Dat Test Sample Items

DENTAL ADMISSION TESTINGPROGRAM

Sample Test Items

Dental Admission Testing Program211 East Chicago Avenue, Suite 600

Chicago, Illinois 606111-800-232-2162

American Dental Associationwww.ada.org

These sample test items are reprinted for distribution in 2007 by the American Dental Association.

© 2000 American Dental Association. All rights reserved.You may not reproduce or transmit, by any means or for any purpose, this publication, or any part

of it, in print, electronic or other format without prior express written permission from theAmerican Dental Association.

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© 2000 American Dental Association. All rights reserved.

This booklet contains copyrighted material and is reprinted with permission. All rights reserved. It may not be reproduced in whole or in part.

1

1. Organisms that obtain their energy fromlight can be termed

A. autotrophic.B. holotrophic.C. chemotrophic.D. heterotrophic.E. heliotrophic.

2. Fermentation

A. produces pyruvic acid as an endproduct.

B. yields less energy per mole ofglucose than aerobic respiration.

C. occurs only in the presence ofoxygen.

D. prevents glycolysis from occurring.E. converts ethanol to glucose.

3. In respiration, oxygen

A. combines with lactic acid to formpyruvic acid.

B. acts as a cofactor for glycolyticenzymes.

C. yields energy in the form of ATP asit is passed down the respiratorychain.

D. acts as an acceptor for electrons(and protons), forming water.

E. combines directly with carbon,forming CO2.

4. An enzyme is added to an aqueoussolution of ATP, DNA, albumen, fat andglycogen; the reaction mixture isincubated for 10 minutes. If an analysis ofthe mixture reveals the presence of all ofthe above compounds plus glucose, itcan be concluded that the enzymehydrolyzed some of the

A. albumen.B. fat.C. glycogen.D. ATP.E. DNA.

5. What cellular organelles would youexpect to be absent from fungi?

A. MitochondriaB. LysosomesC. RibosomesD. Golgi bodiesE. Chloroplasts

6. Intracellular organelles that participate inmetabolic oxidations involving H2O2 arecalled

A. centrioles.B. endoplasmic granules.C. peroxisomes.D. lysosomes.E. macrobodies.

This examination is comprised of 100 items:Biology (1-40), General Chemistry (41-70), and Organic Chemistry (71-100)

7. The two daughter cells formed by mitosisand cytokinesis have

A. half the number of chromosomespresent in the parent cell.

B. half the number of thechromosomes present in the parentcell if this parent cell is found in thetesticular or ovarian tissue.

C. the same number of chromosomespresent in the parent cell.

D. twice the number of chromosomespresent in the parent cell.

E. a variable number of chromosomesso that an exact prediction cannotbe made.

8. Starch, cellulose and glycogen are all

A. proteins.B. linked internally by hydrogen

bonds.C. water soluble.D. polymers of glucose.E. nucleic acids.

9. Each of the following cell organelles havea membranous structure EXCEPT one.Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A. Golgi complexB. CentriolesC. MitochondriaD. LysosomesE. Endoplasmic reticulum

10. In anaerobic glycolysis in muscle cells,one mole of glucose is oxidized to

A. six moles of carbon dioxide.B. two moles of acetic aid.C. two moles of lactic acid.D. two moles of acetyl CoA.E. two moles of carbon dioxide and six

moles of water.

11. The movement of water solublemolecules through cell membranes, fromhigher to lower concentrations, byattachment to a carrier protein, describes

A. diffusions.B. osmosis.C. pinocytosis.D. active transport.E. facilitated diffusion.

12. As far as their products are concerned,all biosynthetic reactions in living cellsresult in

A. a more ordered state, therefore adecrease in entropy.

B. a more ordered state, therefore anincrease in entropy.

C. energy released in the form of ATP.D. energy made available for motion.E. a more ordered state with no

entropy change.

13. Which is the smallest organelle in thecell?

A. Golgi bodyB. NucleusC. MitochondrionD. RibosomeE. Chloroplast

14. For a given diameter of an axon, onefactor which increases the velocity of anerve impulse is

A. the length of the axon.B. the ploidy of the nucleus.C. the density of mitochondria along

the axon.D. maximal stimulation of the neuron.E. the presence of a myelin sheath.


2

15. Which chiefly stimulates action of therespiratory center?

A. Carbon dioxide in the bloodB. RelaxinC. Lack of oxygen in the bloodD. Inflation of the alveolusE. Vagus nerve

16. The term motor unit refers to

A. an entire muscle.B. a single muscle fiber.C. all the muscle fibers innervated by

one nerve fiber.D. all the motor nerves in one muscle.E. all the sliding filaments of actin and

myosin in one muscle fiber.

17. The human heart beat is initiated withinthe

A. sinus venosus.B. Hensen’s node.C. conus arteriosus.D. artio-ventricular node.E. sino-atrial node.

18. In the nephron of the kidney, filtrationoccurs between

A. Bowman’s capsule and Henle’sloop.

B. the glomerulus and Bowman’scapsule.

C. the proximal tubule and Henle’sloop.

D. Henle’s loop and the vasa recta.E. the peritubular network and the

convoluted tubules.

19. The addition of potassium iodide as anutritional supplement to common tablesalt would most directly affect the functionof which of these glands?

A. ThyroidB. Sweat glandsC. Adrenal cortexD. KidneysE. Parathyroid

20. Each of the following is synthesized bythe anterior lobe of the pituitary gland ofvertebrates EXCEPT one. Which one isthe EXCEPTION?

A. Thyrotropic hormoneB. Adrenocorticotropic hormoneC. Follicle-stimulating hormoneD. Growth hormoneE. Oxytocin

21. Clotting of human blood

A. requires that hemoglobin bepresent.

B. results from fibrin joining globulin.C. is a result of platelets releasing

fibrinogen.D. depends on the formation of fibrin

from fibrinogen.E. is accelerated when Ca2+ is

removed.

22. At some stage of development, allchordates have

A. a pharynx, a vertebral column, anda notochord.

B. pharyngeal pouches, a notochord,and a dorsal tubular nerve cord.

C. pharyngeal pouches, a notochord,and a ventral nerve cord.

D. pharyngeal pouches, vertebralcolumn, and a dorsal tubular nervecord.

E. a pharynx and an ectodermallyderived, solid nerve cord.


3

23. Organisms that have the characteristicsof radial symmetry, water vascularsystem, a spiny skin, and are foundexclusively in a marine habitat would bein which phylum?

