Dnyanadeep's IAS (For UPSC - dnyanadeepacademy.com CSAT Test 6 (31-12-… · How many pairs of letters are there in the word " CASTRAPHONE ... when fitted into each other would form

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INSTRUCTIONS

UPSC TEST BOOKLET

GENERAL STUDIES (Pre) 2018 - Test 06

(CSAT)

Time Allowed : Two Hours Date : 31-12-2017 Maximum Marks : 200

1. Immediately after the commencement of the examination, you should check that this Booklet

does not have any unprinted or turn or missing pages or items, etc. If so, get it replaced by a

complete test booklet.

2. Please encode and fill in the Roll Number and Test Booklet Series Code at appropriate places in

the OMR Answer Sheet.

3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the

Box provided alongside. Do NOT write anything else on the Test

Booklet.

4. This Booklet contains 80 questions printed in English. Each has four answer responses. Mark

the correct response. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the one

you consider the best. In any case choose only one response for each question.

5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See direction

in the answers sheet.

6. All questions carry equal marks. For every wrong answer given by the candidate, one third

Marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. If more than one response is marked,

it will be treated as wrong answer and same penalty as above will be applied.

7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer sheet the response to various questions in the Test

Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the answer sheets as per instructions given.

8. After you have completed filling in all your response on the Answer Sheet and the examination

has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are per-

mitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.

9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

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1. How many pairs of letters are there in the word " CASTRAPHONE" which have as many

letters between them in the word as in the alphabet?

A) 3 B) 4

C) 5 D) 6

2. Select the figure which satisfies the same conditions of placement of the dots as in Figure-

X.

A) 1 B) 2

C) 3 D) 4

3. Select the alternative which represents three out of the five alternative figures which

when fitted into each other would form a complete square.

A) 145 B) 245

C) 123 D) 234

4. A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .

Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is

tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet?

A) X B) W

C) I D) H



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5. Identify the figure that completes the pattern.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

A) 1 B) 2

C) 3 D) 4

6. There is a certain relation between two given words on one side of : : and one word is given

on another side of : : while another word is to be found from the given alternatives, having

the same relation with this word as the given pair has.

Select the best alternative. Seismography : Earthquake : : Taseometer : ?

A) Landslides B) Strains

C) Resistances D) Volcanoes


(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

A) 1 B) 2

C) 3 D) 4

8. 583 is related to 293 in the same way as 488 is related to____

A) 291 B) 378

C) 487 D) 581


(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4



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10. Directions : For the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) below, choose the correct alternative

Assertion (A) : Pressure cookers are fitted with ebonite handles.

Reason (R) : Ebonite is strong.

A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A)

B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A)

C) A is true but R is false.

D) A is false but R is true.


(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

A) 1 B) 2

C) 3 D) 4

12. Out of 120 students in aschool, 5% can play all the three games Cricket, Chess and Carroms.

If so happens that the number of players who can play any and only two games is 30. The

number of students who can play the Cricket alone is 40. What is the total number of

those who can play Chess alone or Carroms alone ?

A) 45 B) 44

C) 46 D) 24


(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

A) 1 B) 2

C) 3 D) 4



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X.

A) 1 B) 2

C) 3 D) 4

15. In a town of 500 people, 285 read Hindu and 212 read Indian Express and 127 read Times

of India, 20 read Hindu and Times of India and 29 read Hindu and Indian Express and 35

read Times of India and Indian express . 50 read no news paper . Then how many read

only one paper ?

A) 123 B) 231

C) 312 D) 321


X.

A) 1 B) 2

C) 3 D) 4


X.

A) 1 B) 2

C) 3 D) 4



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X.

A) 1 B) 2

C) 3 D) 4

19. In a certain code language COMPUTER is written as RFUVQNPC) How will MEDICINE be

written in that code language?

A) MFEDJJOE B) EOJDEJFM

C) MFEJDJOE D) EOJDJEFM

20. In a certain code language,

'134' means 'good and tasty';

'478' means 'see good pictures' and

'729' means 'pictures are faint'.

Which of the following digits stands for 'see'?

A) 9 B) 2

C) 1 D) 8



A) 124 B) 345

C) 123 D) 135

22. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence.

