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Endurance Sports Nutrition CORRESPONDENCE EDUCATION PROGRAM #95.

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Learning Objectives:

Endurance Sports Nutrition

After reading Endurance Sports Nutrition 3rd Ed, the participant will be able to:

1. Know and understand the basics of nutrition geared for the endurance athlete. 2. Understand how to meet the energy needs of various distance events as well as their energy source. 3. Understand and explain the body fat to lean mass ratios and the ideal ranges for various athletes. 4. Understand the importance of various foods and supplemental sources, as well as how to safely use the supplemental sources. 5. Be able to identify those at risk for eating disorders, anemia, and food intolerances. 6. Provide insight into the proper nutrition for vegetarian athletes. 7. Implement proper hydration and refueling needs for short-range and long distance events. 8. Provide recommendations for the ultraendurance athlete and those events that last for multiple days or multiple events. 9. Know and implement strategies to avoid dehydration, hyponatremia, hypothermia and other environmental condition effects to your athlete.


CE Test for Endurance Sports Nutrition Choose the best answer. Mark all answers on the answer sheet. 1. How many food groups are included in the My Plate program?

A. 3 B. 5 C. 4 D. 6 2. One serving of bread is: A. The same as one serving of popcorn B. Two slices of bread C. One slice of bread D. ½ of a slice of bread 3. Which of the following is NOT considered an example of discretionary calories? A. Pudding B. Beer C. French fries D. Soda 4. Your 65 kg client trains 5-6 days per week for 90 minutes each day. What are his estimated caloric needs? A. 3575 calories B. 2288 calories C. 2860 calories D. 3000 calories 5. Complex carbohydrates are: A. Corn B. The 2nd highest servings are the food guide pyramid C. Not the best choice for carbohydrates D. The second choice for fuel after protein 6. What percentage of calories should come from carbohydrates for the endurance athlete? A. 80% B. 70% C. 60% D. 50%


7. What percentage of calories should come from protein for the endurance athlete? A. Up to 20% B. Up to 30% C. 20% and higher

D. 40%

8. All of the following are functions of nutritional fat in our diet EXCEPT: A. It helps to absorb vitamins B and C B. It helps to transport vitamins A, D, E, K C. It helps us to feel satisfied when we eat D. It helps to ensure that we get enough linoleic acid 9. Taking a multi-vitamin may: A. Definitely ensure that we get our required nutrients B. Supply all of our nutritional needs C. Help us to get most nutrients D. Help us to get enough fiber in our diet 10. What is the difference between total fat and calories from fat? A. Total fat tells you calories from fat B. Calories from fat are more accurate C. Calories from fat tell you how fatty the food is D. Total fat tells you how fatty the food is 11. Which fruit or vegetable is the best source of vitamin C? A. Apples B. Sweet potatoes C. Bananas D. Broccoli 12. Foods that block the absorption of iron are: A. Orange juice B. Coffee C. Dark green leafy vegetables D. Peanut butter 13. After what age do we stop building bone density? A. 35 B. 25 C. 20 D. 40 14. Which statement is TRUE about fat? A. Monounsaturated fats are best B. Trans fats are best C. Saturated fats are best D. Saturated fats increase HDL cholesterol


15. Muscle is mostly made up of: A. Protein B. Phospholipids C. Water D. ATP 16. How much of your daily intake of fluids should be water in order to prevent kidney stones and

other health issues? A. 2 cups B. 6 cups C. 8 cups D. 4 cups 17. What is the most concentrated source of energy in the body? A. Protein B. Fat C. Complex carbohydrates D. Simple carbohydrates 18. Which nutrient helps to save the glycogen reserves? A. Protein B. Fat C. Complex carbohydrates D. Simple carbohydrates 19. Which nutrient helps provide energy in the late phases of endurance exercise? A. Protein B. Fat C. Complex carbohydrates D. Simple carbohydrates 20. Which energy system uses up most of the ATP within 1-2 minutes and only makes about 2 ATP at a time? A. Aerobic B. Phosphocreatine C. Glycolysis D. Oxidative 21. During light to moderate activity, which fuel source is used the most? A. Fat B. Glucose C. Creatine D. Glycogen