A. AnnelidaB. ChordataC. CnidariaD. PoriferaE. Echinodermata

24. Of the following, which group ofinvertebrates is apparently most closelyrelated to primitive vertebrates?

A. AnnelidaB. MolluscaC. CnidariaD. ArthropodaE. Echinodermata

25. Under the five-kingdom classification,members of the kingdom Monera aregenerally separated from the members ofall the other kingdoms by having

A. heterotrophic nutrition versusautotrophic nutrition.

B. unicellular organization versusmulticellular organization.

C. microscopic size versusmacroscopic size.

D. prokaryotic cells versus eukaryoticcells.

E. parasite-host relationship versuspredator-prey relationship.

26. A segment of DNA with the sequenceGGCATTAGG would be transcribed into amessenger RNA segment with thesequence

A. CCGUAAUCC.B. AATGCCGTT.C. CCGTAATCC.D. AAUGCCGUU.E. CCGTUUTGG.

27. Assuming no linkage, how many differentkinds of gametes can be produced by anorganism with the genotype AaBbcc?

A. 32B. 16C. 8D. 6E. 4

28. Which statement concerning alleles istrue for diploid organisms?

1. At most only two alleles occur at agiven locus in an organismsgenome.

2. Alleles occupy an identical locus inhomologous chromosomes.

3. Alleles of a given gene usuallyoccur on non-homologouschromosomes.

4. A single chromosome usuallycarries two alleles of each gene.

A. 4B. 1 and 2C. 3D. 1, 2 and 4E. 3 and 4

29. In watermelons, the unlinked genes forgreen color (G) and for short length (S)are dominant over alleles for striped color(g) and long length (s). Predict thephenotypes and their ratios for the crossGgss x ggSs.

A. All green shortB. 1:2:1 green short: striped long:

striped shortC. All striped longD. 1:1:1:1 green short: striped short:

green long: striped longE. 1:1 green short: striped long


4

30. Sexual and asexual reproduction usuallydiffer in

A. the ability of the new offspring toreproduce.

B. the rate at which mutations occur.C. the amount of genotypic variation

between parent and offspring.D. the viability of offspring.E. whether or not natural selection can

occur.

31. In human beings, color blindness iscontrolled by an X-linked recessive allele.In a cross involving this X-linked trait, themale parent has normal color vision, butthe female parent is a carrier. What arethe chances (in %) that a male offspringwill inherit color blindness?

A. 10B. 25C. 50D. 75E. 100

32. Consider a pair of homologous humanchromosomes. In this pair one wouldexpect

A. them to be genetically identical.B. one chromosome to carry dominant

alleles and the other recessivealleles.

C. one chromosome to have beeninherited from the mother and theother from the father.

D. the two chromosomes to synapseduring mitotic prophase.

E. them to have different shapes.

33. Embryonic induction is a process inwhich

A. embryonic tissues influenceadjacent tissues to differentiate.

B. an unfertilized egg is induced todevelop.

C. genes are transferred from onedeveloping tissue to another.

D. resting potentials are induced inneurons of embryos.

E. the maternal parent inducesexpression of recessive genes inembryos.

34. Which statement is true of thearchenteron?

A. The cavity of the archenteron iscalled the blastocoele.

B. The cavity of the archenteronrepresents the beginning of theprimitive gut.

C. The archenteron is formed duringblastula formation.

D. The cavity of the archenteronrepresents the first cavity of thedeveloping heart.

E. The archenteron is formed by aclosing of the neural tube.

35. Of the germ layers comprising the earlyhuman embryo, which one forms most ofthe central nervous system?

A. EctodermB. MesodermC. EndodermD. NotochordE. Dermis


5


6

36. Of the following, the rate and type ofcleavage occurring after fertilizationwould be most affected by the

A. amount and distribution of yolk.B. number of chromosomes.C. thickness of the cell membrane.D. temperature.E. thickness of the zona pellucida.

37. The long-term natural process by which apond eventually becomes a terrestrialcommunity is referred to as

A. environmental disruption.B. habitat development.C. organic evolution.D. ecological succession.E. desertification.

38. The initial step in the speciation processoften involves

A. inbreeding within the species.B. geographical separation of

populations.C. intraspecific-random mating.D. the inheritance of acquired

characteristics.E. a Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.

39. A complex behavioral response to aspecific cue or releaser, which isexhibited by all members of the speciesas a stereotyped response to the samestimulus, is known as a

A. conditioned response.B. fixed-action pattern.C. reflex.D. kinesis.E. taxis.

40. Each of the following changes thefrequency of alleles in a populationEXCEPT one. Which one is theEXCEPTION?

A. MutationB. Natural selectionC. ImmigrationD. Random interbreedingE. Genetic drift

41. A 49-gram sample of sulfuric acid,H2SO4 (98 g�mol-1) contains

A. 1 mol of S atoms.B. 16.0 grams of O.C. 2.0 grams of H.D. 2 moles of O atoms.E. 1 mole of molecules.

42. If 1 mole of N2 and 1 mole of H2 aremixed and allowed to react according tothe equation N2 + 3H2 2NH3. Whatis the maximum number of moles of NH3that could be produced?

A. 2/3B. 3/2C. 2/1D. 1/2E. 1/1

43. A flask weighs 95 g when empty. Whenfilled with 200 mL of a certain liquid, theweight is 328 g. What volume (inmilliliters) would 1,000 g of the liquidoccupy?


7

44. If 3.00 g of a nitrogen-oxygen compoundis found to contain 2.22 g of oxygen, whatis the percentage of nitrogen in thecompound?

45. A 10.0 liter sample of oxygen at 100°Cand 1 atm is cooled to 27°C andexpanded until the pressure is 0.5 atm.Find the final volume of the oxygen.

46. When the volume of a gas is decreasedat constant temperature, the pressureincreases because the molecules

A. move faster.B. move slower.C. become heavier.D. become lighter.E. strike a unit area of the container

more often.

47. Water has a higher boiling point thancompounds of a similar molecular weight.Which best explains this phenomenon?

A. Extensive hydrogen bonding existsbetween water molecules.

B. One of the natural isotopes ofhydrogen, deuterium, is present insufficient quantities to significantlyraise the boiling point.

C. Water is a polar covalentcompound.

D. Van der Waals forces exist betweenindividual water molecules.

E. Water is largely dissociated leadingto large electrostatic forcesbetween individual watermolecules.

48. A substance is non-conducting as a solidand melts at 750°C. The melt conductselectricity. The solid is observed to besoluble in water. This substance would bebest classified as

A. molecular.B. ionic.C. macromolecular.D. metallic.E. polymeric.


8

49. How many grams of NaOH (40 g�mol-1)are there in 250 mL of 0.4 M NaOHsolution?

A. 0.1B. 0.4C. 4D. 10E. 40

50. Which will be the final volume when 400mL of 0.6 M HCl is diluted to 0.5 M HCl?

51. During a titration it was determined that30.00 mL of a 0.100 M Ce4+ solution wasrequired to react completely with 20.00mL of a 0.150 M Fe2+ solution. Whichreaction occurred?