1 . Poverty 2. Population 3. Death

4. Unemployment 5. Disease

A) 2, 3, 4, 5, 1 B) 3, 4, 2, 5, 1

C) 2, 4, 1, 5, 3 D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5



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A) 123 B) 124

C) 135 D) 145

24. If A + B = 2C and C + D = 2A, then

A) A + C = B + D B) A + C = 2D

C) A + D = B + C D) A + C = 2B

25. Choose the figure which is different from the rest.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A) 1 B) 2

C) 3 D) 4


A) 1 B) 2

C) 3 D) 4

27. Find the missing number in the series?

4, 18, ?, 100, 180, 294, 448

A) 48 B) 5 0

C) 58 D) 60



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28. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as

established by the five Problem Figures.

Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A) 1 B) 2

C) 3 D) 4

29. On reaching the railway station, you find that the train you wanted to catch is just to start

and there is hardly any time for purchasing the ticket. The best thing for you is to :

A) Rush to the train rather than miss it and inform the T.T.I. at the next stoppage about your inability

to purchase the ticket.

B) Rush to the train and perform your journey quietly.

C) First purchase the ticket and then catch the train if it is there.

D) Miss the train rather than take the risk of boarding the moving train.

30. Group the given figures into three classes using each figure only once.

A) 7,8,9 ; 2,4,3 ; 1,5,6 B) 1,3,2 ; 4,5,7 ; 6,8,9

C) 1,6,8 ; 3,4,7 ; 2,5,9 D) 1,6,9 ; 3,4,7 ; 2,5,8

31. There is a certain relationship between two given words on one side of : : and one word is

given on another side of : :while another word is to be found from the given

alternatives,having the same relation with this word as the words of the given pair bear.

Choose the correct alternative Fear : Threat : : Anger : ?

A) Panic B) Compulsion

C) Force D) Provocation



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32. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would replace the question mark (?).


(A) (B) (C) (D) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A) 1 B) 2

C) 3 D) 4

33. In the following question, a matrix of certain characters is given.These characters follow

a certain trend, row-wise or column wise.Find out this trend and choose the missing

character accordingly.

1 4 9 ?

1 2 3 4

2 4 6 ?

A) 16,8 B) 49,7

C) 36,4 D) 25,5

34. Find out the alternative figure which contains figure (X) as its part.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

A) 1 B) 2

C) 3 D) 4


(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A) 1 B) 2

C) 3 D) 4



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36. In a certain code language Infinite means Size. What is the meaning of Indefinite in that

code language?

A) Time B) Day

C) Meaning D) Shape

37. How many dots lie opposite to the face having three dots, when the given figure is folded

to form a cube

Find out the alternative figure which contains figure (X) as its part.

A) 1 B) 2

C) 3 D) 4

38. The average contribution of 5 men to a fund is < 35. Sixth man joins and pays < 35 more

than the resultant average of 6 men. Find the total contribution of all 6 men?

A) < 210 B) < 245

C) <250 D) < 252


(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

A) 1 B) 2

C) 3 D) 4

40. While travelling in a train, you observe some college students pulling the alarm chain

simply to get down at their desired point. You would :

A) With the help of some passengers, check them from doing so

B) Let them pull the chain but check them from detraining.

C) Inform the guard of the train as soon as it stops.

D) Keep quiet and do nothing.



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41. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would replace the question mark

(?).


(A) (B) (C) (D) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A) 1 B) 2

C) 3 D) 4

42. Statements:

Some mangoes are yellow.

Some tixo are mangoes.

Conclusions :

(i) Some mangoes are green.

(ii) Tixo is a yellow.

A) Only conclusion (i) follows B) Only conclusion (ii) follows

C) Either (i) or (ii) follows D) Neither (i) nor (ii) follows


(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

A) 1 B) 2

C) 3 D) 4

44. 1, 2, 3, 10, ?, 9802

A) 99 B) 199

C) 299 D) 999



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(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

A) 1 B) 2

C) 3 D) 4

46. Given interchanges :

Signs + and - , numbers 4 and 8.

A) 4 + 8 - 12 = 12 B) 4 - 8 + 12 = 0

C) 8 + 4 - 12 = 24 D) 8 - 4 + 12 = 8



(A) (B) (C) (D) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A) 1 B) 2

C) 3 D) 4

48. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number 421579368 each of which has as

many digits between them in the number as when they are arranged in ascending order?