22. What determines the proportion of fuel sources used during exercise? A. Time B. Intensity and duration C. Glucose D. Krebs Cycle 23. What fuel source is mostly utilized in anaerobic exercise? A. Glycogen B. Protein C. Fat D. Glucose 24. What is the primary limitation in performance as related to nutrition? A. Limited carbohydrate stores B. Limited fat stores C. Limited protein stores D. Limited creatine stores 25. Which of the following is FALSE concerning VO2max? A. It measures how well our bodies use oxygen at the cellular level B. It is an indicator of cardiovascular fitness C. VO2 max is genetically determined and cannot change D. It is the point at which oxygen can no longer be consumed 26. Higher lactate thresholds will: A. Cause you to need less oxygen in your activities B. Cause you to need more oxygen in your activities C. Increase the buildup of lactic acid thus limiting your endurance D. Causes you to use more energy 27. All of the following are ways to enhance the body’s use carbohydrates EXCEPT: A. Consume carbohydrates during long activities B. Avoiding eating right after exercise in order to burn more calories C. Eat a high carbohydrate training diet D. Eat 3-4 grams of carbohydrates per pound of body weight 28. By eating high levels of carbohydrates during exercise you: A. Are operating in your carbohydrate window B. Preventing large releases of cortisol C. Increasing the release of cortisol for better function D. Increasing your carbohydrate 8-10 grams/pound 3 days in advance 29. Which statement is FALSE concerning sodium? A. Sodium helps increase the rate that carbohydrates empty from the stomach B. Sodium helps increase the rate at which fluid empties from the stomach C. High levels of sodium content allows the body to remain better hydrated without the need for liquids D. Sodium in sports drinks help replace sodium lost through sweat


30. Which exerciser is better able to tap into their fat stores for energy? A. Obese individuals B. Individuals new to exercise C. Very deconditioned individuals D. Highly fit individuals 31. Types of fats that can be easily broken down by the body which can enhance endurance performance are: A. Long chain triglycerides B. Medium chain triglycerides C. Trans fats D. Saturated fats 32. How much protein should your 175 lb. endurance athlete consume per day? A. 315 g B. 157 g C. 140 g D. 115 g 33. What are BCAA’s? A. Amino acids that may help block mental fatigue B. Amino acids that may negatively affect performance C. Amino acids that cannot be converted into glucose D. Amino acids that have many studies proving their effectiveness in endurance competition 34. Why do people tend to lose weight quickly on high protein diets? A. Because ketosis is prevented B. Because glycogen stores are increased C. Because the calories are reduced D. Because carbohydrates cause weight gain 35. All of the following occur during a good endurance training program EXCEPT: A. Resting heart rate decreases B. Mitochondria in muscles increase C. Cardiac output increases D. Lactate thresholds decrease 36. American College of Sports Medicine states that body fat for females should not go below: A. 12% B. 10% C. 9% D. 5% 37. In understanding underwater weighing, which statement is FALSE? A. Weighing more underwater means a higher body fat percentage B. It is the traditional gold standard for measuring body fat percentage C. Air in the lungs is exhales before going underwater D. All other methods of measure body fat percent errors are based on this method


38. Which method is quickly becoming the new gold standard for measuring body fat percentage? A. Bioelectrical Impedance B. Bod Pod C. Skinfold calipers D. Dual-energy X-ray 39. Which method is not accurate for athletes? A. Hydrostatic weighing B. Bioelectrical Impedance C. Skinfold calipers D. Bod pod 40. Which statement is FALSE concerning body fat analysis for athletes? A. Body fat is needed in order to help with the production of sex hormones B. Studies have been shown that performance can decline if body fat levels drop below 16% for females under the age of 55. C. Body fat standards for athletes have been established by the American College of Sports Medicine D. Ideal body fat percentages for athletes vary depending on the sport 41. If an endurance athlete is trying to lose weight, she should NOT: A. Eat breakfast B. Eat real food C. Reduce calories by 500 per day to lose 1 lb. per week D. Pay attention to serving sizes 42. Sports foods should be: A. Avoided in the off-season B. Continued in the off-season C. Increased in the off season D. Maintained in the off season 43. In order to gain weight in a healthy way, an athlete should: A. Eat smaller, high calorie meals B. Increase calories but decrease strength training to decrease basal metabolic rate C. Double up on protein, but keep carbohydrates the same D. Use liquid meals products for snacks like smoothies 44. A characteristic of disordered eating is: A. Eating less than 200 calories per day B. Strictly adhering to instructions on prepackaged meals and diets C. Being severely underweight D. Having discolored teeth from vomiting


45. Which statement is TRUE when considering the glycemic index of foods? A. Low glycemic foods are best after exercise B. High glycemic foods are best before exercise C. Low glycemic foods are best before exercise D. Medium glycemic foods are best before exercise 46. All of the following are good rules of thumb to consider for when to eat vs. exercise EXCEPT: A. The longer before exercise the more you can eat B. Liver glycogen stores stay fairly steady while sleeping C. The shorter you have before exercising, you should eat more carbohydrates D. Eating at least 1 hour prior to exercise will help maintain glucose and insulin levels 47. Physiological problems that can occur due to dehydration include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Waste products build up B. Heart pumps less blood C. Muscles receive less oxygen D. Heart rate decreases 48. Which statement is TRUE about getting enough fluids? A. An athlete really only needs to drink before and after exercise only B. Sports drinks are best for exercise lasting less than 60 minutes C. Colder fluids are best because they take longer to empty from the stomach D. Sports drinks should contain between 6-8% carbohydrates 49. What is hyponatremia? A. Low blood iron levels B. Low blood sodium levels C. A problem for athletes who compete in cold weather environments D. A problem that is caused by sports drinks when taken for short bouts of exercise 50. Methods of determining whether you are properly hydrated include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Make sure your rings are not tight on your fingers after exercise B. Urine should be pale yellow C. Weigh yourself before and after exercise in order to make sure you have only lost a couple of pounds D. Check your body fat percentage before and after exercise 51. Your client weighed 157 lbs prior to exercise. After a long endurance training, he weighed in at

154 lbs. He drank 1 liter of water during his 2 hours of training. What is his individual hourly sweat rate?

