EENADU MOCK NEET 2017 QUESTION PAPER is seen in (1) Azolla (2) Selaginella (3) Equisetum (4) Psilotum 3. The algal stage in life cycle of Mosses (1) Elaters (2) Pyrenoid (3) Sex organs

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NCode N 2017 A

Space for rough work

1. Canadabalsam is used in preparation of

permanent slides. It is obtained from

(1) Cycas (2) Pinus

(3) Abies (4) Taxus

2. Rhizophore is seen in

(1) Azolla (2) Selaginella

(3) Equisetum (4) Psilotum

3. The algal stage in life cycle of Mosses

(1) Elaters (2) Pyrenoid

(3) Sex organs (4) Protonema

4. Flagellated pyriform bodies are seen in

(1) Porphyra

(2) Brown Algae

(3) Blue Green Algae

(4) Rhodophyceae

5. Dolipore septum is found in

(1) Bracket Fungi

(2) Sac Fungi

(3) Algal Fungi

(4) Deuteromycetes

6. The term 'Niche' was coined by

(1) Mishra

(2) Odum

(3) Grinnel

(4) Clements

7. Eltonian pyramids is other name for

(1) Ecological pyramids

(2) Pyramids of energy

(3) Pyramids of biomass

(4) Pyramids of number

8. Mitochondrial cristae are sites of

(1) Glycolysis

(2) Oxidation - reduction reactions

(3) Photophosphorylation

(4) Krebs Cycle

9. Pink colour of Rose corolla is due to

(1) Accessory pigments

(2) Phycobilins

(3) Anthocyanins

(4) Carotenoids

BIOLOGY

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Typewritten Text

EENADU MOCK NEET 2017 QUESTION PAPER

NCode N 2017 Awww.eenadupratibha.net


10. Amrita Devi Bishnoi National Award is

instituted for

(1) Conservation of human race

(2) Wild life

(3) Water for all

(4) Save the Tiger

11. Second Check point during Mitosis lies

between

(1) Prophase and Metaphase

(2) G2 and Prophase

(3) G1 and G2

(4) G1 and S

12. Colchicine inhibits

(1) Spindle formation

(2) Chromosome division

(3) DNA synthesis

(4) Cell wall formation

13. Lamp brush chromosomes are seen during

(1) Diakinesis (2) Prophase

(3) Diplotene (4) Pachytene

14. Catalase is found in

(1) Peroxisomes (2) Ribosomes

(3) Nucleus (4) Golgi

15. One of the following pair is not defining

characters of living organisms

(1) Growth, Metabolism

(2) Growth, Reproduction

(3) Interaction, Metabolism

(4) Metabolism, self consciousness

16. Heterocyst is seen in

(1) N2 fixing Bacteria

(2) Prokaryotes in Azolla leaves

(3) Monera

(4) Glomus

17. Gram -ve bacteria are stained with the

following to observe them under microscope

(1) Crystal Violet

(2) Safranin

(3) Ethydium bromide

(4) Acetone www.eena

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18. Naked, pathogenic, ss RNA is called

(1) Prion (2) Virusoid

(3) Virion (4) Viroid

19. The kingdom consisting unicellular,

eukaryotes is created by

(1) Copeland

(2) Linnaeus

(3) Haeckel

(4) Whittaker

20. One of the following is not a protein

(1) Glucosamine

(2) GLUT - 4

(3) Antibody

(4) Sensory receptors

21. Winged fruits are called

(1) Cypsela (2) Nut

(3) Samara (4) Caryopsis

22. One of the following is not a modification

of stem-

(1) Tendril

(2) Spine

(3) Bulbil

(4) Stolon

23. Identify the incorrect representation of

Fabaceae floral parts

(1) K(5) C1 + 2 + (2)

(2) C1 + 2 + (2) A(9) + 1

(3) K(5) C1 + 2 + (2)

(4) A(9) + 1 G1-

24. Arial is a part of

(1) Seed (2) Fruit (3) Leaf (4) Root

25. Osmotic pressure is maximum in

(1) Submerged hydrophytes

(2) Mesophytes

(3) Hydrophytes

(4) Halophytes

26. Match the following.

Column - A Column - B

a) Mn I) Translocation of Sucrose

b) Boron II) Activator of Urease

c) Ca III) IAA oxidase

d) Ni IV) Formation of spindle apparatus

I II III IV I II III IV

(1) c b a d (2) b d a c

(3) c b d a (4) a d b c


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27. RuBP is a CO2 acceptor in

(1) C3 Plants (2) CAM plants

(3) C4 Plants (4) All

28. Dichlorophenyl dimethyl urea inhibits

(1) Light reaction

(2) Non cyclic photophosphorylation

(3) Cyclic photophosphorylation

(4) Respiration

29. Number of photons required to release one

molecule of Oxygen

(1) 8 (2) 4

(3) 10 (4) 2

30. Monosporic, 8 - nucleated female

gametophyte is found in

(1) Allium

(2) Fritillaria

(3) Adoxa

(4) Polygonum

31. The substrate for Krebs Cycle is

(1) Malic acid

(2) Pyruvic acid

(3) Acetyl Co A

(4) Citric acid

32. Apples are generally wrapped in waxed

paper to

(1) give costly appearance

(2) prevent colour change

(3) prevent ethylene formed by the fruit

from escaping and there by hasten

ripening

(4) lure the customers

33. Megasporangium of Selaginella is

equivalent to the following of flowering plants

(1) Ovule

(2) Nucellus

(3) Embryosac

(4) Integumented Nucellus

34. Tomato is a

(1) LDP (2) SDP

(3) DNP (4) Long Night Plants

35. Mendel's Pea plant shows incomplete

dominance for the following character

(1) Shape of the seed

(2) Colour of the cotyledons

(3) Size of starch grains

(4) Height of the plant


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36. The term gene was coined by

(1) Wilhelm Johannsen

(2) Bateson & Punnett

(3) Carl Correns

(4) Gregor Johann Mendel

37. Read the following statements and select

the correct one.

