulate inflammatory and immune reactionB) Aspirin is useful in the management of arterial thrombosisC) Piroxicam acts through inhibition of COX-3 isoform mostly in the CNS**D) Misoprostol is a PGE1 analogue used in NSAID-induced gastric ulcer

79. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT:A) Naloxone reverses all effects produced by opioids including antitussive effect**

B) Therapeutic index is a measure of drug safetyC) Tetracycline permanently dicolour teeth if given during enamel developmentD) Erythromycin may be used more frequently with children and pregnant women

80. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT:A) Short duration use of azithromycin may help reduce many side effects that canoccur with long-term antibiotic treatmentB) Serious side effects of ciprofloxacin include seizure, psychosis and phototoxicityC) Famciclovir is an anti-herpetic drug that have a longer half-life than acyclovir D) Second-generation antihistamines have serious anti-cholinergic side effects andare shorter acting than their first generation cousins***

END OF THE EXAM

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EXAM IV

King Saud UniversityCollege of Pharmacy

Department of Pharmacology

OPTO 343-OCULAR DRUGS and PHARMACOLOGY ___________________________________________________________

STUDENT NAME:

STUDENT ID NUMBER: __________________________________________________________________

PART I: CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER FROM THE LIST GIVEN

The following information relates to questions 1-5:A. PrilocaineB. BupivacaineC. BenzocaineD. LignocaineE. Procaine

1. Membrane stabilizing drug used as a local anesthetic and treat cardiacarrhythmias

2. Local anesthetic useful for surface administration only

3. Local anesthetic with a short plasma half life (- 1min)

4. Methemoglobinemia is a unique toxic effect of its use

5. Long-acting, amide-type local anesthetic

The following information relates to questions 6-10:A. Epidural anesthesiaB. Nerve block anesthesiaC. Infiltration anesthesia

D. Spinal anesthesiaE. Intravenous regional anesthesia

6. The local anesthetic is injected directly into tissue

7. The local anesthetic is injected IV, distal to a pressure cuff to arrest blood flow

8. The LA is injected close to peripheral nerve trunks or nerve plexuses

9. The local anesthetic is injected into the lumbar subarachnoid space, mixed withCSF

10. The local anesthetic is injected into the epidural space, blocking spinal roots

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The following information relates to questions 11-15:A. TerbinafineB. GriseofulvinC. FluconazoleD. NystatinE. Amphotericin B

11. The drug of choice for the treatment of cryptococcal fungal meningitis

12. The drug of choice for the treatment of toe nails fungus

13. An appropriate drug of choice for acute treatment of Candida albicans infection

14. Given orally for the treatment of fungal infections of the skin

15. Used only for local candidiasis

The following information relates to questions 16-20:A. CaspofunginB. KetoconazoleC. FlucytosineD. TerbinafineE. Griseofulvin

16. Converted by a cytosine deaminase to 5-FU that interfere with DNA synthesis

17. Inhibits 14-alpha-demethylas enzyme, an enzyme required for ergosterolsynthesis

18. Causes disruption of the mitotic spindle by interacting with polymerizedmicrotubules

19. Inhibits glucan synthesis which is necessary for fungal cell wall

20. Inhibits squalene epoxidase, another enzyme required for ergosterol synthesis

The following information relates to questions 21-25:A. TrifluridineB. Natamycin

C. SulfacetamideD. Co-TrimoxazoleE. Valacyclovir

21. Pro-drug of acyclovir with longer half life, indicated for treatment of herpes zoster

22. Topical eye drop medication useful in treatment of Trachoma

23. A drug of choice for topical treatment of HSV keratitis

24. Useful in cases of preseptal cellulites or lacrimal infections in patients who havecontraindications to other antibiotics

25. Ophthalmic antifungal drug indicated for the treatment of fungal blepharitis

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The following information relates to questions 26-30:A. AcetaminophenB. CelecoxibC. Acetylsalicylic acid (Aspirin)D. IbuprofenE. Prednisone

26. An oral steroid useful in the management of several ocular inflammatoryconditions

27. Used as analgesic, antipyretic, anti-inflammatory and antiplatelet drug

28. Acts through inhibition of COX-3 isoform mostly in the CNS

29. A selective COX 2 inhibitor

30. Non-selective peripheral acting OTC analgesic useful in treatment of ocular pain

The following information relates to questions 31-35:A. MisoprostolB. DesloratidineC. ChlorpheniramineD. NaloxoneE. Morphine

31. Reverse most of the effects produced by opioids except anti-tussive effect

32. Sublingual, longer acting antihistamine with fewer anticholinergic side-effects

33. PGE1 analogue used in NSAID-induced gastric ulcer

34. Oral antihistamine tends to cause sedation and dry the throat and bronchi

35. Causes urinary retention, dysphoria and constriction of bronchial smooth muscle

The following information relates to questions 36-40A. LatanoprostB. BetaxololC. Brimonidine