A. 16 ounces/hour B. 0.8 liters/hour C. 32 ounces/hour D. 1.25 liters/hour


52. All of the following are good tips when it comes to refueling and rehydrating EXCEPT: A. Proper timing to replace fluids is when you are thirsty B. Drinking sports drinks during intense exercise helps to improve immune functions C. Drinking fruit juices during exercise can lead to cramps D. Pouring water over your head does not help with rehydration 53. The best drink to get ample carbohydrates and fluids during exercise lasting longer than 60 minutes is: A. High-carb drinks B. Water C. Sports drinks D. Liquid food supplements 54. If you will be exercising at a moderate to fast pace for more than 90 minutes, the best time to begin refueling to delay fatigue is: A. The first 15 minutes after completing your exercise B. The first 30 minutes after completing your exercise C. The first 30 minutes of your exercise D. 60 minutes into your exercise 55. The most important electrolyte for endurance athletes is: A. Magnesium B. Sodium C. Potassium D. Calcium 56. The most important fuel to replace when exercising in cold weather is: A. Muscle glycogen B. Calories C. Protein D. Water 57. Which of the following is not a good option for blood sugar that is too low? A. Diet soda B. Jelly Belly Sport Beans C. Fruit juice D. Hard candy 58. What is the appropriate amount to drink post exercise? A. 8 ounces/lb lost during exercise B. 16 ounces/lb lost during exercise C. 20 ounces/lb lost during exercise D. 24 ounces/lb lost during exercise


59. In order to best refuel after an endurance training or event, it is best to: A. Drink 30 grams of carbohydrates as soon as you can after completing the event/training followed by a well balanced meal within 1 hour B. Eat 30 grams of carbohydrates as soon as you can after completing the event/training followed by a well balanced meal within 1 hour C. Drink until you are no longer thirsty or are able to urinate, followed by a well balanced meal within 2 hours D. Eat 50 grams of carbohydrates as soon as you can after completing the event/training followed by a well balanced meal within 2 hours 60. In order to get the appropriate amount of protein post-race, you can: A. Eat a piece of chicken about the size of a deck of cards B. Eat a ripe banana C. Eat a bowl of oatmeal D. Eat a bowl of tomato soup 61. All of the following are appropriate suggestions 1 week before the endurance event EXCEPT: A. Rest completely for at least 1 day B. Continue your normal training routine while eating more carbohydrates C. Consume up to 5 grams of carbohydrates per pound of body weight D. Continue the high carbohydrate diet for about 3 days 62. Which statement is FALSE concerning carbo-loading? A. Low fat/high carbohydrate snacks are those that contain at least 4 grams of carbs for every gram of fat B. Adding an energy bar or supplement is helpful C. Carbo-loading will help you maintain your pace longer D. Carbo-loading will help you perform faster 63. All of the following are early signs of dehydration EXCEPT: A. Flushed skin B. Loss of appetite C. Tolerating heat D. production of only small amounts of dark urine 64. Which of the following is not a good thing to do the day before the event? A. Avoid eating right before bed B. Avoid high fiber foods C. Avoid beans, broccoli, and radishes D. Avoid raw fruits and vegetables 65. Which of the following is not recommended the morning of the event? A. Include higher fat foods in your pre-race meal B. If you prefer to eat right before the event, it’s best to eat a high fat food C. Try to eat 50 g of carbs each hour before the event D. Eat 1-4 hours prior to the event


66. When out hiking, it is best to: A. Avoid spices in foods B. Avoid buttery foods C. Keep your foods near the top of your backpack D. Avoid chocolates and high fatty foods 67. When viewing the Australian Sports Commission suggestions for using supplements, the foundation of properly using supplements is to: A. Proper rehydration will only help performance about 1-3% of the time B. Ergogenic supplements are the best ways to boost performance C. Get most of your nutrients from vitamins D. Eat real foods that are healthy 68. Possible side effects of energy bars and gels are: A. The compromising of overall nutritional intake B. Reduction of GI distress C. Weight gain D. Sodium imbalances 69. Possible problems with liquid food supplements include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Dehydration B. Nutrient deficiencies C. Weight loss D. GI problems 70. All of the following are true about multivitamins EXCEPT: A. Food is better than a multivitamin B. It is best to take a multivitamin on an empty stomach for the best absorption C. Most multivitamins contain very little calcium D. Multivitamins may be warranted for someone who is lactose intolerant 71. The vitamin that must be combined with calcium in order to further absorption is: A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin B C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin D 72. A possible side effect of excessive vitamin E is: A. Hyponatremia B. Kidney stones C. Excessive bleeding D. Hemochromatosis 73. Consuming large amounts of caffeine can lead to: A. Hyponatremia B. Improved iron absorption C. Problems trying to conceive D. Hemochromatosis