(1) Each polynucleotide chain of DNA has

phosphate at 5' and 3'.

(2) Every 2nd nucleotide of RNA has one

additional OH-.

(3) Capping is done with methylated purine.

(4) Transcription directly results in the

formation of mRNA in prokaryotes.

38. Invitro synthesis of DNA (PCR) requires

(1) RNA primers

(2) DNA primers

(3) DNA dependent RNA polymerase

(4) RNA dependent DNA polymerase

39. Secondary messenger is

(1) ATP (2) ADP

(3) cAMP (4) mRNA

40. How many types of genetically different to

gametes are produced from the parent with

genotype RRYyTt

(1) 4 (2) 6

(3) 8 (4) 2


Column - I Column - II

a) Trichoderma I) Citric acid

polysporum

b) Spirulina maxima II) Ethanol

c) Aspergillus niger III) Statin

d) Monascus purpureus IV) SCP

e) Saccharomyces V) Cyclosporin A

cerevisiae

I II III IV V I II III IV V

(1) a d c b e (2) c e b d a

(3) c e d b a (4) e c d a b

42. Cork cambium and vascular cambium are

(1) Primary meristems

(2) Lateral meristems

(3) Apical meristems

(4) formed from parenchyma and

collenchyma respectively

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43. Sequence of structural genes in Lac Operon

is

(1) i P O Z (2) Z Y A

(3) O Z Y A (4) P O Z Y A

44. Palindromic sequence of Bam HI is

(1) G A T A T C

(2) G G A T C C

(3) T C G A

(4) G G C C

45. YAC resembles

(1) pBR322 (2) BAC

(3) pUC101 (4) pUC18

46. Number of obligate categories according to

3 - Domain classification

(1) 5 (2) 6

(3) 7 (4) 8

47. Tilman's experiments with "Outdoor plots".

Explain.

(1) Importance of species diversity to the

ecosystem

(2) Invasion of alien species

(3) Reasons for greater biodiversity in the

tropics

(4) Importance of biodiversity hot spots

48. Which of the following is considered a

biodiversity hot spot in India?

(1) Seshachalam hills (2) Papi kondalu

(3) Western ghats (4) Uttarakhand

49. Identify the correctly matched pair.

(1) Gir National park - Lion

(2) Kaziranga National Park -Aquatic birds

(3) Jim Corbett National Park - Elephant

(4) Keoladeo National Park - Rhinoceros

50. Identify the parts of Areolar tissue labelled

A, B, C and D and select the right option.

(1) A-Macrophage, B-Fibroblast,

C-Mast cell, D-Collagen fibres

(2) A-Adipocyte, B-Mast cell,

C-Fibroblast, D-Elastic fibres

(3) A-Macrophage, B-Fibroblast,

C-Adipocyte, D-Collagen fibres

(4) A-Mast cell, B-Fibrocyte,

C-Macrophage, D-Elastic fibres

A

C

B

D

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A) Ciliated colummar a) Ligaments

epithelium

B) Dense regular b) Intervertebral

connective tissue discs

C) Hyaline cartilage c) Ventricles of brain

D) Fibrous cartilage d) Articular cartilage

A B C D A B C D

(1) c a d b (2) c a b d

(3) a c d b (4) a c b d

52. Which group of animals belong to the same

phylum?

(1) Earthworm, Round worm, Tape worm

(2) Prawn, Silver fish, Rock Barnacle

(3) Cray fish, Cuttle fish, Apple snail

(4) Brittle star, Sea lemon, King crab

53. Identify a pair of organisms which have

four pairs of walking legs

(1) Prawn and Cray fish

(2) King crab and Scorpion

(3) Spider and Crab

(4) Silver fish and Julus

54. The mammal in which both male andfemale nourish their young ones is

(1) Ornithorhynchus (2) Pteropus

(3) Macropus (4) Balaenoptera

55. Common character of Reptiles, Birds andMammals

(1) Placenta (2) Diaphragm

(3) Chorion (4) Sinus venosus

56. Vertebrae of birds are

(1) Procoelous

(2) Amphicoelous

(3) Amphiplatyan

(4) Heterocoelous

57. Part of frog brain which regulates heat,cold, pain etc.

(1) Optic lobes

(2) Cerebral hemispheres

(3) Cerebellum

(4) Diencephalon

58. Malignant tertian Malaria is caused by

(1) Plasmodium vivax

(2) Plasmodium falciparum

(3) Plasmodium ovale

(4) Plasmodium malariaewww.eena

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59. Study the following statements about drugsand choose the incorrect statements.

(A) Morphine is a very effective sedativeand pain killer.

(B) Heroin slows down the body functions.

(C) Cannabinoids have a potent stimulatingaction on the central nervous system.

(D) Cocaine shows its effect oncardiovascular system of the body.

(1) A, B (2) C, D (3) B, C (4) A, D

60. Observe the following graph related tothermoregulation and identify (A), (B) and(C) organisms.

(1) Regulators - Partial regulators -Conformers

(2) Conformers - Partial conformers -Regulators

(3) Regulators - Conformers - Partialregulators

(4) Conformers - Regulators - Partialconformers

61. "Co existance is better than exclusion" wasexplained by

(1) Gause

(2) Mc Arthur

(3) Connel

(4) Lindeman

62. World summit on sustainable development

was held in

(1) Montreal

(2) Rio-de Janeiro

(3) Kyoto

(4) Johannesburg

63. Abingdon tortoise in Galapagos Islands

became extinct within a decade after goats,

with greater browsing efficiency were

introduced on the Island. This is an

example of

(1) Competitive release

(2) Competitive exclusion

(3) Competition among unrelated species

(4) Co-existence

B

AC

Inte

rnal

leve

l

External level

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64. Study the following diagram and identifythe labelled parts.

