Loreto Convent Tara Hall School Sample paper Class 10, Painting

Code -049

Time: 2Hr Max.Marks :30

INSTRUCTIONS-All questions are compulsory and carry equal

marks (2).

SECTION-FIRST

Q.1). Which of the following statements are true

a)

1. The secondary colours are orange green and violet.

2. The secondary colours are yellow blue and red.

3. The secondary colours are red yellow and green.

4. The secondary colours are green orange and blue.

b)

1. Darkness of a colour is called tone.

2. Lightness of a colour is called tone.

3. Darkness and lightness of a colour is called tone.

4. Intensity of a colour is called tone.

c)

1. Unity,harmony,balance and rhythm are principles of art.

2. Unity,harmony,balance and texture are principles of art.

3. Unity,harmony,balance and form are principles of art.

4. Unity,harmony,balance and space are principles of art.

d)

1. A pyramid has three sides.

2. A pyramid has four sides.

3. A pyramid has five sides.

4. A pyramid has six sides.

e)

1. Brown stands for ‘B’ in VIBGYOR.

2. Beige stans for ‘B’ in VIBGYOR.

3. Blue stands for ‘B’ in VIBGYOR.

4. Black stands for ‘B’ in VIBGYOR.

SECTION-SECOND

Q1 Answer any three of the following questions.

a) Name any four materials of paintings and mention their

merits .

b) Write down the colours in VIBGYOR.

c) Which type of pencils are used in drawing and shading ?

d) What is the difference between water colours and the

poster colours ?

SECTION-THIRD

It is compulsory to anser both questions –

a) In a still life, what are the elements and principles which

need to be taken care of ?

b) Name any three surfaces for painting. Which surface

would you prefer and why ?

SECTION-FOURTH

Answer any one question

a) Mention the names of any four elements .

b) Mention the names of any four principles of painting.

SECTION-FIFTH

Q1 Write a short essay on any of the following one –

a) Kailash Natha Temple

b) Ashokan lion Capital

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DAV PUBLIC SCHOOL NEW SHIMLA

PRE-BOARD EXAM (2020-21)

CLASS - X

Science (086) Theory

Time:3Hours Maximum Marks:80

General Instructions:

(i) The question paper comprises four sections A, B, C and D. There are 36 questions in

the question paper. All questions are compulsory.

(ii) Section–A - question no. 1 to 20 - all questions and parts thereof are of one mark each.

These questions contain multiple choice questions (MCQs), very short answer

questions and assertion - reason type questions. Answers to these should be given in

one word or one sentence.

(iii) Section–B - question no. 21 to 26 are short answer type questions, carrying 2 marks

each. Answers to these questions should in the range of 30 to 50words.

(iv) Section–C - question no. 27 to 33 are short answer type questions, carrying 3 marks

each. Answers to these questions should in the range of 50 to 80words.

(v) Section–D – question no. - 34 to 36 are long answer type questions carrying 5 marks

each. Answer to these questions should be in the range of 80 to 120words.

(vi) There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some

questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.

(vii) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.

SECTION A

No. Questions Marks

1 List any two observations when hydrated CuSO4 is heated in a dry test tube?

OR

Why is soap solution used during the experiment when dil HCl acid reacts with

Zinc granules?

1

2 Write the chemical name and chemical formula of the salt which is used for

disinfecting drinking water to make it free of germs and as a bleaching agent in

textile industries.

1

3 Which of the following is not a homologous series? Give reason for your

choice.

a) CH4, C2H6, C3H7

b) C2H2, C3H4, C4H6

c) CH3OH, C2H5OH,C3H7OH

1

4 Why do stars twinkle? 1

2

5 When do we say that the power of a lens is one Dioptre? 1

6 The image formed by a convex lens is observed to be virtual, erect and larger

than the object. Where is the object placed?

OR

What type of image is formed by a concave lens when the object is kept at

infinity?

1

7 In the arrangement shown in figure, which rule will be used to find the

direction of magnetic field lines? State the rule.

1

8 Draw the diagram of a Solenoid. 1

9 Which type of arrangement of resistors is preferred at home, series or parallel?

Give reason to support your answer

OR

Why do we connect ammeter in series and voltmeter in parallel to resistors in

an electric circuit?

1

10 Why does Human Heart have four chambers? 1

11 How is the Alveolus designed to maximize the exchange of gases?

OR

What is the nature of digested food when it goes from Stomach to Duodenum

of the Small intestine? Give reason.

1

12 Explain how the pesticides enter a food chain and subsequently get into our

body.

OR

Which food chain is better, short or long. Give reason.

1

13 State the role of Ptyalin (salivary amylase) in the digestion of food. 1

For question numbers 14, 15 and 16, two statements are given- one labeled Assertion (A) and the

other labeled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c)

and (d) as given below:

a) Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of the assertion.

b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

c) A is true, but R is false.

d) A is false, but R is true.

14 Assertion: After passing excess of CO2, the solution of Calcium hydroxide

becomes clear

Reason: Calcium hydroxide reacts with excess of Carbon dioxide to form

Calcium Hydrogen Carbonate.

1

15 Assertion: Light travelling from air into glass slab bends away from the normal.

Reason: Light moves faster in the air than in the glass slab.

OR

Assertion: The image formed can be equal in size to that of the object in case

of the convex lens.