74. Which statement is TRUE about caffeine? A. Caffeine is on the list of banned substances for the Olympics B. Caffeine is on the list of banned substances for the NCAA C. There is evidence that caffeine will improve performance D. Caffeine and ephedrine together is safe to use 75. Glucosamine is: A. Considered a cure for arthritis B. Proven to repair cartilage even when there is little left C. Best used with a dosage of 500 mg up to 3 times per day D. Proven in long term studies to be more effective than ibuprofen 76. Quercetin is: A. known for its anti-inflammatory responses B. A supplement where the benefits are greater in cold weather C. A supplement that increases urine output D. Not safe to use 77. Which statement is FALSE concerning MCT? A. Consuming MCT’s during endurance activities will improve performance B. MCT’s is unsafe for those with diabetes C. MCT oil lacks essential fatty acids D. MCT’s benefits on lowering body has only been shown in animal studies 78. What is glutamine? A. An amino acid that helps replenish ATP faster B. A triglyceride that helps to maintain body hydration C. An amino acid that becomes depleted during stressful times D. A supplement that helps to lessen lactic acid buildup in the muscles 79. How much creatine do people need per day? A. 20 g/day B. 10 g/day C. 5 g/day D. 2 g/day 80. What is the benefit of probiotics? A. It helps to decrease the levels of bifidobacterim bifidum B. It helps to increase hydration in the intestines C. It helps to increase the growth of good bacteria in the intestines D. It helps to induce stomach and bowel problems 81. Which of the following helps replace good intestinal bacteria when you are on an antibiotic: A. Glutamine B. Creatine Monohydrate C. Probiotic D. BCAAs


82. All of the following are facts from the Dietary Supplement Health Education Act EXCEPT: A. Manufacturers must conform to FDA standards B. Manufacturers can put health claims on their labels C. Manufacturers do not have to prove the safety of their products D. Manufacturers do not have to prove that their supplement works 83. Which muscle in the body is the most susceptible to cramps? A. Abdominal B. Hamstring C. Gastrocnemius D. Quadriceps 84. The most likely culprit of muscle cramps is: A. Mineral deficiency B. Electrolyte imbalance C. Dehydration D. Overexertion 85. Imbalances in which two electrolytes can trigger a muscle cramp? A. Potassium and calcium B. Sodium and calcium C. Potassium and magnesium D. Potassium and sodium 86. Athletic colitis may be caused by: A. Blood being shunted to exercising muscles and not so much to the colon B. Too much water C. Mineral deficiencies D. Permanent colon nerve damage due to repetitive pounding and jarring of activities 87. All of the following are signs and symptoms of anemia EXCEPT: A. Increase lactic acid buildup B. Sensitivity to heat C. Shortness of breath D. Nausea 88. All of the following may lead to lower iron levels EXCEPT: A. Low body temperatures B. Urine loss and sweat C. Menstrual blood loss D. High impact activities 89. Which statement is FALSE concerning iron levels? A. Stage 3 is also referred to as iron deficiency anemia B. Stage 1 can also be referred to as erythropoiesis C. Stage 2 can be diagnosed with a blood test D. Hemoglobin and hematocrit are normal in stage 1 and 2


90. To enhance the absorption of iron, one should: A. Take iron supplements on a full stomach with magnesium B. Take iron supplements on an empty stomach with calcium C. Take iron supplements on an empty stomach with a glass of orange juice D. Take iron supplements on a full stomach with Vitamin D 91. Which statement is TRUE concerning studies on the effectiveness of iron supplementation? A. No improvements in anaerobic threshold have been shown B. No improvements in length of exercise time have been shown C. No improvements in lactate threshold have been shown D. No improvements in VO2 max have been shown 92. What is sports anemia? A. When iron levels are increased, thus lowering ferritin levels due to exercise B. When ferritin levels are elevated due to low plasma volume C. When ferritin levels are low causing small red blood cells D. When plasma volume increases via exercise thus diluting hemoglobin levels 93. What is the difference between food allergy and food intolerance? A. The symptoms vary greatly between the two B. Food allergies involve the immune system while food intolerances do not C. Food allergies tend to have symptoms that come and go D. Food intolerances are rare 94. The Female Athlete Triad is: A. Amenorrhea, anorexia, and anemia B. Amenorrhea, disordered eating, and over exercising C. Amenorrhea, bone density issues, and disordered eating D. Amenorrhea, bulimia, and over exercising 95. Amenorrhea is defined as: A. Painful menstrual cycles for 3 consecutive months B. Heavy menstrual cycles for 3 consecutive months C. Lack of menstrual cycle for 3 consecutive months D. Low iron levels due to heavy menstrual cycles for 3 consecutive months 96. In a study by Drinkwater, et al, they found that female athletes generally have bone densities that are: A. 10-15% higher than those not involved in athletics B. 10-15% lower than those not involved in athletics C. No difference at all D. Similar to women in their 70’s and 80’s 97. Insufficient testosterone levels in males can lead to: A. Decrease bone density B. Increase bone density C. Disordered eating D. Amenorrhea