(1) A-Pancreas, B-Ileum, C-Cystic duct,

D-Gall bladder, E-Hepatic ducts

(2) A-Pancreas, B-Duodenum, C-Hepatic

ducts, D-Gall bladder, E-Cystic duct

(3) A-Liver, B-Jejunum, C-Hepatic ducts,

D-Spleen, E-Cystic duct

(4) A-Liver, B-Duodenum, C-Cystic duct,

D-Spleen, E-Hepatic ducts.

65. Hardest substance in human body is

(1) Dentine

(2) Enamel

(3) Bone

(4) Fibrous cartilage

66. Brunner's glands occur in

(1) Mucosa of Oesophagus

(2) Submucosa of Stomach

(3) Submucosa of Duodenum

(4) Mucosa of Ileum

67. Vital capacity of human lungs is

(1) Total lung capacity - expiratory reservevolume

(2) Total lung capacity - residual volume

(3) Inspiratory reserve volume + expiratoryreserve volume

(4) Tidal volume + Residual volume

68.

In the given normal ECG, which parts arecalled waves?

(1) P and QRS (2) S and T

(3) P and T (4) QRS and T

P

QS

T

R

D

E

B

C

A

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69. Study the following diagram about doublecirculation and identify the labelled parts.

(1) A-Pulmonary artery, B-Systemic,C-Pulmonary vein, D-Vena cavae

(2) A-Pulmonary vein, B-Systemic, C-Vena cavae, D-Pulmonary artery

(3) A-Pulmonary artery, B-Vena cavae,C-Systemic, D-Pulmonary vein

(4) A-Pulmonary vein, B-Systemic,C-Pulmonary artery, D-Vena cavae

70. During the cardiac cycle, the heart sound'dup' is produced when

(1) Mitral valve is opened

(2) Tricuspid valve is closed

(3) Semi - lunar valves are closed

(4) Mitral valve is closed

71. In an emergency situation, which blood canbe given to a person whose blood group isnot known

(1) A - Positive (2) B - Negative

(3) O - Positive (4) O - Negative

72. Statement-I: In the collecting duct of thenephron, urine is hypertonic to blood.

Statement-II: ADH helps in facultativereabsorption of water and convertsglomerular filtrate to urine.

(1) I and II are correct

(2) I is correct but II is incorrect

(3) I is incorrect but II is correct

(4) I and II are incorrect

73. Which of the following is incorrect?

(1) Synchondrosis - Epiphyseal plate

between epiphysis and diaphysis

(2) Symphysis - Pubic symphysis of pelvic

girdle

(3) Gomphoses - Dento-alveolar joint

(4) Syndesmoses - Coronal suture between

frontal and parietal bones

74. Joint between Atlas and occipital condylesis

(1) Condyloid joint

(2) Saddle joint

(3) Gliding joint

(4) Hinge joint

A

BC

D

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75. Select the correct statement regarding thespecific disorder of muscular orskeletal system.

(1) Myasthenia gravis - Progressive

muscle degeneration disorder

(2) Tetany - It is due to hyposecretion of

oestrogen

(3) Gout - Accumulation of uric acid

crystals in joints

(4) Osteoporosis - It is an auto immune

disease

76. In the figure about nerve impulsetransmission, the number 4 indicates

(1) Opening of K+ voltage gated channel

(2) Opening of Na+ activation voltage

gated channel

(3) Opening of Na+ inactivation voltage

gated channel

(4) Opening of K+ and Na+ activationvoltage gated channel

77. Study the following and choose the correctoption.

Organ - Sympathetic system - Parasympathetic system

A) Eyes - Constricts pupil - Dilates pupil

B) Urinary bladder - Promotes contractionof sphincter - Inhibits contraction ofsphincter

C) Pancreas - Stimulates - Activity ofPancreas - Inhibits activity of Pancreas

D) Kidneys - Increases secretion of renin- decreases secrection of renin

(1) A & B are correct

(2) C & D are correct

(3) A, B & D are correct

(4) B & D are correct

78. Identify the correct combination from thefollowing.

Endocrine gland - Hormone - Disorder

A) Neurohypophysis - Vasopressin -Diabetes insipidus

B) Adrenal medulla - Epinephrine -Addison's disease

C) Adenohypophysis - Somatostatin -Exopthalmic goitre

D) Thyroid gland - Tetraiodothyronine -Cretinism

(1) A, B, C (2) B, C, D

(3) A, D (4) B, D

+35

0

-65

-70

-90

2

13

4

0 3

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List - I List - II

A) Gonorrhea a) Treponema

B) Syphilis b) Chlamydia

C) Genital herpes c) Herpes simplex virus

D) Cervical cancer d) Neisseria

e) Human Papilloma

Virus

The correct option is

A B C D A B C D

(1) a d b e (2) d a c e

(3) d a e c (4) a c e b


List - I List - II

A) DMPA a) Inhibits ovulationand implantation

B) OCPs b) Sperms are preventedfrom reachingseminal vesicle

C) IUD c) Block entry of ovainto the fallopiantube

D) Vasectomy d) Give contraceptionper 3 months

e) Promote phagocytosis

of sperm by WBC

A B C D A B C D

(1) e d c a (2) d a e b

(3) e a b c (4) d e c b

81. Which of the following is not a pair ofantagonistic hormones?

(1) Calcitonin - Parathormone

(2) Somatocrinin - Somatostatin

(3) Adrenalin - Noradrenalin

(4) Insulin - Glucagon

82. In chronic myelogenous leukemia, whichtwo chromosomes, exchange a part andundergo reciprocal translocation.

(1) 5th and 21st chromosomes

(2) 13th and 18th chromosomes

(3) 9th and 22nd chromosomes

(4) 6th and 19th chromosomes

83. Human skin colour is an example ofpolygenic inheritance. The genotype of theintermediate skin colour is

(1) AA BB CC (2) Aa Bb cc

(3) AA Bb CC (4) Aa bb CC

84. Study the following Pedigree analysis andidentify the disorder seen in theaffected individuals.

(1) Incontinentia pigmenti

(2) Follicular Hyperkeratosis

(3) Haemophilia

(4) Hypertrichosis

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85. Of four children born to Rh+ve

(heterozygous) father and Rh-ve mother,what percent belong to Rh-ve group?

