(DCE 311) - Welcome to ANUCDEanucde.info/DEC11QPS/34-BTCV3.pdf · Construct the maximum S.F. and B.M. diagram, stating the ... Draw S.F.D. and B.M.D. for the shown continuous beam

(DCE 311)

B.Tech. DEGREE EXAMINATION, DECEMBER 2011.

(Examination at the end of Third Year)

Civil Engineering

Paper I — STRUCTURAL ANALYSIS — I

Time : Three hours Maximum : 75 marks

Answer question No. 1 compulsorily. (15 1 = 15)

Answer ONE question from each Unit. (4 14 = 60)

1. Answer the following :

(a) What is the deflection at the free end of a cantilever carrying a concentrated load P at the free end. Flexural rigidity is EI.

(b) Draw influence line diagram for the left support of a simply supported beam of span ‘l’.

(c) Draw influence line diagram for shear force at any section between supports of a simply supported beam of span ‘l’.

(d) Draw influence line diagram for bending moment at any section between supports of a simply supported beam of span ‘l’.

(e) A beam 8 m long is fixed at its ends. It carries a u.d.l. of 4500 N/m over the whole span. Find the maximum bending moment. E = 200 kN/mm2 and I = 5 107 mm4.

(f) For the above problem, find maximum deflection.

(g) A fixed beam of length l, sinks at one end by an amount d, and EI is the flexural rigidity of the beam. Find the fixed end moments.

(h) A fixed beam carries a u.d.l of 20 kN/mt over entire span of 6 m. Find the bending moment at the centre of the beam.

(i) State first theorem of castigliano.

(j) What is the slope at the free end of a cantilever of length l, with a point load W at free end? Flexural rigidity is EI.

(k) What is the slope at the free end of a cantilever of length l, with a point load W acting at mid span? Flexural rigidity is EI.

(l) What is a propped cantilever?

(m) What is Bettis law?

(n) What is an externally redundant frame?

(o) What is Clapeyron’s theorem of three moments?

(DCE 311) 2

UNIT I

2. A lamp post ABC consists of a vertical part AB of length l and a horizontal part BC of length l/8, the lower end A of the post being fixed. It carries a point load P at C. Find the vertical and horizontal components of the deflection of C. Assume uniform flexural rigidity EI.

Or

3. Find the horizontal movement of the roller end D of the portal frame shown. E = 2 108 kN/m2 and I = 3 104 m4.

UNIT II

4. A beam ACB 7 m long is fixed at A and is simply supported at B, and is provided with an internal hinge at C, 4 m from A. Draw influencing diagram for

(a) Reaction at A,

(b) Reaction at B

(c) B.M. at A

(d) B.M. at D, the middle point of AC

(e) B.M at E, 2 m from B

Or

5. Two point loads of 4 kN and 6 kN spaced 6 m apart cross a girder of 16 m span, the 4 kN load leading from left to right. Construct the maximum S.F. and B.M. diagram, stating the absolute maximum values.

UNIT III

6. A fixed beam AB of span 6 metres is subjected to a concentrated couple of 300 kN-mt, applied at a section C, 4 metres from the left and A. Find the end moments from first principles and draw B.M. and S.F diagram.

Or

(DCE 311) 3

7. Draw S.F.D. and B.M.D. for the shown continuous beam using theorem of three moments.

UNIT IV

8. Analyse the given frame using strain energy method.

Or

9. Find the forces in the members of the truss shown. The value of 1mm16.0 Al

for all the

members.

———————

(DCE 312)



Civil Engineering

Paper II — ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING – I


Answer Question No. 1 compulsorily. (15 1 = 15)


1. (a) Distinguish between water quality objectives and water quality standards.

(b) What is the Indian standard of per capita water demand?

(c) Distinguish between gravity well and artesian well.

(d) Write two advantages of centrifugal pumps.

(e) Boiling of water renders Water ____________

(f) Mention the principle involved in sedimentation.

(g) What is the efficiency of RSF when compared to SSF?

(h) What is Residual chlorine?

(DCE 312) 2

(i) How is algal control in overhead tanks achieved?

(j) Colour in water is imported due to _________.

(k) What is florosis?

(l) Odonr can be removed by ____________.

(m) What is the purpose of Air value?

(n) What is the purpose of Booster pumps?

(o) Mention the use of plastics in House plumbing.