98. Which statement is TRUE about eating disorders in athletes? A. Bulimia is more likely to occur in male athletes than male non-athletes B. Anorexia is more likely to occur in male athletes than male non-athletes C. Men tend to seek help more often than females for an eating disorder D. Personality type has very little to do with who develops eating disorders 99. Typical traits of an athlete who may develop an eating disorder include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Feelings of inadequacy B. The need to feel accepted by others C. Being involved in a particular sport such as cross country running or gymnastics D. Depression or anxiety 100. All of the following are possible complications of anorexia nervosa EXCEPT: A. Laxative dependence B. Hair loss C. Lanugo D. Swollen glands 101. All of the following are possible complications of bulimia nervosa EXCEPT: A. Laxative dependence B. Electrolyte imbalances C. Edema D. Lanugo 102. The best definition of anorexia athletica is: A. When the athlete’s weight is normal, but they over exercise in order to offset the enormous amount of calories ingested B. When the athlete’s weight is normal, but they binge and vomit to maintain it C. When the original goal of performance and health deteriorate to a need to lose weight D. When long term performance is not affected by drastic changes in eating habits 103. Which statement is FALSE regarding eating disorders? A. Osteoporosis is a concern with eating disorders B. Deaths are few and far between with eating disorders C. Bulimia is not as easy to recognize as anorexia D. Chipmunk cheeks are a possible sign of bulimia 104. Which statement is TRUE about PMS? A. Allowing your blood sugar to drop may increase the symptoms of PMS B. Nutritional supplements have been shown to relieve the symptoms of PMS C. Adding sugar to your diet 2 weeks before your menstrual cycle will help decrease the symptoms of PMS D. Dehydration may make you feel fatigued, but will not make your PMS worse


105. An herbal remedy that may help reduce symptoms of PMS is: A. Green tea B. Black cohosh C. Aloe vera D. Peppermint 106. All of the following are foods to avoid during pregnancy EXCEPT: A. Luncheon meats B. Herbal supplements C. Soft cheeses D. Folate 107. The type of vegetarian that do not eat meat except for chicken, seafood, eggs, and dairy are called: A. Vegans B. Partial vegetarians C. Lacto-ovo vegetarians D. Ovo-vegetarians 108. A key nutrient that any type of vegetarian risk being deficient in are: A. Magnesium B. Vitamin E C. Zinc D. Vitamin A 109. All of the following can be common problems with vegetarians EXCEPT: A. Getting too little fiber B. Feeling full before getting enough calories C. Getting too much fat D. Getting enough iron 110. All of the following are low quality protein sources EXCEPT: A. Peas B. Soybeans C. Grains D. Nuts 111. How much iron from plant sources is absorbable for the body? A. 2-8% B. 10-20% C. 20-30% D. All of it is absorbable 112. Which food has high quantities of zinc? A. Broccoli B. Green peppers C. Oysters D. Tomatoes


113. All of the following are good sources of Vitamin D EXCEPT: A. Sun B. Egg yolks C. Sesame seeds D. Breakfast cereals 114. The only plant food that has a decent amount of vitamin B12 is: A. Soy milk B. Tempeh C. Spirulina D. Legumes 115. How many food groups should one eat at each meal? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four 116. What is the main problem with energy bars when following a healthy sports diet? A. They tend to be too high in sugar B. They tend to be too high in fiber C. They are not fortified with vitamins D. They are too low in palm kernel oil 117. Which statement is FALSE concerning sporting events lasting 90 minutes or less? A. For dinner the night before, it is best to eat familiar foods B. Make sure to eat a good breakfast the morning of the event C. Drink fluids up to 2 hours prior to the event D. It is still important to carbo-load for these events 118. Issues that will affect your risk of hypoglycemia during an event include EXCEPT: A. Weather B. Course conditions C. Amount of protein consumed during the 1st hour of activity D. Fitness level 119. Which statement is FALSE concerning fluid needs? A. Practicing grabbing a water cup while running is beneficial B. Water is not as much an issue in cold weather events C. Always empty your down-tube water bottle before your seat-tube while cycling for safety reasons D. Keep your water bottle near the top of your backpack for easy grabbing


120. Which activities are more likely to cause stomach and intestinal problems during a race? A. Multi-sport activities B. Longer, high-intensity C. Shorter, high-intensity D. Longer, moderate-intensity 121. For a tri-athlete, when is the best time to get in calories? A. The pre-event B. The swimming segment C. The running segment D. The cycling segment 122. Some endurance athletes might benefit from ingesting all of the following during their long- distance event EXCEPT: A. MCT oil B. Salt C. Caffeine D. Glycerol 123. “Bonking” refers to: A. Hyponatremia B. Hypoglycemia C. Hypothermia D. Hyperthermia 124. Which athletes are at the least risk of developing hyponatremia during a long-distance event? A. Undertrained athletes B. Female endurance athletes C. Those at the front of the pack D. Unacclimatized to the heat 125. All of the following are good rules of thumb for the pre-event meal the night before a long distance event EXCEPT: A. Include protein-rich foods B. Eat reasonably sized proportions C. Eat a lot of carbohydrates D. Plan to eat again before bedtime 126. The morning of the event, breakfast should include: A. High protein content B. High carbohydrates content C. High fat content D. Nominal fluids