D. DorzolamideE. Mannitol

36. Works by decreasing aqueous humor production and increasing uveo-scleraloutflow

37. Increases uveoscleral outflow of aqueous humor

38. Lowers secretion of aqueous humor by inhibiting carbonic anhydrase in ciliarybody

39. Decreases aqueous humor production by the ciliary body

40. Hyperosmotic agent that pulls fluid out of tissues

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The following information relates to questions 41-45:A. Clavulanic acidB. AmoxicillinC. CeftrioxoneD. BacitracinE. Neomycin

41. A polypeptide antibiotic used for topical application

42. Is a component of eye drops used for the treatment of bacterial conjunctivitis

43. Broad spectrum in its antimicrobial action and stable in gastric juice.

44. Inhibits beta lactamase and is often combined with amoxicillin

45. A third generation cephalosporin used to treat meningitis

The following information relates to questions 46-50:A. AztreonamB. Co-TrimoxazoleC. AzithromycinD. CiprofloxacinE. Gentamicin

46. A monobactam antibiotic that has no cross reactivity with penicillins

47. Useful for treatment of upper respiratory infection due to streptococcuspneumoniae

48. Effective regimen against UTIs involving a number of Gram-negative bacilli

49. Exerts its bactericidal effect by interfering with the activity of DNA gyrase

50. Vestibular and auditory toxicity and nephrotoxicity are known side effects of itsuse

PART II:Write the letter (A) for true statement and letter (B) for false statement

51. Tropicamide induces dilation of the pupil and used to examine the retina

52. Cycloplegics block accommodation and phenylephrine is an example

53. Atropine produces mydriasis and used effectively for narrow angle glaucoma

54. Miosis can be induced by carbachol via stimulation of constrictor pupillae muscle

55. Pilocarpine blocks the parasympathetic innervation to the conjunctival bloodvessels

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56. Homatropine has a much shorter duration of action as a mydriatic than atropine

57. Phenylephrine causes active mydriasis without loss of light reflex

58. Parasympathomimetics cause spasm of accommodation

59. Amiodarone can cause corneal opacities

60. Cyclopentolate is used in cycloplegic refractions and treatment of Uveitis

61. Older people are at higher risk for glaucoma but babies can be born withglaucoma

62. Antioxidant-anti-inflammatory eye drops help to increase defenses against theharmful effects of free radicals on vision

63. Tetracaine hydrochloride is an anesthetic eye medication used to examine theeye, remove foreign bodies and in superficial surgery

64. Ciprofloxacin produces cartilage toxicity in growing children and the fetus

65. Tetracyclines affect bone growth and discolor/affect the teeth

66. Aminoglycosides are administered without the need for drug level monitoring

67. Ciprofloxacin is indicated for the treatment of infection by Bacillus anthracis(anthrax)

68. Minocycline inhibits peptidyl synthase and is indicated for the treatment of MRSA

69. Penicillin G is most selective against Helicobacter pylori infections

70. Neurotoxicity is the primary form of toxicity associated with the use of oralpenicillins

71. Benzathine penicillin has an average duration of about 26 hours

72. Tetracyclines are effective against rickettsiae

73. Third generation cephalosporins are more active against Gram-negative

organisms

74. Benzathine penicillin is given in primary syphilis

75. Azithromycin is usedv effectively in treating chlamydial infection caused trachoma

76. Postoperative urinary retention occurs commonly with spinal anesthesia

77. The analgesic effect of NSAIDs is considerable in severe ischemic and visceralpain

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78. NSAIDs inhibits both early and late phases of inflammatory reactions

79. The Rey's syndrome occurs with aspirin mainly in children or young adults

80. Corticosteroids are usually indicated in Herpes simplex of the eye

81. Broader suppression of normal flora is a disadvantage of antimicrobialcombinations

82. Amoxicillin has better absorption and is less liable to cause diarrhea thanampicillin

83. NSAIDs reduce elevated body temperature as well as normal one

84. Cortisone is the steroid having the greatest anti-inflammatory potency

85. Prednisolone is the steroid having the greatest salt-retaining activity

86. Regular urine test for sugar and regular blood pressure measurement are amongthe precautions to be taken during high dose long-term corticosteroid therapy

87. Corticosteroids are used to suppress rejection of transplanted organs

88. To be bactericidal rather than bacteriostatic is essential for an ideal antibiotic

89. Erythromycin estolate can cause cholestatic hepatitis

90. Before prescribing acyclovir, determine if a patient has any renal, hepatic,neurological problems or hypoxia

91. Codeine is a useful anti-tussive drug

92. Calcium salts inhibit the intestinal absorption of chloramphenicol

93. Chloramphenicol can cause depression of bone marrow functions

94. Co-Trimoxazole is a combination of trimethoprim with clavulanic acid

95. Post-herpetic neuralgia is an opioid-resistant pain

96. Oral supplements containing antioxidants with zinc and cupper can cause a

reduction in the rate of age-related macular degeneration

97. Cetrizine come in combination tablet with pseudoephedrine can be safely used inhypertensive patients

98. Polymyxin B is an anti-bacterial eye medication

99. Doxycycline is effective in treating Rocky Mountain spotted fever in children

100. Phenylephrine is a decongestant eye medication used for relief of eye pain

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END OF THE EXAM

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Exam Models (343)