Reason: When the object is placed at 2F1 of the convex lens.the image is

formed at 2F2.

.

1

16 Assertion: The size of all the pea plants in F1 generation is tall in the

monohybrid cross.(Mendel’s experiment)

Reason: Acquired characters can be transferred from one generation to another.

1

Answer Q. No 17 - 20 contain five sub-parts each. You are expected to answer any four sub-

parts in these questions.

17 Read the following and answer any four questions from 17 (i) to 17 (v)

Within the lungs, the passage divides into smaller and smaller tubes which

finally terminate in balloon like structures which are called Alveoli.The

Alveoli provide a surface where the exchange of gases can take place.The

walls of the Alveoli contain an extensive network of blood vessels. As we

have seen in earlier years, when we breathe in we lift our ribs and flatten our

Diaphragm, and chest cavity becomes larger as a result. The blood brings

carbon dioxide from the rest of the body for release into the Alveoli.

1x4

17 (i) What is the nature of the blood that the Alveoli transfer to the heart?

a) Oxygenated

b) Deoxygenated

c) Low in Oxygen

d) Impure

3

4

17 (ii) Alveolus has –

a) A thick wall

b) A thin wall.

c) An impermeable membrane.

d) A moderately thick wall

17 (iii) If the Alveolar sac of the lungs is spread, it would cover approximately-

a. 20 m2 of area

b. 15 m2 of area

c. 80 m2 of area

d. 40 m2 of area

17(iv) The lungs always contain sufficient volume of air so that they get enough time to

absorb Oxygen, this volume is known as-

i) residual volume

ii) critical volume

iii) lung volume

iv) tidal volume

a) i) ,ii)only

b) i) only

c) ii), iii), iv)only

d) iv) only

17 (v) Alveoli receive deoxygenated blood from the Heart through-

a) Pulmonary vein

b) Pulmonary artery

c) Hepatic vein

d) Hepatic artery

18 Read the following and answer any four questions from 18 (i) to 18 (v).

Ionic compounds are solids and are somewhat hard. They are generally soluble

in water. These ionic compounds do not conduct electricity in their solid state,

but can conduct the electricity in the molten form. Ionic compounds are formed

as a result of strong forces of attraction between cations and anions.

1x 4

18 (i) Which attractive forces are present between the oppositely charged ions?

a) Electrovalent

b) Ionic

c) a and b

d) only a

5

18 (ii)

As the ionic forces are present in the Ionic compounds -

a) They are solids with low m.p. and b.p.

b) They are soft with high m.p. but low b.p.

c) They are rigid with high electrical conductivity in the molten state

d) They are solids with high solubility in the covalent compounds

18 (iii) Which of the following is not an ionic compound-

a) LiF

b) AlCl3

c) AgCl

d) CO2

18 (iv) Identify the reason why electrovalent compounds conduct electricity in the

solution form-

a) Because ions form an association

b) Because electrons cannot move

c) Because of free mobile electrons

18 (v) Kerosene does not dissolve ionic compounds-

a) It does not have ions

b) It does not have free ions

c) It is a covalent compound

d) All the three

19 Read the following and answer any four questions from 19 (i) to 19 (v)

Refraction is the phenomenon of bending of ray of light when it enters from

an optically rarer medium into an optically denser medium and vice versa,

due to the change in its speed. Refraction takes place through spherical

lenses. A Convex lens converges the rays of light passing through it whereas

a concave lens diverges the rays of light passing through it. The image of the

object is formed where the refracted rays intersect after refraction. In case of

mirrors, as one surface is polished, it is the phenomenon of reflection of light

that takes place through a mirror. Reflection is the phenomenon of bouncing

back of rays of light when they fall on an opaque surface. Power of a lens is

defined as the reciprocal of its focal length. In case of a plane mirror the size

of the image is equal to the size of the image.

1x 4

6

19 (i) When the converging power of the eye lens decreases, the lens used to correct

the defect is-

a) Concave lens

b) Convex lens

c) Bifocal lens

d) Flat lenses

19 (ii) If the powers of the lenses L1 and L2 are in the ratio of 4:1, what would be the

ratio of the focal length of L1 and L2?

a) 4:1

b) 1:4

c) 2:1

d) 1:1

19 (iii) The magnification of a plane mirror is +1 because-

a) h 2 = h 1

b) v= u

c) only a

d) both a and b

19 (iv) In the given diagram of a rainbow, the rays of light get-

a) refracted

b) internally reflected

c) scattered

d) all of the above

19 (v) A person is wearing a spectacle having the focal length of -10 cm. What is the

nature and power of the lens?-

a) converging,+ 20 D

b) diverging, -15 D

c) diverging, -10 D

d) converging,+ 15D

7

20 Read the following and answer any 4 questions from 20 (i) to 20 (v).

An electric motor is a device that converts electric energy into mechanical force. E.g- electric fan. It works on the principle that whenever a current carrying conductor is

placed between a magnetic field, it experiences a force (emf). The conductor starts

moving within the magnetic field because of this force.

The direction of motion of the conductor can be found by using the left hand rule of

Fleming. If there is a wire which is carrying current, it behaves like a magnet. The

direction of magnetic field lines can be found by using Maxwell’s right hand thumb rule.

