CPL QUESTION BANK AIR LAW

Question Bank CPL Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh

CPL Subject : Air Law

Chapter 02

1. ICAO publishes:

a) Standards and recommended practices which are enforced world wide without exception b) Standards which are law for contracting states and recommendations for the rest of the world c) Standards and recommended practices for ICAO contracting states only d) International law

2. Which annex covers carriage of cargo?

a) 9 b) 14 c) 6 d) 11

3. Which annex pertains to design of aerodromes?

a) 14 b) 11 c) 6 d) 18

4. Which Annex contains information concerning Air Traffic Services?

a) Annex 11 b) Annex 10 c) Annex 14 d) Annex 15

6. What is cabotage?

a) Restricting domestic air service to a national carrier b) Aircraft from a foreign country picking up passengers in another country c) Aircraft providing a commercial air service within the EEC d) An airline disembarking and embarking passengers in another country

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7. The `standards' contained in the annexes to the Chicago Convention are to be considered

a) Advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the member states. b) Binding for all member states. c) Binding for all member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference. d) Binding for all airline companies with international traffic.

8. Which ICAO Annex deals with the processes involved with the regular transport of passengers and luggage?


10. What is the objective of ICAO?

a) To assist states to purchase aircraft b) To help airlines set up c) To assist with improving international aviation d) To train pilots for international aviation

11. Which annex to the Chicago convention provides the details for the minimum acceptance of international crew licences?

a) Annex 9 - Facilitation b) Annex 1 - Personnel Licensing c) Annex 6 - Operation of Aircraft d) Annex - 17 Security

12. Which of the annexes deals with the transportation of cargo?

a) Annex 9 Facilitation b) Annex 18 - Transportation of Dangerous Goods c) Annex 16 - Environmental Protection d) Annex 6 - Operation of Aircraft

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14. Which annex to the Chicago Convention covers dangerous goods carried in aircraft?


15. Which annex of the Chicago convention deals with registration marking of aircraft?


17. Which ICAO body furnishes the "Standards and Recommended Practices" (SARPS) for adoption by the Council?

a) The Assembly b) The Regional Air Navigation Meeting c) The Council itself d) The Air Navigation Commission

18. The Annex of the Chicago Convention which contains the Standards and Recommended Practices (SARPS) for personnel licensing is:


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21. A captain is authorised in the event that a passenger has committed an offence or is suspected to be about to commit an offence, to:

a) Disable him b) Require passengers to assist in restraining c) Request cabin crew to assist d) Deliver the person to the appropriate authority

26. It is suspected that a person on board an aircraft will commit an act that would jeopardise the safety of the aircraft; the PIC may:

a) request the crew to detain the passenger b) ask the passenger to disembark c) order the other passengers to detain the passenger in question d) hand him/her over to the authorities

29. What freedom allows an aircraft to land in a foreign country for technical reasons?

a) First freedom b) Fourth freedom c) Third freedom d) Second freedom

30. The first freedom of the air allows:

a) Over-flight only b) Acceptance of tickets issued by other operators c) Landing for technical reasons d) Carriage of mail and cargo

33. What freedom covers landing and refueling in another state?

a) 1st b) 2nd

c) 3rd d) 4th

39. The second Freedom of the Air is the right to:

a) Make a commercial flight between 2 States with passengers on board b) Land for technical reasons c) Cabotage d) Over-fly a State without landing

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Answers to Quest ions Chapter 2 International Agreements and Organizations

1 C 21 D 2 C 22 B 3 A 23 D 4 A 24 A 5 B 25 D 6 A 26 D 7 C 27 C 8 B 28 A 9 C 29 D 10 C 30 A 11 B 31 D 12 A 32 D 13 A 33 B 14 D 34 B 15 D 35 A 16 D 36 C 17 D 37 C 18 D 38 B 19 B 39 B 20 D

Chapter 05

1. What age do you need to be to exercise the privileges of a CPL licence?

a) 18 b) 21 c) 16 d) 23

2. When you are over 40 and the holder of an ATPL, how often are you required to have a medical examination?

a) The 12 month period reduces to 6 months b) The 24 month period reduces to 12 months c) The 6 month period reduces to 3 months d) The 9 month period reduces to 3 months

3. You can use simulator hours towards the 1500 hours required for an ATPL. How are simulator hours limited?

a) Maximum of 100, not more than 15 in a procedural flight trainer b) Maximum of 100, not more than 30 in a procedural flight trainer c) Maximum of 100, not more than 25 in a procedural flight trainer d) Maximum of 100, not more than 50 in a procedural flight trainer

4. What is the night flying hours requirement for an ATPL licence?

a) 75 hours PIC b) 100 hours PIC or co-pilot c) 100 hours PIC d) 75 hours PIC or co-pilot

5. One of the privileges of the holder of a Commercial Pilot's Licence is to:

a) Act as PIC of any aircraft in commercial air transport operations b) Act as PIC of any single engine aeroplane in commercial air transport operations c) Act as a flying instructor d) Act as PIC of any aircraft involved in operations other than commercial air transportation

7. When are you required to tell the authorities of an illness?

a) after the 21st day of illness has elapsed b) on the 21stday of the illness c) after a month d) after medical has expired

8. To obtain a CPL, how many hours of cross country flying are required?

a) 15 hrs b) 20 hrs c) 25 hrs d) 35 hrs

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9. What medical is required for the issue of a CPL?

a) Class 2 b) As required by ICAO. c) Class 1 d) None of the above.

10. The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot under supervision of the PIC and performing the functions and duties of the PIC shall be entitled to be credited:

a) with 50% of the flight time towards the total time required for a higher grade of licence b) in full, but not more than 300hrs towards the total time required for a higher grade of licence c) the flight time in full towards the total time required for a higher grade of licence d) the flight in full towards the total time required for a higher grade of pilot licence according to

the requirements of the licensing authority

11. For an ATPL how many night hours are required?

a) 30 b) 75 c) 100 d) 150

12. For an ATPL, how many cross-country hours are required?

a) 200 b) 100 c) 150 d) 250

14. When you are a newly qualified flying instructor (A) you have to be supervised by a senior flying instructor. When will supervision cease?

a) Once you have passed a competency check b) When you have completed 100 hours instruction and sent 25 students solo c) When you have completed 100 hours instruction and sent 100 students solo d) When you have completed 100 hours solo

15. At what ages can you exercise the privileges of an ATPL?

a) 21 -60 b) 21 -59 c) 8-59 d) 8-60

17. Which of the following correctly identifies the cross country hours requirement for a CPL(A)?

a) 100 hours PIC or SPIC b) 20 hours cross country as PIC including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300

nm) in the course of which full stop landings are made at two different aerodromes c) 25 hours including at least one flight of 2 hours duration covering at least 300 nm and to

include 2 landings d) 10 hours solo with at least one flight over 300 nm with at least two landings

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18. What is the minimum age for a holder of a PPL?

a) 16 b) 17 c) 18 d) 21

22. Of the 1500 hours required experience for an ATPL ......... hours may be in a simulator but not more than ....... hours may be in a basic instrument trainer or basic procedure trainer.

a) 100 15 b) 100 20 c) 100 25 d) 75 25

25. According to CAR84, what classes of medical exist?

a) Class 1 only b) Classes 1, 2 and 3 c) Classes 1 and 2 d) Classes 1, 2, 3 and 4

27. The validity of multi engine type rating shall be 1 year from:

a) date of issue b) date of application received by the authority c) date of skill test d) date of medical examination

28. In order to carry out PPL instruction you must hold:

a) PPL with instructor rating b) Have CPL with FI rating c) CPL d) ATPL

29. For a pilot to hold an ATPL, the hours required are:

a) 250 as PIC, or 100 as PIC and 150 as co-pilot or as PIC under supervision b) 200 as PIC, or 100 as PIC and 75 as co-pilot or as PIC under supervision c) 250 as PIC, or 100 as PIC and 75 as co-pilot or as PIC under supervision d) 200 as PIC, or 100 as PIC and 150 as co-pilot or as PIC under supervision

30. A pilot with a CPL can act as:

a) PIC in commercial aviation b) PIC in any single engine aircraft engaged in commercial aviation c) PIC of any single pilot aircraft engaged in commercial aviation d) PIC in any aircraft for which he/she is type rated in commercial aviation

31. From what date is the initial general medical assessment valid from?

a) The date of the assessment b) The date the certificate delivered to the pilot

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c) The date of licence issue d) The date of the revalidation of the licence

33. The minimum age for a CPL holder is

a) 17 years b) 18 years c) 16 years d) 21 years

34. Which of the following Annexes of the Chicago Convention contains the minimum specification for a crew member's licence to be recognised by Contracting States?