127. How much fluid should an athlete consume during a long-distance event? A. 2-8 oz every 15 minutes B. 2-8 oz every 30 minutes C. Every other water station D. Plain water only, every 15 minutes 128. Weight gain during a long distance event may mean: A. That you are properly hydrated B. That you have a proper amount of glycogen stores in your muscles C. That you have lactic acid build up D. That you have over hydrated 129. All of the following are good tips for long-distance runner EXCEPT: A. It is easier to remember to drink on trail races B. Don’t wait until you are thirsty to drink C. Drink water offered instead of pouring it over your head to cool off D. Ingest gels with water 130. Which long-distance athletes have the higher fluid and energy needs? A. Skiers B. Rowers C. Marathoners D. Cyclist 131. Suggestions for mountain bike rides and races include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Set your watch alarm to remind you to drink B. Drink during easy hill climbing C. Bladder hydration systems are not generally recommended for safety reasons D. It is best to eat real food and not as much of the energy bars and gels 132. Ways to avoid getting seasick during the swim portion of a triathlon is to: A. Hydrate 1-2 hours prior to the start of the race B. Wear earplugs and breathe on both sides of your body C. Eat more fatty foods prior to the event D. Take a salt supplement prior to the race 133. All of the following are proper suggestions for marathon skiers EXCEPT: A. Save sports drinks for between feed stations B. Energy needs are lower than most sports, so approach every other feed station C. Drink early in the marathon race D. Unusual feelings of cold may be indicative of hypoglycemia 134. What is the main difference between “hitting the wall” and “bonking”? A. You may still be able to finish the race even though you have “hit the wall” B. Hitting the wall means your blood sugar has dropped to low levels C. Bonking means your glycogen stores have been depleted D. Bonking is not as serious as “hitting the wall”


135. Good tips to follow after your event include: A. Wait for your appetite to return before you eat so you don’t have stomach upset B. Alcohol after the race will enhance your recovery efforts C. Ease slowly into carbohydrate rich foods as soon as you can D. Rehydrate with mainly water since your muscles are mostly made of water 136. What is the main difference between long endurance events and ultra endurance events? A. The slower you go, the less you need calories B. The slower you go, the less you need carbohydrates C. The slower you go, the less you need to eat D. The slower you go, the more you need to eat 137. All of the following are risks in ultra endurance events EXCEPT: A. Heat exhaustion B. Hyperglycemia C. Hyponatremia D. Hypothermia 138. Which of the following is NOT a nutrition-related concern for ultra endurance athletes? A. Personality changes during the event B. Practice makes perfect C. Increased risk of kidney failure D. Flavor fatigue 139. In order to reduce the risk of GI problems during an ultra endurance event, what supplement should be avoided? A. Glycerol B. Water C. Potassium D. Protein 140. What two issues must be considered in order to supplement internal glycogen stores? A. Hyponatremia and hydration B. VO2 max and anaerobic threshold C. Rate of digestion and rate of absorption D. Kidney failure and urine output 141. What is “Flavor Fatigue”? A. Psychological personality changes that occur during the event due to types of food being eaten B. Food that can no longer be stored in the body as glycogen C. Food that suddenly becomes too sweet during the event D. Being turned off by foods and drinks that you normally tolerated or liked


142. Low blood flow to the digestive system is a common problem during ultra-endurance events. What is the best food to use when this occurs? A. Liquid foods B. Solid foods C. Sweet foods D. Bland foods 143. Eating more food in order to prevent yourself from having to eat later is: A. A technique that usually does not work B. A highly recommended thing to do C. A technique that will help increase glycogen stores D. A technique that will help prevent hyponatremia 144. Hypertonic carbohydrate-based drinks: A. Do not include most caffeinated drinks B. Can help reduce GI problems C. Take longer to empty from the stomach D. Have fructose in them which helps the GI problems 145. When myoglobin is cleared out by the kidneys, the urine color is: A. Pinkish B. Pale yellow C. Dark gold D. Brownish 146. What issue is the most common problem that interferes with stomach emptying during ultra endurance activities? A. Reduction in blood flow to the digestive system B. Mechanical trauma C. Dehydration D. Abdominal cramps 147. If taking an NSAID for pain relief during your event, what is the risk? A. Hypernatremia B. Hypoglycemia C. Fluid reduction may be required D. Severe heat and dehydration can increase the effects 148. All of the following are typical mistakes of ultrarunners EXCEPT: A. Not paying attention to low salt symptoms B. Not taking in enough calories C. Not taking in enough fluids early in the event D. Using NSAIDs too early in the race


