SEDA YEKELER ACADEMY

Compiled by Gözde Demirtürk & Hilal Aba

PROFICIENCY EXAM

TECHNIQUES

EASTERN MEDITERRANEAN UNIVERSITY ENGLISH PROFICIENCY TEST PART I

Time Allowed: 120 minutes Name and Surname : ________________________ Student Number : ________________________ Exam Room : ________________________ Read the instructions before you do anything else. • Write your name and surname on the optic answer sheet and blacken your student

number in PENCIL. • Mark your answers on the optic answer sheet in pencil. • Use an eraser (rubber) to change your answers on the optic answer sheet. • Do not tear or separate the pages of the test booklet. • Make sure you transfer all your answers to the optic answer sheet. ANY

ANSWERS ON THE TEST BOOKLET WILL NOT BE SCORED. • You are not allowed to use a dictionary or any other material during the test. • You are not allowed to smoke during the test. • Give both the test booklet and the optic answer sheet to the invigilator(s) when you

leave. • Do not make any noise in the corridors when leaving the building.

PLEASE MAKE SURE YOUR BOOKLET HAS 14 PAGES

YOU ARE NOT ALLOWED

TO LEAVE THE EXAM ROOM WITHIN THE FIRST 30 MINUTES

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Gazimağusa, TRNC

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Section I – Language Features Instructions: Mark the best alternative for each blank in the sentences below. 1. Alicia is a student. _____ school is in New York. a) She b) Hers c) She’s d) Her 2. _____ Samantha swim? a) Do b) Was c) Can d) Is 3. A: “_____ does school start?” B: “In September.” a) When b) Where c) What d) Why 4. My father hates _____ computers. He will never get one. a) use b) using c) uses d) used 5. A: “Do we have fruit?” B: “There are _____ oranges in the fridge.” a) lot of b) a few c) little d) any 6. A: “How _____ do you visit your grandparents?” B: “Twice a month.” a) much b) many c) long d) often

7. I think Madrid is _____ place in the world. I go there every year. a) interesting b) the most interesting c) more interesting d) as interesting as 8. If the room is dark, you _____ on the lights. a) turned b) turning c) turn d) turns 9. Years ago my mother _____ go for long walks in the morning, but she is too busy for

that now. a) have to b) used to c) can d) should 10. I know Jim but I haven’t met his family _____. a) ever b) never c) already d) yet 11. Ralph, _____ house I am staying in at the moment, is a good friend of mine. a) whose b) who c) which d) where

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12. _____ Ali and Emel want to study abroad. They are thinking of going to England. a) All b) None c) Both d) Neither 13. I _____ long hours since I decided to buy a new car. a) worked b) have been working c) had worked d) will work 14. If my teacher had shouted at me in front of my friends, I _____ embarrassed. a) am b) would have been c) will be d) am going to be 15. A: “There are a lot of dark clouds in the sky. What shall we do?” B: “I think it _____ rain. Let’s cancel the picnic.” a) must b) has to c) will d) ought to 16. A: “I want to _____ before it breaks down completely.” B: “Take it to Techno Computers. They are really good at repairs.” a) fixing my computer b) have my computer fixed c) have fixed my computer d) my computer fix Section II – Vocabulary Instructions: Mark the best alternative for each blank in the sentences below. 17. Mina comes from Iran. She says it is a nice _____. a) town b) city c) country d) capital 18. I want a _____ long holiday this summer. I only had two days in winter. a) really b) correctly c) loudly d) neatly 19. It is _____ to work and study at the same time. You get very tired. a) popular b) important c) fantastic d) difficult 20. In this factory, they _____ beautiful cars. a) make b) start c) travel d) follow 21. Mark is going to the library _____ because he has two projects to finish. a) suddenly b) brilliantly c) definitely d) regularly

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22. It is _____ to eat lots of vegetables. There are vitamins in them. a) necessary b) dangerous c) fashionable d) typical 23. Two criminals _____ from prison yesterday. The police are looking for them

everywhere. a) avoided b) discovered c) returned d) escaped 24. My little brother has a rich _____. He always says he sees monsters. a) imagination b) attraction c) communication d) protection 25. There have been great _____ in the computer industry lately. You can do a lot of

things with a pocket-sized computer. a) prohibitions b) developments c) conclusions d) retirements 26. Mr. Smith would like to see you in his office _____. You’d better go as soon as

possible. a) dramatically b) extremely c) possibly d) immediately 27. I don’t think Mary is _____. She doesn’t keep her promises. a) remarkable b) satisfied c) reliable d) pessimistic 28. My house was flooded but I managed to _____ all my pets. a) describe b) lose c) rescue d) survive 29. Many animals start acting _____ before an earthquake. They seem uncomfortable

and upset. a) strangely b) absolutely c) faithfully d) broadly 30. George’s presentation was _____. After he finished, everyone congratulated him. a) ridiculous b) ordinary c) impressive d) dependent 31. I wanted to explain something to him but I was _____ five times by his mobile phone. a) involved b) provided c) contradicted d) interrupted 32. We are going out tonight. I have made all the _____. a) arrangements b) measures c) incidents d) observations

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Section III – Cloze Instructions: Mark the best alternative for each blank in texts 1, 2, 3, and 4 below. Text 1

Mary is a student in Whittington High School. She __33__ three brothers. They are all

university students. George is Mary’s father. He __34__ at the local library. Her mother,

Sabrina, is a teacher __35__ her school. Every day, Mary takes the bus to school. Her

brothers’ lessons are usually in the afternoon __36__ they get up late.

