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PTpnrps02 1 of 13 Corp. Office: Delhi Regd. Office: Indore PT centres spread across India ~ Established 1993 Our motto “Kar Ke Dikhayenge” is delivered through our unique Technology Driven Process Engine (TDpro engine). Email: [email protected] Web: www.PTeducation.com ePracCAT # 02 ANALYSIS About PracCATs Hi! Welcome to PT’s trendsetting ePracCAT series that provides the cutting edge to all test takers with its innovative approach towards paper setting styles, question patterns, and inductive & deductive reasoning skill requirements. The ePracCAT series has all the features that make it unique in content and approach, thus making it the best tool in the country for students aiming at the best B Schools. The ePracCATs by PT Education will provide you various possible simulations of the actual CAT. The multiple paper patterns, differential marking, and different negative markings will give you an actual feel of the unpredictable CAT. Special features of the PracCAT series: 1. Innovative questions requiring high quality reasoning 2. Benchmark in the standards of questions asked 3. Interpretive ability tested to the maximum 4. All possible varieties of the CAT paper simulations 5. Detailed question by question analysis on your performance available on the PT Website for every student. 6. Authentic AIRs 7. Gyan Dhara for each student (also for students who register for only the ePracCAT series, restricted to ePracCATs only) 8. Doubts clearing services and personal counseling sessions for all students (with prior appointments) The test that you just took was an attempt to help you gear up for the coming test(s). Different variations in terms of toughness of tests, total questions etc. should prepare you for your dream career. So, remind yourself again... Kar Ke Dikhayenge!

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Corp. Office: Delhi Regd. Office: Indore PT centres spread across India ~ Established 1993

Our motto “Kar Ke Dikhayenge” is delivered through our unique Technology Driven Process Engine (TDpro engine).

Email: [email protected] Web: www.PTeducation.com

e­Prac­CAT # 02 ANALYSIS

About Prac­CATs

Hi! Welcome to PT’s trendsetting e­Prac­CAT series that provides the cutting edge to all test takers with its innovative approach towards paper setting styles, question patterns, and inductive & deductive reasoning skill requirements.

The e­Prac­CAT series has all the features that make it unique in content and approach, thus making it the best tool in the country for students aiming at the best B Schools.

The e­Prac­CATs by PT Education will provide you various possible simulations of the actual CAT. The multiple paper patterns, differential marking, and different negative markings will give you an actual feel of the unpredictable CAT.

Special features of the Prac­CAT series: 1. Innovative questions requiring high quality reasoning 2. Benchmark in the standards of questions asked 3. Interpretive ability tested to the maximum 4. All possible varieties of the CAT paper simulations 5. Detailed question by question analysis on your performance available on the PT Website for

every student. 6. Authentic AIRs 7. Gyan Dhara for each student (also for students who register for only the e­Prac­CAT series,

restricted to e­Prac­CATs only) 8. Doubts clearing services and personal counseling sessions for all students (with prior

appointments)

The test that you just took was an attempt to help you gear up for the coming test(s). Different variations in terms of toughness of tests, total questions etc. should prepare you for your dream career. So, remind yourself again...

Kar Ke Dikhayenge!

Page 2: E-Prac CAT # 02 - Solution

2 of 13 PTpnrps02

1. Ans.(1). From the last paragraph, one can infer that the pursuit of science progressively leads a person away from errors. Option (2) is thus incorrect. Option (3) fails because science looks for a better understanding of the world around us as stated in the passage. Errors occur incidentally and are not the motif of practicing science. Option (4) is incorrect as it is opposite to what is stated in the passage. Option (5) is incorrect as age is "the characteristic" but not "the only characteristic" that determines the value of the idea in the scientist's mind.

2. Ans.(2). The line means that the most important thoughts of a particular generation erode away slowly and become more like a typical characteristic that determines the behaviour of that particular time. The people afterwards treat them like they are an artifact. Hence, option (2) is the closest one. Option (1) is an out­of­scope answer as it doesn't necessarily refer only to ideas or thoughts. It may refer to anything new. Option (3) states the exact reverse of the meaning of the line (viz. Ideas don't die). Option (4) talks about the speed of the thought degeneration which is not mentioned. Similarly, option (5) tries determining the relationship between importance and popularity of an idea which is not what is asked in the question.

3. Ans.(1). The example of his mother as given by the author is stated with the point that scientific reasoning must be internally consistent. That means that the thought process must not be contradictory. Option (1) sums it up nicely. Option (2) makes the mistake of equating lay reasoning with layman's reasoning. Option (3) cites an example and this is a specific case and cannot be the sole reason for the conclusion. Answers like these are termed as "too­specific". The word "throughout" used in option (4) makes it a wrong choice. The option actually means that the mother was never being logically correct. This is something that we cannot assume. Option (5) is close but can be avoided as the difference between "irrelevant" and "internally inconsistent" comes into play.

4. Ans.(5). Sentence A is incorrect because of two reasons. After reading the complete paragraph, we can see that the people are trying to "walk through" and not "walk to" the metal detector. Again, the metal detector should be at the boarding gate and not on it. C has the flaw that instead of man, there should be men. E is incorrect because the sentence means that the metal detector would erupt and not the people. Hence, the correct sentence is "it would erupt…". Also, it should be pinball and not pin ball.

5. Ans.(3). B and D are the only correct sentences as A has the flaw that it uses the verb disappear in the simple present when the temperament of the sentence demands that it be used in the simple past. One can easily make out that there is a difference between sentences A, B and C in terms of tenses. Working from the options, we come to know that A must have a mistake. In sentence C, it is always "debate on" and not "debate in". E has a missing comma after 2009.

