DTS (Diamond Test Series Part-I) for NEET - 2021 | 12/06/2021

Class XIII (Spartan Batch)XI NCERT Unit 3-Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties, XI NCERT Unit 10-The s-Block Elements

2GCI DTS (Diamond Test Series Part-I) for NEET - 2021 | 12/06/2021

1. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?

(1) Caesium is the most electropositive element while F is

the most electrongeative element

(2) Cl has the highest negative electron gain enthalpy out

of all the elements

(3) Electron gain enthalpy of N as well as that of noble

gases is positive

(4) In any period, the atomic radius of the noble gas is

lowest

2. The screening constant () for 4s electron of Mn (Z = 25)

will be :

(1) 18.00 (2) 4.25 (3) 18.35 (4) 21.40

3. Number of crystal water in Gypsum, Plaster of Paris and

Eposm salt respectively are :

(1) 2, 0.5, 7 (2) 7, 2, 1 (3) 7, 0.5, 2 (4) 3, 4, 2

4. A metal chloride, when placed on a platinum wire in Bunsen

flame, does not produce any charasteristic colour. The

cation of chloride is :

(1) Li+ (2) Mg2+ (3) Na+ (4) Ca2+

5. Which of the following statement is not correct ?

(1) All alkali-metal salts impart a characteristic colour to

the Bunsen flame.

(2) The correct order of increasing thermal stability of the

carbonates of alkali metls is

Li2CO

3 < Na

2CO

3 < K

2CO

3 < Rb

2CO

3 < Cs

2CO

3

(3) Among the alkali metals caesium is the most reactive

(4) The reducing character of the alkali metal hydrides

following the order :

LiH > NaH > KH > RbH > CsH.

6. Which of the following statement is not correct regarding

the diagonal relationship between Al and Be ?

(1) BeO and Al2O

3 are amphoteric in nature.

(2) Al4C

3 and Be

2C give same gas on hydrolysis.

(3) Both can from complexes with same maximum co-

ordination number.

(4) Both form electron deficient and covalent hydride.

1.

(1) Cs F

(2) Cl

(3)

(4)

2. Mn (Z = 25) 4s ()

(1) 18.00 (2) 4.25 (3) 18.35 (4) 21.40

3.

(1) 2, 0.5, 7 (2) 7, 2, 1 (3) 7, 0.5, 2 (4) 3, 4, 2

4.

(1) Li+ (2) Mg2+ (3) Na+ (4) Ca2+

5.

(1)

(2)

Li2CO

3 < Na

2CO

3 < K

2CO

3 < Rb

2CO

3 < Cs

2CO

3

(3)

(4)

LiH > NaH > KH > RbH > CsH.

6. Be Al

(1) BeO Al2O

3

(2) Al4C

3 Be

2C

(3)

(4)

https://www.print-driver.com/?demolabel-en



7. A + H2O NaOH

B + H2O NaOH + O

2; A and B are respectively :

(1) Na2O

2 and NaO

2

(2) Na2O and Na

2O

2

(3) NaO2 and Na

2O

2

(4) Na2O and NaO

2

8. Which of the following pair of metal form nitride on reaction

with Nitrogen ?

(1) Li, Mg

(2) Mg, Na

(3) Al, K

(4) Al, Na

9. Which gas responsible for leaving holes in cakes or pastries

and making them light and fluffy ?

(1) O2

(2) CO2

(3) H2

(4) CH4

10. When sodium is placed in moist air, finally change into :

(1) NaOH

(2) Na2O

2

(3) Na2O

(4) Na2CO

3

11. What is the best description of the change that occurs when

Na2O(s) is dissolved in water ?

(1) Oxide ion accepts a pair of electrons

(2) Oxide ion donates a pair of electrons

(3) Oxidation number of oxygen increases

(4) oxidation number of sodium decreases

12. Which of the following have an incorrect order of ionization

energy :

(1) Pb (IE) > Sn (IE)

(2) Na+ (IE) > Mg+ (IE)

(3) Li+ (IE) < O+ (IE)

(4) Be+ (IE) < C+ (IE)

7. A + H2O NaOH

B + H2O NaOH + O

2; A B

(1) Na2O

2 NaO

2

(2) Na2O Na

2O

2

(3) NaO2 Na

2O

2

(4) Na2O NaO

2

8.