4

20 (i) When is the force produced maximum in the electric motor?-

a. when current and magnetic field are parallel to each other

b. when current and magnetic field are perpendicular to each other

c. when the current flowing through the conductor is less

d. only a

20 (ii) What is the direction of magnetic field lines around a current carrying straight

wire, when the current is flowing in downwards direction-

a. anticlockwise

b. clockwise

c. upwards

d. downwards

20 (iii) The direction of motion of the conductor can be reversed -

a. by increasing the amount of magnetic field lines

b. by reversing the direction of flow of current

c. by using a battery of more potential difference

d. by keeping the magnetic field lines and current parallel to each other.

8

20 (iv) You are sitting in a room .An electron beam is made to move towards your front

facing wall from your back side, but it gets deflected to your right side. What is

the direction of the magnetic field?

a. Upwards

b. Downwards

c. Clockwise

d. Anticlockwise

20 (v) In a circular loop, the magnetic field lines run parallel to each other-

a. As there the magnetic field is maximum

b. As there the magnetic field is least

c. There is no magnetic field

d. Only a

SECTION B

21 How do Stomata open and close? Explain with the help of a diagram.

OR

‘Transpiration is the cause of ascent of sap/ conduction of water and minerals

by the xylem in case of plants’. Justify the statement.

2

22 Draw a flowchart to show Double circulation of blood through Human Heart. 2

23 Explain two reasons for the versatile nature of Carbon.

OR

Show the formation of single and double covalent bonds with the help of one

example each.

2

24 The following observations were made by a student on treating four metals P,

Q, R and S with the given salt solutions:

2

Sample Al2(SO4)3(aq) ZnSO4(aq) CuSO4(aq) FeSO4(aq)

P No reaction Reaction

occurs

Reaction

occurs

No reaction

Q Reaction

occurs

Reaction

occurs

Reaction

occurs

Reaction

occurs

R No Reaction Reaction

Occurs

No Reaction No Reaction

S No Reaction No Reaction No Reaction No Reaction

Based on the above observations:

(a) Arrange the given samples in the increasing order of reactivity.

(b) Write the chemical formulae of products formed when Q reacts with

CuSO4solution.

9

25 a) In the following diagram, name the angle D. Also write the reason for its

formation.

b) Define the phenomenon that takes place when monochromatic light is

passed through the glass prison.

2

26 A household consumes electricity in the following way-

1. Refrigerator of 400 W for 8 hrs a day

2. Television of 200 W for 2 hrs a day

What will be the electricity bill for the month of November if consumption of

one unit of electricity costs 5 Rs?

2

Section C

27 A blue color flower plant denoted by BB is, cross bred with that of white colour

flower plant denoted by bb.

(a) State the color of flower you would expect in their F1 generation plants. (b) What must be the percentage of white flower plants in F2 generation if

flowers of F1 plants are self-pollinated?

(c) State the expected ratio of the genotypes BB and Bb in the F2 progeny.

OR

With the help of a flow chart explain in brief how the sex of a newborn is

genetically determined in human beings. Which of the two parents, the mother

or the father, is responsible for determination of sex of a child?

3

28 Define an Ecosystem. Name its two types giving one examples for each. 3

29 Draw a labeled diagram of Nephron. Write its two significant functions. 3

30 a. Hydrogen gas is passed through Copper oxide ( CuO). Name the -

Substance oxidized

Substance reduced

Oxidizing agent

Reducing agent

b. Give an example of decomposition reaction (equation) that takes place in

the presence of Sunlight.

3

10

31 The following table shows the position of seven elements A, B, C, D, E, F

and G in the modern periodic table.

3

Group→

Period ↓

1 2 3 to 12 13 14 15 16 17 18

2 A F B C

3 D E G

Answer the following giving reasons:

(i) Which element is a metal with valency 3?

(ii) Which element is less reactive in group 17?

(iii) Out of A, F, B and which element has a smallest atomic radius?

32 a. Explain the formation of sodium oxide with the help of electron dot

structure. (At numbers: Na = 11; O =8). Mention the cation and anion

formed.

b. Why do ionic compounds dissolve only in ionic compounds and not in

covalent compounds?

3

33 a) Define Refractive Index. Write its S.I. unit.

b) The Refractive Index of Diamond is 2.42. Find the speed of light through it.

(Speed of light through vacuum=3x108 m/s)

3

Section D

34 i) Match the following pH values 1, 7, 13, 11 to the solutions given below:

Hydrochloric acid

Sodium Hydroxide

Brine

Sodium carbonate

ii) How will you make an Alkali from common salt? Write the name of the

reaction involved. Also write the equation for the reaction.

iii) Are the salts wet or dry? Explain your answer with an example.

OR

There is a compound A, which is used in the Bakeries to bake various food

materials. When it is heated along with a foodstuff, decomposition reaction takes

place. One of the products so formed is used to make washing soda. Answer the

following questions-

i) Write the common and chemical names of the compound A.

ii) Write the chemical equation for its preparation from common salt.

iii) Write the equation when compound A is heated and

decomposition reaction takes place.

iv) Write an equation for the formation of washing soda.

v) Write its two uses other than baking.

5

11

35 a) Why is DNA copying important?

b) What is the role of Seminal vesicle and Prostate gland?

c) What is the significance of Contraception? ( two points)

d) A woman is using copper-T as a contraceptive device. Will it save her from

STD? Give reason to support your answer.

e) How is fragmentation different from regeneration?