A) None B) One

C) Two D) Three

49. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as

established by the five Problem Figures.


(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A) 1 B) 2

C) 3 D) 4



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50. How many 4's are there preceded by 7 but not followed by 3?

5 9 3 2 1 7 4 2 6 9 7 4 6 1 3 2 8 7 4 1 3 8 3 2 5 6 7 4 3 9 5 8 2 0 1 8 7 4 6 3

A) Four B) Three

C) Six D) Five


(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

A) 1 B) 2

C) 3 D) 4


(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

A) 1 B) 2

C) 3 D) 4

53. Arrange the following in a logical order :

1 . Euphoria 2. Happiness 3. Ambivalence

4. Ecstasy 5. Pleasure

A) 1, 4, 2, 5, 3 B) 2, 1, 3, 4, 5

C) 3, 2, 5, 1, 4 D) 4, 1, 3, 2, 5

54. Group the given figures into three classes using each figure only once.

A) 1,3,9 ; 2,5,6 ; 4,7,8 B) 1,3,9 ; 2,7,8 ; 4,5,6

C) 1,2,4 ; 3,5,7 ; 6,8,9 D) 1,3,6 ; 2,4,8 ; 5,7,9



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55. In the following question, a matrix of certain characters is given.These characters follow

a certain trend, row-wise or column wise.Find out this trend and choose the missing

character accordingly.

7 2 24 6

96 1 6 1 2

108 ? 18

A) 1 2 B) 1 6

C) 18 D) 20


(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A) 1 B) 2

C) 3 D) 4



(A) (B) (C) (D) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A) 1 B) 2

C) 3 D) 4


(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A) 1 B) 2

C) 3 D) 4



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59. One morning after sunrise, Suresh was standing facing a pole. The shadow of the pole fell

exactly to his right. To which direction was he facing?

A) East B) West

C) South D) Data is inadequate



(A) (B) (C) (D) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A) 1 B) 2

C) 3 D) 4

Passage 1

It doesn't take long to mark two crosses on a ballot paper, but they are of immense significance. By

marking these crosses, the voter is taking the central decision in a democracy: who should govern? This

right to participate in elections is guaranteed by the constitution: the Basic Law stipulates that "All state

authority is derived from the people." Article 38 states that elections must be "general, direct, free, equal

and secret". Elections to the German Bundestag are generally held every four years. The last election was

in autumn 2013. Voters will have two decisions to make: their "first vote" determines their choice of

constituency candidate, with the candidate who wins the most votes being elected, regardless of how his

or her party performs overall. These constituency seats ensure that every region in Germany is

represented in the Bundestag. With their "second vote", voters determine the relative strengths of the

parties in the Bundestag. The second vote is therefore the decisive vote, as it dictates which parliamentary

group or coalition of parties will have a majority allowing them to elect their preferred candidate as

Federal Chancellor.

If a party fails to meet the requirement that it receive more than five per cent of all votes cast nationwide

(also known as the "five per cent clause"), it is not represented in the Bundestag - unless the party has won

at least three constituency seats, in which case it is taken into account in the distribution of seats to the

parties' lists in the individual Lander (federal states). The German electoral system is based on proportional

representation, but contains elements of first-past-the-post. Who holds the majority in the Bundestag is,

however, initially determined by the number of second votes won by the individual parties. Half of the



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total of 598 Members of the Bundestag are politicians who won the most first votes in one of Germany's

299 constituencies. The other half of the Members are elected via party lists in the individual Lander.

These lists are drawn up by the parties, which nominate candidates they consider to be particularly well-

qualified to serve in Parliament - or who are believed to be popular with the electorate. The places at the

top of the list are generally considered to be "safe", with election likely. A certain degree of risk remains,

however: if the number of constituency seats won by a party is as high as the number of seats it is entitled

to according to its share of the second votes, then even the top candidate on the list will not be elected

- unless he or she has won a constituency seat. The number of constituency seats won is extremely

significant, because it can have a major impact on the composition of Parliament, which is otherwise

fixed according to the share of second votes won. If a party wins more constituency seats than it is

entitled to according to its share of the second votes, it nonetheless keeps these additional seats, known

as "overhang mandates". The other parties then get additional seats also. The Bundestag currently has

630 Members. Parliament will convene for the first time no later than 30 days after the Bundestag

elections (Article 39 of the Basic Law) to elect the President of the Bundestag and adopt its Rules of

Procedure (Article 40 of the Basic Law).