UNIT I

2. (a) Explain about the quality and quantity of various sources of water.

(b) What are the factors affecting per capita water consumption.

Or

(c) What is an intake structure? With neat sketch explain canal intake.

(d) What is the need for protected water supplies?

UNIT II

3. (a) How are pumps classified? Explain.

(b) Write in detail the determination of turbidity in laboratory.

Or

(DCE 312) 3

(c) Explain the principle of coagulation.

(d) Give a flow diagram of a water treatment plant.

UNIT III

4. Write about

(a) The differences between SSF and RSF.

(b) Testing of chlorine.

Or

Write short notes on :

(c) Removal of colour, odonr and taste.

(d) Methods of removing fluoride from water.

UNIT IV

5. (a) Explain the procedure to determine the capacity of a balancing reservoir.

(b) With neat sketches explain the appurtenances used in distribution system.

Or

(c) Distinguish between one pipe system and two pipe system.

(d) What are the various principles governing the design of building drainage?

———————–––

(DCE 313)



Civil Engineering

Paper III — WATER RESOURCES ENGINEERING – I


Answer Question No. 1 compulsorily. (15 × 1 = 15)

Answer ONE question from each Unit. (4 × 15 = 60)

1. (a) What is hydrologic cycle?

(b) Explain unit hydrograph theory.

(c) What is a hydrograph? Explain with a neat sketch.

(d) Differentiate specific yield and specific retention.

(e) State Dupit’s theory.

(f) What is the purpose of well development?

(g) Differentiate between uncontrolled and free flooding.

(h) Explain saturation capacity and field capacity.

(i) Define kor depth and kor period.

(j) What do you understand by water application effciency?

(DCE 313) 2

(k) Explain Lacey’s regime theory.

(l) List out losses in canal.

(m) Explain Bligh’s creep theory.

(n) What is the purpose of canal outlet?

(o) What is the necessity of a canal fall?

UNIT I

2. (a) What is run-off? What are the function that affect the run-off from a catchment area? (7)

(b) During a recuperation test, the water in open well was depressed by pumping by 2m and it recuperated 1.5m in 1 hour. Estimate the yield from a well of 2 m diameter under a depression head of 2 m situated in the same area. (8)

Or

(c) Explain the method of determine direct run-off from a given storm hydrograph. (7)

(d) A 12 hr storm rainfall with the following depths in cm occurred over a basin : 2.0, 2.5, 7.6, 3.8, 10.6. 5.0, 7.0, 10.0, 6.4, 3.8, 1.4 and 1.4.

The surface run-off resulting from the above storm is equivalent to 25.5 cm of depth over the basin. Determine the average infiltration index for the basin. (8)

UNIT II

3. (a) Give the classification of water resources development project and mention the functional requirements of a multi purpose project. (7)

(DCE 313) 3

(b) Compute the depth and frequency of irrigation required for a certain crop with data given below : Root zone depth = 100 cm, field capacity = 22%, Wilting point = 12% Apparanent specific gravity of soil = 1.5. Consumptine use = 25 mm/day, Efficiency of irrigation = 50% Assume 50% depletion of available moisture before application of irrigation water at field capacity. (8)

Or

(c) Discuss on brief the methods of applying water to crops. (7)

(d) A field channel has culturable commanded area of 2000 hectares. The intensity of irrigation for gram is 30% and for wheat is 50%. Gram has a kor period of 18 days and kor depth of 12 cm, while wheat has a kor period of 15 days and a kor depth of 15 cm. Calculate the discharge of the field channel. (8)

UNIT III

4. (a) Describe various methods adopted an anti-water logging reassures. (7)

(b) Design an irrigation channel to carry a discharge of 45 cumes. Assume N = 0.0225 and m=1. The channel has a bed slope of 0.16 meter per kilometer. (8)

Or

(DCE 313) 4

(c) Compute Kennedy’s and Lacey’s silt theories. Why is Lacey’s conception superior to that of Kennedy’s? (7)

(d) Design a trapezoidal shaped concrete lined channel to carry a discharge of 100 cumecs at a slope of 25 cm/km. The side slopes of the channel are 1.5:1. The value of N may be taken as 0.016. Assume the limiting velocity as 1.5 m/sec. (8)

UNIT IV

5. (a) Discuss in brief various causes of failure of weirs and their remedies. (7)

(b) Distinguish clearly between non-modular and semi-modular outlets. Give example. (8)

Or

(c) What do you understand by a fall in a canal? Why it is necessary? How do you select its location? (7)

(d) Describe with the help of sketches, the working of a silt excluder. (8)

——————

(DCE 314)



Civil Engineering

Paper IV — DESIGN OF CONCRETE STRUCTURES – I


Answer ALL questions.