6. Ans.(3). B is incorrect because instead of humanly (marked or motivated by concern with the alleviation of suffering), it should be human. C is incorrect as the infinitive form ‘to develop’ has to be used. E has a subject­verb agreement trouble. It should be "concepts" instead of "concept".

7. Ans.(4). The desperation as mentioned in the passage was caused not only because of the presence of literary works that were disgusting to his taste but also that he had some misgivings about his own capacity as a poet which kept on recurring and made him an anxious man. All other options are partially correct. Options (2) and (3) are close. Option (3) has the failing that it mentions only one part of the answer and misses out the other one (i.e. Goethe's doubts about his creations). Option (2) on the other hand, mentions sideline issues that may have given Goethe some headache but they cannot be classified as reasons for desolation. Only option (4) answers the question completely.

8. Ans.(2). Goethe speaks in the first paragraph that he was intent on spreading the purest ideas and that the other poets, for instance Schiller or Heinse were creating works that were diffusing conflicting thoughts. These ideas, according to Goethe were demeaning to the age as they weren't intent on purity. Option (1) focuses on the overplay of emotions which was only a part of the whole argument. Option (3) is a consequence of the situation and not a precursor for it. This means that Goethe objected because of some reasons to the other poets' works and was astounded by their popularity. He was not objecting because of the popularity. Option (4) mentions only a part of the answer, and it even changes Goethe's stand by saying that he couldn't keep pace with it, which means that he wished to create works like that, which is not the truth. Option (5) speaks about the amoral conduct of the characters in the poets' works, whereas, we know nothing about the main characters.

9. Ans.(2). If we read above the line, the idea reveals itself that Goethe was frustrated of the prevalent situation and had thought about quitting poetry. This line provides the reason why the author thinks that his decision wasn't imperfect. Option (2) states this and even gives the exact meaning of the line. Goethe calls the poets "disorganized genius" but this does not make it clear whether they were unaware of their actions as stated in option (1). Option (3) says that the works were created in an unorganized manner. We know nothing about this. Option (4) is close but fails because Goethe had no intention of fighting, instead he had thought of quitting. Option (5) is irrelevant.

10. Ans.(1). For answering this question, one must understand the structure of the paragraph. The author says in his writing that there are a lot of things that can make art look something like a testament or a work of written rules. Then he says "for instance" and starts to list all ways for doing the aforementioned. In the end, the sentence that most aptly closes the thinking is the one that says a bit about the common characteristics of all these. Hence, option (1). Option (2) talks about success, which we cannot be sure of. Option (3) doesn't understand the flow of the paragraph as one cannot speak about artists before ending the talk about readers. Option (4) falls out because of the "we". One cannot be sure of the context of it. Option (5) is irrelevant.

11. Ans.(2). We can arrive at the answer simply by negating the wrong answers. We begin with option (1). The reference to text is something new and uncalled for in the context of the argument. Option (3) is a far­fetched one. (4) is in contradiction to the paragraph. Option (5) is irrelevant and does not specifically relate to the paragraph. Option (2) is a better one as it continues the line of reasoning of the paragraph.

12. Ans.(3). Option (3) is the best ending to this idea as it seems to explain a reason (even though humorous) for the action of shutting down the windmill. Option (1) leads us to the conclusion that manual operation of the windmill is not worth it. Whereas, nothing like this can be deduced from the passage. Option (2) gives a new idea and can be sidelined. Option (4) talks about beginning the system, when instead it should be "restarting". Option (5) is redundant as it just rephrases the end sentence.

13. Ans.(1). In the first paragraph, Newton talks about Reductionism to simplify the complexity in life. Here, he exemplifies that the more we analyse, the more we understand. Hence, there is a need to comprehend the smaller parts in order to grasp the identity of the whole. Option (2) is close but the word 'Only' makes it a hard choice. We cannot be sure that Newton meant to fixate his thoughts on only the reductionist's approach. Option (3), though, talks about Determinism, isn't directly related to the statement made by Newton. Options (4) & (5) are contrary to the contention made by Newton.

14. Ans.(3). After reading the fifth paragraph we can be sure that option (3) is correct as it is the crux of the whole paragraph. Option (1) is opposite to author's argument. Option (2) is ambiguous because of the unnecessary focus on the quotation utilized. Culture as stated in the paragraph is linked with the traditional approach to Biology and hence, option (4) is incorrect. Option (5) doesn't even attempt to answer the question as what it talks about is not a hypothesis that is put forward by a school of thought.

15. Ans.(3). There are 3 false statements. Statement A is false as this is the Traditional view, not the Neo­Darwinism view Statement B is false since it states the exact reverse of what is stated in the Neo­Darwinism viewpoint.

Statement C is false since it is never mentioned anywhere explicitly. Statement D is true as it is mentioned at the end of first paragraph.

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16. Ans.(2). The complete passage talks about the fact that the users have broken the shackles of passiveness and can come up with their own ideas and create or contribute in something that is more of a community­design than an individual one. Not everywhere are the users doing this as stated in option (1). Neither is this creating a pan­ideology (option (3)). We cannot generalize the answer to include everything that's a problem with the entertainment field (option (4)). Option (5) is a false one as this happens pretty much always and hence is not a change at all.

17. Ans.(4). The author has stated that the community efforts of the users on the Internet has allowed for the users to upload what they think is worthwhile content for the perusal of others. This gives everyone the freedom to consume as well as produce. Hence, option (4) is the best answer.

18. Ans.(3). If we read paragraph 4, it becomes clear that the author views social production as a major force that is realigning the market. It is not destructive and is instead coordinating with other forces. Thus, option (1) is wrong. Option (2) is wrong as the government spending is not flowing into social production as the option has us believe. Option (3) is partially correct but author has been optimistic by stating that there is the possibility of a middle path. Option (5) is incorrect as author never states that it is unreliable.