A. Ce4+ + 3Fe2+ + H2O 3Fe3+

+ CeO- + 2H+

B. 2Ce4+ + Fe2+ Fe4+ + 2Ce3+

C. Ce4+ + Fe2+ Fe3+ + Ce3+

D. Ce4+ + 2Fe2+ 2Fe3+ + Ce2+

E. Ce4+ + 2Fe2+ 2Fe4+ + Cs2+

+ 2e-

52. If 25 mL of 0.5 M NaOH neutralizes35 mL of a monoprotic acid, whichis the molarity of the acid?

53. In which reaction is H2O considered tobe acting as an acid?

A. Zn(s) + 2H3O+ Zn2+ + H2(g)+ H2O

B. HCl(g) + H2O H3O+ + Cl-

C. HC2H3O2 + H2O H3O+ +

C2H3O2-

D. NH3 + H2O NH4+ + OH-

E. NH3 + H3O+ NH4+ + H2O

54. At constant temperature when thefollowing reactions involving gases are atequilibrium, which reaction shifts to theright if the pressure is increased?

A. 2H2 + O2 2H2OB. 2NH3 N2 + 3H2C. 2SO3 2SO2 + O2D. 2NO N2 + O2E. 2CO2 2CO + O2


9

55. For the equilibrium

Ag2SO4(s) 2Ag+(aq) + SO (aq)

The solubility product expression (Ksp) is

A. 2[Ag+][SO ]

B. [Ag+][SO ]/[Ag2SO4]

C. [Ag+][SO ]

D. 2[Ag+]2[SO ]/[Ag2SO4]

E. [Ag+]2[SO ]

56. The concentrations of silver ion andchloride ion in an aqueous solution inequilibrium with solid silver chloride are1.0 x 10-6 M. What is the value of Ksp forAgCl equal to?

A. (2.0 x 10-6)(1.0 x 10-6)

B.

C. 1.0 x 10-6

D. 1(1.0 x 10-6)

E. (1.0 x 10-6)2

57. Determine the heat in kcal/mol availablefrom the oxidation of one mole of glucose(C6H12O6).

C6H12O6(s) + 6O2(g) 6CO2(g) +6H2O(1)

The heats of formation are:

Substance ∆∆H , kcal/mol

C6H12O6(s) -297CO2(g) -94H2O(l) -68

A. -94 - 68 - 297B. 6(-94) + 6(-68) + 1(-297)C. 6(-94) + 6(-68) - 1(-297)D. 1(-297) - 6(-94) - 6(-68)E. 297 - 94 - 68

58. Which process is accompanied by adecrease in entropy?

A. Sublimation of carbon dioxideB. Evaporation of waterC. Freezing of waterD. Shuffling a deck of cardsE. Heating a balloon filled with a gas

59. If a solution which is 0.50 M in compoundX decomposes for 5.0 minutes at anaverage rate of 0.040 M�min-1, the newconcentration of X will be

A. 0.04 M.B. 0.05 M.C. 0.20 M.D. 0.30 M.E. 0.50 M.

2-4

2-42-4

2-4

2-4

2-4

of


10

60. For the reaction A + B C, theexperimentally determined rate offormation of C is given by:Rate = k[A][B]2. Doubling theconcentration of B will

A. quadruple the initial reaction rate.B. double the initial reaction rate.C. have no effect on the initial rate.D. halve the initial reaction rate.E. reduce the rate to one-fourth its

initial value.

61. The following is a spontaneous oxidation-reduction reaction:

Cr2O + 14H+ + 6I- 2Cr3+ +7H2O + 3I2

Which is the best reducing agent?

A. Cr2O

B. H+

C. I2

D. H2O

E. I-

62. Given the following half-cell reactions:Cl2(g) + 2e- 2Cl-(aq) E°= +1.36v

Cu2+(aq) + 2e- Cu(s) E°= +0.34v

What is the value of E° for the followingreaction?

Cu2+(aq) + 2Cl-(aq) Cu(s) + Cl2(g)

A. -2.38vB. -1.70vC. -1.02vD. +1.02vE. +1.70v

63. In which two compounds does nitrogenhave the same oxidation number?

A. N2O3 and HNO3B. N2O5 and HNO3C. NO2 and N2O3D. N2O4 and HNO2E. HNO2 and NH3

64. Which species is linear?

A. H2OB. H2SeC. SO2D. ClO2E. CO2

65. The three common isotopes of oxygen:16O, 17O, 18O, have

A. the same atomic number and anequal number of protons.

B. the same mass number and anequal number of neutrons.

C. the same atomic number and anequal number of neutrons.

D. the same mass number and anequal number of protons.

E. the same mass number and anequal number of electrons.

2-7

2-7


11

66. A Lewis structure for the NO-3 ion is

Including this structure, the total numberof ground state resonance structures forthis ion is

A. 1.B. 2.C. 3.D. 4.E. 5.

67. The electronic configuration of aparticular neutral atom is1s22s22p63s23p2. What is the number ofunpaired electrons in this atom?

A. 1B. 2C. 3D. 4E. 0

68. Which property increases with atomicnumber among the representativeelements of period two?

A. Atomic radiusB. ElectronegativityC. Metallic characterD. Normal boiling pointE. Melting temperature

69. Which pair would give the bond with themost ionic character?

A. Al and SB. P and OC. B and BrD. C and SE. Li and O

70. In the reaction shown below a nitrogennucleus containing six neutrons emits apositron. What is the second product ofthe balanced reaction?

N e +

A. N

B. N

C. C

D. C

E. O

71. A characteristic feature of the SN2reaction mechanism is that

A. it follows first-order kinetics.B. it produces stereochemical

inversion of configuration.C. there is no rate-determining step.D. steric factors have little influence on

the reaction rate constant.E. collision of three or more particles

is required.

137

0+1

137

147

146

136

138


12

72. Which alkyl bromide will most readilyundergo SN2 reaction with NaOH?

73. Ethane reacts with chlorine in the pres-ence of heat or ultraviolet light to givechloroethane.

CH3CH3+Cl2 CH3CH2Cl+HCl

Which is an intermediate in this reaction?

74. How does the energy content of thetransition state of a chemical reactioncompare with that of the reactants andproducts?

