Covered Interest Arbitrages Ifm

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    IFM LBSIM

    COVERED INTEREST ARBITRAGES ---PROF DEEPAK TANDON

    CIA is the movement of short term funds between countries to take advantage of

    interest differentials with the exchange risk covered by the forward contracts .

    When investors purchase the currency of a foreign country to take advantage of

    the higher interest rates abroad , they must also consider any losses or gains .

    Such gains or losses might occur due to fluctuations in the value of the foreign

    currency prior to the maturity of their investment . Generally , the investors cover

    against such partial losses by contracting for the future sale or purchase of a

    foreign currency in the forward market . Their actions , aimed at profits from the

    interest differentials between countries , lead , to an equilibrium , to a condition of

    so called interest parity

    IRP theory = Any exchange gains / losses incurred by simultaneous purchase / sale

    in spot and forward markets are offset by interest rate differential on similarassets . Under these conditions , there is no incentive for capital to move in either

    direction bcos the effective returns on foreign and domestic assets have been

    equalized We ignore the Transaction costs for simplicity

    Forward rate reflect the differential over spot rates ,=Difference of Intt rates in

    Home & Foreign Country

    Borrow at one - converting in another currency = proceeds deposited in 2nd

    currency for certain period over during which forward rate differential is not

    equivalent to interest rate differential .Deal is closed after arbitrage period, by

    reconverting the foreign currency proceeds and earning the difference as profit

    Net gain = Interest rate differential discount / premium on sale of foreign currency

    in the forward market . (IRDiffential>Forward Discount }

    LHS =(1+rh)

    RHS =F/S *(1+rf) LHS is not = RHS ---- Arbitrage exists

    If LHS

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    If LHS > RHS ,one would borrow , foreign currency , convert receipts to

    domestic currency at a prevailing rate ( Spot ), invest in domestic currency

    denominated securities ( as domestic securities carry higher interest ) . At the

    same time he would cover his principal and interest from this investment at

    the forward rate . At maturity , he would convert the proceeds of the

    domestic investment at the prefixed domestic forward rate and payoff theforeign liability . The difference between receipts and payments serve as

    profit to customer .

    EXAMPLE

    Assume that currently , the spot rate is $1.50/Pd Stg and 3 MF is $1.52/Pd Stg . The

    3 month Intt Rate is 8.00%p.a in US and 5.8% p.a in UK .Assumethat ewe

    canborrow as much as $ 15,00,000 or Pd Stg 10,00,000. Rh=2.0% anfrf=1.45%

    IRP

    (1+rh)=F/sX(1+rf)

    1.02($return ) is not equal to RHS (1.0145) ( 1.52/1.50) = 1.0280 PD Return

    Since RHS >LHS We invest in Pound Stg

    Arbitrage Process

    STEP 1 : Borrow $15,00,000, Repayment will be 15,30,000 @2%

    STEP 2 : Buy Pd Stg 10,00,000spot using $ 15,00,000

    STEP 3 : Invest Pd Stg 10,00,000at pd interest rate maturity value Pd Stg

    10,14,500 {1.45%}

    STEP 4 : Sell Pd Stg 10,14,500 Forward for $ 15,42,040 {1PD Stg=$1.52}

    Arbitrage profit will be

    $ 15,42,040 -15,30,000=$ 12,040

    Let us now examine that the Money Market and Forex Markets change post

    arbitrage . Following arbitrage , Dollar rate will rise, ( as more $ are borrowed ) andthe Pound sterling rate will fall ( as there will be more inflows ), the spot rate will

    rise ( as more pounds are bought in Spot market ) the forward exchange rate will

    fall , because of more pounds being sold in the forward market . These adjustments

    will continue until IRP is established

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    ATTEMPT QUESTION

    The annual interest rate in US is 5% and 8% in UK , The spot rate is Pd /$ =1.50 and

    Forward exchange rate , with One year maturity is Pd /$ =1.48 . In view of the fact

    that the arbitrager can borrow $ 1000000 at the current spot rate , what would be

    the arbitrageur profit / Loss ?

    HINT LHS not equal to RHS - arbitrage there

    1.05 not equal 0.987X(1.08)=1.0656($return)

    LHS Lower , borrowing in Dollars Converted in Pd Stg and invested

    Borrowing = 1000000 at rate 5% in 12 M ==1.05x 1000000=1050000

    $ 1000000 converted in Pd Stg at spot rate =Pd 666667

    Deposit this at 12 m-------Pd Stg 720000 Convert this back in $ = $ 1065600

    Our Net Arbitrage profit = $ 1065600 1050000=$15600 ANS

    _____________________________________________________________

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