33. a) had b) has c) is having d) is have

34. a) shows b) sends c) visits d) works

35. a) out b) on c) at d) off

36. a) so b) or c) but d) because

Text 2 Surfing is exciting and fun for people of all ages. All you __37__ is a surfboard, a wetsuit,

and a lot of motivation. Surfing __38__ a long time ago. In the 18th century, explorers

sailing __39__ islands in the Pacific saw people surfing the waves on wooden boards. These

days, equipment can be expensive, but it is __40__ to hire boards and wetsuits from surf

schools or shops.

37. a) serve b) prefer c) need d) hold

38 a) was starting b) is starting c) starts d) started

39. a) around b) in c) on d) next

40. a) private b) possible c) voluntary d) casual

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Text 3

Recently, a girl in England __41__ her battle to wear trousers at school. She wore trousers in

primary school but she __42__ wear a skirt when she went to secondary school. Her mother

was ready to fight against this. __43__, the school decided that the legal costs were too

expensive and the rule __44__ a month ago.

41. a) wins b) is winning c) was winning d) has won

42. a) should b) had to c) might d) can

43. a) Nearly b) Separately c) Properly d) Surprisingly

44. a) changing b) was changed c) was changing d) is changed

Text 4 Before 1900, rainforests covered 14% of the world’s surface. Today they cover only 7%.

The reason for this is __45__. For years, the rainforests __46__ cut down to use the land and

the wood, and to produce paper, medicines, and fuel. It’s not only trees that are disappearing.

Millions of animals __47__ rainforests. These die, too. __48__ people stop cutting down

rainforests, more than one million species of plants and animals will become extinct by 2030.

45. a) worth b) tasteless c) obvious d) innovative

46. a) will be b) might be c) had been d) have been

47. a) inhabit b) disturb c) damage d) interact

48. a) As soon as b) If c) Unless d) When

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Section IV – Error Recognition Instructions: In each item below, there is one

mistake (grammar, vocabulary, word order, punctuation, or spelling). Mark the alternative with the mistake.

49. They’re three books in my bag. I bought them A B C D

yesterday.

50. It is very hot today. I will go in to the house and stay there A B C D

.

51. A: “What is your ocupation A B

?”

B: “I’m an engineer in a small C D

company.”

52. I only like watching films on TV. I always go to A B C D

the cinema.

53. Sarah can’t find her keys. She is looking at A B C D

them.

54. Who is the girl in front of the supermarket. She looks A B C D

really nice.

55. Have you been to Paris ever? You should visit it if you haven’t A B C D E

.

56. Although computers are very practical to use, we should use them more and more A B C D E

.

57. Many youngsters worked in factories as university education A B C D

was very expensive

between E

1945 to 1960.

58. I don’t see that company as an option. Furthermore, I don’t think they are A B C

generous

enough to satisfy their employees financial. D E

59. Peter can’t stand to sleep. He thinks there are better things to do A B C D E

with his time.

60. I have to put of the meeting with the managers. I scheduled another A B C D

meeting at the

same time by mistake. E

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Section V – Reading Text 1

Mark’s New Life Mark Walton lived in Germany with his family, but two years ago a company in England offered him a job. The money was good so he took the job. Now, he lives in a small house in North London. His family didn’t come with him because his wife has a good job in Germany and the children go to school there. Every month Mark spends some time with his family. Sometimes he goes to Germany and sometimes his wife flies to London with their two children. When they come to London, Mark takes them to interesting places. Sometimes they go out of London. At their last visit, they took the train to Scotland and stayed in a village. When Mark goes to Germany to see his family, they always spend time at home. They don’t have any visitors, even Mark’s parents! Instructions: Mark each statement a) True, b) False, or c) Don’t know according to the

information in Text 1. The first one is an example (e.g., b). e.g. Mark lives with his family now.

a) True b) False c) Don’t know

61. Mark took the job because the money was good.

a) True b) False c) Don’t know

62. He stays in a hotel in London.

a) True b) False c) Don’t know

63. His wife didn’t come to London because she doesn’t like it.

a) True b) False c) Don’t know

64. The children live with their mother.

a) True b) False c) Don’t know

65. He usually sees his family from Friday to Sunday.

a) True b) False c) Don’t know

66. When his family visits him, they don’t always stay in London.

a) True b) False c) Don’t know

67. Many people visit Mark and his family in Germany.

a) True b) False c) Don’t know

68. Mark talks to his parents on the phone when he is in Germany.

a) True b) False c) Don’t know

69. ‘offered’ in paragraph I means _____.

a) received b) gave c) chose d) worked

70. ‘there’ in paragraph I refers to _____.

a) North London b) England c) small house d) Germany

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Text 2

___77___

I. 30% of Americans and 25% of Europeans are fat. Many of them are teenagers. In

fact, there are fat farms even for young people in the United States. In these special camps,

people cannot eat chocolate, hamburgers, pizza, and other junk food. Instead there is a diet of

fruit, vegetables, brown bread, fish, and other healthy food.