36. The applicant for an ATPL for aircraft shall have at least:

a) 100 hours night flying purely as Pilot in Command b) 75 hours night flying as Pilot in Command or as 2nd Pilot c) 100 hours night flying as Pilot in Command or as 2nd Pilot d) 75 hours night flying as Pilot in Command

37. A CPL applicant undergoing integrated flight training shall have completed:

a) 150 hours flight time including 10 hours instrument ground time b) 150 hours flight time c) 200 hours flight time including 10 hours instrument ground time d) 200 hours flight time

Answers to Quest ions Chapter 5 Personnel Licensing

1 A 20 B 2 A 21 C 3 C 22 C 4 B 23 D 5 D 24 C 6 B 25 B 7 A 26 A 8 B 27 A 9 C 28 B 10 C 29 A I1 C 30 C 12 A 31 A 13 C 32 B 14 B 33 B 15 B 34 C 16 C 35 A 17 B 36 C 18 B 37 B 19 C 38 D

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Quest ions Chapter 6

4. Aircraft coming in from the left which light will you see first?

a) Steady red b) Steady green c) Flashing green d) White

5. What letter goes in item 8 of a flight plan for a flight starting on IFR then changing to VFR?

a) Z b) Y c) I d) V

6. What are the VMC limits for class B airspace?

a) Clear of cloud and in sight of the surface b) 8km flight visibility, 1000 ft vertically and 1500 m horizontally from cloud c) 5km flight visibility, 1000 ft vertically and 1500 m horizontally from cloud d) The same as class D

8. Whilst airborne you see a flashing green light from the Tower. What does this mean?

a) cleared to land b) return for landing and await clearance to land c) give way to other landing aircraft d) land at this aerodrome after receiving clearance to land and proceed to the apron

10. You are taxiing on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome and are shown a flashing green light. What does it mean?

a) Return to start point b) Clear to taxi c) Clear to take off d) Stop

11. You have been intercepted. What is the signal for `clear to proceed'?

a) Rocking wings b) Flashing lights c) Cut across track d) Breaking turn up and left

12. Which has priority to land?

a) A hospital flight b) An emergency c) A military flight d) A VIP flight

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14. Which of these is not a distress frequency? 1. 121.5 MHz 2. 2182 KHz 3. 243.0 KHz 4. 2430 KHz

a) 4 only b) 2 only c) 2, 3 and 4 d) 3 and 4

15. If you are intercepted by another aircraft, what do you set on the SSR transponder?

a) A/2000 + C b) A/7500 + C c) A/7600 + C d) A/7700 + C

16. You are taxying an aircraft on the ground and you see a flashing red light from the tower. What does it mean?

a) Stop b) Taxi clear of the landing area c) Give way to approaching aircraft d) You are not clear to take off

17. Aircraft A is a VFR flight operating in a CTR under an ATC clearance. Aircraft B is entering the CTR without clearance. As they converge, which one has the right of way (RoW)?

a) B has right of way regardless of aircraft type and position b) A has right of way regardless of aircraft type and position c) A has right of way if B is on the right d) B has right of way if A is on the left

19. If a pilot wishes to cancel an IFR flight plan and proceed VFR in VMC, he must inform ATC and include the phrase:

a) "Cancelling my flight plan" b) "Cancelling my flight" c) "Cancelling my IFR flight" d) "Cancelling my IMC flight plan"

20. What signal from a marshaller to a pilot indicates "apply brakes"?

a) Waving the arms across the face b) Drawing the palm across the throat c) Clenching raised fists d) Holding both arms up with palms facing forward

21. ATC has given you the transponder code of 5320. In case of a radio failure in flight you must set:

a) A 7600 Mode C b) A 0020 Mode C c) A 5300 Mode C d) A 7620 Mode C

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22. For a controlled flight before departure, a flight plan must be filed at least:

a) 50 minutes before off-block time b) 60 minutes before departure c) 10 minutes before departure d) 30 minutes before off-block time

23. Which Mode A code must be used to make sure that your aircraft is recognised as an aircraft in distress?

a) Code 7500 b) Code 7700 c) Code 7000 d) Code 7600

24. An aircraft which is intercepted by another aircraft must immediately try to contact the intercepting aircraft on the following frequencies:

a) 121.5 MHz - 243 MHz b) 121.5 MHz - 282.8 MHz c) 121.5 MHz - 125.5 MHz d) 243 MHz - 125.5 MHz

25. Your aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraft. Instructions given by this aircraft do not comply with ATC instructions. You should:

a) select code 7500 A on your transponder b) ask ATC for different instructions c) comply with instructions given by the intercepting aircraft d) comply with ATC instructions

26. A pilot crosses his/her hands in front of the face, palms outwards and then moves the arms outwards. What does this signal indicate?

a) clear to move forward b) brakes off c) remove chocks d) clear to close all engines

Answers to Quest ions Chapter 6 Rules o f The Air

1C 2D 3C 4B 5B 6D 7B 8B 9A 10B 11D 12B 13A 14D 15D 16B 17D 18B 19C 20C 21A 22B 23B 24A 25C 26C

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Quest ions Chapter 7 Sect ion 1

1. Against what political background was the Chicago Convention of 1944 held?

a. World War I b. The Korean War c. World War II d. The American War of Independence

2. What in civil aviation terms does `territorial airspace' mean? a. The airspace over a state's land-mass of a state within international agreed frontiers b. All the airspace over a state extending to the limits of space c. The airspace over a state and the adjacent international waters to a defined median line forming a

boundary with another state d. The airspace over a state and its territorial waters

3. What law is applicable over the `high seas'?

a. International law b. The law of the state of registry of the aeroplane over flying the high seas area c. The ICAO law d. The law of the state closest to the point in the high seas area

4. If an aeroplane, which is registered in the Bangladesh, is over-flying France, does the commander have to obey the law of France ?

a. Yes at all times b. No, the law of the Bangladesh applies because the aeroplane is not landing in France c. Yes, but only if it does not conflict with the law of Bangladesh d. Yes, but if there is a confliction with Bangladesh Law he must ask the French authority what he

should do

5. A scheduled air service, in international context, is defined as:

a. A regular series of flights from one place to another b. Flights from one place to another in accordance with an agreed schedule and a bilateral

agreement between the two states c. Any flight for which the flight plan is published in advance d. Any flight in accordance with the first and second freedoms of the air

6. Do any rules of the air exists over international waters (high seas areas)?

a. Yes - ICAO Annex 2 - Rules of the Air b. No. No state has the right to impose its law over the high seas c. Yes - the rules of the air that are applicable to the state with the closest land-mass d. Yes - the rules of the air of the state of registry of the aeroplane

8. With regard to search and rescue of aircraft (SAR), each state is required to:

a. Maintain an efficient SAR service capable of responding within 1 hour b. Comply fully with the standards and recommended practices of annex 12 to the Chicago

Convention c. Maintain and fully staff a rescue co-ordination centre (RCC) d. Co-operate with adjacent states for the purpose of SAR

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17. It is an offence to commit an unlawful act in an aeroplane in the air. Who is empowered to prosecute such an offence?

a. Interpol b. The Authority of the State of registration of the aeroplane c. The Authority of the State of the Operator d. ICAO through the International Court at The Hague

19. What is the SSR unlawful interference (hijack) code?

a. 2000 b. 7777 c. 7600 d. 7500

20. You are the commander of an aeroplane in flight. From whom do you get the authority to act as commander?

a. The passengers b. The Operator c. The authority of the state of registry of the aeroplane d. The national legislature of the state of registry of the aeroplane

25. Can you continue to fly if you are over 65?

a. No b. Yes, but only for single engine operation c. Yes, but not in commercial aviation d. Yes, if there are two pilots on board, and you are the only pilot on board 65 or over

27. Your valid flight crew licence is always to be carried with you when exercising the privileges of the licence. What else must you carry?

a. Your passport or a means of photographically identifying yourself b. Your valid medical certificate c. Your valid medical certificate or your passport d. Your valid medical certificate and a document containing a photograph of you that confirms you

identity as stated on your licence

32. You are not permitted to exercise the privileges of your licence if you are aware that you are unwell. Which of the following would be classified as being unwell?

a. Suffering a minor condition that requires the occasional use of medication b. Admission to hospital or a clinic for 12 hours or less c. Undergoing any surgical or invasive procedure d. The need to wear dark glasses

33. You are required to inform the authority that you are unable to fly because of certain medical concerns. One such situation is:

a. A visit to hospital or a clinic as a patient b. Persistent sickness that has lasted 21 days c. Persistent sickness that has lasted more than 21 days d. Diagnosis of the need for spectacles to be used for reading

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38. It is night time and your aeroplane is parked on the movement area of an aerodrome. Is the aeroplane required to be lit?

a. Yes, to indicate its extremities unless otherwise adequately illuminated b. Only if the engines are running c. No d. Yes, aircraft are to be lit at all times on an aerodrome

39. It is daytime and your aeroplane is fitted with anti-collision high intensity strobe (capacitive discharge) lights.You are flying IFR just in the base of the clouds and the lights are creating a stroboscopic effect that is worrying some of the passengers. Can you switch the strobe lights off?

a. No. Aircraft with anti-collision lights are to show them at all times b. Yes but only because it is daylight c. No because you are flying IFR d. Yes

40. If you intend to fly the aeroplane to simulate IMC, you must have dual controls and a safety pilot at the other set of controls. Must the safety pilot be a qualified pilot?

a. No, he only needs to be a qualified observer b. No, but he must be capable of detecting any errors you make c. Yes d. No, he is there only to cover the case of you suffering a debilitating condition that renders you

incapable of flying the aeroplane, but he must have rudimentary knowledge of flying