(1) 100% (2) 50% (3) 75% (4) 25%

86. In a population of 200 individuals, thehomozygous dominant are 114, theheterozygous dominant are 76 and therecessive are 10. The dominant (p) andrecessive (q) allelic frequencies are

(1) p = 0.64, q = 0.36

(2) p = 0.76, q = 0.24

(3) p = 0.54, q = 0.46

(4) p = 0.82, q = 0.18

87. The first human like being was

(1) Australopithecus (2) Homo ergaster

(3) Homo habilis (4) Homo erectus

88. Identify the correct statements.

A) Louis Pasteur proved the theory ofspontaneous generation, by his swanneck flask experiment.

B) Theory of Biological origin of life, wassupported by J.B.S. Haldane of Russiaand A.I. Oparin of England.

C) Theory of catastrophism was proposedby Georges Cuvier.

D) The main objection to Lamarckismcame from August Weismann.

(1) A, B (2) A, C (3) C, D (4) B, D

89. Statement-I: Human blood corpuscles are

without nuclei.

Statement-II: Blood platelets are formed

in the red bone marrow by fragmentation of

gaint megakaryocytes.

(1) I and II are correct

(2) I, II both are incorrect

(3) I is correct, II is incorrect

(4) I is incorrect, II is correct


List - I List - II

A) Aneurysms 1) CAT scan

B) Osteoporosis 2) Digital subtraction

angiography

C) Insomnia 3) MRI

D) Hyper kalemia 4) EEG

5) ECG

(1) A-1, B-3, C-5, D-4

(2) A-3, B-1, C-5, D-4

(3) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-5

(4) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-5

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91. In a circuit, potential difference across a

resistance is V = (4 ± 0.25) volts and current

in the resistance is I = (1 ± 0.1) Amp. The

value of resistance with percentage error is

(1) 4Ω ± 0.4% (2) 4Ω ± 16.25%

(3) 4Ω ± 18.25% (4) 4Ω ± 22.25%

92. A vector in XY- plane has x-component of

5 m and y-component of 10 m. It is rotated

in XY - plane so that its x-component is

doubled. Then its new y-component is

(1) 5 m (2) 20 m

(3) 2.5 m (4) 4 m

93. A body is projected from ground with a

velocity of (6iΛ

+ 8jΛ

+ 20kΛ

) ms-1. iΛ

, jΛ

are in

horizontal plane and kΛ

is in vertical plane. If

g = 10 ms-2, horizontal range of body is

(1) 10 m (2) 20 m (3) 40 m (4) 60 m

94. Three objects A, B, C of masses m, 2 m, m

are kept in a straight line on a smooth

horizontal surface. The object 'A' moves

towards 'B' with speed of 9 ms-1 and makes

perfectly elastic collision with it. Then the

body 'B' makes perfectly inelastic collision

with 'C'. If all motions occur in a straight

line, final velocity of 'C' is

(1) 9 ms-1 (2) 9/2 ms-1

(3) 4 ms-1 (4) zero

95. Consider the system as shown in the figure.

The pulleys and the string are light and all

surfaces are frictionless. If g = 10 ms-2,

tension in the string is

(1) 0 N (2) 1 N

(3) 2 N (4) 5 N

96. In the presence of air resistance, a ball

thrown vertically upwards with velocity of

12 ms-1 returns to ground with velocity of

10 ms-1. If g = 10 ms-2, maximum height

reached by ball is

(1) 7.2 m

(2) 5 m

(3) 6.1 m

(4) 8.4 m

97. If system is in equilibrium, frictional force

acting on 5 kg block kept on rough inclined

plane is

(1) 50 N (2) 30 N

(3) 35 N (4) 10 N

m 2m m9 ms-1A B C

1kg

1kg

6 kg5 kg

30°

PHYSICS

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98. A square plate of uniform thickness having

4 cm length on each side is devided into four

quadrants. The quadrant 4 is cut and the cut

part is kept on quadrant 2. The new position

of centre of mass with respect to corner 'O'

as origin is

(1) (2 cm, 2 cm)

(2) (2 cm, 3 cm)

(3) (2 cm, 2.5 cm)

(4) (3 cm, 3 cm)

99. A hollow cube of mass 'M' has length 'a' on

each side. Moment of inertia of cube about

an axis passing through centre and

perpendicular to two opposite horizontal

faces is

5Ma2 5Ma2

(1) ⎯⎯⎯ (2) ⎯⎯⎯3 6

5Ma2 5Ma2(3) ⎯⎯⎯ (4) ⎯⎯⎯12 18

100. The height 'h' at which weight of a body

becomes 1/16 th of its weight on the surface

of earth of radius R is

(1) 4 R (2) 5 R

(3) 15 R (4) 3 R

101. Amplitude of a damped oscillator decreases

from original amplitude A0 to A0⎯3 in 10

seconds. In next 20 seconds it will decrease

to

A0 A0(1) ⎯ (2) ⎯

9 6

A0 A0(3) ⎯ (4) ⎯27 81

102. A particle is executing SHM on a straight

line. A and B are two points at which its

velocity becomes zero. The particle is

crossing a point P at successive intervals of AP

1.2 sec and 3.6 sec. If AP < PB, the ratio ⎯PBis

√⎯2 √

⎯2 - 1(1) ⎯⎯⎯ (2) ⎯⎯⎯

√⎯2 + 1 √

⎯2 + 1

√⎯3 - √

⎯2 √⎯2 + 1

(3) ⎯⎯⎯ (4) ⎯⎯⎯√⎯3 + √⎯2 √

⎯2 - 1

103. Breaking stress of steel is 3 × 108 Nm-2.

Force required to punch a hole of 1.75 cm

radius in a steel plate of 2 cm thickness is

(1) 3.3 × 105 N (2) 6.6 × 105 N

(3) 9.9 × 105 N (4) 120 N

1 2

3

O

4

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104. Excess pressure due to surface tension in a