5

36

Three resistors 5Ω, 10Ω and 30Ω are connected in parallel with the battery of

Voltage 6V? Answer the following questions. Draw a labeled diagram.

5

S.no Questions

1 The value of current across each resistor

2 The value of Potential difference

across each resistor

3 Total current in the circuit

4 Effective resistance of the circuit

OR

i) Find the total resistance in the given circuit.

ii) If the potential difference across the circuit is 12 V, what will be

the value of total current in the given electric circuit.

iii) Redraw the circuit with an ammeter, key, battery consisting of

four cells of 3V each.

1

SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER FOR WINTER BREAK REVISION SOCIAL SCIENCE CLASS 10 31st DECEMBER 2020

BASED ON CBSE PATTERN 20-21

Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

(i) Question paper comprises five Sections — A, B, C, D and E. There are 32 questions in the Question paper. All questions are compulsory.

(ii) Section A — Question no. I to 16 are Objective type Questions of I mark each (iii) Section B — Question no. 1 7 to 22 are short answer type questions, carrying 3 marks each

Answer to each question should not exceed 80 words. (iv) Section C — Question no. 23 to 26 are source based questions, carrying 4 marks each (v) Section D — Question no. 27 /0 31 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each.

Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words. (vi) Section E — Question no. 32 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 32.1 from History

(2 marks) and 32.2 from Geography (3 marks). (vii) There is no overall choice in the question paper. However; an internal choice has been

provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.. (viii) In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever

necessary.

SECTION-A (16 Qs x1 mark each) =16

1. Identify the correct statement about the liberal nationalists of Europe from the options given

below:

(a) They emphasized the concept of government by the consent of the people.

(b) They criticized the glorification of science.

(c) They created a sense of collective heritage.

(d) They did not stand for the freedom of markets.

2. What did Germania symbolize?

(a) French nation (b) German nation

(c) British nation (d) Greek nation

3. What does Satyagraha mean?

(a) Fight against injustice (b) Complete independence

(c) Following the path of truth & and non-violence (d) All of these

2

4. Fill in the blank:

India is the largest producer of sugar in the world.

OR

Tourism in has grown over the last three decades.

5. Choose the correctly matched pair about the ports of India from the following options:

(a) Kandla — Rajasthan (b) Marmagao — Kerala

(c) Paradwip — Odisha (d) Tuticorin — West Bengal

6. Fill in the blank:

Tea and coffee: Laterite soils, Maize and pulses: Arid soils, _: Black soils

(a) Rubber and coconut (b) Barley and spices

(c) Cotton and jowar (d) Wheat and cinchona

7. Identify the crop with the help of the following features.

8. The first jute mill was set up near Calcutta (now Kolkata) at Rishra in:

(a) 1955 (b) 1947

(c) 1855 ((d) 1856

9. The is a national party.

(a) Aam Aadmi Party (b) Rashtriya Janata Dal

(c) Samajwadi Party (d) Bharatiya Janata Party

10. Which community was relatively rich and powerful in Belgium?

OR

Why is power sharing good?

11. Why do parties sometimes launch movements?

OR

Which form of government is considered the best?

A tropical as well as a sub-tropical crop.

Grows well in hot and humid climate.

India is the second largest producer after Brazil.

3

12. Read the given data and find out which country is at the top regarding GNI and HDI rank in the

world.

Countries Gross National Income (GNI)

per Capita

(2017 PPP $)

Life

Expectancy at

birth (2017)

Mean years of

Schooling Of

People Aged 25

and above (2017)

HDI Rank in the

world (2018)

Sri Lanka 11,326 75.5 10.9 76

India 6,353 68.8 6.4 130

Myanmar 5,567 66.7 4.9 148

Pakistan 5,331 66.6 5.2 150

Nepal 2,471 70.6 4.9 149

Bangladesh 3,677 72.8 5.8 136

Source: Human Development Report/, 2018, United Nations Development Programme, New York

(a) Nepal (b) India

(c) Pakistan (d) Sri Lanka

13. Read the information given below and select the correct option.

Kanta works in an office. She attends her office from 9:30 am to 5:30 pm. She gets her salary regularly at the end Of every month. In addition to the salary, she also gets provident fund as per the rule laid down by the government. She also gets medical and other allowances. Kanta does not go to office on Sundays. This is a paid holiday. When she joined work, she was given an appointment letter stating all the terms and conditions of work.

Like Kanta, people who work in the organised sector—

(a) do not worry about medical benefits and pensions

(b) do not get security of employment

(c) do not get overtime

(d) are not sure about their paid leaves, medical benefits, etc.

OR

Many people work in the unorganised sector. Which of the following statements about this

sector is correct?

(a) It provides medical benefits.

(b) It ensures security of employment.

(c) It is one where the terms of employment are regular

(d) Jobs are low paid and some kind of work is seasonal in nature.

4

14. Who supervises the functioning of formal source of loans?

(a) Reserve Bank of India (b) State Bank of India

(c) Central Bank of India (d) Moneylenders

15. Read the following statements in context Of the 'foreign trade' and choose the correct option. (a) Foreign trade implies exchange of goods and services across the countries.

(b) It helps to expand the size of the market for producers.

(c) Producers and Consumers can get commodities produced in any part of the world.

(d) All of the above.

16. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as

Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read rhe statements and choose the correct option:

Assertion (A): MNCs have been attracted towards the Indian market.

Reason (R): The Government of India has allowed flexibility in labour laws.

Options:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

SECTION-B (6 Qs x3 mark each) = 18

17. Who had designed the 'swaraj flag' by 1921? Explain the main features of this 'swaraj flag'

18. Describe the events ofthe French Revolution which had influenced the people belonging to

other parts of Europe.

OR

Why in the years after 1848, the autocrats of Central and Eastern Europe began to

introduce the changes that had already taken place in Western Europe before 1815?

Explain.

19. Classify industries according to their main role.

20. What led to tensions between the Dutch-speaking and French-speaking communities in

Belgium during the 1950s and 1960s? Where was this tension more acute, and why?

OR

What were the majoritarian measures taken in Sri Lanka to establish Sinhala supremacy?

21. Do you think the classification of economic activities into primary, secondary and tertiary is

useful? Explain how?

22. In recent years how our markets have been transformed? Explain with examples.

5

SECTION-C (4 Qs x 4 marks each) = 16

23. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows.

The first clear expression of nationalism came with the French Revolution in 1789. France, as you would remember, was a full-fledged territorial state in 1789 under the rule of absolute monarch. The political and constitutional changes that came in the wake of the French Revolution led to the transfer of sovereignty from the monarchy to a body of French citizens. The revolution proclaimed that it was the people who would henceforth constitute the nation and shape its destiny From the very beginning, the French revolutionaries introduced various measures and practices that could create a sense Of collective identity amongst the French people. The ideas of la patrie (the fatherland) and le citoyen (the

citizen) emphasised the notion of a united community enjoying equal rights under a constitution A new French flag, the tricolour, was chosen to replace the former royal standard. The Estates General was elected by the body Of active citizens and renamed the National Assembly. New hymns were composed, oaths taken and martyrs commemorated, all in the name of the nation. A centralised administrative system was put in place and it formulated uniform laws for all citizens within its territory. Internal customs duties and dues were abolished and a uniform system of weights and measures was adopted. Regional dialects were discouraged and French, as it was spoken and written in Paris, became the common language of the nation.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

23.1. When did the French Revolution take place'? (a) In 1889 (b) In 1789 (c) In 1788 (d) In 1751

23.2. Identify the purpose of the French revolutionaries from the following options: (a) To establish republic (b) To provide equal rights for all (c) To create a sense for collective responsibility (d) All of these

23.3. What does the idea of la patrie mean?

(a) The fatherland (b) The motherland (c) The citizen (d) The Constitution

23.4. Which of the following measures was not adopted by the French revolutionaries? (l) (a) Ideas of la patrie and le citoyen (b) The tricolour French flag

(c) Hymns composed (d) Regional dialects were encouraged

24. Read the text given below and answer the following questions.

Planning is the widely accepted strategy for judicious use of resources. It has importance in a country like India, which has enormous diversity in the availability of resources. There are regions which are rich certain types of resources but are deficient in some other resources. There are some regions which can be considered self-sufficient in terms of the availability of resources and there are some regions which have acute shortage of some vital resources. For example, the states of Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh are rich in minerals and coal deposits. Arunachal Pradesh has abundance of water resources but lacks in infrastructural development. The state of Rajasthan is very well endowed with solar and wind energy but lacks in water resources. The cold desert of Ladakh is relatively isolated

6

from the rest of the country. It has very rich cultural heritage but it is deficient in water, infrastructure and some vital minerals. This calls for balanced resource planning at the national, state, regional and local levels. Resource planning is a complex process which involves: (i) Identification and inventory of resources across the regions of the country. This involves surveying, mapping and qualitative and quantitative estimation and measurement of the resources. (ii) Evolving a planning structure endowed with appropriate technology, skill and institutional set up for implementing resource development plans. (iii) Matching the resource development plans with overall national development plans.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

24.1. of is not essential for a developed region.

(a) Availability; resources (b) Valuation; resources (c) Utilisation; resources (d) Valuation; planning

24.2. There are some regions of India where availability of resources is sufficient, but in some regions, there are acute shortages of important resources. Identify which of the following belongs to:

Regions Features

a. Jharkhand 1. Endowed with solar energy

b. Rajasthan 2. Abundance of water resources

c. Ladakh 3. Coal deposits

d. Arunachal Pradesh 4. Deficient in water resources

Choose the correct option: (a) a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3 (b) a-4, b—2, c-3, d-l (c) a—3, b—l, c-4, d-2 (d) a—2, b—3, c-l, d-4

24.3. The state of Rajasthan lacks in: (a) Water resources (b) Soil resources (c) Biotic resources (d) Potential resources

24.4. Which of the following processes is involved in Resource Planning? (a) Identification and inventory of resources across the regions of the country (b) Evolving a planning structure with suitable technology (c) Matching the resource development plans with overall national development plans (d) All of the above

25. Read the given extract and answer the following questions.

The Constitution of India originally provided for a two-tier system of government, the Union Government or what we call the Central Government, representing the Union of India and the state governments. Later a third tier of federalism was added in the form Panchayats and Municipalities. As in any federation, these difference tiers enjoy separate jurisdiction. The Constitution clearly provided a three-fold distribution of legislative powers between the Union Government and the State Governments. Thus, it contains three lists.