149. How many calories should be the goal for replacement in an event like the Ironman Triathlon? A. 70-75% B. 30-50 % C. 3-5% D. Close to 100% 150. Many athletes in the Ironman Triathlon end up drinking too much water too early in the bike leg because: A. The saltwater from the swimming portion of the leg before gives them dry mouth B. Because it is the longest portion of the event C. Their hydration systems are too conveniently located D. They are better able to keep an eye on their urination frequency and overcompensate 151. A good guideline to follow for urination frequency during an Ironman triathlon is: A. Twice every hour B. once every 2 hours C. At each transition location D. It varies from person to person 152. All of the following are guidelines to consuming electrolyte fluids after the ultra endurance event EXCEPT: A. Reduce the intake of tomato soups, broth, and other such liquids B. Consume these fluids until your urine is clear and at normal frequency C. Consume these fluids the first several days post event D. Consume these fluids until your digestive system is back to normal 153. All of the following are benefits to front-mounted hydration systems on the bike EXCEPT: A. Prevents the cyclist from dropping the bottle B. It allows for the cyclist to take sips instead of gulps C. It balances the weight of the bike better to have it on the front instead of on the back D. They are easily refillable while riding 154. After an ultra-endurance event and following proper guidelines, how long might complete recovery take? A. 3-5 days B. 2-3 weeks C. 1 month D. Several months 155. The greatest challenge for multi-day athletes is: A. Injuries B. Appropriate timing of eating vs. competing C. Rest/sleep D. Connecting with support crews


156. When you compete in relay events in mulit-day events, what is your primary fuel source? A. Fats B. Protein C. Carbohydrates D. Triglycerides 157. A good rule to follow for carbohydrate consumption during a multi-day or multi-leg event is: A. Ingest 10-20 oz every 30 minutes B. Ingest 30-60 g every break C. Ingest 5-10 oz every 20 minutes D. Ingest 60 g every break 158. When is it ok to eat closer to an event? A. During the cycling component due to less jarring B. When the event is a shorter more intense event C. When the event begins with swimming D. When the event is a longer slower effort event 159. The most important time of the carbohydrate window for replenishing glycogen stores for ultra endurance athletes begins when? A. The first 15 minutes after completing the event B. The first 10 minutes after completing the event C. The first 5 minutes after completing the event D. Immediately upon completion of the event 160. Which type of food absorbs faster and lessens the risk of GI problems during continuous ultra endurance events? A. Solids B. Liquids C. Pasty D. Puree’ 161. All of the following help to regulate your internal hydration needs EXCEPT: A. Mouth B. Brain C. Kidneys D. Liver 162. Symptoms of advanced hyponatremia include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Cessation of sweating B. Coma C. Seizures D. Loss of coordination


163. Dehydration is one reason we slow or stop urinating. What is another cause that can occur during prolonged continuous exercise? A. Blocked urinary valve B. Vomiting C. Cramping D. Bloating issues elsewhere in the body 164. If an athlete has gained weight during the ultra endurance event, but is also vomiting, and not urinating, what may be the problem? A. Over-heated B. Dehydration C. Vasopressin hormone dysfunction D. Hyponatremic 165. Which food has the highest amount of sodium content? A. Sports drinks B. V8 tomato juice C. 1/8 tsp of salt D. 1 oz of pretzels 166. A hormone in the body that normally helps to retain sodium is: A. ACTH B. Albuterol C. Aldosterone D. Cortisol 167. During exercise, how do we mainly lose sodium? A. Pounding activities B. Urine and sweat C. Decrease in levels of hormones D. Loss of glycogen stores in muscles 168. When coming up with a plan for fluid, calorie, and electrolyte replacement, it is best to: A. Follow what the elite athletes do B. Follow your teammates’ plan C. Follow recommendations in magazines D. Practice your own regimen 169. A common mistake that ultra endurance athletes make is: A. Researching local cuisine if out of the country B. Choosing teammates and support people carefully C. Failure to deviate from their regular plan if it is not working D. Staying calm and experimenting when things need to change


170. When an athlete is showing signs of bloating during an event, they should: A. ingest 300-500 mg of sodium and repeat in 10-15 minutes B. Ingest a sports drink high in glucose C. Drink more fluids D. Lower the sodium content 171. The crew members of your cycling team should not: A. Baby sit the riders B. Keep logs C. Be concerned about their own food intake since they are not exercising D. Recognize the symptoms of bonking 172. One of the issues unique to rowers that can lead to bonking or other issues during the event is: A. The salt water spray may cause them to become dehydrated B. They must meet body weight standards C. They use more of their total body than other sports D. They need fewer carbs because they are not weight bearing 173. The rowers that run the greatest risk of glycogen store depletion early in a race are: A. The ones who have trouble making weight B. The underweight C. The ones who carbo-load the night before D. The ones who are dehydrated 174. The most common nutrition mistake seen in rowers is: A. Eating energy gels between races B. Using energy gels and sports drinks C. Eating too many carbs before the race D. Cutting out entire food groups to make weight 175. Nutrition concerns in cold, open water long distance swimming include: A. Extra fluids and fuel for cold water races B. Skipping feeds if you feel fine so you don’t cramp C. Avoid solid foods during the race since it increases GI upset D. Drink only water for events longer than 90 minutes 176. Fatigue and minor loss of strength can occur at what percentage of dehydration? A. 7-10% B. 5-6% C. 3-4% D. 1-2% 177. How long does it take to become acclimatized to the heat? A. 3 weeks B. 1-3 days C. 1-2 weeks D. 1 month