A. It is greater than products but lessthan reactants.

B. It is greater than reactants but lessthan products.

C. It is equal to both reactants andproducts.

D. It is less than both reactants andproducts.

E. It is greater than both reactants andproducts.

75. Which intermediate is most likely to beinvolved in the reaction shown below?

CH3CH=CHCH3+HCl CH3CH2CHCH3

heat orUV light

Cl


13

76.

77. A strong infrared absorption bandbetween 1,750 and 1,700 cm-1 (5.71-5.88µ) indicates the presence of

78. If partitioned between equal volumes ofether and water, which would show thegreatest preference for the water layer?

A. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3

B. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2Cl

C. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2OH

D. HO CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2OH

E. HO CH2 CH CH CH CH2OH

79. Which structure below is an importantresonance form of

OH OH OH


14

80. Which of the structures below is chiral?

81. What are the following?

A. Structural isomersB. EnantiomersC. DiastereomersD. Identical compoundsE. Meso compounds

82. Which conformation of1, 4- dibromocyclohexane is the moststable?


15

83. Which structure represents a trans (E)isomer?

84. Which is the IUPAC name for thiscompound?

A. 4-methyl-l-hexeneB. 4-ethyl-1-penteneC. 2-ethyl-4-penteneD. sec-butyl propyleneE. 3-methyl-5-hexene

85. The reduction of a ketone

A. an aldehyde first, then a primaryalcohol.

B. a primary alcohol.C. a secondary alcohol.D. a tertiary alcohol.E. a carboxylic acid.

86. What is the major product of the followingreaction?


16

87. In the reaction,

the major product is

88. The reaction of CH3CH2MgBr with

CH3CCH3 followed by hydrolysis withdilute aqueous acid gives

89. Which reaction is an example of a freeradical chain termination step?

90. What is the product of the reaction shownbelow?

O


17

91. Which could be used in the followingconversion?

A. LiAlH4B. CrO3, H+

C. SOCl2D. PBr3E. H3O+

92. Which of the alkenes shown below reactswith ozone to give the products shown?

93. The two Bronsted-Lowry bases in theequilibrium below are

HOAc + NaCN HCN + NaOAc

A. HoAc + NACNB. HOAc + NaOAcC. NaCN + NaOAcD. NaCN + HCNE. HOAc + HCN

94. The most acidic type of hydrogen in thefollowing compound is

A. aB. bC. cD. dE. e


18

95. The conjugate acid of p-aminophenol 96. The structure below is shown withoutcomplete geometrical detail. What is thecorrect assignment of bond angles?

A. a = 90° b = 90°B. a = 180° b = 109.5°C. a = 120° b = 120°D. a = 180° b = 120°E. a = 180° b = 180°

97. Which is stabilized by resonance?


19

98. Which of the following is aromatic? 99. Treatment of benzoic acid with thionylchloride followed by addition of ethanolgives which as the major product?


20

100. What is the final product (B) of thesequence below?


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24


25


26


27


28


29


30


31


32


33


34


35


36


37


38


39


40


41


42


43


44


45


46


47


48


49


50


1

IONIZING RADIATION:RISK AND BENEFITX radiation is a form of energy which wasdiscovered by the German physicist, WilhelmConrad Roentgen in 1895. Like visible light,radiowaves, and microwaves, X-rays belongto a group of radiations known as the electro-magnetic spectrum. Electromagneticradiations are comprised of units of pureenergy called photons or quanta. Unlikecorpuscular, or particular, radiations which arecomposed of subatomic particles, electro-magnetic radiations have no mass or weight.Subatomic particles that can be involved incorpuscular radiations include the alphaparticle or helium radical, the beta particle orelectron, neutrons and protons. Corpuscularradiations can cause ionization; however, forthe purposes of the present discussion onlyelectromagnetic radiations capable of causingionization will be considered.

All photons of electromagnetic radiation travelin direct lines in a wave motion at the speedof 300,000 kilometers per second. Many ofour conceptual ideas about wave motion arethe result of our sensory experience with thetransverse waves which occur in water and inthe stretched string of a musical instrument. Itis a pity in some way that the same term,wave, is given to both this transverse waveform and the oscillatory movement which ispropagated along the direction of travel byelectromagnetic radiations. This oscillatorymovement, or longitudinal wave propagation,can be seen when a coiled spring is tappedsharply at one end, and as such this is a goodparadigm for electromagnetic wave motion.Whereas for transverse waves the wavelengthis between successive crests, the wavelengthfor electromagnetic radiations is the distancebetween successive areas of compression.

This distance can vary enormously andelectromagnetic radiations of differentwavelengths have different properties. At oneend of the spectrum there are very longwavelengths. Electromagnetic radiation oflong wavelength is used in the transmission ofradio messages. At the other end of thespectrum are the short wavelength radiationssuch as gamma radiations, which arise fromnaturally occurring unstable elements, and X-rays which are similar in property to gammaradiations, but are man-made by bombardinga target material with electrons in an X-raytube. For gamma and x radiations thewavelengths are so small that they aremeasured in Angstrom units, where anAngstrom unit is 1/100,000,000 centimeter.The shorter the wavelength, the higher theenergy and penetrating power of the photon,and (as all electromagnetic radiations travel atthe speed of light) the higher the frequency ofwaves. X-ray wavelengths used in diagnosticradiology range from approximately 0.1 to 0.5Angstroms. At such wavelengths the radiationhas sufficient energy to cause ionization ofatoms and molecules. If such atoms ormolecules are within living systems, there isthe potential for biological harm. This is thereason for the paradox that X-rays can causecancer, can be used to help in diagnosis ofdisease, and in high doses can be used todestroy cancer cells.

Consideration of the potential benefits of anactivity is involved in the decision of riskacceptability. In diagnostic radiology, the risk-benefit equation is difficult to estimate. Risk isgenerally given in units of equivalent radiationdose, while the benefit is expressed in suchterms as saved or disease cured. Gibbs andhis fellow workers have noted that estimatesof risk whole-body exposure, which is notgenerally the case for the diagnostic use of

Reading Comprehension Test Time limit: 15 minutesRCT - Test Number 52 (Actual Test will contain three passages and

the time limit will be 60 minutes)

x radiation. Moreover, they indicated that it hasnot yet been possible to define the value of alife saved in units of dose equivalence.Because of these uncertainties, diagnosticradiation is to be regarded as a potentiallynoxious agent. Hence radiological examinationshould be carried out only if it is likely that theinformation obtained will be useful for theclinical management of the patient.