All questions carry equal marks.

UNIT I

1. (a) Distinguish between balanced, under reinforced and over reinforced sections. Explain why the over reinforced design is not advisable. (5)

(b) A singly reinforced concrete beam of effective span 6 m has a rectangular section 300 mm wide by 650 mm deep. The beam is reinforced with 4 bars of 25 mm diameter at an effective depth of 600 mm. The superimposed dead load on the beam is 6 kN/m. Calculate the maximum permissible live load on the beam. Adopt M 20 grade concrete and Fe 415 grade steel. Adopt Working stress method. (10)

Or

(DCE 314) 2

2. Design a T- beam for an office floor to suit the following data :

Clear span = 11.5 m

Centre to centre of supports = 12 m

Loading (Office floor) = 4kN/m2

Thickness of slab = 150 mm

Spacing of T- beams = 3 m

Use M 20 grade concrete and Fe 415 grade steel. Sketch the details of reinforcement in the T- beam. Adopt Working stress method. (15)

UNIT II

3. A doubly reinforced rectangular beam is 400 mm 700 mm overall depth. The beam is simply supported over a span of 6m. The live load on the beam is 110 kN/m. Design the reinforcement for the beam using M 20 grade concrete and Fe 415 grade steel. Adopt Limit state method. (15)

Or

4. Determine the ultimate moment of resistance of the T- beam section with effective width of flange 1050 mm, width of rib 250 mm, effective depth of the beam 540 mm, thickness of flange 120 mm and area of steel of 2250mm2. Use M 20 grade concrete and Fe 415 grade steel. (15)

(DCE 314) 3

UNIT III

5. A reinforced concrete beam of rectangular section 350 mm wide is reinforced with 4 bars of 20 mm diameter at an effective depth of 550 mm out of which 2 bars are bent up near the support section where a factored shear force of 400 kN is acting. Using M 20 grade concrete and Fe 415 grade steel design suitable shear reinforcements at the support section. Adopt Limit state method. (15)

Or

6. A simply supported reinforced concrete beam of T-shaped cross section with a flange width of l600 mm, flange thickness of 120 mm and web width of 300 mm is reinforced with 8 bars of 20 mm dia on the tension side at an effective depth of 600 mm. Determine the short term maximum deflection if it is subjected to a total service load of 40 kN/m, when used over an effective span of 6m. Use M 20 grade concrete and Fe 415 grade steel. (15)

UNIT IV

7. Design a rectangular reinforced concrete beam simply supported on masonry walls 300 mm thick and 6 m apart (c/c) to support a distributed live load of 10 kN/m and a dead load of 5 kN/m in addition to its own weight. Use M 20 grade concrete and Fe 415 grade steel. Adopt Working stress method. (15)

Or

(DCE 314) 4

8. Design one of the flights of a doglegged staircase of a multi-storied building using the following data:

No. of steps(Risers) in the going = 10

Tread (T) = 300 mm, Rise (R) = 150 mm

Width of landing slab on either side = 1 m

Use M 20 grade concrete and Fe 415 grade steel. Adopt Working stress method. (15)

UNIT V

9. Design a cantilever beam to suit the following data :

Clear span = 1.75 m

Service live load = 18 kN/m

Cantilever beam is monolithic with reinforced concrete column 250 mm wide by 400 mm deep. Use M 20 grade concrete and Fe 415 grade steel. Adopt Limit state method. (15)

Or

10. A T-beam slab floor of reinforced concrete has a slab 150 mm thick spanning between the T-beams which are spaced 3 m apart. The beams have a clear span of 10 m and the end bearings are 450 mm thick walls. The live load on the floor is 4 kN/m2. Using M 20 grade concrete and Fe 415 grade steel, design one of the intermediate T-beams. Adopt Limit state method. (15)

——————

(DCE 315)



CIVIL ENGINEERING

Paper V — DESIGN OF STEEL STRUCTURES – I


Answer ONE question from each Unit.