41. `If you are flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome you are required to conform with or avoid the formed traffic pattern'. For which of the following is this statement true?

a. Only if you intend landing at the aerodrome b. If you are aware that the aerodrome is there c. If you are flying inside the aerodrome traffic zone (ATZ) d. Regardless of whether you are inside or outside the ATZ

42. When is a flight plan is required?

a. For all flights b. For all IFR flights c. For all VFR flights in controlled airspace d. For all flights which require an air traffic service

43. When is a flight plan not required?

a. For VFR flights crossing international boundaries b. For flights along boundaries between FIRS providing the flight does not actually cross the

boundary c. For VFR flights in advisory airspace d. For flights over distances less than 50Km at night

44. A flight plan is required to include the number and type of aircraft for which the flight plan is submitted.(NB one FP may be submitted for a formation of aeroplanes!). What other information is required regarding the type of aeroplane? a. Wake turbulence category b. Optimum cruising mach number c. Maximum un-pressurised cabin altitude d. Minimum equipment list

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45. When is a flight plan `closed'?

a. When it is complete and ready for filing b. When all the passengers are on board and the flight is announced as `closing' c. When the aeroplane arrives at the destination d. On the receipt of the arrival report at the ATSU at the arrival aerodrome

46. When is an ATC clearance to be obtained?

a. Prior to operating any controlled flight b. Prior to entry into controlled airspace c. Prior to take off from the initial departure aerodrome where the route involves landing at several

aerodromes en route d. At least 30 minutes prior to take off

50. If you suffer a comms failure during the later stages of a flight after you have been given an Estimated Approach Time (EAT) that is significantly different from your flight planned ETA, what do you do?

a. Try and land within 30 minutes of the EAT, if possible b. Revert to the original flight planned ETA and land as close to that time as possible c. Stay in the holding pattern and squawk 7600 until you run short of fuel and then squawk 7700

and make an approach to land d. Abandon the instrument approach and squawk 7700 and make a straight in approach in VMC

51. If you see a military aeroplane (a small one with missiles on it) positioning itself ahead, slightly to the left, and slightly above you and it is rocking its wings, what does this mean?

a. Congratulations, you have just joined the Red Arrows (Gulp! Where are the rest of them!) b. You have just been intercepted and he/she wants you to follow c. You are flying in military restricted airspace and are in danger d. The Air Traffic Controllers have fouled up the clearances. This is an incident and must be

reported by AIRPROX procedures

52. When is a VFR flight not permitted to take off from an aerodrome in a CTR?

a. If the cloud ceiling is 1500ft or less and ground visibility is 5km or less b. If the cloud ceiling is greater than 1500ft, but ground visibility is only 5km c. If the cloud ceiling is less than 1500ft, or ground visibility is less than 5km d. If the cloud ceiling is more than 1500ft, with ground visibility 5km or less

53. Unless authorised, in Bangladesh VFR flight is not permitted above what flight level?

a. FL150(Correct) b. FL245 c. FL200 d. FL 180

54. When or where are you permitted to fly VFR below 1000ft above the highest obstacle within 600m radius of the aircraft over towns, cities etc.. or below 500 ft above ground or water?

a. En route outside of an ATZ b. Over the sea within gliding distance of the shore c. In class G airspace in daylight d. Only where necessary for take off and landing

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56. You are flying VFR in class C airspace outside of a CTR and you doubt if you can maintain VMC much longer. What should you do'?

a. File an IFR flight plan and continue whilst awaiting clearance b. If unable to get a clearance to continue under IFR leave CAS and land at the nearest suitable

aerodrome c. Get a Special VFR clearance and continue d. Push on in VMC until the last minute then squawk 7700 and let the Air Traffic Controllers

sort it out.

57. You are flying IFR at FL 100 in class A airspace. The Air Traffic Controller warns you that there is traffic in your 12 O'clock at range 10 miles and asks you if you are VMC with a view to taking avoiding action. What should you do?

a. Assess the meteorological conditions and if the minima for class A airspace is exceeded report your flight conditions as VMC

b. Regardless of the meteorological conditions, report your flight conditions as IMC c. Advise ATC that VFR is not applicable in class A airspace d. Ask for Radar Advisory service to avoid the contact unless ATC advises that it has

disappeared

58. You are flying IFR in class B airspace but are flying in good VMC. What must you consider before making a request to cancel the IFR flight plan and to proceed VFR?

a. What is the correct VFR flight level for the class of airspace b. How long are you going to be able to maintain VMC c. How much day light is left d. Do you have the necessary equipment fitted in the aeroplane to make a VFR approach at the

destination

59. When may you routinely ignore the table of IFR cruising levels (flight levels) if flying IFR in class A airspace?

a. In good VMC b. Above 24 500 ft c. Where Reduced Vertical Separation Minima standards are in force d. When cleared above a level to employ a cruise climb technique

60. If you are operating an IFR flight outside of controlled airspace, are you required to maintain a listening watch with an ATS unit?

a. No b. Yes, always c. Yes, but only in areas or along routes where a flight plan is required d. Yes if you are flying in IMC

61. If you have an urgent message to transmit regarding the safety of an aeroplane, what proword do you prefix the message with?

a. Help b. Mayday c. Pan Pan d. Securite (pron - see cure ee tay)

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62. If you have been intercepted by a military aircraft, on what frequency should you attempt to communicate with the military pilot?

a. The frequency in use b. 121.500 Mhz c. 119.100 Mhz d. 123.450 Mhz

64. You are taxiing on the manoeuvring area and see a flashing white light pointed at you from the tower, what does it mean?

a. Give way to an approaching aeroplane b. Return to the starting point c. Stop d. Continue taxiing to the holding point of the active runway

65. You are short final after having received a clearance to land and you see a red pyrotechnic flare fired from the tower. There are no other aeroplanes in the circuit, what does the flare mean?

a. The Tower controller is scaring the birds away b. An aeroplane is taxiing out of sight of the tower controller and he is ordered to stop

immediately c. You have not acknowledged the clearance to land d. Notwithstanding any previous clearance, you are not to land for the time being

66. You are taxiing towards the runway at an aerodrome and it is outside the published hours of the ATC watch. You see this yellow marking on the taxiway, what does it mean and what must you do?

a. It is a holding point but not the closest one to the runway. You can ignore it. b. It is a holding point other than the closest to the runway. You must stop and check that you are

clear to continue taxiing c. It is a holding point for another runway so can ignore it. d. It means that the taxiway is weak and you must not stop on it.

67. A green flag is flying from the signals mast at an aerodrome. What does it mean?

a. Glider flying is in progress b. Take-off and landing are not restricted to the same direction c. Right hand circuit in force d. Non radio traffic is permitted to use this aerodrome

68. You are taxiing towards the terminal building but have not been allocated a bay for parking. You see a man standing in an open space facing you with his arms raised vertically above his head. What does this mean?

a. I am not your marshaller, I am waiting for the next aeroplane. b. I am your marshaller, keep moving ahead and I will indicate when it is safe to turn into this

parking bay c. This is your parking bay d. Stop immediately

69. You are ready to start engines but there is no ground intercom system working. How do you indicate tot he marshaller that you intend to start no. 2 engine first?

a. Raise your right hand with the index finger extended making a circular motion, whilst pointing to no 2 engine

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b. Raise a hand with two fingers extended c. Raise a hand with two fingers extended and then raise and lower the other hand with a clenched

fist d. Raise a hand and make a circular motion and leave it to him to work out which engine is starting

73. In general, what navigation aids are used to define RNAV departure routes?

a. NDB and ILS b. VOR and NDB c. VOR and DME d. NDB and DME

74. Which of the following correctly defines the five segments of an instrument approach procedure?

a. En-route, Initial, Immediate, Final, Missed Approach b. Arrival, Initial, Intermediate, Final, Missed Approach c. Arrival, Initial, Intermediate, Final, Terminal d. En-route, Initial, Secondary, Final, Terminating

77. During the latter stages of an instrument approach, track accuracy is of paramount importance as it is the major factor in defining the limits of the obstacle clearance zone which leads to calculation of DH. Which of the following facilities is the most accurate for providing track guidance?

a. VOR b. ILS localiser c. ILS glide path d. NDB

79. What is the optimum gradient of the final approach segment (the glide path)?

a. Not less than 3.5% b. 3.5 c. About 300ft/km d. Should not exceed 5%

80. Where does the initial approach segment end? a. At the start of the final approach segment b. At the FAF c. Overhead the facility upon which the procedure is based d. At the intermediate fix

81. In a missed approach procedure, turns are not specified until the climb is established. Why is this?

a. The aeroplane is too close to the ground and obstacle clearance my not be achieved b. The final approach track is along the extended centre line of the runway and deviation from this

track may result in a collision with other approaching aircraft c. The safest direction to go is in the direction of the runway and the climb-out lane d. The initialisation of the climb (attitude change, drag reduction, application of power) requires

the attention of the pilot, therefore turns are not specified.