Undoubtedly ionizing radiation in high dosescan be harmful. The first report of patient injuryfrom a diagnostic radiological procedure,namely skin burns, was made within a fewmonths of Roentgen’s discover of the X-ray. Inthat case the exposure time was one hour, butit is impossible to estimate the dose received.As early as 1902 the first case of cancerattributed to radiation injury was reported in theliterature. Nonetheless, the magnitude of therisk (or even if there is a risk) from the smalldoses of x radiation presently employed fordiagnostic purposes is still undetermined.

Various accidents, such as the recent reactorincident at Chernobyl in the Soviet Union,knowledge gained from follow-up studies onsurvivors from the atom bomb explosions inHiroshima and Nagasaki at the end of WorldWar II, and experiments subjecting variousplant and animal species to ionizing radiationindicate that radiation bioeffects can be dividedinto two basic types where relatively high dosesof radiation are concerned. One category ofeffects requires a threshold dose can be metbefore detectable change occurs. Such effectsare termed non-stochastic, and are primarily aresult of cell death. Examples are the acuteradiation syndrome and the development ofcataracts. On the other hand, stochastic effectshow statistical probability of occurrence as afunction of dose, but no threshold cut off for theeffect. Examples of stochastic effects arecarcinogenesis and genetic mutations.

The problem in evaluating the risk of cancer ormutation in human populations due to thediagnostic use of x radiation is that there is noknown method to distinguish between disease

resulting from the radiation and that which isspontaneous or due to other factors inenvironment. The only way to assess themagnitude of the risk would be to determine theexcess incidence of cancer or mutations in anirradiated population. Where the excessincidence is expected to be small, extremelylarge populations and long periods ofobservation are required. Land, for example,suggested that the risk of breast cancer frommammography is numerically so small whencompared to the spontaneous incidence of onein 13 for breast cancer in U.S. women, that theepidemiologic methods of evaluation wouldrequire a population of at least 60 millionwomen followed from age 35 until death. Halfof them would receive mammograms and theother half, the control group, would not. It goeswithout saying, that such a study would take atleast 40 years to conduct and would be soprohibitively expensive that it is not likely to becarried out. Similar considerations apply to theevaluation of risks from small doses of ionizingradiation of all human cancers and mutations.Hence, it has been common practice to usequantitative estimates and interpolations fromobservations of human and animal populationsexposed to large radiation doses, whenattempting to make numeric estimates of therisks to humans from low doses of ionizingradiation.

In view of the uncertainty surrounding possiblerisks from the diagnostic use of X-rays, theInternational Commission on RadiologicalProtection has originated the concept ofkeeping exposure levels “as low as reasonablyachievable.” This concept has beensummarized in cryptic acronym form as theALARA Principle. The three key ways ofminimizing exposure to radiation are minimizingthe duration of exposure, maximizing thedistance from the source, and using barrierssuch as leaded clothing or screens. DiagnosticX-ray production occurs only when the X-raytube is energized, and this is only necessarywhen radiographs are being exposed. The timethat the X-ray tube is energized can bereduced by using fast image receptors, and by


2

reducing the number of radiographs taken byhigh-yield selection criteria of the exposures tobe performed. As the intensity of the X-raybeam is inversely proportional to the square ofthe distance from the source (e.g. when thedistance is doubled the intensity of the beam isreduced by a factor of four, when tripled it isreduced by a factor of nine…) the operationshould be as far as possible to stand behind abarrier impregnable to the X-rays being used.By conscientious use of ALARA Principle, thepractitioners reduce risks for themselves, theirstaff and their patients.

1. Which was the earliest descriptor of illeffects attributed to x radiation?

A. Cancer in atom bomb survivorsB. Genetic mutations following

mammographyC. Radiation burns due to prolonged

exposureD. Acute radiation syndrome after the

Chernobyl incidentE. Cataracts

2. Of the following, which is the electro-magnetic radiation having the longestwavelength?

A. Gamma radiationB. Alpha radiationC. Beta radiationD. X radiationE. Radiowave radiation

3. From statements in the passage, it can beinferred that the author probablyis a(n)

A. sentimentalist whose judgments areinfluenced primarily by his emotions.

B. skeptic who refuses to believeanything without absolute proof.

C. realist who adheres to practicalconsiderations and rejects theimpractical.

D. idealist who places his ownstandards of perfection beforepractical matters.

E. conformists who follows the ideas ofauthority without question.

4. Wave motion for x radiation most closelyresembles the oscillating movement of a

A. fast-moving helium radical.B. coiled spring that has been sharply

tapped at one end.C. plucked stretched string of a musical

instrument.D. Wave in water caused by

disturbance from a fast moving motorboat.

E. transverse wave form.

5. The paradox of x radiation is stated tobe that

A. it is used for diagnostic purposeswhen the risks involved have notbeen fully determined.

B. it was discovered, but not invented,as gamma radiation is naturallyoccurring counterpart.

C. it can be controlled by mankind.D. it can both cause and cure cancer.E. None of the above


3

6. Which electromagnetic radiations carriesthe most energy, and is therefore mostpenetrating?

A. MicrowavesB. RadiowavesC. Visible lightD. Gamma raysE. They all have the same energy.

7. With which statement would the author ofthe passage agree?

A. Rigorous experimentation must becarried out to more accurately assesdamage caused by the diagnosticuse of X-rays.

B. Epidemiologic data from individualsreceiving high doses of radiation canaccurately be interpolated to assessthe effects of low levels of radiation.

C. Non-stochastic effects of radiationare a more serious problem fordiagnostic radiology than arestochastic effects.

D. The most effective way to improvethe risk-benefit ratio is to minimizethe number of exposures performedby using careful radiographsselection.

E. It is easy to differentiate betweendisease caused by exposure toionizing radiation and that from othercauses.

8. The beta particle is the same as a(n)

A. neutron.B. photon of pure energy.C. proton.D. helium radical.E. electron.

9. According to the inverse square law, theintensity of radiation received is reducedby a factor of ___ times when a practitionerstands 4 meters away from a source ofradiation rather than 1 meter.

A. 4B. 0.25C. 16D. 0.06E. 2

10. The probability of genetic mutation beingcaused by low levels of x or gammaradiation is believed to be

A. stochastic in nature.B. greater than the risk of cancer.C. threshold dose related.D. unrelated to dose.E. a result of cell death.