(1) Li, Mg

(2) Mg, Na

(3) Al, K

(4) Al, Na

9.

(1) O2

(2) CO2

(3) H2

(4) CH4

10.

(1) NaOH

(2) Na2O

2

(3) Na2O

(4) Na2CO

3

11. Na2O(s)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12.

(1) Pb (IE) > Sn (IE)

(2) Na+ (IE) > Mg+ (IE)

(3) Li+ (IE) < O+ (IE)

(4) Be+ (IE) < C+ (IE)




13. Which of the following has the largest ionic radius ?

(1) Be2+

(2) Mg2+

(3) Ca2+

(4) Sr2+

14. Similarity in chemical properties of the atoms of elements

in a group of the periodic table is most closely related to :

(1) Atomic numbers

(2) Atomic masses

(3) Number of principal energy levels

(4) Number of valence electrons

15. What is the nature of Al2O

3 and B

2O

3 ?

(1) Acidic, Acidic

(2) Acidic, Amphoteric

(3) Amphoteric, Amphoteric

(4) Amphoteric, Acidic

16. correct trend of first ionization energy in group-13 is :

(1) B > Al > Ga > In > Tl

(2) B > Al > Ga > Tl > In

(3) B > Tl > Ga > Al > In

(4) B > Ga > Al > In > Tl

17. Select correct statement :

(1) La and Ac belong to f-block

(2) An element having atomic number 31 belongs to 3rd

period

(3) General outermost shell electron configuration of d-

block element is ns1–2 (n - 1)d1–10

(4) All actinoids are man made elements

18. Which of the following conclusions are correct regarding

the element having atomic number equal to 113 ?

i. It is present in the 8th period of the modern periodic tabel

ii. It is present in the group 13 in the periodic table

iii. it is a p-block element

iv. Oxidation states of this element may be +1 or +3.

(1) i, iii, iv

(2) ii, iii, iv

(3) i, ii, iv

(4) i, iv

13.

(1) Be2+

(2) Mg2+

(3) Ca2+

(4) Sr2+

14.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15. Al2O

3 B

2O

3

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16. 13

(1) B > Al > Ga > In > Tl

(2) B > Al > Ga > Tl > In

(3) B > Tl > Ga > Al > In

(4) B > Ga > Al > In > Tl

17.

(1) La Ac f-

(2) 31

(3) d- ns1–2 (n - 1)d1–10

(4)

18. 113

i. 8

ii. 13

iii. p-

iv. +1 +3

(1) i, iii, iv

(2) ii, iii, iv

(3) i, ii, iv

(4) i, iv




19. Which of the following relations is correct, if considered

for the same element ?

(1) RVander Waal

> RCovalent

> RMetallic

(2) RCovalent

> RMetallic

> RVander Waal

(3) RVander Waal

> RMetallic

> RCovalent

(4) RMetallic

> RCovalent

> RVander Waal

20. The reduction in atomic size with increases in atomic number

is a characteristic of elements of :

(1) d-block

(2) f-block

(3) Heavier elements of p-block in group

(4) None of these

21. The correct order of acidic strength of the following is :

(1) SO2 > P

2O

3 > SiO

2 > Al

2O

3

(2) P2O

3 > SO

2 > SiO

2 > Al

2O

3

(3) P2O

3 > Al

2O

3 > SO

2 > SiO

2

(4) Al2O

3 > SiO

2 > P

2O

3 > SO

2

22. Which of the following is incorrect match ?

(1) Z = 48, group = IIB, period = 5th

(2) (Xe) 4f7 5d1 6s2, group = IIIB, period = 6th

(3) (Rn) 6d2 7s2,group = IVB, period = 7th

(4) Z = 56, group = IIA, period = 6th

23. The value of IE1, IE

2, IE

3 and IE

4 of an atom are 7.5 eV,

25.6 eV, 48.6 eV and 170.6 eV respectively. The electronic

configuration of the atom will be :