(5 15 = 75)

UNIT I

1. A ISMB 350 column of length 7 m is provided with

a bracket of ISNIB 250 and a load of 60 kN is

applied on the bracket at a distance of 300 mm

from the face of a column of column. Design a butt

joint.

Or

2. A diagonal element of a TV tower is subjected to a

tensile force of 650 kN. Design a section and its

connection with a gusset plate and lug angle, use

fy.

(DCE 315) 2

UNIT II

3. Design a loaded column with two channels back to back of length 6 m to carry an acid factored load of 1200 KN. The columns may be assumed with both ends are wigged.

Or

4. An upper storey column ISHB 350 577 N/m carries a factored load of 1500 KN and a factored moment of 15 KN-m. If is to be spliced with lower story column ISHB 450 @ 806 N/m. Design a suitable splice.

UNIT III

5. Design a gusseted base to carry any acid factored load of 3000 kN. The column is 15 HB 450 a 855 N/m with two 250 22 cm cover plates on either side. The effective height of the column is 5 m. The column is to rest on M20 concrete pedestal.

Or

6. Design a slab bore for a column ISMB 3000 @ 577 N/m carrying an acids factored load of 1000 KN, M20 concrete is used for the foundation. Provide welded connection between column and base plate.

(DCE 315) 3

UNIT IV

7. Determine the uniformly distributed load carrying

of the welded plate girder shown in fig.1, when

used as centilever beam of 6 m effective span and

check if for shear deflection, web buckling and web

crippling. Assuming stiff bearing length as

100 mm.

Fig. (1)

Or

8. Design a beam of 6 m effective span, carrying a

udl of 20 KN/m, if the compression flanges is

laterally unsupported assume 1 = 250 MPa.

UNIT V

9. A bracket is made by welding a 20 mm thick,

150 mm wide plate to a 12 mm thick plate is

shown in fig. 2. The thickness of the fillet weld

being 8 mm. This is to be ISHB 300 @ 577 N/m

(DCE 315) 4

using N 124 HSFG Bolts of grade 8.8. Design the

boths connection, assuming coefficient of friction

=0.48.

Fig. (2)

Or

10. The 10 mm thick bracket plate shown in fig. (3). is connected with the flamge of column ISHB 300 @ 577 N/m. Find the size of the weld to transmit a factored load of 300 KN.

Fig. (3)

–––––––––––

(DCE 316)



Civil Engineering

Paper VI — GEO-TECHNICAL ENGINEERING — I




1. (a) A soil sample has a specific gravity of 2.6 and void ratio of 0.78. Determine the water

content required to fully saturate the soil at that void ratio.

(b) Define porosity.

(c) For a well graded sand, the coefficient of curvature should be ––––––––––––.

(d) Define sensitivity.

(e) Write I.S. classification symbol for clayey sand.

(f) What is a flow net?

(g) Define consolidation.

(h) What is over consolidated soil?

(i) Sheeps foot roller is suited for compaction of ––––––––––––.

(j) What is O.M.C.?

(k) A dry sand specimen was tested is a triakial machine with cell pressure of 50 kpw. If

deviator stress at failure was 100 kpw, then angle of shearing resistance is

––––––––––––.

(l) Write the Mohr coulomb shear strength equation.

(m) The deviator stress s given by ––––––––––––.

(n) The Cu and Cc are given by ––––––––––––.

(o) Define plasticity index.

(DCE 316) 2

UNIT I

2. (a) Describe the process of soil formation. (7)

(b) A soil has a liquid limit of 25% and a flow index of 12.5%. If the plastic limit is 15%, determine the plasticity index and toughness index. If the water content of the soil in its natural condition in the field is 20%, find the liquidity index and the relative consistency. (8)

Or

(c) Describe the methods to determine water content in a lab. (7)

(d) The mass of chunk of moist soil is 20 kg and its volume is 0.11m3. After drying is an oven, the mass reduces to 16.5 kg. Determine the water content, density of moist soil, dry density, void ratio, porosity and degree of saturation. (G = 2.7) (8)

UNIT II

3. (a) Explain the permeability of stratified soil deposits. (8)

(b) Classify the soils with following properties as per I.S. system. (7)

(i) Sieve size % passing

2.032 mm 100

0.422 85

0.075 38

(ii) Liquid limit (%) = 20

(iii) Plastic limit (%) = 12

Or

(c) Explain the role of effective stress in soil mechanics. (7)