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82. Where does the missed approach procedure start?

a. At the beginning of the initial missed approach phase b. At the missed approach point (MAPt) c. At the point at which the instrument approach procedure cannot be continued d. At DH for a precision approach or at MDH for a non precision approach

85. In still air, holding on a facility at 5000 ft, what is the length of the outbound leg?

a. 1 1/2 minutes starting over or abeam the fix b. 1 minute starting abeam the fix c. It is determined by either distance or time, whichever is specified d. Not less than 5nm

86. The minimum permissible holding level for a holding pattern is based on the obstacle clearance height of obstacles within the buffer area. The buffer area extends:

a. All the way around the holding area and encompasses the entry area b. To 5nm beyond the boundary of the holding area c. To 5nm beyond the boundary of the holding area but not including the entry area d. 2nm to the non holding side of the boundary of the holding area and 5 nm from the boundary of

the holding area on the holding side of the pattern

89. When flying through the transition layer, how is vertical position is reported?

a. As a flight level b. It depends upon what you have set on the altimeter c. As an altitude when ascending and as a flight level when descending d. It doesn't matter because the layer is not very deep

91. When/where is the use of aerodrome QFE permitted?

a. When transiting the Aerodrome Traffic Zone b. Within a zone if the aerodrome is within a CTR c. When flying en-route in the vicinity of an aerodrome if regional QNH is below the subscale of

the altimeter d. For terrain clearance during the final approach to a runway

96. If your transponder fails before departure, can you continue if the flight is a controlled flight?

a. No, you must get if fixed even if the flight does not enter controlled airspace b. Yes, but only if the flight does not enter class A, B or C controlled airspace c. Yes if you have entered `X' in field 10 (SSR capability) of the flight plan form d. Yes after seeking exemption from the requirements to carry SSR equipment on controlled

flights

97. What do the initials SRA mean?

a. Separated Radar Approach b. Simplex Radar Application c. Secondary Radar Approach d. Surveillance Radar Approach

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99. What is defined by a minimum obstacle clearance of 300 m (984 ft) within 46 km (25 nm) of a homing facility providing the basis for an instrument approach?

a. Minimum Safe Altitude b. Minimum Sector Altitude c. Mandatory Safety Area d. Maximum Speed Area

Answers to Quest ions Chapter 7 Procedures for Air Naviga tion Services / Aircraf t Operat ions Sec tion -1

Q Ans. Ref. Q Ans. Ref. Q Ans. Ref. Q Ans. Ref. 1 C 2.1.2 26 B 5.3.9 51 B 6.7.4(l) 76 D 7.5.2 2 D 2.1.2.2 27 D 5.3.10 52 C 6.3.2 77 B 7.5.7.ai 3 B 2.16.1/2 28 C 5.3.2 53 C 6.3.3.a(1) 78 B 7.5.7.2.ai 4 A 2.16.1 29 A 5.5.4 54 D 6.3.3.c(l) 79 D 7.5.10 5 B 2.1.3.3a 30 D 5.5.4.c 55 B 6.3.4 80 D 7.7.1 6 A 6.1.1 31 C 5.6.1 56 B 6.2.19 81 D 7.8.2 7 A 2.1.4.1 32 C 5.7.4.b 57 A 6.3.1 82 B 7.7.1 8 D 2.2.3 33 D 5.7.5.b 58 B 6.4.4.1 83 B 7.5.3.C 9 B 2.3.1 34 D 7.12.5 59 D 6.4.5 84 A 7.11.5 10 B 2.6.2 35 A 6.2.4 60 C 6.4.6.b 85 C 7.11.6 11 C 2.7 36 B 6.2.5d 61 C 6.6.2 86 B 7.11.8 12 C 2.7.1 37 A 6.2.6 62 B 6.7.2.c 87 C 7.11.8.c 13 C 2.8.1 38 A 6.2.12.b2 63 A 6.8.2 88 A 7.12.6 14 D 2.3.1/9.1 39 D 6.2.12.e 64 B 6.9.2 89 B 7.12.5 15 D 2.10.4c 40 C 6.2.13.a2 65 D 6.9.2 90 C 7.12.7 16 A 2.10.2 41 D 6.2.14 66 A 6.9.4.m 91 D 7.12.9 17 B 2.11.1 42 D 6.2.15.al 67 C 6.9.3.2 92 B 7.13.1.a 18 B 2.11.4 43 C 6.2.15.a2 68 C 6.10.1 93 A 7.13.3 19 D 7.14.1 44 A 6.2.15.0 69 B 6.10.2 94 D 7.13.3 20 B 2.16.2 45 D 6.2.15.f 70 B 7.3.1.2 95 B 7.14.1 21 B 2.13.1 46 A 6.2.17 71 C 7.3.2.1 96 D 7.14.3.c 22 D 2.13.2aii 47 B 6.2.18 72 C 7.3.3 97 D 7.15.2 23 B 5.2.1.a 48 D 6.3.1 73 C 7.3.5 98 A 7.15.2.1.a 24 C 5.3.6 49 B 6.2.21.c2 74 B 7.5.1.1 99 B 7.5.1.4 25 C 5.3.7 50 A 6.2.21.c5 75 C 7.5.1 100 C 6.1.5

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Quest ions Chapter 7 Sect ion -2

2. Unless otherwise published or informed by ATC, after entering a hold all turns are made:

a) To the left b) To the left then right c) To the right d) Procedure turn right then left

3. In a holding pattern, turns are to be made at:

a) Rate of turn of 3 /sec b) Rate of turn of 3 /sec or 20 bank whichever is lesser c) Rate of turn of 30/sec or at a bank angle of 25 whichever is lesser d) Bank angle of 25

5. What radius from a terminal VOR is MSA provided?

a) 25nm b) 10nm c) 15nm d) 15km

6. What is the longest period of time that you can fly the 30 leg of a teardrop procedure when joining a holding pattern?

a) 1 1/2 mins b) 2 1/2 mins c) 3 mins d) 30 secs -

8. What is the maximum speed (under normal conditions) for an aeroplane to enter a hold at 11,000 ft. without special ATC clearance?

a) 230 kts b) 285 kts c) 250 kts d) 240 kts

9. What is the climb gradient required during the intermediate segment of a missed approach?

a) 5.5% b) 2.5% c) 0.8% d) 3.3%

12. A precision Approach Procedure is defined as:

a) An approach using bearing, elevation and distance information b) An approach with a crew of at least 2 pilots trained for such operations c) An instrument approach procedure utilising azimuth and glide path information provided by an

ILS or a PAR d) An approach using bearing, elevation and, optionally, distance information

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16. In general, for a straight in non-precision approach, the MDA/H will be not less than:

a) OCH/A b) 200ft c) 350ft d) 400ft

19. When carrying out a 45/180 procedure turn in Class C, D or E aircraft, how long should the 45 leg be ?

a) 1 minute b) 1 minute 15 seconds c) 1 minute 30 seconds d) 2 minutes

20. What is the airspeed for holding area construction for a CAT B aircraft in a hold under normal conditions at 4,250 metres (14,000 ft) ?

a) 0.83 Mach b) 490 km/hr (265 kts) c) 315 km/hr (170 kts) d) 520 km/hr (280 kts)

21. What is the maximum interception angle which is allowed to the intermediate approach segment from the initial approach segment for a non-precision approach ?

a) 30 b) 45 c) 120 d) 15

23. An instrument approach is made up of a number of segments. How many of them are there?

a) 4 b) 5 c) 3 d) 6

24. On a precision approach, where does the final approach segment start? a) DH b) FAF c) FAP d) MAPT

25. On an instrument approach, part of the procedure enables the aircraft to return inbound from outbound with track reversal. This is called:

a) Base Turn b) Procedure Turn c) Reverse Procedure d) Racetrack

28. What are the obstacle clearance limits for visual manoeuvring (circling)? a) only determined for Cats A & B b) only determined for Cats C, D & E c) different for all Cats d) the same for all Cats

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30. At what distance does an SRA normally terminate?

a) 2nm b) 1 nm c) 3nm d) 1/2 nm

32. Which direction are turns in the standard holding pattern?

a) left b) right c) depends on w/v d) depends on entry made

33. When making an approach, when should a pilot change his altimeter from standard to aerodrome setting, unless otherwise authorised by ATC?

a) Transition altitude b) Transition level c) 300011 above sea level or 1000ft AGL, whichever is higher d) within the transition layer

34. What is the Cat 2 ILS criteria for instrument runways?

a) RVR 350m DH not below 100ft b) RVR 200 DH not below 100ft c) RVR 200 DH not below 200ft d) RVR 300 DH not below 200ft

35. When is OCH for an ILS approach complied with?

a) not more than 1/2 scale glide path and full scale localiser deflection b) not more than 1/2 scale localiser deflection c) not more than 1/2 scale glide path and 35 localiser deflection d) not more than full scale glide path and 1/2 scale localiser deflection

36. For the three entries into a hold, what is the sector tolerance?

a) +/- 5 b) +/- 10 c) +/- 15 d) +/- 20

37. How wide is the buffer area associated with a holding pattern?

a) 3 kms b) 3 runs c) 5 kms d) 5 nms

38. What is the width of the zone of flexibility regarding which procedure to execute when joining a holding pattern?

a) +/-5 b) +/-10 c) +/-15 d) +/-20

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39. What range would the radar service be normally terminated for an SRA?