(1) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1

(2) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p1

(3) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3

(4) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2

24. The correct order of increasing radii is :

(1) Be2+, Mg2+, Na+ (2) K+, Ca2+, S2–

(3) O2–, F–, N3– (4) S2–, O2–, As3–

25. Arrange Ce3+, La3+, Pm3+ and Yb3+ in increasing order of

their size –

(1) Yb3+ < Pm3+ < Ce3+ < La3+

(2) Ce3+ < Yb3+ < Pm3+ < La3+

(3) Yb3+ < Pm3+ < La3+ < Ce3+

(4) Pm3+ < La3+ < Ce3+ < Yb3+

19.

(1) R > R > R

(2) R > R > R

(3) R > R > R

(4) R > R > R

20.

(1) d-

(2) f-

(3) p-

(4)

21.

(1) SO2 > P

2O

3 > SiO

2 > Al

2O

3

(2) P2O

3 > SO

2 > SiO

2 > Al

2O

3

(3) P2O

3 > Al

2O

3 > SO

2 > SiO

2

(4) Al2O

3 > SiO

2 > P

2O

3 > SO

2

22.

(1) Z = 48, = IIB, = 5th

(2) (Xe) 4f7 5d1 6s2, = IIIB, = 6th

(3) (Rn) 6d2 7s2, = IVB, = 7th

(4) Z = 56, = IIA, = 6th

23. IE1, IE

2, IE

3 IE

4 7.5 eV,

25.6 eV, 48.6 eV 170.6 eV

(1) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1

(2) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p1

(3) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3

(4) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2

24.

(1) Be2+, Mg2+, Na+ (2) K+, Ca2+, S2–

(3) O2–, F–, N3– (4) S2–, O2–, As3–

25. Ce3+, La3+, Pm3+ Yb3+

(1) Yb3+ < Pm3+ < Ce3+ < La3+

(2) Ce3+ < Yb3+ < Pm3+ < La3+

(3) Yb3+ < Pm3+ < La3+ < Ce3+

(4) Pm3+ < La3+ < Ce3+ < Yb3+




26. The element with atomic number 56 is likely to have the

same outer shell configuration as the element with atomic

number :

(1) 12

(2) 18

(3) 14

(4) 24

27. The elements which are characterised by the outer shell

configuration ns1, ns2 and ns2np1 to ns2np5 are collectively

called as -

(1) Transition elements

(2) Representative elements

(3) Lanthanoides

(4) Metalloids

28. The first element of a group in many ways differs from the

other heavier members of the group. This is due to -

(1) The small size

(2) The high electronegativity and high ionisation potential

(3) The unavailability of d-orbitals

(4) All of the above

29. Ionisation energy tend to decrease going in down any

column of main group elements because ............ going

down the column -

(1) Nuclear charge increases

(2) Number of sheilding electrons increases

(3) Atomic size increases

(4) Effective nuclear charge increases

30. In halogens, which of the following decreases from iodine

to fluorine -

(1) Bond length

(2) Electronegativity

(3) Ionisation energy

(4) Oxidising power

26. 56

(1) 12

(2) 18

(3) 14

(4) 24

27. ns1, ns2 ns2np1

ns2np5

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28.

(1)

(2)

(3) d-

(4)

29.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)




31. Select correct statement about radius of an atom -

(1) Values of vanderwaal's radii are larger than those of

covalent radii because the vanderwaal's forces are much

weaker than the forces oprating b/w atoms in a covalently

bonded molecule

(2) The metallic radii are smaller than the vanderwaal's

radii, since the bonding forces in the metallic crystal lattice

are much stronger than vanderwaal's forces

(3) Zr and Hg have similar atomic size

(4) Both (1) and (2)