61. What is the “five percent clause” according to the passage?

A) Five percent clause means that a party will not be represented in the Bundestag if it has received less

than 5 percent of second votes casted nationwide until and unless it has won a minimum of 3

constituency seats.

B) No party can represent itself in parliament if it has less than 5 percent first votes.

C) Minimum 5 percent constituency seats are required to be won by a party for representation in the

Bundestag.

D) None of the above

62. Which is the decisive vote in electing “Chancellor” of Germany?

A) First Vote B) Second Vote

C) Both first vote and second vote D) None of the above

63. Which of the following is true on basis of passage?

I. Currently there are 598 members in the Bundestag.

II. Chancellor is the highest political post in Germany.

III. Composition of Parliament is fixed on basis of share of first votes won.

IV. German parliament is referred to as Bundestag.



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A) I, II and IV B) II and IV

C) I, II, III and IV D) Only IV

64. What can be the suitable title for the passage?

A) The German Bundestag

B) Electoral System of Germany

C) How the Chancellor is elected: A German perspective.

D) The importance of the ‘Second Vote’

Passage 2

Much has been said and written about what foreign direct investment (FDI) in retail can do. Depending

on which side of the ideological divide is speaking, the assertions are either that it is a magic wand to fix

many big problems or that it is a destroyer of honest livelihoods, with little benefits of its own. What is

common to both sides is that they are mostly low on fact, high on opinion and generate enormous

amounts of confusion. Which is why, I think it is necessary to sift through all of the nose and look truth

in the eye. The facts, as I see it, tell us that it has become a symbolic issue, far beyond what reality

demands it ought to be; and that there is no need for either great celebration or for deep despair over the

idea that FDI in retail is now a reality. My analysis tells a fairly straightforward story.

The government has hugely exaggerated the quantum and immediacy of benefits it put on the table to

sell the policy-that common man will benefit enormously, employment generation will be huge, the

country’s supply chain will be transformed and large numbers of small producers and farmers will gain.

As things stand, even if modern retail were to take off on all cylinders, these arguments would still not

hold water for the next 10 years.

For one, there is the fact that aside from very old markets like America and Europe, in most newly

developed markets, modern trade accounts for only 20-25 percent of all retail. India is already at 8

percent-which is significant – but the impact hasn’t been as dramatic as one would have assumeD)

Then there is the fact that the economics of the Indian market is such that it makes little sense for global

retailers to focus on all consumers. I am convinced they will focus their energies on the top 33 percent

of urban Indian households (a mere 10 percent of all Indian households); investing in the others isn’t

quite what they know how to do profitably yet.

As for small manufactures, I don’t see that huge numbers of them will benefit. Retailers across the world

like to work with a small group of select vendors because it makes for better profitability. So yes, a small



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number will benefit significantly. And yes, employment will be generateD) But it won’t be anywhere

close to the numbers now being touteD)

Then there is the argument that encouraging modern retail to invest will provide the much-needed

booster shot for the country’s dismal supply chain infrastructure. Here again, let’s face it. Retailers

aren’t in the business of building national infrastructure. About the only infrastructure they’d be

interested in is their last mile.

The only argument that holds true is that kiranas or the small, traditional shopkeepers who are now an

Indian staple, will not die. But that is a tribute to the small shopkeeper rather than prescience on the part

of the government.

65. According to the author, which of the following is not a common attribute of the arguments

put forth by the pro-and anti-FDI ideologues?

1) Likely to be false.

2) Judgmental.

3) Positive about FDI in retail.

4) Strongly opposed to FDI in retail.

A) 1, 2 and 3 only B) 2, 3 and 4 only

C) 3 and 4 only D) None of them

66. With which of the following about the benefits of FDI in retail would the author agree?

1) The common man may not benefit greatly.

2) Employment generation may not be that huge.

3) Farmers and small producers shall be benefitted greatly.