7

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

25.1. The Indian Constitution provides (a) Two-tier system of government (b) Three-tier system of government (c) Four-tier system Of government (d) None Of these

25.2. What is the first-tier of government in India called? (a) District Government (b) Provincial Government (c) Central Government (d) Community Government

25.3. Municipalities are set up in . (a) Houses (b) Towns (c) Villages (d) Metropolitan cities

25.4. Which government legislates on residuary subjects? (a) State Government (b) Local Government (c) Community Government (d) Union Government

26. Read the source given below and answer the following questions.

The value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a particular year provides the total production of the sector for that year. And the sum of production in the three sectors gives what is called the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of a country. It is the value of all final goods and services produced within a country during a particular year. GDP shows how big the economy is. In India, the mammoth task of measuring GDP is undertaken by a central government ministry This Ministry, with the help of various government departments of all the Indian states and union territories, collects information relating to total volume of goods and services and their prices and then estimates the GDP.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate answer.

26.1. How is GDP calculated?

(a) The value of intermediate goods and services produced in each sector during a particular year and the sum of production in the three sectors.

(b) The value of intermediate goods and services produced in each sector during a particular year provides the approximate production of the sector for that year.

(c) The value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a particular year provides the total production of sector for that year, and the sum of production in the three sectors.

(d) The value of final goods and services produced in each sector during last three years provides the total production of the sector for that year.

26.2. What do final goods and services mean? (a) Production of goods and services. (b) Those goods and services that finally reach the consumers (c) Those goods and services that are out of reach of consumers (d) None of the above

8

26.3. In how many sectors does the sum of production give GDP of a country? (a) Two (b) Five (c) Four (d) Three

26.4. Who is responsible for collecting data for the GDP in India? (a) Central Government ministry (b) State Government ministry (c) Mayor (d) None of these

SECTION-D (5 Qs x 5 marks each) = 25

27. What steps did the French revolutionaries take to create a sense of collective identity among the French people?

OR Choose some examples to show the contribution of culture to the growth of nationalism in Europe.

28. What do you know about agriculture? Give its significance. OR

Describe the types of farming practised in India. 29. How does democracy produce an accountable, responsive and legitimate government?

30. Give a comparative study of the ways in which the Belgian and Sri Lankan governments dealt

with the problem of cultural diversities. OR

What lessons do we learn from the principles of majoritarianism and accommodation followed in Sri Lanka and Belgium respectively?

31. "Different people can have different developmental goals." Support the statement With examples.

OR What does sustainability of development mean? How can sustainable development be achieved?

SECTION-E (1 Qs x 5 Marks) = 5 (H = 2 & G = 3)

Map Skill Based Question 32.1 On the map of India, mark the following with their correct names.

(A) The place where the Indian National Congress Session was held. (B) The place where cotton mill workers organised Satyagraha.

32.2 On the same outline map of India locate and label any THREE of the following with suitable symbols. (a) Salal Dam (b) Bokaro Iron and Steel Plant (c) Ramagundam Thermal Power Plant (d) West Bengal, the largest producer of rice (e) Jawaharlal Nehru Port

LORETO CONVENT TARA HALL SHIMLA

Information Technology (402)

Sample Question Paper-I (Dec-2020)

Time: 2hrs

Q1. Answer any 4 questions out of 6 (1 x 4 = 4)

i) What is the importance of communication?

MM:

50

(1)

a) Ensures that the message has been conveyed successfully.

b) without feedback message can’t be delivered

c) None of these

ii) list any three principles of effective communications (1)

iii) What are the symptoms of bad stress (1)

a) Lack of sleep

b) heart problem

c) both a) and b)

iv) What is self awareness ? (1)

v) What is self motivation? (1)

vi) There is ………………….need to get upset. (1)

a) no

b) some

c) less

Q2. Answer any 6 questions out of 8 (1 x 6=6)

i) Which statement is not correct about Entrepreneurship? (1)

a) Entrepreneurship creates Jobs

b) Entrepreneurship helps raise the standard of living

c) Entrepreneurship is only for profit earning creates less jobs

ii) List any four qualities which makes a Entrepreneur success (1)

iii) Which is not a role of Entrepreneur? (1)

a) Team building

b) Time management

c) Poor decision making

iv) what is a stand up India scheme? (1)

v) ………………….Aayog has been given the responsibility of supervising and coordination the action, schemes (1)

etc. for SDGs

a) NITI

b) VIT

c) VIDHI

vi) Which goal is not a part of SDG (1)

a) No Poverty

b) Zero Hunger

c) No gender equality

vii) Write down any three challenges in the attainment of SDGs? (1)

viii) List

the measures for financing the SDGs. (1)