spherical liquid drop is 8 units. If eight such

drops are combined, then excess pressure

due to surface tension inside larger drop is

(1) 8 units (2) 4 units

(3) 16 units (4) 64 units

105. A rain drop reaching ground with terminal

velocity strikes ground with momentum p1.

Another rain drop of twice the radius also

strikes ground with terminal velocity and

has momentum p2. Value of p2 is

(1) 4 p1 (2) 16 p1

(3) 32 p1 (4) 64 p1

106. Two identical closed vessels each of volume

'V' contain gases at pressure P and

temperature T. The two vessels are

connected by a narrow pipe and the first

vessel is maintained at temperature 2T,

without changing temperature of second

vessel. Then number of moles of gas in first

vessel will be

PV PV(1) ⎯ (2) ⎯

RT 2RT

PV 2PV(3) ⎯ (4) ⎯

3RT 3RT

107. A copper ball of mass 100 gm is at a

temperature T. It is dropped into a copper

calorimeter of mass 100 gm, filled with 150

gm of water at 30°C. If the resultant

temperature becomes 70°C, volume of T is

(specific heat of copper = 0.1 cal/ gm/°C)

(1) 710°C (2) 570°C

(3) 640°C (4) 885°C

108. Statement A: Change in internal energy

during melting of 1 gm ice at 0°C is greater

than 80 Cal.

Statement B: Change in internal energy

during boiling of 1 gm water at 100°C is less

than 540 Cal.

(1) Both A and B are correct

(2) Both A and B are wrong

(3) A is correct, B is wrong

(4) A is wrong, B is correct

109. n1 moles of monoatomic gas is mixed with

n2 moles of diatomic gas such that

γmixture = 1.5. Then ratio of n1 and n2 is

(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 1

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110. Three rods are arranged as letter Y. The rods

have same dimensions and have thermal

conductivities 3 K, 2 K and K. If ends of the

rods are at 100°C, 50°C, and 0°C, junction

temperature θ°C is

200°(1) ⎯ C (2) 75°C 3

(3) 70°C (4) 50°C

111. Four molecules of a gas have speeds 1, 2, 3

and 4 kms-1 respectively. The value of rms

speed of the molecules in kms-1 is

15(1) √

⎯

⎯ (2) 2 √⎯15

2

√⎯15

(3) ⎯ (4) 2.52

112. If pressure at half the depth of a lake is equal

to 2/3 times pressure at bottom of the lake,

depth of lake is (Atmospheric pressure = 10

m of water column)

(1) 10 m (2) 20 m

(3) 60 m (4) 30 m

113. 'A' is a sound source of mass 2 m emitting

sound of frequency 650 Hz. 'B' is a sound

detector of mass 'm'. A and B move towards

each other as shown, and collide head on. If

coefficient of restitution is 1/2 and velocity

of sound is 330 ms-1, frequency received by

'B' after collision is

(1) 650 Hz (2) 700 Hz

(3) 620 Hz (4) 325 Hz

114. For a radioactive substance time taken

between 40% decay and 85% decay is t1 and

between 60% decay and 90% decay is t2.

Then relation between t1 and t2 is

(1) t1 = t2 (2) 2t1 = 3t2

3(3) 3t1 = 2t2 (4) t1 = ⎯ t22

115. In a region, the electric potential is

represented by V = 6x - 8xy - 8y + 6yz.

Electric force experienced by 2 coulomb

charge kept at origin is

(1) 4√⎯35 N (2) 20 N

(3) 30 N (4) 10 N

100°C

50°C

0°C

2K

θ

3K

K2 m 10 ms-1 m20 ms-1

A B

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116. A parallel plate capacitor has two layers of

dielectric as shown. The capacitor is

connected to a battery. Then the ratio of

potential differences across the dielectric

layers is

4 1(1) ⎯ (2) ⎯

3 2

1 3(3) ⎯ (4) ⎯3 2

117. False statement in the following is

(1) Kirchoff's second law of closed circuits

represents energy conservation.

(2) Wheatstone bridge is most sensitive

when all the four resistances have equal

values.

(3) In balanced Wheatstone bridge, if the

cell and galvanometer are interchanged,

the null point is disturbed.

(4) Potentiometer will not draw any current

while measuring emf of cell.

118. A galvanometer can be converted into

voltmeter of range V volts by connecting

resistance R1 in series and voltmeter of

range V/2 by connecting R2 in series. The

resistance R to be connected in series to

obtain voltmeter of range '2V' volts is

(1) 2R1 - 3R2 (2) 3R1 - 2R2

(3) R2 - 2R1 (4) 3R1 - 3R2

119. A metal rod AB of length 2 m, resistance

5 Ω is moved with velocity of 10 ms-1 in

magnetic induction field of intensity 10 T as

shown in figure. Then potential difference

across A and B is

(1) 200 V (2) 160 V

(3) 300 V (4) 80 V

120. A series LCR circuit has L = 1 mH,

C = 0.1 µF, R = 10 Ω. It is connected across

a source of alternating emf 5 V but of

variable frequency. P.D. across inductance

coil at resonance is

(1) 10 V (2) 25 V

(3) 50 V (4) 5 V

K1 = 2 K2 = 6

d 2d→ ⎯→←⎯←

A

B

20 Ω V

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121. Two conducting rings of radii '2r' and 'r'

move in opposite directions with velocities

v and 2v respectively as shown in figure.