11. The principal difficulty encountered whenevaluating the risk of cancer developingdue to the use of diagnostic radiology is

A. inability to distinguish betweendisease caused by radiation and thatdue to other factors.

B. the relatively long life span ofhumans.

C. the size of the population one needsto follow.

D. the difficulty in obtaining a goodcontrol group.

E. the financial outlay necessary for thestudy.


4

13. For diagnostic radiology, which statementis false?

A. Potentially noxious radiations areemployed.

B. This use of X-rays was firstdeveloped very shortly afterRoentgen’s discovery.

C. Particulate radiations are notemployed.

D. Attempts have been made to develophigh yield selection criteria.

E. Such use of X-rays is excluded fromthe ALARA Principle as doses arenegligible.

14. Gibbs and his co-workers considered therisk-benefit ratio for the diagnostic use ofionizing radiation

A. should be estimated as beingequivalent to that for whole bodyexposure to the same radiation level.

B. is complicated by uncertainties in thedefinition of the value of a life savedin units of dose equivalence.

C. can readily be determined byexamining the excess incidence ofcancer an mutations in an irradiatedpopulation.

D. always shows a linear relationshipsbetween risk and the radiation dose.

E. More than one of the above

15. Which electromagnetic radiations travelsat the greatest velocity?

A. X-raysB. Visible lightC. RadiowavesD. MicrowavesE. None of these

16. Which statement is true for ionizingradiation?

A. Certain cancers have been attributedto radiation injury.

B. Radiation burns are a frequentcomplication of the diagnostic use ofx radiation.

C. All levels of ionizing radiation areknown to be dangerous to livingsystems.

D. Practitioners adhering to the ALARAPrinciple are under no risk from theuse of ionizing radiation.

E. More than one of the above.

17. The paradigm referred to in paragraph 2 isa(n)

A. precise description for the wavemotion of radiations in the electro-magnetic spectrum.

B. conceptual model helping to explaina principal characteristic of electro-magnetic radiations.

C. explanation for longitudinal wavemotion in the coiled spring.

D. representation of the movement ofphysical matter in the electro-magnetic spectrum.

E. More than one of the above


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12. Of the following, which according to thetext are definitely capable of causingionization?

1. Visible light2. Gamma radiation3. Microwaves4. Radiowave radiation

A. All of the aboveB. 2, 3 and 4 onlyC. 2 onlyD. 3 onlyE. 4 only

1. Evaluate the expression 5 x 10-3 x 3 x 107.

A. 1.5 x 10-10

B. 1.5 x 10-4

C. 1.5 x 104

D. 1.5 x 105

E. 1.5 x 1010

2. The perimeter of a square is 20. Whichrepresents the area?

A. 5B. 10C. 20D. 25E. 100

3. What is the approximate value of

A. 1.6B. 0.16C. 0.016D. 0.0016E. 0.00016

4. Which is the smallest?

A. 11/15B. 4/5C. 21/25D. 5/6E. 13/17

5. At a certain convention the ratio of mento women was 3 to 8. If there were 352people there, how many were men?

A. 32B. 96C. 132D. 220E. 256

6. If x = and z = , then which is

equal to z?

A. 1/5B. 4/5C. 5/4D. 5/2E. 5


1

Quantitative Reasoning Test Time limit: 45 minutesQRT – Test Number 51 (An electronic calculator will be available for

the QRT section of the DAT at the test center)


2

7. Which is the value of

A. 0.003B. 0.0003C. 0.00003D. 0.000003E. 0.0000003

A. 1.0B. 15C. 33.3D. 100E. 340

9. A rectangular room is 3 meters wide, 4meters long and 2 meters high. How far isit from the northeast corner at the floor tothe southwest corner at the ceiling?

A. meters

B. meters

C. meters

D. 9 meters

E. 5 meters

10. A person travels to work at an averagespeed of 40 mph, and returns home at 60mph. What, in mph, is the average speedfor the entire trip?

A. 45B. 46C. 48D. 52E. 54

11. If [b (c + d) + e]a = 135, then whichvariable cannot be zero?

A. aB. bC. cD. dE. e

12. Which is the equation of the line thatcontains the point (3, -1) and isperpendicular to the line y = 3x + 3?

A. y = 3x - 8B. y = 3x - 10C. y = (-1/3)x + 2D. y = (-1/3)x - 2 E. y = (-1/3)x

13. 10 is to 2y as 25x is to

A. 5x. B. 5xy.C. 5x/y. D. x/5y.E. 5y/x.

14. If 3 liters of 40% orange juice and 1 liter of50% orange juice are mixed, which is thepercentage of orange juice in the mixture?

A. 90B. 85C. 47.5D. 45E. 42.5

15. If 2x - 3 > 3x + 7, then which must betrue?

A. x > B. x > -4 C. x > -10 D. x < -4E. x < -10

8.


3

16. Which represents 5% of 2% of 0.4?

A. 4B. 0.04C. 0.004D. 0.0004E. 0.00004

17. One pump can fill a vat in 10 minutes.Another pump can fill the vat in 15minutes. How many minutes does it taketo fill the vat if both pumps are operatingat the same time?

A. 1/6B. 6C. 12D. 12.5E. 25

18. If 1 inch equals 2.5 centimeters, then 25meters equal how many inches?

A. 0.01B. 0.1C. 10D. 62.5E. 1,000

19. In a given course a student receivespreliminary examination grades of 81, 85,and 95. The final examination is weighedfor one-third and the average of thepreliminary grades is weighed as 2/3 ofthe final grade. What should the finalexamination grade be for a semesteraverage of 90?

A. 99B. 96C. 93D. 88E. 87

20. If f(z) = 3z2 - 2z, then f(-1) equals

A. 1.B. 4.C. 5.D. 7.E. 11.

21. Mary took 9 minutes to walk 3/8 of a mile.At this rate, how many minutes will it taketo walk the rest of the mile?

A. 11B. 12C. 15D. 18E. 24

22. What is the distance on a two-dimensionalgraph between (7, 6) and (2, -6)?

A. 5B. 9C. 13D. 17E.

23. In a right triangle ABC with right angle atC and AB = 6, BC = 3, find AC.

A. 3B. 6C. 27D. 33E. 3

24. When each of the sides of a square isincreased by 1 yard, the area of the newsquare is 53 square yards more than thatof the original square. What is the lengthof the sides of the original square?

A. 25B. 26C. 27D. 52E. 54


4

25. A mother’s age is three times herdaughter’s age. In twelve years themother’s age will be twice the daughter’sage at that time. How old is the mothernow?

A. 18B. 20C. 24D. 30E. 36

26. Find the average of the following list ofthree weights: 3 lb. 2oz., 4 lb. 6 oz., and9 lb. 10 oz.

A. 5 lb. 6 oz.B. 5 lb. 6 1/3 oz.C. 5 lb. 11 1/3 oz.D. 5 lb. 39 1/3 oz.E. 8 lb. 9 oz.

27. If x = 5, then x + 4 is what percent ofx2 + 2?

A. 19B. 33 1/3C. 75D. 300E. 540

28. Which of the following is the length of theline segment BC, if AB = 14, AD = 5, andangle BAD = 30°?

A. 7B. 9C. 7D.E.

29. A painting which is 4 feet wide and 5 feetlong is surrounded by a rectangular frame6-inches wide. What percent of the area ofthe picture and the frame is occupied bythe frame?