Q3. Attempt any 10 questions out of 12 ( 10 x 1 = 10)

i) Which is not a type of style in writer? (1)

a) Paragraph style

b) Character style

c) Window style

ii) What is wrap text around image? (1)

a) adjust text bellow image

b) Fit text within image

c) Place images in a document, you may need to position text around the image in multiple ways

iii) What are templates in document? (1)

iv) Which Menu contain templates option (1)

a) Edit menu

b) File menu

c) Tool menu

v) Full form of TOC is

a) Title of Contents

b) Table of Contents

c) None of above

vi) Which tool is not a part of what-if tools (1)

a) Scenarios

b) Goal Seek

c) Link sheet

vii) Which Menu provides Subtotal and consolidate option (1)

a) Help

b) Data

c) View

viii) Calc always displays a hyperlink in ……………….form (1)

a) Absolute

b) Relative

c) Mixed

ix) Which options can we use to rename a work sheet? (1)

a) Double-click on the sheet tab

b) Right click on the sheet tab select rename sheet

c) both a) and b) options

x) The descriptions about the changes made in cell are available through…………… (1)

a) Comments

b) Position

c) none of above

xi) You can create / run macros in calc using ……………….menu (1)

a) Data

b) Format

c) Tools

xii) In order to use a macro as a function, it must be stored in code, inside……………and ………..clauses (1)

a) Macro, End Macro

b) Function, End Function

c) Task, End Task

Q4 Attempt any 9 questions out of 14 ( 9 x 1 = 9)

i) A field that uniquely indentifies records in the table is known as . (1)

a) Unique key

b) Foreign Key

c) Primary Key

ii) Which of the following holds single piece of data? (1)

a) Field

b) Table

c) Record

iii) To find a particular record or set of records in a data base you would use a (1)

a) Report

b) Query

c) Table

iv) What is a Table Wizard option in database? (1)

a) wizard will help and guide creating table step by step

b) wizard is not helpful to create a table

c) none of above

v) Which data type will we use to create a Name Field (1)

a) CHAR

b) FLOAT

c) DATE

vi) What happens when text is entered in a Number type field (1)

a) is = 0

b) reject text datas

c) none of above

vii) Name the three type of relationship that can be created in base (1)

viii) Which of the following is not a DML command (1)

a) SELECT

b) INSERT

c) ALTER

ix) what is a form? (1)

x) Which of the following feature is used to configure the Wndows 10 accessibility options? (1)

a) Programs

b) Ease of Access

c) Computer Management

xi) What is a WiMax? (1)

xii) Instead of writing a letter what alternate do we have these days?

a) blog

b) facebook

c) E-mail

xiii) what is a digital order (1)

xiv) List any four basic rules for Fire Safety (1)

xv) what is a hazard? (1)

a) any source of potential damage or harm

b) is a rescue operation

c) none of above

Q5. Attempt any 6 questions out of 8 (6x 2 = 12 )

iv) How is cropping different from scaling in document? (2)

ix) What is a table of content ? (2)

xi) What do you understand by “What-if-analysis”? (2)

xvii) What is the need for sharing documents? (2)

xxi) What is database ? (2)

xxii)What is the difference between a flat database and relational database? (2)

xxvii) What do you understand by default value? (2)

xxxiv) What is the utility of Query is base? (2)

Q6. Attempt any 3 questions out of 4 ( 3 x 3 = 9)

xiii) What are document hyperlinks? How are they useful? (3)

xviii) What is a macro? List some advantages of macros (3)

xxvi) Define the terms: Table, Field and record (3)

xxxv) What is SQL? What are different categories of command available in SQL (3)

LO SCHOOL, NEW SHIMLA

SAMPLE PAPER

SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS

CLASS: X

TIME: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. This question paper contains two parts A and B.

PART - A:

1. It consists of two sections I and II.

2. Section I has 16 questions of 1marks each.

3. Section II has 4 questions on case study. Each case study has 5 case-based sub-parts.

An examinee is to attempt any four out of 5 sub-parts.

PART – B:

1. Question no 21 to 26 are very short answer type questions of 2 mark each.

2. Question no 27 to 33 are short answer type questions of 3 mark each.

3. Question no 34 to 36 are long answer type questions of 5 mark each.

PART – A

SECTION - I

Q1 If a and b are co-prime numbers, then find the HCF (a, b) (1)

Q2 If the sum of the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial 2x2 – kx - 10 is 5, then find the

value of k. (1)

Q3 What number should be added to the polynomial x2 – 5x +4 so that 3 is the zero of the polynomial? (1)

Q4 If 5 chairs and 3 tables costs Rs 2000 and 3 chairs 1 tables costs Rs 1000.Form a linear

equations to represent this situation. (1)

Q5 Which term of the A.P. 42,36,30,………………… is zero ? (1)

Q6 For what value of k, the equation 3x2 +5kx +4 = 0 has equal roots. (1)

Q7 What is the probability of getting at least one head when a coin is tossed twice? (1)

Q8 The length of a tangent from a point A at distance 5 cm from the centre of the circle is

4 cm. Find the radius of the circle . (1)

Page 1 of 6

Q9 The 20th term of an AP exceeds its 10th term by 10. Find the common difference. (1)

Q10 In the triangle ABC, D and E are points on side AB and AC Respectively such that DE

parallel to BC. If DE =2 cm, AD =3 cm and BD = 3.5 cm, then find BC. (1)

Q11 In a simultaneous throw of a pair of dice, find the probability of getting a doublet. (1)

Q12 To divide a line segment BC internally in the ratio 4 : 7 , we draw a ray BX such that

angle CBX is an acute angle . What will be the minimum number of points to be

located at equal distances, on the ray BX? (1)

Q13 Evaluate sin2300 + cos2450 + cos2300. (1)

Q14 If x= 2 Tan2A and y = 2 Sec2 A, then find y – x +1. (1)

Q15 One card is drawn at random from a pack of 52 cards. Find the probability that the

card drawn is an ace and black . (1)