32. Correct order of radius is -

(1) O2– > F– > Li+ > B3+

(2) F– > Li+ > B3+ > O2–

(3) O2– > F– > B3+ > Li+

(4) Li+ > B3+ > O2– > F–

33. Mg2C

3 reacts with water forming propyne gas, C3

4 ions

has -

(1) Two sigma bonds and two pi bonds

(2) Three sigma bonds and one pi bonds

(3) Two sigma bonds and one pi bonds

(4) Three sigma bonds and three pi bonds

34. Which is the correct in the following -

(1) Radius of Cl atom is 0.99 Å while that of Cl+ ion is 1.54 Å

(2) Radius of Cl atom is 0.99 Å while that of Na atom is 1.54 Å

(3) Radius of Cl atom is 0.99 Å while that of Cl– ion is 0.81 Å

(4) Radius of Na atom is 0.95 Å while that of Na+ ion is 1.54 Å

35. If an atom has electronic configuration 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6

3d3 4s2, it will be place in -

(1) Second group

(2) Third group

(3) Fifth group

(4) Sixth group

31.

(1)

(2)

(3) Zr Hg

(4) (1) (2)

32.

(1) O2– > F– > Li+ > B3+

(2) F– > Li+ > B3+ > O2–

(3) O2– > F– > B3+ > Li+

(4) Li+ > B3+ > O2– > F–

33. Mg2C

3 C3

4

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34.

(1) Cl 0.99 Å Cl+

1.54 Å

(2) Cl 0.99 Å Na

1.54 Å

(3) Cl 0.99 Å Cl–

0.81 Å

(4) Na 0.95 Å Na+

1.54 Å

35. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6

3d3 4s2

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)




36. Which of the following statement is incorrect -

(1) Vander wall's radius of iodine is more than its covalent

radius

(2) All isoelectronic ions belong to the same period of the

periodic table

(3) IE1 of N is higher than that of O while IE

2 of O is higher

than that of N

(4) 1st Electron gain enthalpy of Cl is negative while second

is positve

37. Select the incorrect statement -

(1) Lithium is least reactive but the strongest reducing agent

among all the matels

(2) Lithium hydrogen carbonate is not obtained in the solid

form while all other alkali metals form solid hydrogen

carbonate

(3) Lithium nitrate when heated gives lithium oxide whereas

other alkali metal nitrates decompose to give the

corresponding nitrite

(4) Solubility of alkali metal hydroxide decreases down the

group. It is due to decrement in hydration energy from Li+

to Cs+

38. Which of the following properties of IA group metals

increases as the atomic number rises -

I. Metallic character

II. Ionic radius

III. Melting point

IV. Density

V. IE

(1) I, II, III

(2) I, II

(3) III, IV, V

(4) I, II, III, IV, V

39. Which of the following statements is not ture about the

dilute solutions of alkali metals in liquid ammonia

(1) They are deep blue coloured solutions

(2) They are highly conducing in nature

(3) They are diamagnetic in nature

(4) Ammoniated cation and ammoniated electron are

formed in the solution

36.

(1)

(2)

(3) N IE1 O IE

2

(4) Cl

37.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Li+ Cs+

38.

I.

II.

III.

IV.

V.

(1) I, II, III

(2) I, II

(3) III, IV, V

(4) I, II, III, IV, V

39.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)




40. An element having electronic configuration 1s2, 2s2 2p6,

3s1 will form -

(1) Acidic oxide

(2) Basic oxide

(3) Amphoteric oxide

(4) Neutral oxide

41. In the solvay process of manufacture of sodium carbonate,

the raw materials used are -

(1) Aqueous NaOH, NH3 and CO

2

(2) Molten NaOH, NH3 and CO

(3) Brine NaCl, NH3 and CO

(4) Brine NaCl, NH3 and CO

2

42. Atomic number of an element is 43. Then electronic con-

figuration of the element present upward on it in periodic

table -

(1) 1s2,2s22p6,3s23p6,3d5,4s2

(2) 1s2,2s22p6,3s23p6,3d10,4s24p5

(3) 1s2,2s22p6,3s23p6,3d6,4s1

(4) none

43. The electron gain enthalpies of halogens are as given

below -

F = – 332, Cl = –349, Br = –324, I = – 295 kJ/mol

The less negative value for F as compare to that of Cl is

due to -

(1) Strong electron-electron repulsion in the compact 2p

sub-shell of F

(2) Strong electron-electron repulsion in the bigger 3p sub-

shell of Cl

(3) Higher electron negativity value of Cl

(4) Higher effective nuclear charge of F

44. Usually which of the following is correct when an electron

is added to gaseous atom -

(a) It change to anion

(b) Energy is released

(c) Zeff

decrease

(d) It is always become stable

(1) all are correct (2) 3 statements are correct

(3) 2 statements are correct (4) 1 statement is correct

40. 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s1

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41.