19. Ans.(1). The second part documents the different calamities that may befall one while working in the bywaters of Sundarbans. The first part on the other hand speaks of the human influence on the delicate ecosystem of Sundarbans. Option (1) gives a precise start to the subsequent part linking it beautifully with the previous part. Option (2) does not seem to regard the existence of the second part of the paragraph. Options (3) and (4) are not pertaining to any of the parts at all. Option (5) can be negated on the similar grounds that it neglects that it should speak atleast something about the second part.

20. Ans.(3). The two parts of the paragraph have different tones and hence, one can expect that there would be a twist that is the missing link. This is provided by option (3). The first part of the paragraph reads a quote from Walter Benjamin that every masterpiece has the defining quality of changing the prevalent ideology of the time. While the second part states that what if the situation was different and the works (even if not masterpieces) were peculiar by themselves and could create a different idea that was unique by itself. Clearly, the two parts require a connector which changes the flow of the idea from the above part.

21. Ans.(4). An easy link here is that the lower half of the paragraph uses a "them". This most probably refers to something in the sentence before it. Options (1) and (4) are the probable choices here. Between the two, we should choose option (4) because in option (1), we say that the rich are "not the only" targets. This makes it peremptory that there are other targets that deserve a mention in the next part, which doesn't happen in the subsequent lines. Thus, the best choice is option (4).

22. Ans.(4). A major link here is that B must come after A. In A, the speaker is introducing "curved space­time", while in B this concept is referred to and talked about. Thus, A will precede B even if not immediately so. This rules out options (1), (2) and (3). Another link here is AE. The "That" used in E refers to a particular something that must have been named/used in the sentence above. The best match here only seems sentence A. This rules out option (5).

23. Ans.(4). This one is a tough one as the key links are hard to find. One link can be CA. In sentence A, we talk of examples of market creation and this must succeed sentence C as in C the idea of market creation and the possible repercussions are discussed. This rules out options (1) and (3). Solving the question through the options, it is clear that BCA or CAB cannot be correct as there is something missing in between the talk about "transfers" and "creation of any market". The most appropriate choice has to be option (4).

24. Ans.(3). To be able to answer this question we must see that C is not there in any option as the ending. Thus, either this is a rhetorical question (one that doesn't require any answer) or the answer must be provided in the sentences themselves. One major link is BD, as "a few of the professional sort" clearly refers to "Western soldiers… amateur anthropologists." This rules out options (4) and (5). Option (1) will be negated easily because A doesn't pass as a reasonable ending line to the idea. A better choice between the two i.e. options (2) and (3) is option (3), as C requires a premise to ask a question. In the link DCE, D is the premise for C and E is the solution. When we see it this way, it becomes clear that ACE is a far better link. Hence, option (3) is correct.

25. Ans.(3). This one is a fairly simpler one with many key links. DC is a key­link as D tells about "banks and offices that have shut for the day" and C speaks of an example "both sport locked doors". Thus, D must precede C. E speaks about a failure and thus in the succeeding sentence it should describe the nature of the failure. This is done only in A and C. But we just discussed that DC is a key. Hence, only EA can be a key­link. This leaves us with only option (3).

26. Let the number of tiles along R’s breadth and along R’s length be x and y respectively.

Number of Blue tiles = (x–2)(y–2) Number of Red tiles = 2x+2(y–2)

Given, (x–2)(y–2)=2[2x+2(y–2)]

xy–6x–6y=–12

Adding 36 on both the sides we get (x–6)(y–6)=24

(x–6)(y–6)=24 ×1 or 12 × 2 or 8 × 3 or 6 × 4 x=30, y=7 or x=18, y=8 or x=14, y=9 or x=12, y=10

from the given options 30 and 18 are the only possibilities.Ans.(5)

27. Given function is (ab + c 2 )/b, or, a + c 2 /b. To maximize this function we have to take maximum possible values of a & c and the minimum possible value of b.

Assume a = 5, b = 7 and c = 19

But, substituting these values would not lead to an integral value of the given expression.

So, the values which can be taken are a = 5, b = 9 and c = 18,

a + c 2 /b = 5 + (18) 2 /9 = 41

Ans.(4) 28. When n = 8 the sum will be minimum when y = –40 [we can deduce this by putting in the value]

f(y) = 40 + 30 + 20 + 10 + 0 + 10 + 20 + 30 + 40 = 200. Ans.(5)

29. When n is odd, there will be an even number of terms. In this case, the value of f(y) will be minimum for all

y=10(n–1/2) to 10(n+1/2)

y=5n–5 to 5n+ 5

so, total value=11. Ans.(1)

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30. Given,

a 1 × 10 6 + a 2 × 10

5 +…+ a 7 = 3N (1)

a 1 + a 2 × 10 + a 3 × 10 2 +…+ a 7 × 10

6 = N (2)

On subtracting equation (2) from (1) we get,

2N = (10 6 – 1)×(a 1 – a 7 ) + (10 5 – 10)×(a 2 ­ a 6 ) + (10

4 – 10 2 ) × (a 3 – a 5 )

Since, (10 a – 10 b ) is divisible by 9 for all non­negative integers a and b,

2N must be divisible by 9.

Or N must be divisible by 9. So, the sum of the digits of N be 9. Ans.(1)

31. It is known that efficiency of B increases by 20% when A and B work together. In that case number of days taken by B = 36 × 5/6 = 30

Part of the job completed by A and B in two days = 2/32 + 2/30 = 1/16 + 1/15 = 31/240

Part of the job completed by B and C in next 4 days = 4/36 + 4/40 = 1/9 +1/10 = 19/90

Now, C left the job and A joined B.

Suppose A worked for x more days. Then B worked for only x–2 days.