(d) Calculate the coefficient of permeability of soils sample, 6 cm in height and 50 cm2 in cross sectional area, if quantity water equal to 430 ml passed down in 10 min, under an effective constant head of 40 cm. (8)

UNIT III

4. (a) Write short notes on flow nets. (7)

(b) Describe standard protect test. (8)

Or

(c) Discuss the factors that affect compaction. (7)

(d) For a homogenous earth dam 32 m high and 2 cm free board, a flow net was constructed with four flow channels. The number of potential drops was 20. The dam how horizontal filter at the base near the toe. The coefficient of permeability of soil was 9 10–2 mm/s. Determine the anticipated seepage, if length of dam is 100 m. (8)

(DCE 316) 3

UNIT IV

5. (a) Differentiate between primary consolidation and secondary consolidation. (7)

(b) Explain the Mohr coulomb strength envelope. (8)

Or

(c) Explain with suitable analog Teraghi’s theory of one dimensional consolidation of soils. (7)

(d) What are the advantages and disadvantages of triaxial compression test. (8)

————————

(DCE 321)



Civil Engineering

Paper I — STRUCTURAL ANALYSIS – II


Answer Question No.1 compulsory. (15 1 = 15)


1. (a) What is displacement factor? Where it is used?

(b) A two hinged parabolic arch of span 40 m and rise 8 m is subjected to a rise of

temperature of 30C. Find horizontal thrust due to rise of temperature.

E = 2 105 N/mm2. = 12 10–6 per C. The rib section is 1000 mm deep.

(c) For the above problem, find maximum bending moment due to rise of temperature.

(d) For problem number ‘b’, find maximum bending stress.

(e) Why two hinged stiffening girder is provided in a cable?

(f) A cable carrying a load of 10 kN per metre run of horizontal span is stretched between

supports 100 metres apart. The supports are at the same level and the central dip is 8

meters. Find maximum tension in the cable.

(g) For the above problem, find minimum tension.

(h) What are the assumptions of portal method?

(i) What are the assumptions of cantilever method?

(j) How you can identify a frame with side sway?

(k) What is the method in which sway calculations and non-sway calculations are carried

out in a single operation?

(l) A three hinged parabolic arch of span ‘l’ and rise ‘h’, carries a u.d.l of w per unit run

over the whole span. What is the bending moment at any given section of the arch?

(m) What is Rib shortening of a two hinged arch?

(n) What is normal thrust in a three hinged arch?

(o) What is radial shear in a three hinged arch?

(DCE 321) 2

UNIT I

2. Analyse the continuous beam shown, if the supports B and C sink by 3 mm and 5 mm respectively. For the beam I = 4 107 mm4, E = 200 kN/mm2. Use slope deflection method. Draw B.M.D. and S.F.D.

Or

3. Analyse the given frame using slope deflection method. Draw B.M.D.

UNIT II

4. Draw B.M.D. and S.F.D. for the given continuous beam using moment distribution method.

Or

5. Draw B.M.D. for the frame using moment distribution method. All members have the same flexural rigidity.

(DCE 321) 3

UNIT III

6. Draw B.M.D. for the given continuous beam using Kani's method.

Or

7. Analyse and Draw B.M.D. for the given frame using Kani's method.

UNIT IV

8. A three hinged parabolic arch ACB is hinged at the support A and B which are below the

crown hinge C by 3 m and 6.75 m respectively. The span of the arch is 22.5 m. The arch

carries a u.d.l of 30 kN/mt from A to C. Find reactions at supports, maximum positive and

negative moments. Draw B.M.D.

Or

9. A cord supported at it's ends 40 metres apart carries loads of 20 kN, 10 kN and 12 kN at

distances 10 m, 20 m and 30 m from the left end. If the point on the cord where the 10 kN

load is supported is 13 metres below the level of the end supports, find reactions at supports,

the tensions in different parts of cord, the total length of cord.

–––––––––––

(DCE 322)



Civil Engineering

Paper II — TRANSPORTATION ENGINEERING – I


Answer Question No. 1 Compulsorily. (15 1 = 15)


1. (a) Highlight the salient features of Roman roads.

(b) What is central Road fund?

(c) Give the expression for calculation of total length of metalled road in Nagpur road plan?

(d) Define highway alignment.

(e) What are the factors affecting skid resistance?

(f) How are Kerbs classified based an function?

(g) What is the minimum length of over-taking zones?