(1) NaOH, NH3 CO

2

(2) NaOH, NH3 CO

(3) NaCl, NH3 CO

(4) NaCl, NH3 CO

2

42. 43

(1)1s2,2s22p6,3s23p6,3d5,4s2

(2)1s2,2s22p6,3s23p6,3d10,4s24p5

(3)1s2,2s22p6,3s23p6,3d6,4s1

(4)

43.

F = – 332, Cl = –349, Br = –324, I = – 295 kJ/mol

Cl F

(1) F 2p

(2) Cl 3p

(3) Cl

(4) F

44.

(a)

(b)

(c) Zeff

(d)

(1) (2) 3

(3) 2 (4) 1




45. False statement for periodic classification of elements is -

(1) The properties of the elements are periodic function of

their atomic numbers.

(2) No. of non-metallic elements is less than the no. of

metallic elements.

(3) First ionization energy of elements does not change con-

tinuously with increasing of atomic no. in a period.

(4) d-subshell is filled by final electron with increasing

atomic no. of inner transition elements.

45.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

d-


11GCI

Class XIII (Spartan Batch)XI NCERT Unit 7-Structural Organisation in Animals

DTS (Diamond Test Series Part-I) for NEET - 2021 | 12/06/2021

46. In cockroach, the formation of ootheca is by the secretions

of -

(1) Prothoracic glands of male

(2) Prothoracis glands of female

(3) Colleterial glands of male

(4) Colleterial glands of female

47. What is incorrect regarding periplaneta americana -

(1) Exceretion by malpighian tubules

(2) Hemolymph delivering oxygen to tissues

(3) Paurometabolous development

(4) Mosaic vision

48. Which of the following does not help in exceretion in

excretion in Periplaneta americana -

(1) Fat body (2) Urecose glands

(3) Nephrocytes (4) None of these

49. The mouth part of cockroach shown in th egiven diagram

acts as a/an -

(1) Upper lip (2) Tongue

(3) Lower lip (4) Uvula

50. The epithelium shown in the given digaram is found in -

Cilia

Nucleus

BasementMembrane

(1) Proximal convoluted Tubule

(2) Small intestine

(3) Fallopian tube

(4) Thyroid follicle cells

51. The body cells in cockroach discharge their nitrogenous

waste in the haemolymph mainly in the form of -

(1) ammonia (2) potassium urate

(3) urea (4) calcium carbonate

46.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

47.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

48.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

49.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

50.

Cilia

Nucleus

BasementMembrane

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

51.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)


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52. In male cockroaches, sperms are stored in whcih part of

the reproductive system -

(1) Seminal vesicles

(2) Mushroom glands

(3) Testes

(4) Vas deferenns

53. Choose the corectly matched pair.

(1) Tendon-Specialised connective tissue

(2) Adipose tissue-Dense connective tissue

(3) Areolar tissue-Loose connective tissue

(4) Cartilage-Loose connective tissue

54. What external changes are visible after the last moult of a

cockroach nymph -

(1) Mandible become harder

(2) Anal cerci develop

(3) Both fore wings and hind wings develop

(4) Labium develops

55. Which of the following correctly states as it happens in the

common cockroach -

(1) Oxygen is transported by haemoglobin in blood

(2) Nitrogenous excretory product is urea

(3) The food is grinded by mandibles and gizzard

(4) Malpighian tubules are excretory organs projecting out

from the colon

56. The epithelial tissue present on the inner surface of

bronchioles and fallopian tubes is -

(1) Cuboidal

(2) Glandular

(3) Ciliated

(4) Squamous

57. Simple Cuboidal epithelium lines all the following structures

except -

(1) Ovary (2) Pancreatic ducts

(3) Thyroid follicles (4) Falopian tube

52.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

53.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

54.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

55.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

56.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

57.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)


