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`Syllabus for the D-SAT

For students Presently in X Science: Chemical Reactions and Equations, Acids, Bases and Salts, Metals and Non-metals, Carbon and its

Compounds, Periodic Classification of Elements, Life Processes, Control and Coordination, How do

Organisms Reproduces?, Heredity and Evolution, Light - Reflection and Refraction, Human Eye and

Colorful World, Electricity, Magnetic Effects of Electric Current, Sources of Energy, Our Environment,

Management of Natural Resources.

Maths: Real Number, Polynomials, Pair of Linear Equations in Two Variables, Quadratic Equations, Arithmetic

Progressions, Triangles, Coordinate Geometry, Introduction to Trigonometry, Some Applications of

Trigonometry, Circles, Constructions, Areas Related to Circles, Surface Areas and Volumes, Statistics,

Probability.

And General Aptitude : Logics and Reasoning

Sample Paper for Class XI

Total Questions : 35 Total Marks: 120 Duration: 75 Minutes

INSTRUCTIONS:-

01. Before starting the paper, fill up the required details in the blank space provided in the answer sheet.

02. Write your name and Seven digit Reg. No. in the space provided at the top of this booklet.

03. The question paper consists of '50' objective type questions. From Question no.1 to Question no. 25 Each question carry 4 mark for correct answer and From Question no.26 to Question no. 35 Each question carry 2 mark for correct answer .

05. Each question contains four alternatives out of which only ONE is correct.

06. There is NEGATIVE marking. 25% of mark will be deducted for each wrong answer.

07. Indicate the correct answer for each question by filling appropriate bubble in your answer sheet.

08. The answers of the questions must be marked by shading the circle against the question by dark Black Ball point Pen only.

09. For rough work, use the space provided at the bottom of each page. No extra sheet will be provided for rough work and you are not supposed to bring the same.

10. Use of blank papers, clip boards, log tables, calculator, slide rule, mobile or any other electronic

gadgets in any form is "NOT PERMISSIBLE".

11. You must not carry mobile phone even if you have the same, give it to your Invigilator before commencement of the test and take it back from him/her after the exam.

12. Paper contains 03 sections among which section-1 belongs to Science-15 questions, section-2 belongs to Maths-10 questions, section-3 belongs to General Aptitude-10 .

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1. The V-I graph of a resistor is shown in figure. If the resistance is determined at points A, B and C then it is found that :

(A) resistance at A, B and C are equal (B) resistance at C is lower than that at B (C) resistance at B is lower than that at A (D) resistance at B is higher than that at A.

2. The only correct statement for the electric circuit shown in figure is :

(A) The voltmeter has been correctly connected in a circuit (B) The ammeter has been correctly connected in the circuit

(C) The resistors 1Rand 2R

have been correctly connected in series

(D) The resistors 1R and 2R

have been correctly connected in parallel. 3. Choose the incorrect statement :

(A) Fleming’s right-hand rule is a simple to know the direction of induced current. (B) The right – hand thumb rule is used to find the direction of magnetic fields due to current carrying conductors. (C) The difference between the direct and alternating currents is that the direct current always flows in one direction, whereas the alternating current reverses its direction periodically. (D) In India, the AC changes direction after every (1/50) second.

4. Choose the incorrect statement. (A) We are encouraged to plant more trees so as to ensure clean environment and also provide biomass fuel. (B) Gobar-gas is produced when crops, vegetable wastes etc., decompose in the absence of oxygen. (C) The main ingredient of biogas is ethane and it gives a lot of smoke and also produces a lot of residuel ash. (D) None of these

5. A beam of light is incident through the holes on side A and emerges out of the holes on the other face of the box as shown in figure. Which of the following could be inside the box?

(A) Concave lens (B) Rectangular glass (C) Prism (D) Convex lens

Section (1) - Science ( Max. Marks 15 X 04 = 60 )

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6. 10 ml of dilute acetic acid was added to 10 ml of water and this mixture was shaken for a minute. It was observed that A) The acid formed a separate layer at the bottom B) A clear solution was formed C) The turbidity appeared in the test tube D) Water formed a separate layer at the bottom

7. Consider the following statements: I. On moving from left to right in a period atomic radii increases II. On moving from left to right in a period atomic radii decreases

Which of the above statement(s) is /are correct? A) Only I B) Only II C) Both I and II D) Neither I nor II

8. Which of the following pairs includes isomeric compounds? A) Alcohols and aldehyde B) Alcohols and Ketones C) Aldehyde and carboxylic acids D) Ketones and aldehyde

9. In order to displace Ag from AgNO3 solution, which is the most appropriate metal to be used? A) Magnesium B) Zinc C) Gold D) Copper

10. A transition metal X got its name from a moon of the planet Saturn. It was discovered by William Gregor. It can be extracted from its ore by Kroll process. Can you identify this metal X? A) Uranium B) Titanium C) Radium D) Francium