a) 1 nm b) 1.5 nm c) 2 nm d) 4 nm

41. In which stage of an instrument approach do you align with the runway?

a) Initial segment b) Final segment c) Arrival segment d) Intermediate segment

42. During a visual manoeuvre (circling) in the downwind position you lose visual contact with the threshold of the landing runway. What do you do?

a) Carry out the missed approach procedure b) Turn through 90 and head towards the centre of the aerodrome until you regain visual reference c) Head towards the FAF d) Orbit in the present position until the visibility improves

43. What are ICAO defined instrument approaches?

a) Non-precision and CAT I / II / III precision b) Non-precision and Precision in general c) Precision CAT I / II / III d) Instrument precision and CAT 11/111

44. What is the transition level?

a) The first flight level above the transition altitude b) The highest flight level available below the transition altitude c) The top of the ATZ d) The level at which 1013 is set

46. What is the name of the phase of an instrument approach in which the aircraft is aligned with the runway and descent commenced?

a) Final b) Initial c) Intermediate d) Arrival

48. Are the minimum obstacle clearance heights for circling approach to land: a) the same for Cat A and B aircraft b) Different for each category c) The same for Cats A, B and D d) The same for Cat A and B, and the same for Cat C and D

50. Is it legal to pass over the Missed Approach Point at an altitude higher than MDA? a) Yes b) Never c) Sometimes d) It depends on the flight conditions

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51. For an instrument approach, the missed approach gradient is:

a) 3% b) 3.3% c) 5% d) 2.5%

54. What is the turn from outbound to inbound called with track reversal?

a) Base turn b) Procedure turn c) Reversal procedure d) Racetrack procedure

56. When following a SID, the pilot must:

a) Calculate the track required and request ATC clearance to follow it b) Fly the heading without wind correction c) Adjust the track specified to allow for the wind d) Fly the heading to make good the required track allowing for the wind

58. Where does the initial phase of a missed approach procedure end?

a) From where a new instrument approach can be commenced b) Where 50 ft obstacle clearance is obtained and can be maintained c) Where a climb is established d) At the missed approach point

59. Who determines OCA/H?

a) The operator b) The flight operations department c) The authority of the State d) The Commander

63. OCH clearance on ILS is given, provided the accuracy flown on the localizer is within:

a) 1/4 scale deflection b) 1'/2 scale deflection c) 1 scale deflection d) 1/2 scale deflection

65. When calculating the type of entry to a holding pattern, which of the following is applicable? a) Aircraft magnetic heading b) Aircraft true track c) Aircraft track over the ground d) Aircraft compass heading

66. The holding direction of a holding pattern is 052 magnetic. You are flying inbound to hold on a heading of 232 magnetic. What type of join should you make?

a) Direct b) Parallel c) Offset or Parallel d) Reciprocal

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67. What is the zone of flexibility either side of sector boundaries when joining a hold?

a) 5 b) 2.5 c) 10 d) 2

68. Where does the initial sector of a missed approach procedure end?

a) When a height of 50m has been achieved and maintained b) When established in the climb c) At the missed approach point d) When en-route either to the hold or departure

70. The obstacle clearance surfaces for an ILS assume a pilot localizer accuracy of.

a) 1/4 scale b) 1/2 scale c) 1 scale d) 1 1/2 scale

71. Flying a holding pattern in a jet aircraft at FL 1 10, the max IAS is:

a) 170 kt b) 240 kt c) 230 kt d) 280 kt

72. The abbreviation OIS means:

a) Obstacle in surface b) Obstruction in surface c) Obstruction identification surface d) Obstacle identification surface

74. Which of the following defines a standard holding procedure?

a) Right turn at the fix; 1 minute below 14 000 ft b) Left turn at the fix; 1 minute below 14 000 ft c) Right turn at the fix; 1.5 minutes below 14 000 ft d) Left turn at the fix; 1.5 minutes above 14 000ft

76. What are the 5 segments of an instrument approach?

a) Initial; Intermediate; Descent; Final; Landing b) Arrival; Initial; Intermediate; Final; Missed Approach c) Initial; Intermediate; Final; Landing; Missed Approach d) Arrival; Initial; Intermediate; Final; Landing

78. In a category A aeroplane, which reversing turn takes approximately 2 minutes in still air? a) 45/180 procedure turn b) 80/260 procedure turn c) Base turn d) Racetrack

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79. During the arrival and initial segments of an instrument approach (not in mountainous areas) what is the minimum obstacle clearance provided?

a) 300m b) At least 300m c) 150m d) At least 150m

80. When conducting a procedure turn (45/180), for how long should the 45 leg be flown for a Cat A or Cat B aircraft ?

a) 1 minute 30 seconds b) 1 minute c) 1 minute 15 seconds d) 2 minutes

82. What are the phases of the Missed Approach Procedure?

a) Initial, intermediate and final b) Arrival, initial, intermediate and final c) Initial and final d) Arrival, intermediate and final

83. The visual phase of a flight after completion of an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into the position for landing on a runway which is not suitably located for a straight-in approach is termed as:

a) Visual Approach b) Aerodrome traffic pattern c) Visual Manoeuvring (circling) d) Contact Approach

85. When on the final approach track a step-down fix is made, the decent has to be conducted such that:

a) You are 50 ft above the nominal glidepath b) The fix is passed no lower than the specified crossing altitude c) You leave the intermediate approach altitude step-by-step until reaching the MAPt d) The fix is passed with the mandatory vertical speed of 500 ft/min.

87. A precision approach is a direct instrument approach:

a) conducted by a crew consisting of at least 2 pilots who are properly trained b) which uses azimuth, elevation and distance information, provided that the pilot uses a flight

director or an autopilot and is certified to a height of 200 ft. c) which uses azimuth, distance and elevation information d) which uses azimuth and elevation information

89. The minimum sector altitude gives an obstacle clearance of 300 metres within a certain radius from the navigation aid on which the instrument procedure is based. This radius is:

a) 15 nms (28 kms) b) 30 nms (55 kms) c) 25 nms (46 kms) d) 20 runs (37 kms)

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90. What is the minimum ground visibility for a CAT I ILS approach?

a) 800m b) 550m c) 50m d) 550ft

91. What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL 140?

a) I minute 30 seconds b) 1 minute c) 2 minutes 30 seconds d) 2 minutes

92. Where does the initial approach segment begin in an instrument approach procedure?

a) At the IF b) At the IAF c) At the FAF d) At the final en-route fix

93. If the track on an instrument departure is published the pilot is expected to:

a) correct for the known wind so as to stay within controlled airspace b) ask ATC for another heading to steer correcting for wind c) ignore the wind and proceed with a heading equal to the track d) ask ATC for permission to correct heading for wind

94. Under which circumstances may an aircraft on a "straight in" VOR approach continue below OCA?

a) When it seems possible to land b) When the aircraft is in contact with the ground but does not have the runway in sight c) When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and is visual with the runway lights d) When the tower is visible

98. Turns in a standard holding pattern are:

a) in a direction dependent on the wind b) in a direction dependent on the type of entry c) left handed d) right handed

99. The term "timed approach procedure" is used to expedite, if needed, the approach of a number of inbound aircraft. This is achieved by asking aeroplanes to

a) make a step-down descent in approaching sequence b) pass the specified inbound fix at a given time c) conduct the approach procedure with specified speeds d) pass a specific point

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101. Your transponder fails prior to departure and it is not practical to effect a repair. ATC is required to:

a) Permit you to proceed, as directly as possible, to the nearest suitable aerodrome where a repair can be made

b) Permit you to proceed as normal c) Forbid you from taking off d) Permit you to take off as long as you have indicated the failure in the Flight Plan

103. A visual circling approach procedure:

a) can only be conducted under radar control b) is a visual manoeuvre conducted under IMC c) entails the radar controller providing separation d) has to be conducted with visual reference to the ground

104. When can an aircraft descend below MSA? 1) the airfield and underlying terrain are visible and will remain so 2) the aircraft is under radar control 3) the underlying terrain is visible 4) the aircraft is following an approach procedure

a) 1, 2 and 4 b) 1, 3 and 4 c) 2, 3 and 4 d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answers to Quest ions Chapter 7 Procedures fo r Air Naviga tion Services / Aircraf t Opera t ions Section -2

1 A 27 A 53 A 79 B 2 C 28 C 54 B 80 B 3 C 29 B 55 D 81 B 4 A 30 A 56 D 82 A 5 A 31 D 57 B 83 C 6 A 32 B 58 C 84 A 7 C 33 B 59 C 85 B 8 A 34 A 60 A 86 A 9 B 35 B 61 D 87 D 10 A 36 A 62 D 88 C 11 D 37 D 63 D 89 C 12 C 38 A 64 B 90 A 13 B 39 C 65 A 91 A 14 B 40 A 66 C 92 B 15 B 41 B 67 A 93 A 16 A 42 A 68 B 94 C 17 C 43 A 69 A 95 D 18 C 44 A 70 B 96 A 19 B 45 C 71 C 97 C 20 C 46 A 72 D 98 D 21 C 47 B 73 B 99 B 22 A 48 B 74 A 100 D 23 B 49 B 75 D 101 A 24 C 50 A 76 B 102 B 25 B 51 D 77 C 103 D 26 C 52 A 78 B 104 A