13GCI



58. All of the following statements regarding epithelial tissues

are correct except -

(1) The cells are completely packed with little intercellular

matrix

(2) They do not have a vascular supply of their own

(3) Cell junctions are very well developed in epithelial cells

(4) They rest on a celular basement membrane

59. An important function of the epithelium is secretion. Which

cell organelle would be most important in such secretory

epithelial cells -

(1) Mitochondria

(2) Endoplasmic reticulum

(3) Golgi apparatus

(4) Lysosomes

60. A part from the hematopoietic cells, bone marrow is largely

composed of -

(1) areolar tissue

(2) adipose tissue

(3) white fibrous tissue

(4) epithelium

61. Which of the following is false about columnar epithelium -

(i) It is made of tall and slender cells

(ii) Free surface may have microvilli

(iii) They are found in stomach and intestine and help in

secretion and absorption

(iv) Ciliated epithelium is mainly present in hollow structure

like bronchioles and fallopian tubes/oviducts

(v) They have apical nuclei -

(1) Only (i) (2) Only (v)

(3) Only (ii) and (iv) (4) Only (ii) and (iii)

62. Collagen fibres are secreted by -

(1) Fibroblast

(2) Mast cells

(3) Histocyte

(4) Macrophages

58.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

59.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

60.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

61.

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(v)

(1) (i) (2) (v)

(3) (ii) (iv) (4) (ii) (iii)

62.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


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63. The Major constituent of connective tissue is -

(1) Lipid (2) Carbohydrates

(3) Cholesterol (4) Collagen

64. Which of the following contains the largest quantity of

extracellular materials -

(1) Striated muscles

(2) Areolar connective tissue

(3) Striated epithelium

(4) Myelinated nerve fibres

65. Which of the following statement is false about the

compound epithelium -

(i) It consists of three layers

(ii) It covers the dry surface of the skin, the moist surface

of buccal cavity, pharynx, inner lining of ducts of salivary

glands and pancreatic ducts

(iii) It provides protection against chemical and mechanical

stresses

(iv) Being multilayered it has a great role in secretion and

absorption

(1) Only (ii)

(2) Only (iv)

(3) Only (i) and (iv)

(4) Only (ii)

66. Read the following four statements (A-D) -

A. Heart of cockroach is funnel shaped with ostia on either

side.

B. The respiratory system of cockroach consists of a network

of Capillary that open through 10 pairs of small holes called

spiracles.

C. Male cockroach have paired Spermatheca in 6 th

abdominal segments.

D. In Mosaic vision, with the help of several ommatidia a

cockroach can receive more than one image of an object.

How many of the above statements are right -

(1) Four (2) Three

(3) Two (4) One

63.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

64.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

65.

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(1) (ii)

(2) (iv)

(3) (i) (iv)

(4) (ii)

66. (A-D)

A.

B.

10

C. 6th

D.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)


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67. Select the incorrect match pair with regarding cockroach -

(1) Malphigian tubules – 100-150 Yellow coloured

(2) Alary muscles – Attach with dorsal tergum and

dorsal diaphragm

(3) Ootheca – Formed around the unfertilised

egg

(4) Metamorphosis – Paurometabolous

68. Identify the correct match from the column I, II and III–

Column–I Column–II Column–III

1. Hepatic a. Present on 10th i. Repel the

caeca turgum in both O & O+ enemies

2. Malpighian b. Present at junction of ii. Secret the

tubules midgut & hindgut digestive enzymes

3. Anal cerci c. Present at initial part iii. Excretion and

of midgut osmoregulation

4. Stink gland d. Present between 5th (iv) Phonoreceptor

and 6th turgum

(1) 1–b–ii, 3–c–iv, 2–b–iii, 4–d–i

(2) 1–b–ii, 3–a–iv, 3–d–i, 4–c–iii

(3) 1–c–ii, 3–a–iv, 2–b–iii, 4–d–i

(4) 2–c–iii, 3–a–i, 4–d–iii, 1–b–iv

69. In female cockroach, genital pouch is formed by -

(1) 7th, 8th and 9th sternum

(2) 7th sternum , 8th and 9th terga

(3) 9th, 10th terga and 9th sternum

(4) 9th and 10th sterna, and 9th tergum

70. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding

cockroach (Periplaneta americana) -

(1) Cockroaches belong to the phylum–Arthropoda

(2) Cockroaches are nocturnal animals

(3) Cockroaches are carnivorous animals

(4) Cockroaches have long antenna and legs

67.