A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only

C) 2 and 3 only D) All of them

67. Which of the following inferences cannot be drawn from the passage?

A) India’s market is not economically completely viable for global retailers.

B) Global retailers will not benefit anyone in IndiA)

C) Global retailers are selfish, in general.

D) Profit is the primary motive of global retailers.



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Passage 3

On 7 to 8 August 1942, the All India Congress Committee met in Bombay and ratified the 'Quit India'

resolution. Gandhi called for 'Do or Die'. The next day, on 9 August 1942, Gandhi, members of the

Congress Working Committee and other Congress leaders were arrested by the British Government

under the Defence of India Rules. The Working Committee, the All India Congress Committee and the

four Provincial Congress Committees were declared unlawful associations under the Criminal Law

Amendment Act of 1908. The assembly of public meetings was prohibited under rule 56 of the Defence

of India Rules. The arrest of Gandhi and the Congress leaders led to mass demonstrations throughout

IndiA) Thousands were killed and injured in the wake of the 'Quit India' movement. Strikes were called in

many places. The British swiftly suppressed many of these demonstrations by mass detentions; more

than 100,000 people were imprisoneD) The 'Quit India' movement, more than anything, united the

Indian people against British rule. Although most demonstrations had been suppressed by 1944, upon

his release in 1944 Gandhi continued his resistance and went on a 21-day fast. By the end of the Second

World War, Britain's place in the world had changed dramatically and the demand for independence

could no longer be ignoreD)

68. Before the second world war the British:

A) Were considering giving independence to IndiA)

B) Were considering expanding their power in IndiA)

C) Gave no thought to given freedom to IndiA)

D) Were preparing for the war by using Indian men as soldiers.

69. What does the word ‘ratified’ mean in the passage?

A) To confirm by expressing disapproval.

B) To confirm by expressing consent.

C) To confirm by expressing dissent.

D) To confirm by expressing suspicion.

70. The ratification of Quit India Movement by Congress led to:

A) Mass demonstrations throughout the country.

B) Strikes at several places.

C) Arrest of working committee and other leaders of Congress.

D) Killing of thousands of Indians.



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71. In the context of passage which of the following statement is true:

I. Most of the demonstrations of Quit India movement were suppressed by 1944.

II. Working Committee, the All India Congress Committee and the four Provincial Congress’ were

declared unlawful associations under rule 56 of the Defence of India Rules.

A) I only b) II only

c) Both I and II d) Neither I nor II

Passage 4

The Indian Steel Industry, in line with global trends, is at crossroads, witnessing a resurgent phase of

modernization, expansion, a consolidation, mainly through mergers and acquisitions. A sector that was

moribund just about five years ago because of a worldwide slump in steel prices, the industry has turned

the corner and has in fact been vibrant over the past two years. Domestic steel companies, both public

and private, are surging ahead on the strength of an unprecedented buoyancy in the economy; and the

resultant boom in real estate; and various infrastructure sectors such as roads & highways, ports &

airports. The official figures speak for themselves. Powered by an increased demand for steel from

neighboring China, which has been clocking a 15 percent sectorial growth annually on account of

construction projects in preparation for the Olympics, the steel industry in India has grown by about 10

percent in the past two years, compared with the global growth rate of about 6 percent a year. The

country’s production of crude steel in 2005-06 stood at 42.1 million tonnes, reflecting an increase of 7.1

percent over the previous fiscal. On the other hand, the consumption of steel during the year was pegged

at 41.43 million tonnes, a massive growth of 13.88 percent when compared with the 2004-05 figures.

Likewise the production of sponge iron has also increased sharply by 25 percent from about 10.3 million

tons in 2004-05 to 12.9 million tons in 2005-06. Currently, India is the largest sponge iron producer

and ranks seventh among steel-producing countries. The growth in domestic steel consumption is, by

and large, in keeping with the International Iron and Steel Institute (IISI) forecast of a 10 percent

increase in steel use in 2006. While the IISI has projected the global demand for steel to grow by 4.9

percent in the medium term up to 2010, it has pegged its forecast for the period 2010-15 at 4.2 percent

annually for the entire worlD) The IISI says India will lead the consumption growth story with an annual

demand of 7.7 percent, followed by China with 6.2 percent. More heartening is the indication that the

exciting phase in the domestic steel industry is expected to continue for the next five to seven years at

the least, in terms of both consumption and production.