178. Suggestions when exercising in the heat and humidity include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Wearing loose fitted clothing B. Wearing dark colored clothing C. Taking longer rest breaks D. Finding shady routes 179. Rhabdomylosis is defined as: A. Coma related to heat illness B. Degeneration of skeletal muscle C. Blood clotting due to severe dehydration D. A core body temperature greater than 105 degrees 180. Difficulty swallowing, sunken eyes, dim vision, delirium, and shriveled skin are all signs of: A. Advanced dehydration B. Early dehydration C. Advanced hyponatremia D. Early hyponatremia 181. Which statement is TRUE concerning heat cramps? A. The ability to sweat is compromised B. It is the 2nd stage of heat illnesses C. Low minerals are usually the cause D. Core body temperature is elevated 182. Which statement is FALSE concerning heat exhaustion? A. Chills may be a sign of heat exhaustion B. Permanent damage to the CNS is a great risk C. Blood volume is decreased D. Results from dehydration 183. Which statement is TRUE concerning heat stroke? A. The skin feels damp B. The thermoregulatory system in the brain is still working to try to cool the body C. Heat stroke can occur in cool environments D. Lack of sleep is not a risk for developing heat stroke 184. Hypothermia is: A. Is an increase in body core temperature B. Can only occur in extreme cold weather C. A risk during the 2nd half of a long race D. Is only a problem in the winter months 185. Muscular strength is lost when: A. Glycogen stores are depleted in the fast twitch muscles while skiing B. Glycogen stores are depleted in the slow twitch muscles while skiing C. Glycogen stores in the leg muscles are depleted while skiing D. Temperatures dip below 32 degrees F.


186. Two nutritional issues that increase your risk of becoming hypothermic are: A. Dehydration and hyponatremia B. Dehydration and hypoglycemia C. Hypoglycemia and hyponatremia D. Low protein and low fat 187. Traveling too fast at higher elevations may cause: A. Breathing to slow down, thus decreasing oxygen in your bloodstream B. Increase in plasma volume which increases heart rate C. Trouble sleeping and loss of appetite D. Increased sweating and dehydration 188. When blood plasma volume drops due to altitude, you: A. Will die B. Will experience an increase in heart rate C. Will become sleepy D. Will have more oxygen available and acclimatize to the altitude 189. How long does it generally take to acclimatize to 6000-8000 ft in altitude? A. 1-3 days B. 1 week C. 2 weeks D. 1 month 190. The main problem with high altitude is: A. Lower percentage of oxygen in the air B. Decreased atmospheric pressure C. Increased atmospheric pressure D. Increased pressure in your bloodstream 191. Acute exposure to altitudes above 9000 ft can result in: A. A rise in metabolic rate B. A decrease in metabolic rate C. Death D. Serious lack of oxygen in the air 192. A mineral that will benefit a person at high altitudes is: A. Sodium B. Potassium C. Iron D. Magnesium 193. All of the following are important to remember at high altitudes EXCEPT: A. Sweet tasting foods may taste sweeter at high altitudes B. High altitudes can increase fluid loss C. If nauseated, you should still eat D. It is very important to still follow the 60-20-20 rule for carbs, protein, and fats


194. Which vitamin or mineral helps to get energy from protein, carbs, and fat while promoting healthy skin? A. Niacin B. Thiamin C. Vitamin B 12 D. Phosphorus 195. Good food sources of folate are: A. Lean meats B. Dairy products C. Dark green leafy vegetables D. Citrus fruits 196. Vitamin A is found in all of the following foods EXCEPT: A. Red meats B. Liver C. Milk D. Orange and red vegetables 197. The function of magnesium is to: A. Repair cells B. help with neuromuscular contractions C. Maintain mucous membranes D. Form red blood cells 198. What foods are the better sources for copper? A. Dark green leafy vegetables B. Legumes C. Organ meats D. Shellfish 199. The function of molybdenum is: A. Improve immune system function B. To synthesize hemoglobin C. Help with protein metabolism D. help with carbohydrate metabolism 200. Which nutrient helps regulate growth and development rate? A. Selenium B. Vit B C. Manganese D. Iodine

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CORRESPONDENCE EDUCATION PROGRAM #95.exerciseetc.com/file/endurance-sports-nutrtion-third-ed-2013.pdf · After you have completed the book, ... before you close out your testing session