(1) – 100-150

(2) –

(3) –

(4) –

68. I, II III

–I –II –III

1. a. 10th i.

2. b. ii.

3. c. iii.

4. d. 5th - 6th (iv)

(1) 1–b–ii, 3–c–iv, 2–b–iii, 4–d–i

(2) 1–b–ii, 3–a–iv, 3–d–i, 4–c–iii

(3) 1–c–ii, 3–a–iv, 2–b–iii, 4–d–i

(4) 2–c–iii, 3–a–i, 4–d–iii, 1–b–iv

69.

(1) 7th, 8th 9th sternum

(2) 7th sternum , 8th 9th terga

(3) 9th, 10th terga 9th sternum

(4) 9th 10th sterna, 9th tergum

70. ( )

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


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71. Alary muscles in cockroach occur in-

(1) Heart wall and help in circulation

(2) Located in pericardial sinus and helps in circulation

(3) wall of gizzard and help in its contraction

(4) intestinal wall and help in digestion

72. Which type of image is found in eye of Cockroach -

(1) Mosaic, Less resolution (2) Superposition

(3) Mosaic, High resolution (4) None of these

73. Select the correct statements regarding to cockroach -

(a) There is developmental through nymphal stage. The

nymph look very much like larva.

(b) They can transmit a variety of bacterial diseases by

contaminating food material.

(c) In cockroach vision is known as mosaic vision.

(d) The sperms are glued together in the form of bundles

called spermatophores Sperm are stored in spermatheca

(1) b, c and d (2) a and c

(3) b and c (4) a and d

74. Cockroach blood does not contain respiratory pigment. It means-

(1) Oxygen reaches to all the tissues through diffusion

(2) It does not respire

(3) Cockroach respires anaerobically

(4) Oxygen reaches tissue through tracheoles

75. Which among the following are not sense organs in cockroach-

(1) Labial palps

(2) Mandible

(3) Maxillary palps

(4) Anal cerci

76. Consider the following statements about the hind wings

of cockroach.

I. These are broad and thick

II. They are not used in flying.

III. They are also known as mesothoracic wings.

IV. They are transparent and delicate.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect -

(1) I and III

(2) I, II and III

(3) I and IV

(4) I, II, III and IV

71.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

72.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

73.

(a) nymphal stage

(b)

(c)

(d) spermatophores

(1) b, c d (2) a c

(3) b c (4) a d

74.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

75.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

76.

I.

II.

III.

IV.

(1) I III

(2) I, II III

(3) I IV

(4) I, II, III IV


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77. Which of the following feature are not releted with

Periplaneta–

(A) The next to last nymphal stage of Periplaneta has wing

pads, but only adult female cockroaches have wings

(B) Female cockroach produce 9-10 oothecae

(C) At the junction of foregut and hindgut 6-8 blind tubules

called gastric caecae is present

(D) Periplaneta americana are about 34-53 cm long with

wings

(E) In each segment, exoskeleton has hardened plates called

sclerites

(F) Antennae have sensory receptors that help in monitoring

the environment

(1) Only A, C and D (2) Only C and D

(3) Only A, B and D (4) Only A, B, E and F

78. Identify the following epithelial tissues and select the correct

option -

A B C D

(1) Wall of blood Duct of glands Intestine Fallopian tube

vessels

(2) Alveoli Stomach Nephron Bronchi

(3) Pharynx Duct of Alveoli Nephron

Salivary gland

(4) Peritoneum Bronchi Pharynx Intestine

77.