A. 10 1/2B. 20C. 30D. 33 1/3E. 50

30. A bowl contains 7 green and 3 redmarbles. What is the probability that twomarbles selected at random from this bowlwithout replacement are both red?

A. 1/15B. 9/100C. 21/100D. 47/90E. 3/5


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31. If 1 meter = 3.28 feet, 4/5 of a foot isapproximately what fraction of a meter?

A. 1/5B. 1/4C. 1/3D. 1/2E. 3/4

32. If y = , then which of the following

represents x?

A. (3y + 2)/(y - 1)B. (3y + 2)/(y)C. (3y - 2)/(y + 1)D. (5y)/(y + 1)E. (3y - 2)/(y - 1)

33. For all y, the cos y is equal to

A. sin yB. cos (y + π)C. sin (-y)D. sin y + cos yE. cos (-y)

34. The value of cos (π/3) equals thevalue of

A. -cos (2π/3).B. cos (2π/3).C. cos (6π/3).D. -cos (5π/3).E. cos (4π/3).

35. What is the maximum number of 3-inchsquares (squares that are three inches ona side) that can be cut from a sheet of tin19 x 23 inches?

A. 42B. 48C. 49D. 145E. 146

36. Each of the circles I, II, and III is tangentto the other two circles. The areas of thecircles are 4π, 9π, and 16π, respectively.Which represents the length of theperimeter of the triangle formed by joiningthe centers of three circles?

A. 3.0B. 9.0C. 14.5D. 18.0E. 29.0

37. The numbers (1, 2, 3, 6) have an average(arithmetic mean) of 3 and a variance of3.5. What is the average (arithmeticmean) and variance of the set of numbers(3, 6, 9, 18)?

A. 9, 31.5B. 3, 10.5C. 3, 31.5D. 6, 7.5E. 9, 27.5

38. Jill has six different books. She will selectone book on Monday and a different oneto read on Wednesday. In how many wayscan Jill select two different books?

A. 36B. 30C. 18D. 15E. 12


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39. A vehicle covers 100 yards in 12.5seconds. Find the average speed of thevehicle in feet per second.

A. 2 2/3B. 4C. 8D. 12E. 24

40.

B. 1/2C. 1/58D. 2E. 58

A.


Dental Admission Preparation Material

Answer Keys

READING COMPREHENSION

1. C2. E3. C4. B5. D6. D7. D8. E9. C10. A11. A12. C13. E14. B15. E16. A17. B

SURVEY OF THE NATURAL SCIENCES

1. A 26. A 51. C 76. A2. B 27. E 52. A 77. B3. D 28. D 53. D 78. E4. C 29. D 54. A 79. B5. E 30. C 55. E 80. B6. C 31. C 56. E 81. C7. C 32. C 57. C 82. B8. D 33. A 58. C 83. E9. B 34. B 59. D 84. A10. C 35. A 60. A 85. C11. E 36. A 61. E 86. B12. A 37. D 62. C 87. C13. D 38. B 63. B 88. C14. E 39. B 64. E 89. C15. A 40. D 65. A 90. C16. C 41. D 66. C 91. B17. E 42. A 67. C 92. B18. B 43. B 68. B 93. C19. A 44. D 69. E 94. A20. E 45. D 70. D 95. C21. D 46. E 71. B 96. D22. B 47. A 72. D 97. E23. E 48. B 73. A 98. E24. E 49. C 74. E 99. B25. D 50. C 75. A 100. C

QUANTATATIVE REASONING TEST

1. D 15. E 29. D2. D 16. D 30. A3. B 17. B 31. B4. A 18. E 32. A5. B 19. B 33. E6. E 20. C 34. A7. B 21. C 35. A8. D 22. C 36. D9. A 23. E 37. A10. C 24. B 38. B11. A 25. E 39. E12. E 26. C 40. C13. B 27. B14. E 28. A

PERCEPTUAL ABILITY TEST

1. C 21. A 41. C 61. B 81. B2. A 22. D 42. B 62. C 82. B3. B 23. D 43. C 63. C 83. C4. A 24. A 44. B 64. D 84. D5. B 25. B 45. A 65. C 85. C6. D 26. C 46. A 66. B 86. D7. D 27. C 47. C 67. E 87. A8. B 28. D 48. C 68. C 88. A9. C 29. B 49. B 69. E 89. A10. D 30. B 50. D 70. A 90. B11. E 31. D 51. A 71. D12. E 32. C 52. B 72. E13. D 33. C 53. A 73. B14. B 34. C 54. B 74. C15. E 35. A 55. A 75. D16. B 36. C 56. B 76. B17. D 37. B 57. A 77. C18. C 38. B 58. E 78. A19. A 39. C 59. E 79. D20. A 40. C 60. D 80. C

ESTIMATING YOUR STANDARD SCORE

The Raw Score/Standard Score Conversion Table is designed to help you estimate the standardscores that you would have received on the various tests if you had actually taken them. On theDAT, eight standard test scores are reported: Quantitative Reasoning, a separate 40 item test;Reading Comprehension, a 50 item test; Biology, the first 40 items of the Survey of the NaturalSciences; General Chemistry, items 41 70 on the Survey of the Natural Sciences; OrganicChemistry, items 71 100 on the Survey of the Natural Sciences; Total Science, combining thethree parts of the Survey of the Natural Sciences (100 items); and Perceptual Ability, a separate90 item test; Academic Average, the average of the standard scores on the QuantitativeReasoning, Reading Comprehension, Biology, and General and Organic Chemistry tests,

The following procedure will allow you to estimate your standard score.

1. Take the practice test under timed conditions to approximate the actual test administration.

2. There is no penalty for attempting an item and getting it wrong. You should attempt every item, eliminating as many incorrect answers as possible when you are not sure of the correct response.

3. Score the test using the answer key on the following page. Assign 1 point for every item answered correctly and 0 points for every item answered incorrectly.

4. Add up all the points on a test. This is your raw score.

5. The next step is to convert your raw score to a standard score. The standard scores on the DAT are reported on a scale ranging from 1 to 30. The mean of the test isapproximately 17 but varies from test to test, and test date to test date, depending on thedistribution of ability in the persons taking each test.

To find your standard score, locate the appropriate column for the test you just scored on the Standard Score/Raw Score Conversion Table.