(h) What is off-tracking?

(DCE 322) 2

(i) Define Grade compensation.

(j) What are the desirable properties of road aggregates?

(k) Define angularity number.

(l) Define ESWL?

(m) What is the function of dowel bars in cement concrete pavaments?

(n) Differentiate between prime coat and track coat.

(o) What are the recommendations of Jayakar's committee?

UNIT I

2. (a) Draw a typical cross section of macadam's construction, specifying the construction steps and salient features?

(b) Highlight the salient features of Jayakar's committee report and how were the recommendations implemented?

Or

3. (a) Explain the salient features of the third twenty year road development plan?

(b) Describe the special considerations whole aligning roads on hilly areas.

(DCE 322) 3

UNIT II

4. (a) Define stopping sight distance. Derive the expression for calculating the stopping sight distance an slopes.

(b) Derive the expressions to calculate the length of valley curves based on both the criteria of head light sight distance and allowable rate of change of centrifugal acceleration.

Or

5. (a) Define super elivation. Derive the expression for the analysis of super elivation.

(b) Describe the various tests on Road aggregats.

UNIT III

6. (a) Explain the CBR method of flexible pavement design.

(b) What are frictional stresses? How is the combined stress determined in different seasons in a cement concrete pavement.

Or

(DCE 322) 4

7. (a) Explain the different types of Biterminous constructions in flexible pavements?

(b) How are joints designed in cement concrete pavements?

UNIT IV

8. (a) How is the maintenance of cement roads and joints conducted?

(b) How is the evaluation of pavement surface condition done?

Or

9. (a) Differentiate between surface drainage and sub-surface drainage.

(b) How is road construction in water logged area carried out?

———————

(DCE 323) B.Tech. DEGREE EXAMINATION, DECEMBER 2011.


Civil Engineering

Paper III — WATER RESOURCES ENGINEERING — II


Answer Question No. 1 compulsory. (15 1 = 15)


(4 15 = 60)

1. (a) What is the purpose of current meter?

(b) How will you measure the depth of a stream?

(c) What do you understand by meandering?

(d) Differentiate aqueduct and syphon aqueduct.

(e) Explain Marx inflow curve.

(f) What do you understand by flood-routing?

(g) Explain about safe yield and secondary yield.

(h) When you will prefer the earth dam?

(i) Give the elementary profile of a gravity dam.

(j) What is the purpose of a Gallery in a dam?

(DCE 323) 2

(k) Draw a Phrcatic line in a earth dam. (l) What is a spillway? (m) Explain jump height curve. (n) Define load factor and utilization factor. (o) Mention the location of a surge tank in a

power house.

UNIT I

2. (a) What is meant by stream gauging? Describe the velocity area method that is used for stream gauging? (7)

(b) Describe in brief various types of groynes used for river training. Draw a section of a groyne. (8)

Or

(c) Classify aqueducts and explain under what circumstances each one is used. (7)

(d) Write a note on selection of suitable type of cross-drainage works. (8)

UNIT II

3. (a) What are the factors on which selection of site for a dam depends? (7)

(b) What do you understand by demand curve? Explain the method of calculating reservoir capacity for a specific yield from the marx inflow curve. (8)

Or

(DCE 323) 3

(c) Discuss in brief merits and demerits of various types of dams. (7)

(d) Explain the graphical method of flood touting. (8)

UNIT III

4. (a) Distinguish clearly between a low gravity dam and high gravity dam. Derive the expression used for such a distinction. (7)

(b) Design a practical profile of a gravity dam of stone masonry, given the following data :

R.L. of base of dam = 1250 m

R.L. of H.F.L. = 1280 m

Specific gravity of masonry = 2.4

Safe compressive stress for masonry of dam = 120 t/m2. (8)

Or

(c) Describe in brief various modes of failure of a gravity dam. (7)

(d) Explain with the help of a diagram various joints provided in gravity dams. (8)

UNIT IV

5. (a) Write notes on :

(i) Forebay (ii) Intake structure (iii) Penstock (iv) Tail race. (8)

(DCE 323) 4

(b) Describe with the help of sketch the working of a volute syphon. (7)

Or

(c) Distinguish clearly between run-off river plants and storage plants. (7)

(d) Explain with the help of a sketches, the components and working of a spillway crest gates. (8)

—————

(DCE 324)



Civil Engineering

Paper IV — DESIGN OF CONCRETE STRUCTURES – II


Answer the following questions.