II. Why is junk food bad for us? The answer is simple. It contains a lot of sugar and fat.

We need both of these things, but junk food has too much of them. People in Europe and

America eat 20 times more sugar and 5 times more fat today than in 1800. This is one reason

why so many people die of heart disease.

III. However, even health food isn’t always healthy. Modern farmers and food factories

use more than 3000 chemicals. Some are fertilizers. These help plants to grow. Others are

pesticides. These kill insects. The third group are hormones. These make animals and plants

grow bigger and faster. Finally, there are additives. They make food look better, taste better,

and last longer. So are these chemicals bad for us? If we eat too many of them and not

enough fresh, natural food, yes!

IV. Another important food issue in the world is meat. More and more people think it is

wrong to kill and eat animals. In fact, today, 5% of Europeans and Americans are

vegetarians. But rich countries still eat a lot more meat than poor ones. A person in America

eats 110 kilos of meat in a year. In India, a person eats 1.1 kilos a year.

V. Some rich countries actually produce more meat than they need. Europe, for example,

stores tons of beef. There are tons of butter and sugar, too, as well as milk and wine. Several

countries even pay their farmers not to grow food. And why does this happen? Because rich

countries grow too much food and poor countries grow too little.

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Instructions: Mark the best alternative according to the information in Text 2. 71. Which of the following is true

according to paragraph I?

a) In the past, people ate more fat and sugar. b) Very few fat people are teenagers. c) More Europeans than Americans are fat. d) In America, people try to lose weight in camps. 72. According to paragraph III, _____ help products look nice. a) additives b) pesticides c) fertilizers d) hormones 73. Which of the following information is not

in paragraph IV?

a) A lot of people don’t like killing animals. b) Less than10% of Europeans and Americans don’t eat meat. c) Rich countries eat more meat because they don’t know its dangers. d) Indians eat less meat than Americans. 74. According to paragraph V, rich countries _____. a) have similar problems to poor countries b) sometimes limit the growing of food c) sometimes give poor countries extra food d) have more food because they buy it 75. Paragraph _____ gives some information about a health problem. a) II b) III c) IV d) V 76. Paragraph _____ explains how farmers make food unhealthy. a) I b) II c) III d) IV 77. Which of the following is the best

title for the text?

a) Helping Poor Countries b) Rich Countries and Their Problems c) Food, Health, and Money d) Chemicals and Their Importance 78. ‘contains’ in paragraph II means _____. a) picks b) prepares c) serves d) includes 79. ‘stores’ in paragraph V means _____. a) introduces b) keeps c) catches d) exchanges 80. ‘this’ in paragraph V refers to _____.

a) growing food b) being a rich country c) paying farmers d) being a poor country

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Text 3 A Short History of Television

I. John Logie Baird produced the first television pictures just eight years after the First World War. They were in black and white and not very clear, but he showed the world that the principle worked. Early sets cost as much as a small car and not many were sold. Very soon, though, his original system was improved and, in 1936, Britain’s first regular TV programme went on the air. Great Britain wasn’t the only country producing programmes. Other European nations, including Germany, were also involved in the early days of television. II. The real TV revolution began in the US after World War II. TV stations began to open in almost every city, and national networks made programmes which were seen from coast to coast. One of the American networks—CBS—developed colour service as early as 1951. Two years later, TV took another important step when it showed a big international event, the coronation of Britain’s Queen Elizabeth II. It was the first time that a worldwide audience of millions saw history take place in their own homes. III. By the end of the decade, TV culture was becoming a fact of life on both sides of the Atlantic. Even so, lots of people didn’t have TV sets and many experts thought it wouldn’t be that popular. That all changed in the ’60s and ’70s, as television started to satisfy the public’s interests, not just for entertainment but also for quick, accurate information. As more and more sets were sold, the importance of TV news quickly grew. After all, what other machine could show you live, as TV did, Neil Armstrong’s first steps on the Moon in 1969? IV. Since 1980, there have been three more major developments. The first is video, which has given the viewers the power to control what they watch and when they watch it. The second is satellite TV. Thanks to direct broadcast satellites, dozens of new channels are now available to anyone who buys a receiving ‘dish’. Many of these specialise in one kind of programme such as news, sport, cartoons, music, or movies. Thirdly, there is high definition television which now offers a much clearer and more realistic picture than was possible even a few years ago. V. So… more channels, more choice, more clarity. What is there left for TV to accomplish in the future? The answer is two-way communication. Modern technology means that future televisions will be linked to computer data banks. This way, viewers will be able to ask questions (via remote control) about what they are watching and the answers will appear on their screens. This idea is called ‘hyper-media’ and it has not been tested yet. But then, as we have just seen, TV has come a very long way in a very short time. The hyper-media revolution could happen sooner than many people think.