Now, x/32 + (x – 2)/30 + 31/240 + 19/90 = 1

(30x + 32x – 64)/960 + (93 + 152)/720 = 1

(62x – 64)/960 = 1 – 245/720

(62x – 64)/960 = 95/144 62x – 64 = 960 × 95/144

x = 1046/93 x = 11 23

93 days.

Total number of days taken by them to complete the job = 2 + 4 + 11 23

93 = 17 23

93 . Ans.(3)

32. c 2 = a 2 + b 2 – ab

Or, c 2 = a 2 + b 2 – 2abCos(π/3) The above expression signifies a, b, c as sides of a triangle with angle C(opposite to side of length c) = 60°.

Thus, either angle A ≥ 60° and angle B ≤ 60° or else A ≤ 60° and B ≥ 60°

In both the cases, value of angle C will lie between angles A and B.

Hence, length c will be between length a and b. Ans.(3)

For Q. 33 and 34:

A B

C D E

F

33. Let the length of the rectangle be L and breath be B.

Also, length of diagonal be D and D L B = + 2 2

Area of ABD = 1/2 × L × B = 1/2 × D × AE

1/2 × L × B = 1/2 × D × AE

AE = L × B/D

Since, ABCD is a symmetrical figure (rectangle),

DE = BF

ADE is a right­angled triangle (DE) 2 + (AE) 2 = B 2

(DE) 2 = B 2 – (L 2 × B 2 )/D 2

(DE) 2 = B 2 – (L 2 ×B 2 )/(L 2 + B 2 )

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(DE) 2 = (L 2 B 2 + B 4 – L 2 B 2 )/(L 2 + B 2 ) = B 4 /(L 2 + B 2 )

DE = B 2 /D

Also, EF = D – (DE + BF) = D – 2DE

(DE = BF) = D–2B 2 /D = (D 2 –2B 2 )/D = (L 2 + B 2 – 2B 2 )/D =(L 2 – B 2 )/D

According to the question, ADE/AEF=2/5

(1/2 × DE × AE)/(1/2 × EF × AE) = 2/5 DE/EF = 2/5

( B 2 /D)/(L 2 –B 2 )/D = 2/5

5B 2 = 2L 2 – 2B 2

7B 2 = 2L 2

L:B = √7:√2

According to the question

L × B = 100√14

√7x × √2x =100√14

x 2 = 100 x = 10

Perimeter of the rectangle = 2(10√7 + 10√2) = 20(√7 + √2). Ans.(1)

34. AF AE EF = + 2 2

=√L 2 B 2 /D 2 + (L 2 – B 2 ) 2 /D 2

=1/D√L 2 B 2 + L 4 + B 4 –2L 2 B 2

=1/D√390000 =√39 × 100/30

=10√39/3. Ans.(4)

35. 3 3 2 3 log log a a x x + =

3 3 3 2 log log a a x x + × = (Since, X Y a a Y X log log = )

4 3 2 × = log a x

3 1 2 log / a x =

log log / log 3 3 3 1 2 a x =

log log a x = − 3 2

a a a x log log = − 3 2

x a = − 2 3 log . Ans.(3)

36. Let marked price = 5x; cost price = 4x Discount = 3y; and Profit/Loss percentage = 4y Then, SP = 5x(100–3y/100) = 4x(100+4y/100) 500–15y = 400+16y y=100/31 Hence, profit percentage =4y=400/31 y=12.9%. Ans.(2)

37. If b:c = 3:4, then a:b is also 3:4. So, a:b:c = 9:12:16 Similarly, if b:c = 12:16 and c:d = 3:4, then a:b:c:d = 27:36:48:64 Also, if c:d = 48:64 and d:e = 3:4, then a:b:c:d:e = 81:108:144:192:256 Since, a, b, c, d and e are positive integers, so, minimum value of a + b + e = 81 + 108 + 256 = 445. Ans.(2)

38. We know that if a : b, c : d, e : f all are unequal, then the value of (a + c + e) /(b + d + f) lies between the lowest and the highest value of those functions. So, here lowest value 3/8 = 0.375 and highest value 7/8 = 0.875 Ans.(3)

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39. Suppose x 1 = Number of stations before 1 st stoppage

x 2 = Number of stations between 1 st stoppage and 2 nd stoppage

x 3 = Number of stations between 2 nd stoppage and 3 rd stoppage

x 4 = Number of stations after the 3 rd stoppage

And x 1 + x 2 + x 3 + x 4 = 16 – 3 = 13

Also x 1 , x 2 , x 3 , x 4 are greater than or equal to 1

Hence, required number of solutions = 13–1 C 4–1 = 12 C 3

=12!/(9! × 3!) = 220. Ans.(1)

40. Since, b 2 – 4ac ≥ 0

Therefore, for equation x 2 – kx + 60 = 0

k 2 – 240 ≥ 0

and, for equation x 2 – 9x + k = 0 81 – 4k ≥ 0 So,15.49 ≤ k ≤ 20.25. Ans.(1)

41. We know that the line passing through the center of a parallelogram divides the parallelogram in 2 parallelograms of equal areas. Thus, area of parallelogram LQRM = ½ AQRB Hence, the ratio of the areas of quadrilaterals LQRM and PQRS = ¼. Ans. (1)

42. f(x) = 21log 40 (x) – 3log x (5) + 48log x (2) – 9log x (2) + 24log x (10)

⇒ 21log 40 (x) – 3log x (5) – 3log x (8) + 24log x (4) + 24log x (10) [ Since (9log x (2) = 3log x (8), 48log x (2) = 24log x (4)]

⇒ f(x) = 21log 40 (x) ­ 3log x (40) + 24log x (40) ⇒ 21log 40 (x) + 21log x (40)

⇒ 21(log 40 (x) + log x (40))

if log 40 x = a, then log x 40 = 1/a

now, (a+1/a)≥ 2 (Since, A.M. ≥ G.M.) 21(a+1/a) ≥ 21 × 2 = 42 Ans.(3)

For Q.43 & Q.44: Let distance between Bandra to Kurla = 5x It is given that by the time B reached Kurla, A was halfway to Kurla, Suppose the distance between Andheri and Kurla be "a" a/2 = 3x (Since speed ratio of A and B is 3:5) a = 6x When B met A, 33 km away from Andheri, the distance of the meeting point from Andheri is

3 3 3 5 3

33 8

x x i e. x +

+

F H G

I K J ( ) .