UNIT I

1. A square column of 350 mm size is carrying a axial load of 600 kN including self weight. Design the column of height 5m using M20 grade concrete and Fe 415 grade steel materials. Assume that ends are fixed.

Or

2. Design a continuou reinforced concrete beam of rectangular section to support a dead load of 12 kN/m and live load of 10 kN/m over 3 spans of 6m each. The ends are simply supported. Use M20 grade concrete and Fe 415 grade steel materials.

(DCE 324) 2

UNIT II

3. Design a simply supported slab to rest on masonry

walls for a live load of 4 kN/m2 if the clear spam is

3.0 m. Use M 20 grade of concrete and HYSD Bars.

Or

4. Design an interior panel of a flat slab 13.5 20 m

without drop or column head. The storey height

above and below the slab is 4 m. Consider the live

load of 5 kN/m2. The materials are M20 grade

concrete and Fe 415 grade steel. The size of the

column is 300 400 mm and that of the panel is

4m 5m.

UNIT III

5. Design the longitudinal and lateral reinforcement

in a rectangular reinforced concrete column of size

300 mm by 450 mm subjected to a design ultimate

load of 1500 kN and an ultimate moment of 200

kN.m with respect to the major axis. Use M20

grade concrete and Fe 415 grade HYSD bars.

Or

(DCE 324) 3

6. Design the longitudinal and lateral reinforcement

in a circular column of diameter 400 mm subjected

to a design ultimate load of 1100 kN and an

ultimate moment of 110 kN.m with respect to the

major axis. Use M20 grade concrete and Fe 415

grade HYSD bars.

UNIT IV

7. Design a cantilever retaining wall to retain an

earth embankment 4 m high above ground level.

The density of soil is 19 kN/m3 and its angle of

repose is 30 . The embankment is horizontal at

top. The safe bearing capacity of the soil may be taken as 180 kN/m2 and the coefficient of friction

between soil and concrete is 0.5. Use M20 grade concrete and Fe 415 grade HYSD bars.

Or

8. (a) What are the various types of retaining

walls? Explain cantilever type R.C.C. retaining wall with neat sketches.

(b) List the various forces and stability requirements to be considered in the design

of retaining walls.

(DCE 324) 4

UNIT V

9. A square column of 400 mm size is carrying a axial load of 800 kN including self weight. The allowable net bearing capacity of the soil is 120 kN/m2 and allowable width of the footing is 2m. Design an isolated footing with M20 concrete and Fe 415 grade of steel. Sketch :

(a) Plan showing the reinforcement details.

(b) Sectional elevation of the footing.

Or

10. A reinforced concrete column 400 400 mm supports an axial service load of 1200 kN. The safe bearing capacity of the soil at site is 200 kN/m2. Use M20 grade concrete and Fe 415 grade HYSD bars. Design a suitable footing for the column and sketch the details of reinforcements.

———————––

(DCE 325)



Civil Engineering

Paper V — DESIGN OF STEEL STRUCTURES II




Use of IS 800-1984 and Steel tables is allowed. Any missed data can be assumed suitably.

UNIT I

1. Design a pressed steel tank to carry 1,00,000 liters of water. The tank is supported at a height of 12 m above the ground level. Size of pressed plates available is 1.25m 1.25m and height of the tank is restricted to 2.5m. The design seismic coefficient may be taken as 0.06.

Or

2. Design an elevated rectangular pressed steel tank having a capacity of 1,50,000 liters. The tank is open on the top. The height of staging is l0m up to the top of the columns. Pressed steel plates of size 1.25 1.25 m are available.

(DCE 325) 2

UNIT II

3. Design a simply supported gantry girder for a mill building to carry an electric overhead traveling crane, for the following data. Crane Capacity = 70 kN Weight of crab = 10 kN Weight of crane girder = 50 kN Minimum clearance between crane hook and gantry girder

= 1.10 m

Distance between centers of girder = 12 m Distance between centers of wheels = 3.0 m Height of Rail Section = 75 mm Weight of Rail section = 300N/m

Or

4. (a) Discuss the importance of shear connectors in composite beams.

(b) What are the design requirements of shear connectors for design of composite action of beam?