There is uniform magnetic induction field of

intensity 'B' perpendicular to the plane of

rings. The potential difference between the

highest points of the two rings is

(1) Zero

(2) Bvr

(3) 4 Bvr

(4) 8 Bvr

122. An optical fibre of length 2.1 km has

refractive index of core 1.6 and cladding

1.4. A light ray enters the core from one end

such that it strikes the core-cladding

interface at an angle slightly greater than

critical angle. Time taken by light ray to

come out of fibre is

(1) 8 µs (2) 12.8 µs

(3) 7 µs (4) 6.4 µs

123. A plano convex lens fits exactly into a plano

concave lens. Their plane surfaces are

parallel to each other. If the lenses are made

of refractive indices µ1 and µ2 and R is

radius of curvature of curved surface of the

lenses, focal length of combination is

R 2R(1) ⎯⎯⎯ (2) ⎯⎯⎯ µ1 - µ2 µ2 - µ1

R R(3) ⎯⎯⎯ (4) ⎯⎯⎯2(µ1 - µ2) 2(µ1 + µ2)

124. In Young's double slit experiment,

wavelength of monochromatic light used is

4000 A° and distance between the slits is

9000 A°. Number of maximas can be

obtained on a screen (including central

maximum) on both sides of central fringe is

(1) 7 (2) 5

(3) 6 (4) 9

125. Critical angles of three transparent media K,

L and M are 30°, 45° and 60° respectively. If

Kp, Lp, Mp are their polarising angles

respectively, relation between them is

(1) Kp = Lp = Mp (2) Mp > Lp > Kp

(3) Kp > Lp > Mp (4) Lp > Mp > Kp

2rv

2 vr

B

• •

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126. Sound wave is travelling along positive

x - direction. Graph is drawn between

displacement 'y' of particle and position x of

particle as shown in figure. Choose the

correct answer.

(A) Particle located at 'A' has its velocity in

negative y - direction.

(B) Particle located at D has zero velocity.

(C) Particle located at C has maximum

velocity.

(1) A & B only correct

(2) B & C only correct

(3) A & C only correct

(4) All are correct

127. A uniform rope of length L and mass 'm1'

hangs vertically from a rigid support. A

block of mass 'm2' is attached at the bottom

of the rope. A transverse pulse of

wavelength λ1 is produced at the lower end

of rope. The wavelength of pulse when it λ2

reaches the top of rope is λ2. Then ⎯ isλ1m1 m2

(1) √⎯⎯ (2) √

⎯⎯

m2 m1

m1 + m2 m2(3) √⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ (4) √

⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯

m2 m1 + m2

128. Energy of electron in an excited hydrogen

atom is -3.4 eV. The angular momentum of

electron according to Bohr's theory is

h(1) ⎯

2π

2h(2) ⎯

πh

(3) ⎯π

3h(4) ⎯

2π

Y

X

D

C

BA

••

•

•

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129. Three amplifiers having voltage gains of 10,

20 and 30 are connected in series. If peak

value of input signal is 1 mV, peak value of

output voltage is

(1) 60 mV (2) 0.6 V

(3) 5 V (4) 6 V

130. K1 and K2 are maximum kinetic energies of

photoelectrons emitted when lights of

wavelength λ1 and λ2 incident on a metal

surface. If λ1 = 3λ2 then

K2 K2(1) K1 > ⎯ (2) K1 < ⎯3 3

(3) K1 = 2K2 (4) K2 = 2K1

131. A magnet oscillating in a horizontal plane

has time period of 2 seconds at a place

where angle of dip is 30° and 3 seconds at

another place where angle of dip is 60°. The

ratio of resultant magnetic fields at the two

places is

9 9 9 4√⎯3 (1) ⎯ (2) ⎯ (3) ⎯ (4) ⎯√⎯3 4 4√⎯3 7

132. A particle 'A' of mass 'm' and initial

velocity 'v' collides with a particle 'B' of

mass m/2 which is at rest. The collision is

head on and elastic. The ratio of de broglie

wavelengths λA to λB after collision is

λA 2 λA 1(1) ⎯ = ⎯ (2) ⎯ = ⎯

λB 3 λB 2

λA 1 λA(3) ⎯ = ⎯ (4) ⎯ = 2λB 3 λB

133. A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency

40 MHz travels along x-axis. At a given

instant at a point, the maximum value of

electric field is 750 N/C and is along

y-direction. Then magnitude and direction

of maximum value of magnetic field at that

point is

(1) 2.5 µT along x - axis

(2) 2.5 µT along y - axis

(3) 2.5 µT along z - axis

(4) 5 µT along z - axis

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134. The combination of gates shown here are

equivalent to

(1) X is OR gate and Y is AND gate

(2) X is AND gate and Y is NOT gate

(3) X is AND gate and Y is OR gate

(4) X is OR gate and Y is NOT gate

135. If 92U238 changes into 85At210 by emitting

'm' α-particles and 'n' β-particles, values

of m and n are

(1) m = 7, n = 5

(2) m = 5, n = 7

(3) m = 7, n = 9

(4) m = 7, n = 7

A

B

C

AB

C

(X)

(Y)

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136. The difference in wave numbers of Hα and

Hγ lines of Balmer series of hydrogen atom

is same as the wave number of which line in

hydrogen spectrum

(1) Hα line of Lyman series

(2) Hδ line of Balmer series

(3) Hα line of Pfund series

(4) Hβ line of Paschen series

137. The ratio of the area covered by Bohr's

second orbit to that of first orbit of hydrogen

atom

(1) 4 : 1 (2) 8 : 1

(3) 16 : 1 (4) 64 : 1

138. Which will not react with aqueous sodium

hydroxide?