Given,33x/8 = 33 x = 8 Distance between Andheri and Kurla is 48km and that between Bandra and Kurla is 40km.

43. As Andheri, Bandra and Kurla form a triangle, the distance between Andheri and Bandra can vary from 8km to 88 km. Hence the distance traveled by A before it crosses B can be 3 km to 33 km, depending on the actual distance between Andheri and Bandra .It can't be 36 km. Ans.(4)

44. From the data, as distance between Andheri and Bandra is twice of that between Bandra and Kurla, it has to be 80 km

Speed of A =

80

2 2 3 = 30 kmph

As we know, ratio of speeds of A and B = 3 : 5. Speed of B = 30 × 5/3 = 50 kmph Time taken by B to reach Kurla from Andheri = 48/50 = 0.96 hour Ans.(2)

45. We have

(6666……….n digits) = 6 + 6×10 + 6×10 2 +………+6 × 10 n–1

=2/3(10 n –1)

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(6666………n digits) 2 = 4/9(10 n –1) 2 ………………….(1)

Similarly, ( 8888…….n digits) = 8/9(10 n ­1)…………(2) On adding (1) and (2) we have

(6666………n digits) 2 + ( 8888…….n digits) = 4/9(10 2n –1). Ans.(1) 46. The numbers till 668 that are co­prime to 60 are numbers that are odd as well as not divisible by 3 and 5. To solve this question, we can have two approaches:

First, we can write down all the odd numbers from S: 19, 41, 63, 85, 107, 129, 151, 173, 195, 217, 239, 261, 283, 305, 327, 349, 371, 393, 415, 437, 459, 481, 503, 525, 547, 569, 591, 613, 635 and 657. From these, we can exclude the multiples of 3 and 5. Thus, our search narrows down to 16 of these numbers. This is our answer. Secondly, there is a formula for answering these types of questions: If x, x + a, x + 2a,………, x + (n – 1)a are elements of an AP where the common difference and the number of terms are co­prime numbers, then the number of elements in the AP which are co­prime to n is G(n), where G(n)=number of positive integers smaller than n and co­prime to n. Given, common difference = 11 and number of terms = (668 – 19/11) + 1 = 60 Since, 11 and 60 are co­prime numbers, so number of elements in the given set which are co­prime to 60,

A(60) = A(2 2 × 3 1 ×5 1 ) = (2 2 –2 1 )(3 1 –3 0 )(5 1 –5 0 ) = 2 × 2 × 4 =16. Ans.(5)

47. Statement 1: Clearly, statement 1 alone is not sufficient to answer the question. HCF of x and y may be 1 or greater than 1. Statement 2:

15(2x 2 –y 2 ) = 7xy

30x 2 – 15y 2 – 7xy = 0

30x 2 /y 2 – 7x/y – 15 = 0 (dividing by y 2 ) putting x/y = z, we get

30z 2 – 7z – 15 = 0

or z x or =

± + =

± =

− 7 49 450 4 60

7 43 60

5060

36 60 or

x y

or = − 5

6 3 5 .

Now, since x and y are single digit natural numbers. So, x/y is not equal to ­3/5 and x/y = 5/6 only when x = 5 and y = 6. Since 5 and 6 are co­prime numbers, so, G.C.D. is equal to 1. Hence, Statement 2 alone satisfies the conditions. Ans. (2)

48. Given that, 2x + 5y + 10z = 50. Since 10z gives a number that ends in a 0. Hence, 2x + 5y should also yield a sum ending in a 0, to make the total sum equal to 50. Therefore, x must be a multiple of 5 and y must be a multiple of 2. If x = 5, then (y, z) = (2, 3) or (4, 2) or (6, 1) If x = 10, then (y, z) = (2, 2) or (4, 1) If x =15, then (y, z) = (2, 1) Statement 1: y ≤ z (y, z) = (2, 3) or (2, 2) y = 2 Statement 1 alone is sufficient. Statement 2: z = 2 y = 2 or 4 Statement (2) alone is not sufficient. Ans. (1)

49. Statement 1: Suppose a, b and c are prime numbers other than 2 7a + 4b – 5c odd + even – odd = even Hence, this is not possible. It means at least one of a and c must be equal to 2 If c = 2, 7a + 4b ­ 5c odd + even ­ even = odd if c ≠ 2 and a = 2 7a + 4b – 5c

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even + even ­ odd = odd finally, c = 2 or c ≠ 2. Therefore, statement 1 alone is not sufficient to answer the question. Statement 2: Since 4d + 13a + 5b – 4c is even, so, 13a + 5b is even. This means a and b both are either odd or even. But, a & b both cannot be even distinct prime numbers. So, both are odd. Then also, this does not give any information about ‘c’ being even or odd. Now, combining both the statements, from (2) a cannot be even. So, a is not equal to 2. Then from (1), c is equal to 2. Hence, the question can be answered using both the statements together. Ans. (4)