(A)

(B) 9-10

(C) 6-8

(D) 34-53 cm

(E)

(F)

(1) A, C D (2) C D

(3) A, B D (4) A, B, E F

78.

A B C D

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


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79. Which of the following statement is correct about squa-

mous epithelium ?

(1) It consists of a single thin layer of flattened cells with

irregular boundaries

(2) It is found in the wall of blood vessel, air sac of lungs, etc

(3) It is involved in many functions like forming a diffusion,

boundary

(4) All

80. In origin of connective tissues is -

(1) Ectoderm (2) Endoderm

(3) Mesoderm (4) All of the above

81. Basement membrane is composed of –

(1) Hyaluronic Acid+ glycoproteins

(2) Only mucopolysaccharides

(3) Endodermal cells

(4) Epidermal cells

82. The intercellular matrix is very little or absent in which of

the following tissue

(1) Connective tissue (2) Epithelial tissue

(3) Muscular tissue (4) Cardiac tissue

83. Consider the diagram and read the following statements

and choose correct option –

A B

(i) Both A and B represent dense connective tissue.

(ii) Both A and B represent loose connective tissue.

(iii) A–Irregular connective tissue , B–Regular connective

tissue

(iv) B–Found in skin

(v) A–Found in tendon

Options :

(1) Only i, iv and v (2) Only i

(3) Only i and iii (4) Only i, iii, iv and v

79.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

80.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

81.

(1) Hyaluronic Acid+ glycoproteins

(2) Only mucopolysaccharides

(3) Endodermal cells

(4) Epidermal cells

82.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

83.

A B

(i) A B

(ii) A B

(iii) A– B–

(iv) B–

(v) A–

:

(1) i, iv v (2) i

(3) i iii (4) i, iii, iv v


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84. Which of the following statemens is/are incorrect regarding

connective tissues ?

(i) Connective tissues are most abundant and widely

distributed in the body of complex animals.

(ii) They connect and support other tissues.

(iii) They include such diverse tissues as bone, cartilage,

tendons, adipose, loose tissues and stratified epithelium.

(iv) Different fibre provide elasticity, flexibility and stability

to tissue, Helps in diffusion

(v) In all connective tissues the cells secrete fibres of

structural proteins called collagen or elastin.

(1) i, ii and iii

(2) iii, iv, v only

(3) i, ii and v

(4) i and iv

85. Read the following four statements (A – D)-

(A) Tight junction prevents the leaking of substances across

a tissue.

(B) Gap junction facilitates the cells to communicate each

other by connecting cytoplasm of adjoining cells for rapid

transfer of ions, small molecules and some times big

molecules

(C) Intercellular junctions are rarely found in tissues except

epithelium tissue.

(D) Tight junction allows the rapid transfer of ions, small

molecules and some time big molecules.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) Four

(2) One

(3) Three

(4) Two

86. Which of the following lack blood supply ?

(1) Bone

(2) Cartilage

(3) Connective tissue

(4) none of these

84.

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(v)

(1) i, ii iii

(2) iii, iv, v

(3) i, ii v

(4) i iv

85. (A – D) :-

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

86.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


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87. Large amoeboid cells, that are a part of our innate immune

system found in the areolar tissue are called as -

(1) Macrophages (2) Mast cells

(3) Fibroblasts (4) Adipocytes

88. Identify correct Match–

Column–I Column–II Column–III

(1) Just below the Dense connective

Skin tissue

(2) Tendon Dense regular

connective tissue

more elastin fiber

(3) Ligament Dense regular

connective tissue

with more collagen

fiber

(4) Areolar tissue present benath the

Skin

89. In which of the following tissues fibres and fibroblast are

arranged in a irregular pattern -

(1) Dermis of skin

(2) Epidermis of skin

(3) Tendon

(4) Ligament

90. Stomach and intestine are lined by -

(1) Stratified squamous epithelium

(2) Simple squamous epithelium

(3) Columnar epithelium having goblet cells

(4) Columnar epithelium having cilia

87.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

88.

–I –II –III

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

89.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

90.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


21GCI




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DTS (Diamond Test Series Part-I) for NEET - 2021 | 12/06/2021