UNIT III

5. Design angle-section purlin for an industrial building roof for the following data. Distance between c/c of trusses = 4.5 m Spacing of purlins c/c = 1.5 m Span of truss = 10 m Intensity of wind pressure = 1.5kN/m2 Weight of galvanized sheets = 110N/m2 Yield stress of steel = 250 MPa

Or

(DCE 325) 3

6. Design a Roof truss of span 20m. The pitch of truss is 1/5. The height of the truss at eaves level is 15m. The centre to centre spacing of trusses is 4m. The building is situated in Visakhapatnam. Take

2N/mm250yf for the steel sections.

UNIT IV

7. A plate girder is composed of the following elements.

(a) Web plate : l200mm depth 10mm thickness

(b) Two angles : ISA 200mm 100mm 12mm @ 27.2kg/m in each flange.

(c) Two flange plates: 500mm 15mm in each flange.

The girder is simply supported over an effective span of 12m. Determine the safe udl which the girder can carry inclusive of its own weight. Assume that the compressive flange is not restrained against lateral bending, but its ends are restrained against torsion.

Or

8. The B.M. and S.F at a particular section of a plate girder are 4500 kN.m and 1000kN respectively. Design a plate girder using thin web and end stiffener.

(DCE 325) 4

UNIT V

9. Design the cross section of a deck type plate girder Railway Bridge for a broad gauge main line loading over an effective span of 24 m.

Spacing of plate girders = l.8 m c/c

Weight of stock rails = 0.4 kN/m

Weight of guard rails = 0.25 kN/m

Weight of fastenings = 0.25 kN/m of track

Sleepers (Timber) = 250 150mm 2.8m@ 0.4 c/c.

Density of sleepers = 7.4 kN/m3.

Or

10. Design an end rocker bearing for a steel road bridge for the following data :

Total Vertical load on bearing = 1000 kN,

Longitudinal load on the bearing = l20 kN

Allowable bearing pressure on the concrete = 5 N/mm2.

Also sketch the rocker bearing showing all the details.

———————–––

(DCE 326)



Civil Engineering

Paper VI — GEO-TECHNICAL ENGINEERING – II




1. (a) What is shallow foundation?

(b) Name the insitu tests for the bearing capacity of soils.

(c) Define lateral earth pressure.

(d) What is the main objective of sub soil investigation?

(e) Define undisturbed sample.

(f) What is soil-structure interaction?

(g) Name the types of retaining walls.

(h) Define immediate settlement and consolidation settlement.

(DCE 326) 2

(i) What is the need for correction of N values?

(j) What are the different methods of improving bearing capacity?

(k) Define boring log.

(l) What is compaction pile?

(m) Where pile foundations are used?

(n) What do you mean by bearing capacity factor?

(o) Define influence diagram.

UNIT I

2. What are the types of soil samples and briefly explain the Design features affecting the sample disturbance. (15)

Or

3. Briefly explain the Boussinq's solution for stress distribution with assumptions and its limitations. (15)

UNIT II

4. Describe the Rankine's earth pressure theory for cohesive soils and compare the same with Coulomb's wedge theory. (15)

Or

5. (a) Briefly explain the principles of the design of the retaining walls. (8)

(b) Describe the Friction circle method and mention the importance of stability charts. (7)

(DCE 326) 3

UNIT III

6. (a) What are the assumptions made in Terzaghi's bearing capacity theory? (5)

(b) Distinguish between General shear failure and local shear failure. (5)

(c) Determine the ultimate bearing capacity of a square footing 2 m 2 m in a soil with unit weight of 18 kN/m3, = 20, c = 20 kN/m2. Take the depth of the foundation of 1.0 m. Use Terzaghi's equation. (5)

Or

7. (a) Briefly explain the causes of settlements in foundations and state the necessary precautions to control the settlements of foundations. (9)

(b) Estimate the immediate settlement of a concrete footing, 1 m 2 m size, founded at a depth of 1 m in a soil with E = 104 kN/m2, = 0.3. The footing is subjected to a pressure of 200 kN/m2. Assume the footing to be rigid. (6)

UNIT IV

8. (a) Write about the importance pile load test. (5)

(b) Write short notes on group action of piles. (5)

(c) How can you classify the piles based on the mode of transfer of loads? (5)

Or

(DCE 326) 4

9. (a) Sketch the well foundation with components. (5)

(b) Briefly explain the forces that are acting on the well foundation. (5)

(c) What is the effect of surcharge in the analysis of well foundation? (5)

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