50. As per the question Australia > England and Pakistan > New Zealand and New Zealand’s rank is less than median, i.e, either 4th or 5th rank. Statement 1: India is ranked 5 but either Pakistan or Aus can be the top rank holder in the group Hence, statement 1 is not sufficient to answer. Statement 2: Pakistan rank 3rd or 4th or 5th We cannot arrive at a unique arrangement. So, statement 2 is also insufficient. Combing both the statement we get Australia > England > Pakistan > New Zealand > India. Ans. (4)

For Q.51­54 From the information provided, following table can be prepared:

Teams Number of Members Monday Tuesday Wednesday Thursday Friday Total Points

Ace 5 10 10 Ranbaxy 3 6 6 32 DayTime 6 8 8 40 Kanbay 12 7 10 9 Sameera 44 SeeShaw 6 12 12 60 LabShow 12 56

There are not many possibilities when it comes to the ratio of contributions are concerned. All the possible contributions are shown as under:

Team Analyst Team Lead (TL)

1 2

2 2

1 3

2 3

51. Since the Ace Team contributes equal points each on Monday and Tuesday, therefore, amount collected on Tuesday is also 10 and the number of members is 5. It is given that on Friday they collected 14 points, which is only possible when there are 4 TLs and 1 Analyst. Therefore, the minimum number of points collected is when every TL contributes 2 points and the Analyst contributes 1 point, i.e., 9 points. Ans.(3)

52. Evidently, one of the values has to be repeated, because of the restriction that exactly two days in a week, 2 points are contributed by each member. Now it can be any one of 10 (5 members) or 12 points (6 members). In both the cases we can form combinations of 7, 9 and 10 points simultaneously. Ans.(4)

53. The contributions that are given are 6, 8, 8 …. However, one should not fall in the trap of believing that 8, 8 are the two days on which each member has contributed 2 points each, as under the constraint of the rules, it clearly has been stated that every team must have a different pair of days to donate 2 points. This in turn means that 8 points will be donated once more to complete the pair, so now we know that 8 points have been donated thrice and 6 points once. So, the remaining combination will amount to 10 points (4 members with 2 TL and 2 Analysts). Hence, the answer is 8 + 8 + 6 + 10 + 8 = 40 points. Ans.(1)

54. It has been given to us that the SeeShaw team has donated 2 points each, on Tuesday and Thursday. We know 12 points each have been donated, therefore, number of members in the team is 6. Also the sum of the other 3 days must be 36 (60 –12–12) Using the other three combinations of donations by Team Leads and Analysts Let, X be number of Analysts, Y be number of Team Leads and a, b and c be the donations of SeeShaw team on Monday, Wednesday and Friday (in any order). Then, a + b + c = 36 and X + Y = 6 (X, Y > 0) For this we get several values of (a, b, c) like (9, 12, 15), (11, 12, 13), (10, 11, 15), (10, 12, 14) and (9, 13, 14). Out of which the minimum value of a is 9. (Considering that the minimum amount is contributed by SeeShaw. Ans.(3)

For Questions 55­58 Seating Arrangement:

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Sneha

Rumi Shalini

Ritu

Partners: (1) Shalini & Rumi (2) Sneha & Ritu After initial dealing of the cards ­

Shalini Sneha Rumi Ritu Spade Ace, 8, 9, King 6, 7, Queen 4, 5, Jack 2, 3, 10 Club Queen, King 8, 9, 10, Jack 4, 5, 6, 7 Ace, 2, 3 Diamond Ace, 2, Queen, King 9, 10, Jack 6, 7, 8 3, 4, 5 Heart 10, Jack, Queen 7, 8, 9 4, 5, 6 Ace, 2, 3, King Because Shalini has the most number of kings, so following the rules given in the question, she is the player number 1 for 1st round and will pass king of spade to Sneha. Subsequently, Sneha passes the seven of heart to Rumi and Rumi passes the jack of spade to Ritu and again Ritu passes the ace of heart to Shalini. After first round ­

Shalini Sneha Rumi Ritu Spade Ace, 8, 9 6, 7, Queen, King 4, 5 2, 3, 10, Jack Club Queen, King 8, 9, 10, Jack 4, 5, 6, 7 Ace, 2, 3

Diamond Ace, 2, Queen, King 9, 10, Jack 6, 7, 8 3, 4, 5 Heart Ace, 10, Jack, Queen 8, 9 4, 5, 6, 7 2, 3, King

Still Shalini has the most number of kings, she is player number 1 and the round goes on according to the given rules. After Second round ­

Shalini Sneha Rumi Ritu

Spade Ace, 8, 9 6, 7, Queen, King 4, 5 2, 3, 10,

Jack Club Queen, King 8, 9, 10, Jack 4, 5, 6, 7 Ace, 2, 3

Diamond Ace, 2, Queen, King 9, 10, Jack 6, 7, 8 3, 4, 5

Heart Ace, 10, Jack, Queen 8, 9 4, 5, 6, 7 3, King

Now, Sneha is having the most number of kings so she must be player number 1. So in third round, Sneha will start passing the card according to the given rules. After Third round ­

Shalini Sneha Rumi Ritu Spade Ace, 8, 9, Jack 6, 7, Queen 4, 5, King 2, 3, 10 Club Queen 8, 9, 10, Jack, King 4, 5, 6, 7 Ace, 2, 3

Diamond Ace, 2, Queen, King 9, 10, Jack 6, 7 3, 4, 5, 8 Heart 2, 10, Jack, Queen 9, Ace 5, 6, 7,8 3, 4, King

Because each player is holding equal number of kings, the game gets over. 55. The game gets over after round three. Ans. (2) 56. The partners are Shalini & Rumi and Sneha & Ritu.