(1) Al2O3 (2) B2O3

(3) CaO (4) ZnO

139. Which consists of ionic and dative bonds

only?

(1) K4[Fe(CN)6] (2) [Ni(CO)4]

(3) [Ag(NH3)2]Cl (4) K2[PtF6]

140. Angular shaped ozone molecule (O3)

consists of

(1) 1 sigma and 2 pi bonds




141. How many moles of 88% (W/W) pure

calcium carbonate on treatment with excess

HCl can produce CO2 which would have

1 L volume at 273 K and 1 bar pressure?

(1) 0.036 (2) 0.042

(3) 0.050 (4) 0.058

142. Which of the following is not a redox

reaction?

(1) 2 KClO3 (s) → 2 KCl (s) + 3 O2 (g)

(2) Ni (s) + 4 CO (g) → [Ni(CO)4] (g)

(3) P4 (s) + 3 NaOH (aq.) + 3 H2O (l) →

3 NaH2PO2 (aq.) + PH3 (g)

(4) 3 Fe (s) + 4 H2O (g) → Fe3O4 (s) + 4 H2 (g)

143. ∆U is equal to

(1) adiabatic work (2) isothermal work

(3) isochoric work (4) isobaric work

CHEMISTRY

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144. 2 dm3 hydrogen gas diffuses through a

porous wall in 0.5 hour. What volume of

oxygen can diffuse through same porous

wall under similar conditions in 5.0 hours?

(1) 8 L (2) 5 L (3) 2 L (4) 1 L

145. The metal gold crystallises in cubic close

packing. If the radius of atom of gold is r.

The edge length of unit cell of the metal is

(1) 2 r (2) 4 r

4√⎯3(3) 2 √⎯2 r (4) ⎯ r

3

146. The freezing point of benzene decreases by

0.45°C when 0.45 g of acetic acid is added

to 52 g of benzene. If acetic acid is

associated to form dimer in benzene,

percentage association of acetic acid in

benzene will be (Kf of benzene is 5.2

Kkgmol-1)

(1) 80 (2) 88 (3) 94 (4) 74

147. pKa of weak acid (HA) and pKb of weak

base (BOH) are 3.4 and 3.2 respectively.

The pH of 0.1 M aqueous solution of the salt

of that acid and base is

(1) 7.2 (2) 7.1 (3) 6.9 (4) 6.8

148. Two reactions R1 and R2 have identical

pre-exponential factor. At 27°C ln K2⎯K1is 4.

The activation energy of the reactions R1

and R2 are respectively in KJmol-1

(gas constant R = 8.314 JK-1mol-1)

(1) 65 and 52

(2) 64 and 80

(3) 70 and 80

(4) 50 and 40

149. Two mole each of volatile liquids A and B

are mixed to form an ideal solution of

vapour pressure 'P' at T K. Vapour pressure

of solution is increased by 10% if mole

fraction of B is made more by 20%. What

will be the change in vapour pressure of

original solution if mole fraction of A is

made less by 10%

(1) decreases by 5%

(2) decreases by 20%

(3) increases by 5%

(4) increases by 20%www.eena

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150. Match items of Column I with the items of

Column II and assign the correct code.


A. Urease I. Protein → peptides

B. Pepsin II. Starch → maltose

C. Lacto bacilli III. Urea → ammonia and

CO2

D. Diastase IV. Milk → curd

A B C D

(1) III IV I II

(2) III I IV II

(3) I III II IV

(4) II I III IV

151. Consider the following equilibria. Which

will be shifted to right hand side on

introduction of inert gas at equilibrium state?

(1) PCl5 (g) PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g)

(2) N2 (g) + 3 H2 (g) 2 NH3 (g)

(3) H2 (g) + I2 (g) 2 HI (g)

(4) CH3COOC2H5(aq.) + H2O (l)

CH3COOH (aq.) + C2H5OH (aq.)

152. The standard electrode potentials for

Cu2+ (aq.) + e- → Cu+ (aq.) and

Cu+ (aq.) + e-→Cu (s) are + 0.15 V and +0.50

V respectively. The value of E0Cu2+/ Cu will be

(1) 0.150 V (2) 0.325 V

(3) 0.500 V (4) 0.650 V

153. Which of the following sets forms the

biodegradable polymer?

(1) CH2 = CHCN and

CH2 = CH - CH = CH2

(2) H2N - CH2 - COOH and

H2N - (CH2)5 - COOH

(3) HO - CH2 - CH2 - OH and

HOOC COOH

(4) CH = CH2 and

CH2 = CH - CH = CH2

154. Statement I: Dihedral angle and O - O

bond length are higher in H2O2 (g) than

those in H2O2 (s).

Statement II: H2O2 (l) along with urea is

stored in wax lined glass vessels in dark.

(1) Statements I and II are correct

(2) Statements I and II are incorrect

(3) Statement I is correct and Statement II is

incorrect

(4) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II

is correct

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(1) Lithium carbonate is not so stable to heat.

(2) Lithium bicarbonate does not exist as a

solid.

(3) Lithium nitrate on heating gives Li2O,

NO2 and O2.

(4) Lithium on reaction with ethyne forms

Lithiumethynide.


(1) Aluminium is the least electronegative

element in 13th group.

(2) Gallium has the least melting point in

13th group.

(3) Orthoboric acid B(OH)3 is nonprotonic

mono basic acid decomposes at 360 K to

form metaboric acid (HBO2).

(4) Diborane with ammonia gives the adduct

of formula [BH4]+ [BH2(NH3)2]-.157. Dry ice is

(1) Solid H2O (2) Solid CO

(3) Solid CO2 (4) Solid C3O2

158. Chloramphenicol is an

(1) antifertility drug

(2) broad spectrum antibiotic

(3) antiseptic and disinfectant

(4) antihistamine

159. Which of the following hormones is

produced under the conditions of stress

which stimulate glycogenolysis in the liver

of human beings?