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72. Which of the following are the reasons for the boom in Steel industry in India?

I. There were a lot of mergers and acquisitions happening across several industrial sectors.

II. As the sector was dull five years ago, it follows a cycle to revitalize itself and hence is purely by

chance.

III. The boom in economy that helped in the development of real estate and infrastructure.

A) Only I B) Only II

C) Only III D) I and III

73. Which of the following statements is/are correct according to the passage?

I. It is the Olympics preparation alone that accounted to the 15% rise in demand of steel in China

II. IISI is an autonomous body that has no control by any governments of the worlD)

III. No other country in the world produces sponge iron as much as IndiA)

A) Only I B) I and II

C) I and III D) Only III

74. According to the author of the passage, what is the future prospect of the Indian steel

industry?

A) Steel industry is expected to grow at a rate of moiré than 6% in the next five to seven years.

B) China will continue to lead the demander’s list at 6.2 percentage

C) Indian domestic steel industry will continue to grow at least in the terms of consumption and

production in the coming upto seven years.

D) National Steel Policy (NSP) of the UPA government will help reduce the constraints in the growth of

steel Industry in India

75. What does the author mean by the word ‘moribund’ in the passage?

A) Being in a state of growth.

B) Being in a state of activity.

C) Being in a state of inactivity.

D) Being in a state of agreement.



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76. Which of the following Venn- diagram correctly illustrates the relation ship among the

classes : Tennis fans, Cricket players, Students

A) 1 B) 2

C) 3 D) 4

77. In a dinner party both fish and meat were serveD) Some took only fish and some only

meat. There were some vegetarians who did not accept either. The rest accepted both fish

and meat. Which of the following Venn-diagrams correctly reflects this situation?

A) 1 B) 2

C) 3 D) 4



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Passage 4

TRIPs agreement provides a comprehensive set of global trade rules for the protection of copyright

patents, trademarks, industrial designs, trade secrets, semiconductor layout designs and geographical

indications that apply to all the member countries irrespective of their levels of development, natural

and human endowments and history. Every member country has been asked by the WTO to amend its

national patent law to conform to that universal globalized format for legislation relating to

pharmaceutical, agrochemical, food, alloys etC) Under article 65, the developed countries have been

asked to change their laws within another five years and the less developed countries within an additional

five years. The least developed countries have been asked to make those changes by 2005.

This attempt at global standardization and uniformity by way of TRIPs agreement is in conflict with the

main thrust of the Rio Earth Summit of 1992 that set out the conditions for sustainable development.

These two reveal two contrasting types of international approaches and norms. While the 1992 Earth

Summit and the 1993 Convention on Bio-Diversity (CBD) focused on ‘diversity’ as being fundamental to

sustain life an development, TRIPs and WTO are pushing for ‘Conformity’ to International standardized

norms on patents, services, labour, investment and what not irrespective of their history, ecology, level

of economic development, etC) But despite their diametrically opposed viewpoints, 170 countries signed

CBD upholding the need for diversity, and 50 countries signed the TRIPs agreement in 1994 claiming the

urgency of uniformity; with a very large element of common names (130) in both.

78. Which of the following statements is/are correct according to the passage?

I. TRIPs agreement doesn’t recommend sustainable development.

II. Underdeveloped countries who are TRIPs members endorse biodiversity over compliance.

III. Both TRIPs and CBD pose two completely different types of protocols.


C) Only III D) I, II and III

79. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect according to the passage?

I. TRIPs agreement is not a set of International trade rules.

II. Underdeveloped countries are asked to make the new changes in patent law by 2005.

III. Defending the need for conformity, 170 countries signed CBD)


C) Only III D) I and III



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80. What are the differences between the CBD and TRIPs norms, according to the page?

A) TRIPs and CBD are applicable to different sectors altogether.

B) TRIPs and CBD are two different forms of the same protocols of WTO

C) As CBD recommends ‘diversity’ for sustainable development, TRIPs want countries to stick to

international norms without considering diversity.

D) Only a few clauses of TRIPs and CBD differ, otherwise the same.

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