Shalini & Rumi have Spade cards ­ Ace, 4, 5, 8, 9, jack and king Sneha and Rumi have Spade cards ­ 2, 3, 6, 7, 10 and queen So, face values of Spade cards with Shalini & Rumi = 1 + 4 + 5 + 8 + 9 + 11 + 13 = 51 And face values of Spade cards with Sneha & Ritu = 2 + 3 + 6 + 7 + 10 + 12 = 40 Therefore, the winning team is Shalini & Rumi. Ans.(2)

57. Rumi got the king of spade after third round and before that she was having cards of face value greater than 3 and less than 12. Ans.(4)

58. Card value of cards of Sneha after second round:

Cards after second round

Sum of face value of Cards

Sum of suit value of Cards

Card value (face value + suit value)

Spade 6, 7, Queen, King 6 + 7 + 12 + 13 = 38 4 × 4 = 16 54 Club 8, 9, 10, Jack, King 8 + 9 + 10 + 11 + 13 = 51 5 × 3 = 15 66

Diamond 9, 10, Jack 9 + 10 + 11 = 30 3 × 2 = 6 36 Heart 9 9 1 × 1 = 1 10

X = 54 + 66 + 36 + 10 = 166 Face value of cards of Rumi after third round

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Cards after 3rd round Sum of face values of Cards Spade 4, 5, King 4 + 5 + 13 = 22 Club 4, 5, 6, 7 4 + 5 + 6 + 7 = 22

Diamond 6, 7 6 + 7 = 13 Heart 5, 6, 7,8 5 + 6 + 7 + 8 = 26

Y = 22 + 22 + 13 + 26 = 83 So, X–Y = 166–83 = 83. Ans.(5)

For Questions 59­62 There are 6 given conditions. Firstly, we have to extract the information given in them:

Name Accessory City Company Gender Ghosh Kolkata Female

Soni LEG

Nambodari

Adawalkar Slippers Kozhikode

Sarang

From conditions 1 & 2, we can conclude that Mrs. Ghosh is not a representative of Amsung or Otorola or LEG. From condition 4, she is also not a representative of Blacknberry because she is from Kolkata and the person who represents Blacknberry is from Pune. Hence, from condition 3, Mrs. Ghosh is the representative of Mokia & wears shoes.

Name Accessory City Company Gender

Ghosh Shoes Kolkata Mokia Female

Soni LEG

Nambodari

Adawalkar Slippers Kozhikode

Sarang

From second and the fifth condition, Soni is not from Kolkata or Kozhikode and also he/she is the representative of LEG, and hence cannot come from Pune (from condition 4). So he/she must be from Jabalpur or Lucknow. There are only two persons who have 9 alphabets in their respective surnames. So from condition 6, Adawalker cannot be the person from Amsung since he/she wears slippers. So, Nambodari is the other female and she is wearing Bracelet.

Name Accessory City Company Gender Ghosh Shoes Kolkata Mokia Female Soni Jabalpur/Lucknow LEG Male

Nambodari Bracelet Amsung Female Adawalkar Slippers Kozhikode Male

Sarang Male

From condition 4, the representative of Blacknberry is a Male and Nambodari is a female, so she cannot represent Blacknberry and cannot be from Pune. So she must be from Jabalpur or Lucknow. From condition 6, Mr. Sarang is not from Jabalpur, thus, he must be from Pune & should represent Blacknberry. This leaves Adawalkar who must represent Otorola.

Name Accessory City Company Gender Ghosh Shoes Kolkata Mokia Female Soni Jabalpur/Lucknow LEG Male

Nambodari Bracelet Jabalpur/Lucknow Amsung Female

Adawalkar Slippers Kozhikode Otorola Male Sarang Pune Blacknberry Male

Hence, 59. Ans.(3) 60. Ans.(5) 61. Ans.(2) 62. If Sarang wears the watch & out of Soni & Nambodari, Nambodari is a female, then she must be from Lucknow. The person who is without any accessories has to be from

Jabalpur. Ans.(2)

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Name Accessory City Company Gender

Ghosh Shoes Kolkata Mokia Female Soni ­­­­­­­­ Jabalpur LEG Male

Nambodari Bracelet Lucknow Amsung Female

Adawalkar Slippers Kozhikode Otorola Male

Sarang Watch Pune Blacknberry Male

63. There are two solutions: one using A and B, which would give AT as an answer, and another one by using A and C, which would give PD as an answer. In this it is important to note that the expenditure is in percetage and not in absolute terms, so just looking at the percentage will not give you an answer. Now A alone will not give you an answer because it doesn't say how much more percentage is it greater than the other companies. However, when used in conjunction with B, it gives an answer. Similar is the case when A is used along with C. Ans.(3)

64. This question again encapsulates the basics of percentages. We need the first two conditions under all circumstances, because with that two options are immediately removed; now along with it when we use C, we get one solution. However, this does not hold true for using A and B in conjunction with D, because after calculating we will find that the expenses of DT and EY are equal. Ans.(2)

65. Let EY’s F&S expenses be 100. then, PD’s F&S expenses = 200, DT’s F&S expenses = 300 and AT’s F&S expenses = 400. So, ratio of expenses on Communication = (20% of 100) : (15% of 200) : (30% of 300) : (20% of 400) = 20 : 30 : 90 : 60 = 2 : 3 : 9 : 6. Ans.(3)

66. Conditions A and B give the relationship between PD, DT and AT. The condition D can provide the realtionship between F&S expenses of DT and EY. So, we need at least three statements to arrive at the answer. Ans. (3)

67. Statement 1: If C, S, M are in A.P. then (M­S) =(S­C), then Discount=Profit. Hence, profit cannot be more than the discount, The question can be answered by the first statement alone. Statement 2: If C, S, M are in G.P. (S/C)=(M/S). Let the values of C, S, M=2,4,8 respectively. C, S, M cannot be in reverse G.P. as S>C (Given). Hence discount is always greater than profit. Hence the question can be answered by the second case. Both (1) and (2) individually can give the answer. Ans. (3)