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Instructions: Match each heading below (a-f) with the correct paragraph (I-V) in Text 3. There is one extra

heading. The first one has been done as an example.

e.g. Paragraph I __c__ a) Reasons for TV’s sudden popularity

81. Paragraph II _____ b) The future of TV viewers

82. Paragraph III _____ c) Early steps in the development of TV

83. Paragraph IV _____ d) Possible developments in the coming days

84. Paragraph V _____ e) American contributions to the development of TV

f) Recent improvements in TV

Instructions: Mark the best alternative according to the information in Text 3. 85. Baird’s invention was _____. a) bought by a lot of people in England b) after Britain’s first regular TV programme c) improved very soon after it was made d) made after the Second World War 86. Which of the following is true

according to the text?

a) In the future, we will get more information from TV. b) Colour was developed by several TV channels. c) After its production, everyone agreed on TV’s popularity. d) The earliest TV sets were extremely cheap. 87. Which of the following is not

a current development in TV?

a) High quality pictures b) Choosing what to watch c) Hyper-media revolution d) New channels to watch 88. ‘principle’ in paragraph I means _____. a) cause b) idea c) progress d) search 89. ‘accomplish’ in paragraph V means _____. a) record b) accept c) achieve d) react 90. ‘these’ in paragraph IV refers to _____. a) movies b) developments c) satellites d) channels

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Text 4

___97___

I. Hamsters, which are normally kept as pets by millions of children, are helping

scientists to understand whether violent teenagers are created by a violent childhood.

Hamsters have in their brains the same chemical signals that regulate behaviour in human

beings. Scientists are carrying out studies that focus on the chemicals in the brain which

regulate aggression. These studies demonstrate that, when the brain chemistry in young

hamsters is affected by fear, they become extraordinarily anti-social and violent towards their

fellow animals.

II. These findings add weight to the belief that aggression in adults can be blamed on

being neglected or treated badly as youngsters, as opposed to the idea that some people are

born violent.

III. Social scientists think they can help children who become aggressive when they face

failure, disappointment, and frustration, but the earlier they can intervene during childhood

the better. This suggests that genetic behaviour can be changed or modified by upbringing.

Another obvious example, heart disease, which is known to be genetic, is also made worse by

stress and other environmental factors.

IV. The relationship between genes and the environment, particularly diet, in affecting

people whose behaviour reveals criminal tendencies is also being studied. This research is

building on a study that shows some connection between sugar consumption and violent

behaviour.

V. Studies carried out in a US prison show that when the prisoners’ diet was improved,

the incidence of violence and anti-social behaviour fell by 40%. It seems that good nutrition

can make a difference in behaviour. Other studies show that diets with limited amounts of

sugar and refined foods also reduce suicide rates.

VI. Some people are now worried that a murderer whom a judge has sentenced to life

imprisonment may be able to walk free if ___95___.

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Instructions: Mark the best alternative according to the information in Text 4. 91. Hamsters _____. a) become less harmful when frightened b) are more violent when they are young c) have something in common with humans d) are usually anti-social animals 92. According to experiments on hamsters, _____. a) aggression comes from birth b) people carry violence in their genes c) young people become aggressive due to neglect d) adults teach young people aggression when they are children 93. Which of the following is not mentioned

in paragraph III?

a) All genetic behaviour can be changed. b) External factors make people aggressive. c) Heart disease is caused by genes and the environment. d) It is easier to help younger children. 94. According to paragraphs IV and V _____. a) more than half of the violence in prisons decreases with healthier food b) diet has no effect on people’s behaviour c) if people eat more sugar, they become less violent

d) there is a connection between crime and eating sweet food

95. Which of the following extracts best fills the blank in paragraph VI?

a) he was less violent at the time of the crime b) it can be proved that a bad diet was to blame c) he eats less sugar than other people in prison d) it is possible to forget his aggressive behaviour 96. This text was probably taken from a/an _____. a) book on technological developments b) psychology magazine c) encyclopedia d) book on historical developments 97. Which of the following is the best

title for the text?

a) Crime and Hamsters b) Genetics and the Environment c) Criminals and Food d) Hamsters and Violence 98. ‘regulate’ in paragraph I means _____.

a) support b) share c) claim d) control

99. ‘demonstrate’ in paragraph I means _____.

a) show b) decide c) rely d) seem

100. ‘intervene’ in paragraph III means _____.