(1) Adrenaline

(2) Estradiol

(3) Insulin

(4) Thyroxin

160. In the extraction of copper from its sulphide

ore, the metal is finally obtained by the

reduction of cuprous oxide with

(1) Copper (I) sulphide

(2) Carbonmonoxide

(3) Iron (II) sulphide

(4) Sulphur dioxide

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161. Which of the following statements is

wrong?

(1) Single N - N bond is weaker than the

single P - P bond.

(2) NH3 has the highest boiling point among

the hydrides of group 15 elements.

(3) Ammonium nitrate on heating produces

nitrogen (I) oxide known as laughing

gas.

(4) White phosphorus dissolves in boiling

NaOH (aq.) in inert atmosphere giving

phosphine gas.

162. Which of the following does not give an

elementary gas on heating?

(1) MgCO3

(2) (NH4)2Cr2O7

(3) KMnO4

(4) Pb(NO3)2

163. In the estimation of carbonmonoxide the

reagent used is

(1) O2F2

(2) Cl2O6

(3) BrO2

(4) I2O5

164. I. XeF2 + PF5 → A

II. XeF4 + SbF5 → B

A and B are respectively

(1) [XeF]+ [PF6]- and [XeF3]+ [SbF6]-

(2) [PF4]+ [XeF3]- and [XeF3]+ [SbF6]-

(3) [XeF]+ [PF6]- and [SbF4]+ [XeF5]-

(4) [PF4]+ [XeF3]- and [SbF4]+ [XeF5]-

165. The molecular formula of diphenyl methane

is CH2 . How many

structural isomers are possible when one of

the hydrogen atoms is replaced by a chlorine

atom?

(1) 8 (2) 6

(3) 4 (4) 7

166. Which of the following is not correct?

(1) Of all transition elements melting point

is the highest for Tungsten.

(2) Of the '3d' series elements Zinc has the

lowest enthalphy of atomisation.

(3) Cr (VI) is more stable than Mo (VI) and

W (VI).

(4) The purple colour of MnO4- in acid

medium can be decolourised by Fe2+,

C2O42-, SO3

2- but not by CO32-

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167. In the following the incorrect is

(1) [Mn(CN)6]3- - Low spin complex -

paramagnetic

(2) [Fe(CN)6]4- - Low spin complex -

paramagnetic

(3) [Co(C2O4)3]3- - Low spin complex -

diamagnetic

(4) [Ni(CN)4]2- - Low spin complex -

diamagnetic

168. The copper and iron present in toxic

proportions in the system can be removed

by chelating ligands like

(1) EDTA

(2) Cis - platin

(3) triethylenetetramine

(4) D - Penicillamine

169. Base strength of (A) CH3CH2-

(B) CH2 = CH- (C) CH ≡ C- is in the order of

(1) C > B > A

(2) A > C > B

(3) A > B > C

(4) B > A > C

170. Predict the product C obtained in the

following reaction. + HI

CH3CH2C ≡ CH + HCl → B → C

(1) CH3CH2C(Cl)(I)CH3

(2) CH3CHClCH2CH2I

(3) CH3CH2CH2CHClI

(4) CH3CH2CHICH2Cl

171. Some of the meta directing substituents in

aromatic substitution are given. Which one

is the most deactivating?

(1) -NO2 (2) -COOH

(3) -C ≡ N (4) -SO3H

172. A single compound of the structure

is obtained from ozonolysis of which of the

following compounds?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

C

OHC

HH2

CH3CH3

H2CC C

O

CH3CH3

CH3

CH3

H3C CH3www.eena

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173. In which of the following molecules all

atoms are coplanar?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

174. The vapour density of a compound (A) is

same as C4H10. When the compound 'A' is

warmed with the solution of iodine in

alkali, a yellow precipitate is formed. 'A' is

(1) CH3CH2CHO

(2) CH3CHOHCH3

(3) CH3COCH3

(4) CH2 = CH - CH2OH

175. The correct decreasing order of

dipolemoment is

(1) CH3Cl, CH3Br, CH3F

(2) CH3Cl, CH3F, CH3Br

(3) CH3Br, CH3Cl, CH3F

(4) CH3Br, CH3F, CH3Cl

Con. H2SO4 Con. HNO3176. C6H5OH ⎯⎯⎯→ X ⎯⎯⎯→ Y.373 K ∆

'Y' is

(1) o-nitrophenol (2) p-nitrophenol

(3) pthalic acid (4) picric acid

177. What are the products formed when the

following compound is treated with Br2 in

the presence of FeBr3?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

H3C

H3C

CN

CN

C C=

CH3CH3

CH3

CH3

CH3CH3

Br

Br

CH3CH3CH3

CH3CH3

Br Br

CH3

CH3

Br

CH3

CH3Br

CH3

CH3

Br

CH3CH3

CH3

Br

Br2 /FeBr3

;

;

;

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178. Which one is the most reactive towards

nucleophilic addition reaction?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Zn179. ⎯⎯⎯ A; 'A' is

NH4Cl

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

180. An aromatic compound (A) containing

nitrogen reacts with Sn + HCl to form 'B'.

The compound 'B' is treated with

NaNO2 + dil HCl at 273 - 278 K to form

unstable compound C. The compound C on

reaction with X gives a beautiful coloured

compound with the formula C12H10N2O.

X is

(1) nitrobenzene

(2) aniline

(3) phenol

(4) benzaldehyde

CHO

CH3

COCH3

NO2

CHOCHO

NO2

NH2NHOH

N = N+

O-

N = N

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EENADU MOCK NEET 2017 QUESTION PAPER is seen in (1) Azolla (2) Selaginella (3) Equisetum (4) Psilotum 3. The algal stage in life cycle of Mosses (1) Elaters (2) Pyrenoid (3) Sex organs