11. Largest heart is found in- (A) Elephant (B) Giraffe (C) Crocodile (D) Lion

12. Olfactory receptor organs are sensitive for- (A) Light (B) Sound (C) Smell (D) Equilibrium

13. The genotype of offspring formed from Tt X tt will be- (A) TT and tt (B) Tt and tt (C) only tt (D) only TT Q.12

14. In animals sex determination is due to- (A) X-chromosome (B) Y-chromosome (C) A-chromosome (D) B-chromosome

15. In an ecosystem green plants are known as- (A) Primary consumers (B) Secondary consumers (C) Producers (D) Decomposers

16. If , are the zero of f(x)=bx2-2x+3b and , then the value of b is…

a) 23

3b b)

2

3b c)

3

2b d)

20

3b

17. I am three times as old as my son. Five years later, I shall be two and a half times as old as my son. My present age is (A)15 years (B) 20 years (C) 50 years (D) 45 years

18. The larger of the two supplementary angles exceeds the smaller by 18o. The smaller angle is

(A)100∘ (B) 81∘ (C) 99∘ (D) 180∘ 19. Two poles of heights 6 m and 11 m stand on a plane ground. If the distance between the feet of the poles is 12 m, then

the distance between tops is….

a) 13 m. b) 18 m. c) 15 m. d) 12 m.

20. If 3 tan 3sin , then the value of 2 2sin cos .

(a) 1

3 (b)

2

3 (c)

1

4 (d)

3

4

21. In a 5th

match of india and srilanka played in November 2014,

The sum of one third runs scored by Indian team and one seventh runs is scored by srilankan team is 137.

If India won this match by minimum required run then the runs scored by Indian team is….

(a) 288 runs (b) 278 runs c) 273 runs d) 287 runs

Section (2) - Maths ( Max. Marks 10 X 04 = 40)

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22. A quadrilateral ABCD is drawn so that 90oD , BC=38 cm and CD=25 cm. A circle is inscribed in the quadrilateral and it touches sides AB, BC, CD and DA at P, Q, R and S respectively. If BP=27 cm, then the radius of the inscribed circle is (a) 13 (b) 14 (c) 15 (d) 16

23. The radii of two concentric circles are 13 cm and 8 cm. PQ is a diameter of the bigger circle. QR is a tangent to the smaller circle touching it at R. then the length of PR. (A) 19 (b) 21 (c) 23 (d) 18

24. A solid is composed of a cylinder with hemispherical ends. If the whole length of the solid is 104 cm and the radius of each hemispherical end is 7 cm, the cost of polishing its surface at the rate of Rs. 2

per 2dm (Take 22

7 ).

(a) 92.22 (b) 96.12 (c) 98.2 (d) 91.52 25. In the figure OACB represent a quadrant of a circle.

The radius OA=3.5 cm, OD = 2 cm. Then the area of shaded portion. (a) 8.13 (b) 6.13 (c) 9.8 (d) 7.2

26. BUCKET is to ACTVBDJLDFSU as BONUS is to ……. (A) ACMNMOTVRT (B) SUNOB (C) ACNPMOTVRT (D) ACMNMOTURT

27. If S – T means ‘S’ is the wife of ‘T’ is S + T means ‘S’ is the daughter of ‘T’ and S T means ‘S’ is the son of ‘T’ What will M + J K means ? (A) ‘K’ is the father of ‘M’ (B) ‘M’ is the grand daughter of K (C) ‘J’ is wife of ‘K’ (D) ‘K’ and ‘M’ are brothers

28. In a queue I am the last person while my friend is seventh from the front. If the person exactly between me and my friend is on the 23rd position from the front, what is my position in the queue? (A) 37 (B) 36 (C) 38 (D) 39

29. Refer to the diagram below to answer these questions.

If the total income of P is Rs. 8,000, the interest he earns from his savings is (A) Rs. 1,000 (B) Rs. 1,500 (C) Rs. 3,000 (D) Rs. 2,000

30. In a certain code, TERMINAL is written as SDQLJOBM. How is CREDIBLE written in that code? (A) BQDCJCMF (B) BQDCHAKD (C) DSFEJCMF (D) DSFEHAKD

Section (3) – General Aptitude ( Max. Marks 10 X 02 = 20)

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31. In a certain coding system, ‘rbm std bro pus’ means ‘the cat is beautiful’, ‘tnh pus dim std’ means ‘the dog is brown’, ‘pus dim bro pus cus’ means ‘the dog has the cat’. What is the code for ‘has’? (A) std (B) dim (C) bro (D) cus

32. On the basis of two position of dice, find what number will be on the opposite face of number 5?

(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

33. How many numbers from 1 to 100 are there each of which is not only exactly divisible by 4 but also has 4

as a digit?

(A) 7 (B) 10 (C) 20 (D) 21

34. In the following question four alternatives are given which follow a word marked as question. You have to select one alternative which exactly matches with the MIRROR IMAGE of the word in question. OPPORTUNITY

35. In the following question, choose the correct WATER IMAGE of the figure (X) from amongst the four

alternatives (A), (B), (C), (D) given alongwith it.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

ANSWER KEY 1. D 2. D 3. D 4. C 5. D

6. B 7. B 8. D 9. A 10. B

11. A 12. C 13. B 14. B 15. C

16. B 17. D 18. B 19. A 20. A 21. A 22. B 23. A 24. D 25. B

26. C 27. B 28. D 29. D 30. A 31. D 32. C 33. A 34. C 35. C