a) get interested b) replace c) reach d) get involved

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NEW PROFICIENCY VERSION I – PART 1 – BOOKLET A Item Answer Dist. Level Item Answer Dist. Level 1 D 4 B 51 B 4 B 2 C 4 B 52 C 4 E 3 A 4 B 53 D 4 E 4 B 4 B 54 C 4 E 5 B 4 E 55 B 5 P 6 D 4 E 56 A 5 P 7 B 4 E 57 E 5 P 8 C 4 E 58 E 5 I 9 B 4 P 59 B 5 I 10 D 4 P 60 B 5 I 11 A 4 P 61 A 3 B 12 C 4 P 62 B 3 B 13 B 4 I 63 B 3 B 14 B 4 I 64 A 3 B 15 C 4 I 65 C 3 B 16 B 4 I 66 A 3 B 17 C 4 B 67 B 3 B 18 A 4 B 68 C 3 B 19 D 4 B 69 B 4 B 20 A 4 B 70 D 4 B 21 D 4 E 71 D 4 E 22 A 4 E 72 A 4 E 23 D 4 E 73 C 4 E 24 A 4 E 74 B 4 E 25 B 4 P 75 A 4 E 26 D 4 P 76 C 4 E 27 C 4 P 77 C 4 E 28 C 4 P 78 D 4 E 29 A 4 I 79 B 4 E 30 C 4 I 80 C 4 E 31 D 4 I 81 E 6 P 32 A 4 I 82 A 6 P 33 B 4 B 83 F 6 P 34 D 4 B 84 D 6 P 35 C 4 B 85 C 4 P 36 A 4 B 86 A 4 P 37 C 4 E 87 C 4 P 38 D 4 E 88 B 4 P 39 A 4 E 89 C 4 P 40 B 4 E 90 D 4 P 41 D 4 P 91 C 4 I 42 B 4 P 92 C 4 I 43 D 4 P 93 A 4 I 44 B 4 P 94 D 4 I 45 C 4 I 95 B 4 I 46 D 4 I 96 B 4 I 47 A 4 I 97 B 4 I 48 C 4 I 98 D 4 I 49 A 4 B 99 A 4 I

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50 C 4 B 100 D 4 I PART II SECTION 1-LISTENING (20 points) Part 1 (6 questions; 1 point each) Instructions: Listen to the answer phone message from a travel agency. Make notes on the pad about the message. Do not use more than three words for each note

. First, look at the notes. The first one is done for you. You will hear the message twice.

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Part 2 (5 questions; 1 point each)

• You will hear FIVE DIFFERENT PEOPLE TALKING. • You will hear them twice with a break between each listening. • CHOOSE WHO EACH SPEAKER IS TALKING TO• Use each letter only

. once. There is one extra letter which you do not

• Mark your answers on the need to use.

optic answer sheet• Now, you have one minute to study this task.

.

A) a car mechanic 1. SPEAKER 1: __________

B) a doctor 2. SPEAKER 2: __________

C) a driving teacher 3. SPEAKER 3: __________ D) a shop assistant 4. SPEAKER 4: __________

E) a taxi driver 5. SPEAKER 5: __________ F) a policeman

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Part 3 (5 questions; 1.8 point each) • You will hear PEOPLE TALKING IN FIVE DIFFERENT SITUATIONS. • You will hear them twice with a break between each listening. • CHOOSE THE BEST ALTERNATIVE (A, B or C) ACCORDING TO THE

INFORMATION YOU HEAR. • Mark your answers on the optic answer sheet• Now, you have one minute to study this task.

.

6. You hear a young woman talking about a pop concert. Why is she complaining?

a) The ticket was expensive.

b) The songs were new.

c) The hall was crowded. 7. You hear a radio announcement which gives details of a future programme about books. What will the experts on the programme tell you?

a) where you can sell the books

b) how old the books are

c) how much the books are worth

8. You hear a woman talking on the phone. Who is she talking to?

a) a doctor

b) a friend

c) a shop assistant

9. You hear two people talking about an evening class. What kind of class was it?

a) fitness

b) dancing

c) tennis

10. You hear a man talking about his job. What does he do?

a) He is a chef.

b) He is a fisherman.

c) He is a farmer.

SECTION II – READING (30 points)

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Instructions: Read Text 1 and answer the questions on the next page.

Text 1

Airports Begin Screening All Checked Luggage

I. Commercial airports in the United States have been working very hard these days. From January 1st, 2003 onwards, they will have to screen all checked luggage for explosives. The Transportation Security Administration (TSA) has asked travelers to help out by not locking their checked bags. Airport officials admit there may be some initial problems as they move to the next level of aviation security. II. John Clark, of the Jacksonville Aviation Authority, says that some luggage could wind up going on the wrong flights. He also says bags that fail the electronic screening procedures might have to be opened and searched out of sight of the bags’ owners. The Transportation Security Administration believes the public is willing to accept that. Admiral James Loy of the TSA says he believes that people are willing to give up an inch of privacy for ten yards more security. In fact, some passengers do not mind having their bags searched; others disagree with the new policy and argue that they want their privacy respected. III. Many airports have installed a high-tech explosive detection system which screens luggage as it is moving along conveyer belts after it has been checked in by passengers. “In cases where suspicious luggage is locked, we’ll open it,” said TSA Spokesman Brian Turmail. “If, in doing so, the bag is damaged, we are not liable.” IV. “We have no choice but to open any bags that raise concern,” said Admiral James Loy as he spoke with reporters at Jacksonville International Airport. It was one of the nation’s first airports to install the new equipment, which is used to screen about 10,000 bags a day. Security agents will put a card inside each bag they have searched, indicating it has been opened and inspected, and the bag will then be released. V. Legislation requiring that all checked luggage be screened was passed after the September 11th terrorist attacks. Of the 429 commercial airports in the United States, approximately 325 already have set up their baggage screening programs, and the others will have a system working by the end of the year. However, a number of airports will not have automated systems in place by the deadline. They will be allowed to use equipment that detects traces of explosives, and to make use of dogs and hand searches to accomplish the task. “In all cases, all bags will be checked,” Loy said. (CNN, December 2002)

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Instructions: Choose the best alternative according to the information in Text 1. Mark your answers on the optic answer sheet

.