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1. What is the definition of Distress?

a) An emergency condition where an aircraft is in imminent danger and requires immediate assistance

b) Persons on board an aircraft are in imminent danger and the flight cannot be continued c) The aircraft will be unable to land at a suitable aerodrome d) The aeroplane has a message to transmit concerning the safety of person on board or

within sight

2. What defines the SAR alert phase (ALERFA)? a) A situation in which an aeroplane and passengers are known to be in serious and

imminent danger b) A situation where it is certain that fuel is exhausted c) A situation where apprehension exists about an aeroplane and its safety d) A situation in which an aeroplane and its passengers are in emergency

5. In what class of airspace are all aircraft separated from one another and VFR is permitted?

a) D b) E c) A d) B

7. A control zone extends laterally from the centre of an aerodrome or aerodromes in the direction of approaching aircraft for at least

a) 7nms b) 5 rims c) 15 rims d) 20 rims

8. What is the speed limit below 10,000 ft in Class E airspace ?

a) 250 kts TAS b) 250 kts IAS c) Not applicable d) 200 kts IAS

9. Voice ATIS is transmitted on a:

a) Discrete VHF frequency only b) Discrete VHF frequency or on voice on VOR c) VHF frequency or on ILS frequency d) ILS only

10. Who is responsible for setting into movement the Alert Phase?

a) FIC or the relevant ATCU b) The State and ATC c) The Area Control and the RCC d) RCC and the FIR

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11. What is the definition of the Emergency Phase?

a) The Distress Phase b) The Alarm Phase c) The Alert Phase d) A generic term meaning as the case maybe the Uncertainty Phase, the Alert Phase or the

Distress Phase

Note : Although this is within the scope of Chapter 8, the reference is under Definitions contained in Chapter 18 of the Air Law Notes.

12. FIS is provided to aircraft concerning collision hazards in the following classes of airspace:

a) C,D,E,F,G b) F and G only c) F d) A,B,C,D,E,F,G

13. What are the three elements of an Air Traffic Control Service:

a) Radar, SAR and FIS b) Area, Approach and Aerodrome c) Radar, Procedural and FIS d) Radar, Procedural and Alerting Service.

14. For VFR flight in class E airspace:

a) ATC clearance and two way radio are required b) Two way radio not required c) ATC clearance and/or two way radio are required d) ATC clearance is required

15. Danger, Prohibited and Restricted areas must be designated by:

a) country identifier, followed by P/D/R, followed by the identifier b) country identifier followed by P/D/R c) P/D/R followed by the identifier d) country identifier followed by numbers

17. Who is responsible for designating the RNP for an airway?

a) the State b) the State + ICAO c) ICAO d) RAN

18. In which class or classes of airspace would essential traffic information be given to VFR traffic about other VFR traffic?

a) B b) BODE c) BC d) BCD

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19. What is the primary function of a CTR and a CTA ?

a) The controlling of all traffic close to an aerodrome b) The controlling of all traffic in Class F airspace c) The controlling of all traffic in Class F & G airspace d) The controlling of IFR traffic

21. What type of airspace extends from the surface to a specified upper limit?

a) control area b) Air Traffic Zone c) control zone d) TMA

22. What class of airspace can you get an advisory service for IFR traffic and a FIS for VFR traffic?

a) C b) D c) C d) F

23. The lowest height of a CTA above ground or water is:

a) 300m b) 150m c) 200m d) 500m

24. How often is an ATIS updated?

a) Every 30 mins for VFR, every 59 mins IFR b) When there is a change in information, irrespective of content or intensity c) When the minimum ceiling and visibility are below VFR minimum d) When there is a significant change in information.

25. RNP3 is a containment value meaning that a percentage of aircraft operating along a particular route would be within 3nm of the centre line all the time. What is that percentage?

a) 98% b) 93% c) 95% d) 90%

26. In what class of airspace is IFR separated from IFR and all other traffic gets FIS?

a) A b) B c) D d) C; D and E

27. The lower boundary of an UIR must be: a) An IFR flight level b) A VFR flight level c) Is not specified d) At any flight level

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28. List the services provided in a FIR:

a) FIS only b) FIS, advisory ATC, ATC c) FIS, aerodrome control d) FIS, alerting service

30. Who organises the RNP specification for airspace?

a) The State in which the airspace is located b) ICAO c) The State + ICAO d) States who agree what the RNP should be

31. What is the upper limit of a CTA?

a) 2,000 ft b) 3,000 ft c) 5,000 ft d) A VFR Flight Level

33. In what class of airspace can both IFR and VFR fly and IFR traffic only receives an advisory service for separation?

a) F b) E c) G d) D

35. You are flying a visual approach in Class C airspace. ATC will:

a) separate you from all traffic b) separate you from all IFR traffic c) separate you from all arriving traffic d) separate you from all VFR traffic

36. In which airspace can you be cleared to fly without a radio?

a) E & G b) D c) E, D d) C, D, E

37. In which class of airspace is IFR and VFR permitted; IFR is separated from all traffic, VFR separated from IFR and receives traffic information about other VFR traffic?

a) Class A b) Class B c) Class C d) Class D

38. In class C airspace, what flights are separated? a) All flights b) IFR from all flights; VFR from VFR c) IFR from IFR; VFR from IFR and VFR from VFR d) IFR from IFR; IFR from VFR; VFR from IFR

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40. An aircraft has been cleared to land and fails to do so within 5 minutes of the ETA of landing and communications have not been re-established with the aircraft. What phase of the Alerting Service will be declared by the ATSU ?

a) DETRESFA b) INCERFA c) ALERFA d) EMERGFA

41. A Control Zone has to exist to at least:

a) 5 nms from the centre of the airfield or airfields concerned in the direction from where approaches can be made

b) 20 rims from the centre of the airfield or airfields concerned in the direction from where approaches can be made

c) 15 nms from the centre of the airfield or airfields concerned in the direction from where approaches can be made

d) 10 nms from the centre of the airfield or airfields concerned in the direction from where approaches can be made

42. When an aircraft encounters difficulty, the initiation of the alert phase is the responsibility of:

a) Air Traffic Coordination Centres b) Air Traffic Control and Flight Information Centres c) Search and Rescue Coordination Centres d) Air Traffic Control Centres only

44. According to ICAO Annex 11, what does the following statement define : "information concerning the occurrence or expected occurrence of specified en-route weather phenomena which may effect the safety of low-level aircraft operations and which was not already included in the forecast issued for low-level flights in the FIR concerned or sub-area thereof."

a) NOTAM b) SIGMET Information c) AIRMET Information d) En-route Weather Report

Answers to Quest ions Chapter 8 Air Traffic Services

1 A 2 C 3 D 4 D 5 D 6 D 7 B 8 B 9 B 10 A 11 D 12 A 13 B 14 B 15 A 16 B 17 A 18 A 19 D 20 C 21 C 22 D 23 C 24 D 25 C 26 C 27 B 28 D 29 B 30 A 31 D 32 A 33 A 34 B 35 A 36 A 37 C 38 D 39 B 40 C 41 A 42 B 43 C 44 C

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1. When, in airspace where VFR is permitted, the PIC of an IFR flight wishes to continue his flight in accordance with VFR until destination: 1) He/she must inform the control unit of his intention using the expression "cancelling my IFR

flight" 2) He/she must request and obtain clearance 3) ATC will acknowledge with the time the IFR flight is cancelled 4) The flight plan automatically becomes a VFR flight Which of the following combinations is

correct?

a) 2 and 3 b) 2 and 4 c) 1 and 3 d) 1 and 4

3. What letter goes in item 8 of a flight plan for a flight starting on IFR then changing to VFR? a) Z b) Y c) I d) V

4. What is the delay for a controlled flight after which a flight plan has to be re-filed?

a) 30 minutes b) 30 minutes c) 60 minutes d) 60 minutes

6. What is the standard ICAO position report?

a) Aircraft callsign, position, time, level, next position and time, ensuing significant point b) Aircraft callsign, position, time, level, next position and time c) Aircraft callsign, position, level, next position and time d) Aircraft callsign, position, level, TAS, time

7. After a delay of how long must a flight plan be amended or re-submitted for an uncontrolled flight? a) 15 mins b) 30 mins c) 45 mins d) 60 mins

8. How is speed entered in item 15 of a flight plan? a) Ground speed b) True airspeed c) Ground speed plus 10% d) Indicated airspeed

10. You have been given a clearance by ATC but you are forced to deviate from it for some reason. What do you do? a) Request deviation from the clearance after the fact b) Tell ATC at any time after the deviation c) Tell ATC as soon as possible after the deviation d) Notify ATC in writing within 24 hours

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11. You file a VFR flight plan. What do you put in field 16 (total EET)?

a) Time from brakes off to overhead the destination b) Time from brakes released to landing time c) Time from take off to overhead the destination d) Time from take off to landing

12. In the case of a delay of a controlled flight, the filed flight plan must be amended or cancelled and a new flight plan must be filed, when the delay is:

a) 30 minutes more than the estimated off-blocks time b) 60 minutes more than the estimated off-blocks time c) 30 minutes more than the estimated departure time d) 60 minutes more than the estimated departure time