6. Locate your raw score on that test in this column.

7. Go across that row to the left hand column headed "STD Score" to find your standardscore.

For example, if you answered 28 items correctly on the Quantitative Reasoning Test, look to the column labeled QRT and go down that column until you find the score range that includes "28", i.e., 27 28. Then proceed across that row to the column labeled "STD Score" on the left. The row containing 27 28 for the QRT corresponds to a standard score of 19 for that test.

This procedure can also be used for the Reading Comprehension, Biology, General Chemistry, Organic Chemistry, and Perceptual Ability Tests.

8. To find your Total Science score, add together your raw scores on Biology, GeneralChemistry, and Organic Chemistry. The maximum raw score is 100. (Please do not add the standard scores together.)

9. In the column labeled "SNS" find the row that contains your raw score for the sum of the three science subtests.

10. Go across the row to the left column to find your Total Science standard score. The Total Science score is not an average of the Biology, General Chemistry and Organic Chemistrystandard scores.

For example, if you answered 21 items correctly on Biology, 14 on General Chemistry, and13 on Organic Chemistry, your Total Science raw score would be 21 + 14 + 13, or 48. Next, find the score range in the "SNS" column that contains "48", i.e., the fifteenth rowdown when the range is 48 55. Proceed left across that row to the "STD Score" column.In this example, the standard score for a raw score of 48 on the Survey of the NaturalSciences is 15.

11. The Academic Average reported on the DAT is the arithmetic average of five standard scores: Quantitative Reasoning (QRT), Reading Comprehension (RCT), Biology (BIO),General Chemistry (GEN CHEM.), and Organic Chemistry (ORG CHEM). Therefore, ifyour standard scores on the five tests were

QRT 16RCT 18BIO 14GEN CHEM 15ORG CHEM 15

78 ÷ 5 = 15.6,

the sum of those five scores would be 78. Dividing this total by five yields a score of 15.6.Because the DAT scores are reported only in intervals of 1 point, this would be roundedup to a score of 16. If the average had been 15.4, then the score would have beenrounded down to 15.

DENTAL ADMISSION TESTING PROGRAMSTANDARD SCORE-RAW SCORE CONVERSIONS

TEST PREPARATION MATERIALS

Standard QRT RCT BIO GEN ORG SNS PATScore CHEM CHEM (Total Set)

30 40 - - - 30 100 9029 39 17 40 - - 99 8928 - - - 30 29 98 8827 - - - - - 97 -26 38 - 39 - - 96 8725 37 16 - 29 28 95 85-8624 36 - 38 - - 94 8423 35 15 - 28 27 92-93 81-8322 33-34 - 37 - - 89-91 78-8021 31-32 14 35-36 27 26 86-88 74-7720 29-30 13 34 26 25 81-85 70-7319 27-28 12 32-33 24-25 23-24 76-80 67-6918 24-26 11 30-31 22-23 21-22 70-75 59-6617 22-23 9-10 27-29 20-21 19-20 63-69 52-5816 19-21 8 24-26 18-19 17-18 56-62 46-5115 16-18 7 21-23 16-17 15-16 48-55 39-4514 14-15 6 18-20 13-15 13-14 41-47 32-3813 11-13 5 15-17 11-12 11-12 33-40 26-3112 9-10 4 12-14 9-10 8-10 27-32 21-2511 7-8 3 10-11 7-8 7 21-26 17-2010 6 - 8-9 6 5-6 17-20 13-169 5 2 6-7 4-5 4 13-16 10-128 4 - 5 3 3 10-12 7-97 3 1 4 - - 7-9 66 2 - 3 2 2 5-6 4-55 - - 2 - - 4 34 - 0 - 1 1 3 23 1 - 1 - - 2 -2 - - - - - - -1 0 - 0 0 0 0-1 0-1

* Composite examination; conversion information estimated


For each standard score, the tables shown below provide an estimate of the proportion ofexaminees receiving the same and lower scores. For example, an examinee obtains a standardscore of 17 on the Quantitative Reasoning Test. Table 1 shows that 76.4 percent of theexaminees received standard scores equal to or lower than 17. The tabled values should beconsidered only estimates of the examinees’ performance on the current test.

Table 1Quantitative Reasoning

Standard CumulativeScore Percent

30 10029 10028 99.827 99.626 99.425 98.824 98.123 96.722 94.421 91.620 88.619 8218 74.117 63.916 49.815 36.114 25.713 15.412 7.511 3.310 1.59 0.58 0.27 0.16 05 04 03 02 01 0

Mean= 16.73

Table 2Reading Comprehension


30 10029 10028 99.627 99.626 98.225 97.624 95.423 92.322 85.921 77.920 67.519 53.418 40.217 27.316 15.515 814 3.813 1.612 0.611 0.210 0.19 08 07 06 05 04 03 02 01 0

Mean= 19.35

Table 3Biology


30 10029 10028 10027 99.926 99.925 99.224 99.223 98.222 96.621 93.420 89.119 79.118 68.517 54.616 3915 25.114 14.313 712 3.211 1.210 0.39 0.18 07 06 05 04 03 02 01 0

Mean= 17.32

Table 4General Chemistry


30 10029 10028 10027 99.526 98.725 98.424 95.523 94.822 92.621 89.120 82.419 76.718 66.317 55.216 44.815 32.614 21.613 12.512 7.111 3.610 1.19 0.48 0.27 06 05 04 03 02 01 0

Mean= 17.27


67

Table 5Organic Chemistry


30 10029 10028 10027 10026 98.325 9824 9523 94.122 91.221 87.620 81.419 75.118 64.717 54.816 42.915 31.914 21.213 14.112 7.511 4.210 1.99 18 0.47 0.26 0.15 0.14 0.13 0.12 01 0

Mean= 17.34

Table 6Total Science


30 10029 10028 10027 10026 99.925 99.824 99.423 98.722 96.721 93.520 88.119 79.818 68.817 55.816 40.115 26.314 15.913 7.512 3.211 0.910 0.29 08 07 06 05 04 03 02 01 0

Mean= 17.25

Table 7Academic Average


30 10029 10028 10027 10026 10025 99.924 99.723 98.822 96.721 92.920 86.419 77.618 65.417 5016 34.715 20.614 10.613 4.712 1.711 0.410 0.19 08 07 06 05 04 03 02 01 0

Mean= 17.60

Table 8Perceptual Ability


30 10029 10028 10027 99.926 99.825 99.624 99.323 98.822 97.121 93.220 88.519 79.318 68.417 53.416 4015 28.314 17.713 9.312 4.711 210 0.89 0.38 0.17 06 05 04 03 02 01 0

Mean= 17.19

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Dat Test Sample Items