1. Which paragraph is about the disadvantages of the new screening procedure?

a) I b) II c) IV d) V

2. Which paragraph mentions the reason for legal regulation?

a) I b) II c) IV d) V 3. If a bag is found to be suspicious by the detection system, it will be _____.

a) returned to the check-in desk b) kept at the airport c) fixed by security staff d) opened by the TSA

4. After the detection of a suspicious bag, a card will be put inside to _____.

a) indicate the owner of the bag b) show it has been checked c) specify who checked it d) show the number of the flight

5. Which of the following is false

according to the information in Text 1?

a) Some passengers are against the new screening policy. b) The authorities are asking people not to lock their luggage. c) All airports will have installed the new automatic system by January 2003. d) Checked luggage may also be screened by dogs.

6. ‘It’ in paragraph IV refers to _____.

a) the new equipment b) the TSA c) Jacksonville Airport d) opening bags

7. ‘They’ in paragraph V refers to _____. a) airports b) automated systems c) traces of explosives d) hand searches

8. ‘accomplish’ in paragraph V means _____. a) complete b) analyze c) disguise d) investigate

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Instructions: Read Text 2 and answer the questions on the next page.

Text 2

Don Cameron’s Passion I. Since he was a child, Don Cameron has been interested in anything which flies. He grew up on the outskirts of Glasgow and, as a student at Glasgow University, joined the University Air Squadron. Interest in the mechanics of movement, if not flight, was a family tradition. His grandfather was an engineer who turned his hand to making model steam engines and boats. II. Don Cameron’s first job was at Bristol Aircraft, where he worked as an engineer. He then had jobs in the steelworks at Llanwern and at Rio-Tinto Zinc in Bristol, working with computers. In the mid-sixties, news of American experiments with hot air balloons crossed the Atlantic, and he and a couple of friends decided to build their own balloon. This was probably the first hot air balloon used for sport in Western Europe, and they called it The Bristol Belle. Soon after this, there were 300 balloons in the U.K. alone – and at least two-thirds of them had been made by the firm Don Cameron set up, Cameron Balloons. III. At the age of 40 he had already been halfway round the world by balloon. In 1972, he piloted the first hot air balloon to cross the Swiss Alps; and later that year, he took part in what he calls ‘an odd expedition’ to the Sahara Desert, with two balloons and a truck to carry the gas. He crossed the English Channel by balloon and even flew over the Arctic Circle in one. “Before you fly there,” he remembers, “you are taught how to build igloos and survive in the snow and ice. It’s a lovely place to fly over.” IV. “In the early days,” he recalls, “I used to work night and day.” He looks down at his schedule for the following few days. It includes a drive to France to make a delivery, plus reading proofs of a ballooning handbook he has written. “I still don’t take it very easy,” he says. He started the business in the basement of the large Victorian house where he lives with his wife Kim and their two children. Now, Cameron Balloons has its own premises in an old church hall in Bristol, making about 350 balloons a year. They include specially designed balloons for advertising purposes. The firm exports all over the world and has set up a factory in America, where balloons are being made for them under licence. The turnover is now around £7,000,000 a year.

Instructions: Choose the best alternative according to the information in Text 2. Mark your answers on the optic answer sheet

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9. Which of the following is true

according to paragraph I?

a) Cameron’s interest in flying started at university. b) Cameron’s family was also interested in ballooning. c) His grandfather worked at the University Air Squadron as an engineer. d) His grandfather’s hobbies were related to mechanics.

10. Which of the following is not mentioned

in paragraph II?

a) Don Cameron worked at different places. b) Hot air sports balloons were first built in America. c) The first hot air sports balloons crossed the Atlantic. d) Cameron got help from others to build a balloon. 11. In the 1960s, Don Cameron’s company, Cameron Balloons, _____.

a) built the first hot air sports balloon in America b) was the only firm of its kind in Britain c) made most of the sports balloons in Britain d) was the largest hot air balloon firm in Europe

12. The success of Don’s firm can be measured by the fact that he _____.

a) made 350 of the balloons in Britain b) had orders to employ some people c) delivered balloons to France d) opened a factory in America

13. ‘there’ in paragraph III refers to the _____.

a) English Channel b) Arctic Circle c) Swiss Alps d) Sahara Desert

14. ‘its’ in paragraph IV refers to _____.

a) Cameron Balloons b) an old church hall

c) a Victorian house d) the basement

Instructions: Read Text 3 and answer the questions on the next page. Text 3

Europe on Smoking I. Europe is once again trying to get serious about the smoking problem. Greece has rolled out new limits on tobacco use and advertising. The Italian Senate has recently approved similar laws to support the country's earlier rules.