13. What are the contents of section 2 of an AIREP?

a) present position and ETA b) estimated time over the FIR boundary and endurance c) estimated elapsed time (EET) and endurance d) ETA and endurance

Answers to Quest ions Chapter 9 Procedures for Air Traff ic Management (PANS RAC DOC-4444)

1C 2B 3B 4A 5C 6A 7D 8B 9B 10C 11C 12A 13D 14 A

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1. What types of separation do ATC apply?

a) Horizontal, longitudinal and timing b) Horizontal, vertical and longitudinal c) Horizontal , vertical and composite d) Horizontal, vertical and lateral

2. What is a strayed aircraft?

a) One that has gone significantly off-track b) One that is lost and has reported so to ATC c) Both a and b. d) One which its position has not been established by ATC

4. If you want to descend through the level of another aircraft on the same track, the minimum separation is:


5. What is the longitudinal separation standard required for RNAV routes?

a) 80 nm b) 60 nm c) 50 nm d) 20 nm

6. When can one aircraft pass through the level of another aircraft which is flying along an ATS route, in VMC maintaining own separation?

a) If the pilot requests and the state approves b) If the pilot requests and it is day time c) If the pilot requests during day or night d) Irrelevant - the manoeuvre is not permitted

7. Minimum RNAV separation when RNP is specified is:

a) 80 nm b) 50 nm c) 80 or 50 dependant upon the RNP type d) 20 nm

8. If two aircraft are using the same VOR, by what lateral distance must the aircraft be separated before one of the two may commence a climb or descent?

a) 5 nm b) 10 nm c) 15 nm d) 20 nm

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9. Whilst in IFR in VMC you decide to maintain your own separation to descend through the level of another aircraft. What is required?

a) During day you must request clearance and with ATC authority approval b) You must request clearance and the ATC authority must approve, during day or night c) You only need to request approval for the manoeuvre d) In CAS the manoeuvre is illegal

11. An ATCO advises a pilot that "clearance expires at 0920" What does this mean?

a) The flight must end by 0920 b) The slot time cannot be later than 0920 c) The next clearance will be issued at 0920 d) Time at which the clearance is cancelled if the flight hasn't commenced

12. What is the separation standard between aircraft at the same altitude when using DME to determine range from a beacon?

a) 10 nm where the first aircraft speed is 40 kts faster than the second b) 10 nm where the first aircraft speed is 20 kts faster than the second c) 20 nm where the first aircraft speed is 40 kts faster than the second d) 20 nm where the first aircraft speed is 20 kts faster than the second

13. Two aircraft are using the Mach Number technique (both at same Mach Number or first faster than second) for same track separation. If using an RNAV track what would be the standard separation in lieu of time?

a) 80 nm b) 60 nm c) 50 nm d) 25 nm

15. Two aircraft are flying the same route where the Mach Number technique is applied. What is the minimum RNAV distance based separation that may be applied in lieu of the normal 10 minutes longitudinal separation?

a) 150nm b) 50nm c) 80nm d) 120nm

18. A separation minimum based on "RNAV" distance can be used at the moment the level is being passed, assuming that every aircraft reports its distance to or from the same "on-track" waypoint. The minimum is:

a) 60 nms b) 80 nms C) 50 rims d) 20 nms

Answers to Quest ions Chapter 10 Area Contro l Service

1C 2C 3A 4C 5A 6B 7C 8C 9A 10A 11D 12B 13A 14B 15C 16B 17D 18B 19D

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1. At commencement of final approach, if the approach controller has wind component information, what change in cross wind component change would be passed to the pilot?


2. Where an aeroplane is approaching to land, what is the maximum time spacing applied between that aeroplane and any other taking off in any direction?


3. Approach control is provided for:

a) All arriving and departing controlled flights b) All arriving IFR traffic c) Traffic within the CTA d) All VFR traffic

5. A revised EAT shall be transmitted to an aircraft whenever it differs from that EAT previously transmitted by:

a) 5 minutes or more b) 10 minutes or more c) 1 minute or more d) 15 minutes or more

6. If one aircraft wishes to occupy the level of another aircraft which has been cleared to descend, when can the first aircraft start descending to that level?

a) When the second aircraft reports leaving the level b) When the second aircraft reports 1,000 ft out of the level c) When the second aircraft reports at the cleared level d) When the second aircraft reports through 500 ft from the original level

7. On an approach by an IFR flight, when can this be converted to a visual approach:

a) after the FAF b) with visual reference to the terrain c) when the visibility is greater than 5km d) after the MAP

8. A controlled flight reports `field in sight'. Under what conditions may the flight make a visual approach? .

a) when the controller will provide separation from other traffic b) the aircraft has passed the FAF c) with a met visibility at least 8kms d) the remainder of the approach is to be conducted under VMC.

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9. Two aircraft are departing from the same runway, the first aircraft being 40kts or more faster. What separation should be provided?

a) 2 mins b) 3 mins c) 5 mins d) 7 mins

10. On departure a 1 minute separation can be applied if the aircraft fly on diverging tracks immediately after take-off at least:

a) 45 b) 15 c) 30 d) 20

11. When can normal separation be reduced?

a) When the controller has both aircraft in sight b) When the following aircraft has the preceding in sight and can maintain it c) When both pilots request it d) When both aircraft are under radar control

15. Under which circumstances may an aircraft on a "straight in" VOR approach continue below OCA?

a) When it seems possible to land b) When the aircraft is in contact with the ground but does not have the runway in sight c) When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and is visual with the runway lights d) When the tower is visible

16. The term "timed approach procedure" is used to expedite, if needed, the approach of a number of inbound aircraft. This is achieved by asking aeroplanes to:

a) make a step-down descent in approaching sequence b) pass the specified inbound fix at a given time c) conduct the approach procedure with specified speeds d) pass a specific point

17. According to international agreements the wind direction must be given in degrees magnetic converted with local magnetic variation from the true wind direction:

a) before landing and taxi for take-off b) in anticipation of the upper wind for areas North of 60 N and South of 60 S c) when an aircraft is requested by the meteorological office or on specified points to give an

AIREP d) when the local variation is greater than 10East or West

18. What separation is applied to two aircraft where the first is 40 kts faster than the second on departure?

a) 2 mins b) 5 mins c) 10 mins d) 4 mins

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Answers to Quest ions Chapter 11 Approach Control Service

1D 2B 3A 4D 5A 6A 7B 8A 9A 10A 11B 12D 13B 14B 15C 16B 17A 18A 19A


1. What is the maximum distance from touchdown that a radar controller can request a change of speed to an aircraft on final approach?

a) 5nm b) 3nm c) 2nm d) 4nm

2. What is the criterion for an aerodrome to be controlled?

a) It must be located within a CTR b) It must have a control tower giving an ATC service c) It must have a control tower and be in a CTR d) It must be in controlled airspace

3. What is separation for a light aircraft taking off after a medium aircraft providing they are both using the same runway?

a) 5 min b) 3 min c) 1 min d) 2 min

4. What is the primary reason for Radar in ATC?

a) Separation b) Helping when aircraft communications have failed c) To assist pilots with technical problems d) To assist pilots of aircraft that are lost

5. When must you operate your SSR transponder?

a) Always b) At all times unless otherwise instructed by ATC c) At your discretion regardless of ATC instructions d) Mode A always; Mode C at pilots discretion

9. Between two aircraft on the same track, what is the minimum radar separation which must be provided for wake turbulence?

a) 4 nms b) 2.5 nms c) 2 nms d) 3 nms

10. The maximum speed change that may be required during a radar approach is:


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11. To whom is the alerting service provided?

a) All IFR traffic b) All flight-planned aircraft c) All hijacked aircraft d) All traffic known to ATC

14. An aircraft in receipt of a radar service is told to "resume own navigation". This means:

a) The pilot is responsible for own navigation b) Radar vectoring is terminated c) The pilot should contact next ATC unit d) The pilot should contact the current ATC unit

15. What is standard radar separation?

a) 5nm b) 3nm c) 10nm d) 15nm

17. A radar controller wants to identify an aircraft on radar. By how much will the aircraft be turned?

a) 45 b) 15 c) 30 or more d) a minimum of 25

20. When may the pilot operate the `ident' switch on the transponder?

a) in controlled airspace b) when requested by ATC c) in uncontrolled airspace d) when under radar control

21. If you are given an instruction by ATC, steer heading 030, is the heading:

a) Degrees true, to be corrected for wind b) Degrees magnetic to be corrected for wind c) Degrees true d) Degrees magnetic

22. When should you use a SSR mode C transponder?

a) Only when directed by ATC b) Always c) Always in controlled airspace d) Only in controlled airspace

24. What separation is required between a medium taking off behind a heavy? a) 2 mins b) 3 mins c) 4 mins d) 5 mins

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25. What is the minimum radar separation for two aircraft established on the same localiser?

a) 5 nm b) 5 nm when the first a/c is 20 kts faster than the second c) 10 nm d) 20 nm