68. Statement 1: If there are 4 factors of a number then two of the factors would be the number itself and 1. Now a=1 (always);if b+a = prime then b has to be even(as even + odd=odd). But in this case two combinations are possible (1,2,3,6) i.e. (odd, even, odd, even) and (1,2,4,8) i.e., (odd, even, even, even). Hence, we cannot determine the answer by the first statement. Statement 2: In this case also a =1. Also if b + c = prime, then b is even (2). If it is 3 or any other odd number like 5, then one of the higher factors would be 12 or 10 (even value to make b + c prime) which means 2 is a factor too. Hence, the combinations possible are (1, 2, 3, 6), (1, 2, 5, 10), (1, 2, 11, 22) etc. but in all the cases the pattern followed by number is (odd, even, odd, even) and 2 + 3 or 2 + 5 or 2 + 11 = prime. So, the nature of all the numbers can be determined. Only statement 2 is sufficient to answer the question. Ans.(2)

69. Statement 1: Since the bag contains 26 balls, if 5 red balls are possible then the other 2 colors can only be 10,11. Hence, we need to pick a minimum of 16 balls so that at least 6 balls of the same color can be obtained. Statement 2: In this case 2 combinations are possible (3,11,12) and (1,12,13). Hence, the minimum numbers of balls are different in the 2 cases. In first case the minimum numbers of balls are 14 and in the second case the minimum number of balls are 11. Hence, the answer cannot be determined by 2nd statement alone. Only (1) can answer the question. Ans.(1)

70. Statement 1: y 2 is greater than y and less than 2y

2y > y 2 > y So, there can be more than one value, i.e., 1.25 or 1.5 or all real numbers between 1 and 2 which satisfies given condition. Hence, statement 1 alone is sufficient.

Statement 2: y 2 is greater than 1 and less than 4 So, all real numbers between 1 & 2, and ­2 & ­1 satisfy the above condtions. Hence, statement 2 alone is not sufficient. Ans.(1)

For Questions 71­75 According to the information given in the question, the value of slack and current flow in some of the wires is calculated below ­

Wire Current flow Slack Bulb­Tube 1200 300 Bulb­Fan 1200 300 Cooler­Iron 150 1350 CFL­Heater 450 1050 AC­Cooler 300 1200 Heater­VCR 600 900 Fan­AC 750 750

71. The exact value cannot be determined. Ans.(5) 72. The total intake of current by the Bulb has to be equal to the total requirement of all the equipments put together, since all the other equipments are connected to E­BAT through

the Bulb alone. Intake of current by the Bulb = 450 + 750 + 300 + 900 + 300 + 150 + 450 + 450 + 750 + 1200 = 5700 amperes If the slack of the wire connecting E­BAT and the Bulb is 600 amperes then the capacity of this wire = 5700 + 600 = 6300 amperes. Ans.(2)

73. Consider the Cooler, Current flow in (AC­Cooler + Heater­Cooler) = Current flow in (Cooler­Iron + Cooler­VCR) + consumption by the Cooler 300 + Current flow in Heater­Cooler = 150 + Current flow in Cooler­VCR + 150

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Current flow in Heater­Cooler = Current flow in Cooler­VCR (1) Now, consider the Heater, Current flow in (Fan­Heater + Bulb­Heater + CFL­Heater) = Current flow in (Heater­Cooler + Heater­VCR + consumption by Heater Now, Current flow in Fan­Heater = Current flow in Bulb­Fan – 300 – 750 = 150 amperes Current flow in Bulb­Heater – Current flow in Heater­Cooler = 450 amperes (2) From (1) and (2), Current flow in Bulb­Heater – Current flow in Cooler­VCR = 450 amperes Since, the difference in current flow = difference of slacks. Ans.(4)

74. Using the information given, Current flow in VCR­TV = 450 amperes So, Current flow in Iron­TV = 1200 – 450 = 750 amperes (1) From (1) Current flow in AC­Iron = (450 + 750) – 150 = 1050 amperes (2) Also, 1200 = 750 + Current flow in Tube­AC Current flow in Tube­AC = 450 amperes Now, Current flow in Bulb­AC + 450 + 750 = 300 + 1050 + 300 Current flow in Bulb­AC = 450 amperes Therefore, slack of the wire connecting the Bulb and the AC = 1500 – 450 = 1050 amperes. Ans.(3)

75. Given that the current flow from the AC = 1200 amperes Also, at the Fan we have a consumption of 300 amperes current flow in Fan­AC = 750 amperes Fan to Heater = 1200 – (750 + 300) = 150 ampere. Ans.(1)

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Objective key

Prac­CAT # 02

1.(1) 2.(2) 3.(1) 4.(5) 5.(3)

6.(3) 7.(4) 8.(2) 9.(2) 10.(1)

11.(2) 12.(3) 13.(1) 14.(3) 15.(3)

16.(2) 17.(4) 18.(3) 19.(1) 20.(3)

21.(4) 22.(4) 23.(4) 24.(3) 25.(3)

26.(5) 27.(4) 28.(5) 29.(1) 30.(1)

31.(3) 32.(3) 33.(1) 34.(4) 35.(3)

36.(2) 37.(2) 38.(3) 39.(1) 40.(1)

41.(1) 42.(3) 43.(4) 44.(2) 45.(1)

46.(5) 47.(2) 48.(1) 49.(4) 50.(4)

51.(3) 52.(4) 53.(1) 54.(3) 55.(2)

56.(2) 57.(4) 58.(5) 59.(3) 60.(5)

61.(2) 62.(2) 63.(3) 64.(2) 65.(3)

66.(3) 67.(3) 68.(2) 69.(1) 70.(1) 71.(5) 72.(2) 73.(4) 74.(3) 75.(1)