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II. The European Court of Justice has upheld rules that will force manufacturers to reduce levels of tar and nicotine in cigarettes, increase the size and darken the language of health warnings, and stop the use of terms like ‘mild’ and ‘light’ in packaging. Eight days before, EU health ministers had approved a measure that would ban print tobacco advertising within months, and prohibit cigarette brands from sponsoring international spectator sports like Formula One racing, beginning in 2005. III. Both smokers and non-smokers now describe themselves as victims, and smoking wars are breaking out all over Europe. So far, the smokers appear to be winning. The door of the Paris power-lunch restaurant Le Pichet carries a rebellious message: ‘Non-smokers Tolerated’. A client at The Clarence, one of London's oldest restaurants, asks a waiter to stop the smokers at the next table, and the waiter tells him, “Smoking is encouraged here to increase the enjoyment of the meal.” In Denmark, there is no minimum age for purchasing tobacco, so 10-year-olds are free to light up just about anywhere except the classroom. IV. However, slow and painful progress is being made. Around 80% of British companies have voluntarily applied bans or restrictions on workplace smoking — a revolution that has also swept France, and that is now coming to Greece as well. On the sidewalks outside Athens office buildings and hospitals, puffing workers stand together and the cigarette ends pile up, but the air inside is clean. In France, anti-smoking activists say they’re far happier seeing 10 smokers break the law than the 100 who used to puff away legally. V. If the philosophical argument against smoking restrictions is weak, the influence of those who profit from the weed is not. Estimates put the tobacco industry's worldwide annual sales at $300 to $400 billion, and 12% of that comes from Europe. And despite the spread of anti-smoking legislation and increased tobacco taxation across Europe, industry profits remain solid — around €134.8 billion in 2001 for the six largest firms alone. Those dissuasive measures have helped reduce smoking levels from 47% of the EU's adult population in 1987 to around 30% today. VI. With smoking rates declining fastest among adult males, tobacco companies are now successfully roping in women and young people. The percentage of women who smoke is on the rise throughout the EU, and now averages around 27%. The smoking population of people aged 15-24 is 36.8%. In France, the overall number of smokers is in decline, but the ranks of young tobacco fiends have expanded to include 6% of 13-year-olds, 36% of 16-year-olds, and a whopping 51% of 19-year-olds.

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TASK A Instructions: Match each paragraph (I-VI) in Text 3 with the correct summary (a-g). There is ONE EXTRAMark your answers on the

summary. One has been done as an example (e.g., I-d). optic answer sheet

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e.g. Paragraph I __d__ a) difficulties in public between smokers and non-smokers

15. Paragraph II _____ b) improvements in the application of the current laws about smoking 16. Paragraph III _____ c) the number of people dying every year due to

smoking

17. Paragraph IV _____ d) some European countries fighting against smoking

18. Paragraph V _____ e) some statistical information about the gender and age of smokers

19. Paragraph VI _____ f) the latest decisions made by the EU about the tobacco industry

g) the amount of the profit gained by tobacco companies

Task B Instructions: Choose the best alternative according to the information in Text 3. Mark

your answers on the optic answer sheet

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20. ‘here’ in paragraph III refers to _____. a) Le Pichet b) Paris c) The Clarence d) London 21. ‘that’ in paragraph IV refers to _____.

a) workplace smoking b) slow and painful progress c) 80% of British companies d) a revolution

Instructions: Read Text 4 and answer the questions on the next page.

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Text 4

The Sands of Time

I __(e.g.) i __ you’re stepping on ancient mountains, skeletons of animals, and even tiny diamonds. Sand provides a record of earth-changing processes. If we look at it, we can discover there an account of a geological past and a history of marine life that __22__. II What exactly is sand? Well, it is larger than fine dust and smaller than shingle. In fact, according to the most generally accepted measure, grains qualify if their diameter is greater than 0.06 of a millimetre and less than 0.6 of a millimetre. __23__ sand can be made of tiny pebbles or porous granules. Its grains may have the shape of stars or spirals, their edges jagged or smooth. They come from the erosion of rocks, from the skeletons of marine organisms, or even from volcanic eruptions. III Colour is another clue to sand’s origins. If it is dazzling white, its grains may come from nearby coral. On Pacific islands, jet black sand is made of volcanic minerals. Red iron oxide sand __24__. Yellow sand in Germany and Poland are remains from the Ice Age. The most precious sand is in Namibia, Angola, and Zaire, where __25__. Most of the world’s sand, though, is mainly largely transparent quartz. IV __26__ and later carried to the shore by the waves. Calcium carbonate dissolved in water, for example, becomes too concentrated to remain in solution any longer and precipitates out in greyish-white, egg-shaped grains. Sand made of the remains of marine organisms can include both plant and animal debris and their colour ranges from cream to orange. V __27__ but it has one vital function you might never even notice. Sand cushions our land from the sea’s impact, and geologists say it often does a better job protecting our shores than the most advanced coastal technology.