26. The maximum radar separation between 2 aircraft on the same approach with wake turbulence separation applied as required is:

a) 6 nms b) 2.5 runs c) 4 nms d) 2 nms

28. If you are intercepted by another aircraft, what do you set on the SSR transponder?

a) A/2000 + C b) A/7500 + C c) A/7600 + C d) A/7700 + C

30. During radar vectoring procedures, turns are to be:

a) At pilots discretion b) Dependant on weather conditions c) At a standard rate unless instructed by ATC d) Not less than 30

31. Aerodrome traffic is considered to be:

a) Aircraft on the movement area and flying in the vicinity b) Aircraft on the manoeuvring area and flying in the vicinity c) Aircraft on the movement area only d) Aircraft on the manoeuvring area only

32. On final approach, what is the minimum radar separation standard, notwithstanding wake turbulence separation?

a) 5 nm b) 2.5 nm c) 2 run d) 1 nm

33. What is the minimum radar separation when a heavy category aircraft is preceding a light category aircraft on final approach?

a) 2.5 run b) 3 nm c) 5 nm d) 6 nm

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37. The phases used to indicate that an aircraft is in distress or used when an aircraft is assumed to be in distress are:

a) uncertainty phase, urgency phase and distress phase b) uncertainty phase, alert phase, urgency phase and distress phase c) uncertainty phase, alert phase and distress phase d) uncertainty phase, alert phase and urgency phase

38. A light or medium aircraft is taking off behind a heavy from an intermediate part of the same runway. What wake turbulence separation will be applied?

a) 3 minutes b) 2 minutes c) 5 minutes d) 1 minute

41. Which separation minimum must be used for wake turbulence when a medium aircraft departs behind a heavy aircraft and both use the same runway?

a) 2 minutes b) 1 minute c) 3 minutes d) 4 minutes

42. What does the ATC term "radar contact" mean?

a) the aircraft is identified and will receive separation from all aircraft while you are communicating with this radar facility

b) ATC is receiving your transponder and will provide you with vectors and advice concerning traffic until you are notified that contact is lost

c) your aircraft is identified on the radar screen d) you receive radar advisory concerning traffic until you are notified that the contact is lost or

radar service is terminated

43. The letter " L" is used in the wake turbulence section of the flight plan when the maximum certified take-off mass of an aircraft is less or equal to:

a) 5,700 kg for fixed-wing aircraft and 2700 kg for helicopters b) 14,000 kg c) 20,000 kg d) 7,000 kg

44. If an aircraft is vectored to intercept the localiser during parallel runway operations, the final vector must be such that the aircraft is enabled to intercept the localiser course with an angle not greater than:

a) 20 b) 30 c) 15 d) 25

.

45. The minima that must be applied to aircraft which are landing after a "heavy" or "medium" aircraft complying with wake turbulence separation on a timed approach is: a) light aircraft behind medium aircraft; 4 minutes b) medium aircraft behind medium aircraft; 2 minutes c) medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft; 3 minutes d) medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft; 2 minutes

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Answers to Quest ions Chapter 12 Aerodrome Contro l , RADAR Services, Advisory Service and Aler t ing Service

1 D 25 A 2 B 26 A 3 D 27 C 4 A 28 D 5 B 29 D 6 B 30 C 7 C 31 B 8 B 32 A 9 A 33 D 10 D 34 A 11 D 35 D 12 B 36 B 13 D 37 C 14 B 38 A 15 A 39 A 16 A 40 D 17 C 41 A 18 C 42 C 19 D 43 D 20 B 44 B 21 D 45 D 22 B 46 A 23 B 47 A 24 A


2. In which section of the AIP would you find information on holding, approach and departing procedures?

a) GEN b) ENR c) AD d) None

3. An integrated aeronautical information package consists of:

a) AIP and amendment service, supplement to the AIP, NOTAMs, Preflight Information Bulletins (PIBs), AICs, checklists and summaries.

b) AIP and amendment service, NOTAMs, Preflight Information Bulletins (PIBs), AICs, AIRACs, checklists and summaries.

c) AIP and amendment service, supplement to the AIP, NOTAMs, AIRACs, AICs, checklists and summaries.

d) AIP & Supplements, AIRACs, NOTAMs and pre-flight bulletins

4. In what section of the AIP are details of SIGMET found?

a) GEN b) ENR c) AD d) COMMS

5. Where in the AIP is a list of Location Indicators to be found?

a) GEN b) COMMS c) AD d) AGA

6. A check list for NOTAMs is issued:

a) every 5 days b) every 28 days c) every 18 days d) at intervals of not more than one month.

7. AIP approach charts do not give information for Instrument Approach Procedures for:

a) OCA/H b) Visibility minima c) Obstacles protruding above the obstacle free zone d) DME frequencies

8. AIP supplements with extensive text and graphics cover a short period. What is a long period in this respect?

a) 1 yr b) 2 months c) 3 months d) 6 months

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9. AIRAC is:

a) A breakdown service b) Notification of operationally significant changes to the AIP c) A medical evacuation flight d) An Army Air Corps publication

10. What information is not on an aerodrome approach plate?

a) DME frequency b) OCA c) Dominant obstacles d) Operating minima if the aerodrome is being used as an alternative

11. Where in the AIP is information concerning re-fuelling facilities and services found?

a) ENR b) SUPP c) AD d) GEN

12. Where in the AIP would you find information concerning prohibited, restricted or danger areas?

a) ENR b) SUPP c) AD d) GEN

14. What is the co-efficient of braking, if the braking action is reported as medium?

a) Between. 1.0 and 0.25 b) Between 0.25 and 0.3 c) Between 0.30 and 0.35 d) Between 0.35 and 0.4

16. Aerodrome Flight Information Service (AFIS):

a) Facilitates ATC services but is not an official organisation b) only gives ATC information to an aircraft in flight and on the ground c) has the same authority and privileges as an ATC organisation, but the activities are neither

continuous or regular d) can only give limited service to its users but, in any case, cannot give ATC services

Answers to Quest ions Chapter 13 Aeronaut ica l Information Services

1 A 2 B 3 A 4 A 5A 6 D 7B 8 C 9 B 10 D 11 C 12 A 13 A 14 C 15 D 16 D 17 C

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5. A radio altimeter operating area must extend before the threshold of a precision approach runway for a distance of at least: a) 100 metres b) 200 metres c) 300 metres d) 500 metres

7. How are the runways marked at an airfield where there are three parallel runways? a) 02.03.04 b) The QDM for the third runway will be increased by 10 c) The L and R runways will have differing QDM's d) `L' `C' `R'

9. What is a stopway for? a) Stopping after landing distance b) Extending the Landing Distance Available c) Stopping after an aborted take off d) A runway extension for big aircraft

11. A transverse white stripe on a runway is associated with a: a) closed runway b) runway which is 2400 meters or longer c) displaced runway d) runway available for circling to land approaches

14. The stopway is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of the take-off run available which is prepared as a suitable area: a) To stop an aircraft after a rejected take-off b) To stop a landing aircraft in case of an emergency c) To stop a starting or landing aircraft d) To stop a landing aircraft if it overshoots the runway

15. Which of the following statements is correct? a) Taxiway markings are white and runway markings are yellow b) Numerals on aerodrome signs are reserved for runways c) A clearway has the same function as a RESA d) The pairs of touchdown zone markings are separated from each other by 120 meters

16. A PAPI system consists of a) 2 wing bars of 4 lights uniformally spaced b) 1 wing bar of 4 lights uniformally spaced c) 2 wing bars of 6 lights uniformally spaced d) 2 wing bars of 2 lights uniformally spaced

Answers to Quest ions Chapter 14 Aerodromes

1B 2 D 3 A 4 D 5C 6 D 7 D 8 D 9 C 10 A 11C 12B 13C 14 A 15B 16B

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1. How many bars are there on a full Calvert approach light system?

a) 5 b) 4 c) 3 d) 2

2. Lead in lights are:

a) Green at threshold across the runway b) White flashing in direction pointing towards the runway c) Yellow d) Steady white across the runway

4. What colour are runway end lights?

a) Unidirectional red b) Unidirectional white c) Omni directional red d) Omni directional white

5. What is the colour of threshold lighting?

a) Omni directional green b) Uni-directional green, showing in the direction of the approach c) Uni-directional white, showing in the direction of the approach d) Red uni-directional

6. On a Cat I lighting system, what is the distance between the single, double and treble lights on the extended centre-line of a runway?

a) 150 metres b) 200 metres c) 250 metres d) 300 metres

7. What colour lights are runway edge lights, not including cautionary areas or pre-displaced thresholds`?

a) Red or yellow b) White c) Yellow d) Blue

8. An aerodrome identification beacon on a land based aerodrome is:

a) blue b) white c) green d) red

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9. What colour is an aerodrome identification beacon light?

a) Flashing Green b) Flashing Green and White c) Steady Green d) Flashing White

10. What is the colour of threshold lights?

a) Steady white b) Flashing white c) Steady green d) Flashing green

11. What is the length of the approach lighting for a CAT I system?

a) 300 m b) 600 m c) 900 m d) 1200 m

14. Aerodrome information signs are:

a) Black on red, or red on black b) Yellow on red, or black on yellow c) Yellow on black, or black on yellow d) Orange on black, or black on orange

15. Taxiway edge lights are:

a) Fixed show

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