TASK A Instructions: Match each phrase below (a-i) with the correct gap in Text 4. The first one has been done as an example (e.g., i). There are two extra phrases. Mark your answers on the optic answer sheet

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a. More sands are generated on the sea bed or in the ocean waters themselves,

b. diamond deposits on some beaches make it worth collecting and selling

c. volcanic sand is usually not very good for plants

d. Depending on its age and origin,

e. goes back thousands, and in some cases, millions of years

f. Sand is an irreplaceable industrial ingredient with many uses,

g. Children play on it and make castles from it,

h. is often found on beaches along the coast of north Africa

i. When you are on the beach,

Task B Instructions: Choose the best alternative according to the information in Text 4.

Mark your answers on the optic answer sheet

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28. ‘it’ in paragraph I refers to _____. a) geological past b) sand c) history d) marine life 29. ‘They’ in paragraph II refers to _____.

a) grains b) rocks c) organisms d) eruptions 30. ‘cushions’ in paragraph V means _____. a) protects b) hides c) cleans d) examines

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SECTION IV – WRITING (20 points) Instructions: Use one of the following topics to write an essay of about 300 WORDS

. Use a suitable format and the necessary linkers. Your composition will be graded according to content, organisation, accuracy, and use of vocabulary.

TOPICS:

A magazine for young people called Personal Opinions has asked you to write about your favourite sport. Write an article, describing your favourite sport and what makes

it so enjoyable for you.

OR

What are the causes and effects of getting married at a very young age?

Answer Key

SECTION I-LISTENING

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Listening Part 1:

1. Reason for call:

New/changed flight details

2. Reason for cancellation: (the) unsold seats/not enough profit/not profitable

3. New flight departure date:

August 31/31 August

4. New departure time:

9.15

5. New flight number:

BT 612

6. Extra cost:

None/No/Nothing/- -

Listening Part 2: 1-f 2-e 3-b 4-d 5-c Listening Part 3: 6-b 7-c 8-a 9-b 10-a

SECTION II – Reading

Question Correct Answer Question Correct Answer Question Correct Answer 1 B 11 C 21 D 2 D 12 D 22 E 3 D 13 B 23 D 4 B 14 A 24 H

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5 D 15 F 25 B 6 C 16 A 26 A 7 A 17 B 27 G 8 A 18 G 28 B 9 D 19 E 29 A 10 C 20 C 30 A

PROFICIENCY EXAM PRACTICE SPEAKING SECTION – SAMPLE

TASK 1 1. a. Do you think it is a good idea to study abroad?

b. What are the good and bad sides of it? c. Which one do you prefer: studying abroad or studying in your own country?

2. a. How do natural disasters (tsunamis, earthquakes, etc…) affect people and countries? b. What should be done by the government afterwards? c. How can other countries help?

3. a. In what ways do you think technology is changing or affecting our lives? b. Do you think the government should control the use of technology? If so, why and

how? If not, why not? c. What are the responsibilities of families?

4. a. Certain countries are still involved in wars. How do you explain this? b. What should governments do in order to prevent wars? c. How can individuals affect their government’s decision to go to war?

5. a. How does advertising affect adults and children? b. How do you explain the different ways advertising affects adults and children?

b. Should advertising be controlled by the government? If yes, why and how? If no, why not?

6. a. What do you think about the education at the SFLIED? b. What are your plans to improve your English? c. Will you use English in your career after you graduate from university? Why? Why not?

7. a. What are the advantages of experiencing different cultures? b. What do you think about culture shock? c. Have you had such an experience?

8. a. What is fashion? b. Do you think we should follow the fashion? Why? Why not? c. How are fashion and the economy related? 9. a. What are your ambitions about your educational career? b. Why did you choose this university? c. What do you think of English medium university education? 10. a. There are lots of students from different cultures at EMU. Do you think this situation

is a plus for students’ personal and educational growth? In what ways? If no, why not? b. Do you prefer being in the same class as students from different cultures? Why? Why not?

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11. a. What are the major difficulties of living abroad as a student? b. What are the advantages of living abroad as a student? c. Where would you like to live in future? Why?

ENGLISH PROFICIENCY TEST SPEAKING SECTION – SAMPLE

TASK 2: TALKING ABOUT A PICTURE No: 1

Instructions: Please describe and comment on the situation in the picture below.

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ENGLISH PROFICIENCY TEST SPEAKING SECTION – SAMPLE

TASK 2: TALKING ABOUT A PICTURE No: 2 Instructions: Please describe and comment on the situation in the picture below.

ENGLISH PROFICIENCY TEST SPEAKING SECTION – SAMPLE TASK 3: DISCUSSING A PROBLEM 1. Your friend has a roommate who makes too much noise and this prevents your friend

from studying. He wants to rent a flat but he can’t afford it. He has come to you with this problem. What would you do?

2. One of your best friends would like to divorce her husband but he won’t accept. He

threatens to kill her if she does. She came to you to ask for help. What would you do?