Q16 Find the 10th term of the AP 1,4,7,10………………… (1)

SECTION – II(CASE STUDY)

Q17 Due to heavy storm an electric wire got bent as shown in the figure. It followed a

mathematical shape. Answer the following questions below.

i) Name the shape in which the wire is bent

a) Spiral b) ellipse c) linear d) parabola (1)

ii) How many zeroes are there for the polynomial

a) 2 b) 3 c) 1 d) 0 (1)

iii) The zeroes of the polynomials are

a) -1,5 b) -1,3 c) 3,5 d) 3,-1 (1)

iv) What will be the expression of the polynomial ?

a) x2+2x -3 b) x2 -2x +3 c) x2 -2x -3 d) x2 +2x+3 (1)

v) What is the value of the polynomial if x =-1 ?

a) 6 b) -18 c) 18 d) 0 (1)

Page 2 of 6

Q18 100 m RACE: A stopwatch was used to find the time that it took a group of

students to run 100 m

Time in sec 0-20 20-40 40-60 60-80 80-10

No of students 8 10 13 6 3

i) How many students finished the race within 1 minute

a) 18 b) 37 c) 31 d) 8 (1)

ii) How many students finished the race within 40 sec

a) 18 b) 37 c) 31 d) 8 (1)

iii) The construction of cumulative frequency table is useful in determining the

a) Mean b) median c) mode d) all of the above (1)

iv) What is the class mark of class interval 20- 40

a) 20 b) 30 c) 60 d) 40 (1)

v) What is the class size of class interval 40-60

a) 20 b) 50 c) 60 d) 40 (1)

Q19 Class X students of a secondary school in Shimla have been allotted a rectangular plot

of a land for gardening activity. Considering A as origin, answer all the questions

Page 3 of 6

i) Considering A as the origin, what are the co-ordinate of A ?

a) 0 , 1 b) 1 , 0 c) 0,0 d) -1,-1 (1)

ii) What are the co-ordinates of P ?

a) 4 , 6 b) 6 , 4 c) 4 , 5 d) 5 , 4 (1)

iii) What are the co-ordinates of R ?

a) 6 , 5 b) 5 , 6 c) 4 , 5 d) 5 , 4 (1)

iv) What are the co-ordinates of D ?

a) 16 , 0 b) 0 , 0 c) 0 , 16 d) 16 , 1 (1)

v) What are the co-ordinates of P if D is taken as the origin ?

a) 12 , 2 b) -12 , 6 c) 12 , 6 d) 6 , 10 (1)

Q20 A wooden article was made by scooping out a hemisphere from each end of the solid

cylinder. Answer all the questions.

i) What is the total surface of the given solid cylinder

a) 2πrh+2πr2 b) 2πrh - 2πr2 c) 2πrh+2πr d) 2πrh+πr2 (1)

ii) What is the total surface of the remaining solid cylinder

a) 2πrh - 4πr2 b) 2πrh +4πr2 c) 2πrh +2πr2 d) 2πrh + 3πr2 (1)

iii) What is the total surface of the hemi sphere.

a) 2πr2 b) 3πr2 c) 4πr2 d) 2/3 πr2 (1)

iv) What is the volume of the remaining solid.

a) πr2h- 4πr2 b) πr2h- 6πr2 c) πr2h - 4/3(πr3) d) πr2h + 4/3(πr3) (1)

v) What is the volume of the sphere.

a) 4/3(πr3) b) 2/3(πr3) c) 3/4(πr3) d) 4/3(πr2)h (1)

Page 4 of 6

PART -B

Q21 What is the least number that is divisible by all the numbers from 1 to 10 ? (2)

Q22 Find the value of a, so that the point (3,a) lie on the line 2x – 3y = 5 . (2)

Q23 Find a quadratic polynomial whose zeroes are 3 +2√2 and 3 -2√2 . (2)

Q24 Draw a circle of radius 3 cm from a points 5 cm away from its centre , construct the

pair of tangents to the circle. (2)

Q25 If Tan A = 5/12 , find the value of 3 Sin A + 2 Cos A . (2)

Q26 Find the value of 𝔁 if 2 sin3𝔁 = √𝔁. (2)

Q27 Prove that 2+ √3 is irrational number. (3)

Q28 The difference of two natural number is 5 and the difference of their reciprocals is

1/10. Find the numbers. (3)

Q29 A race track is in the form of a ring whose inner circumference is 352 m, and outer

circumference is 396 m. Find the width of the track. (3)

Q30 The perpendicular from A on side BC of a triangle ABC intersects BC at D such that

DB= 3CD . Prove that 2AB2 = 2AC2 + BC2 (3)

Q31 Find the median and mode of the following distribution: (3)

Weight(kg) 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50 50-60 60-70

NO. of Students

2 4 8 5 4 2 5

Q32 Prove that : (SinA+ CosecA)2 +(CosA +SecA)2 = 7 +TanA2 + CotA2 (3)

Q33 From the top of a tower 100 m high, a man observes two car on the opposite sides

of the tower and in the same straight line with its base, with angles of depression 30ο

and 45ο . Find the distance between the cars. (Take √3 = 1.732) (3)

Q34 A toy is in the form of a cone of radius 3.5 cm mounted on a hemisphere of the same

radius. The total height of the toy is 15.5 cm. Find the total surface area of the toy. (5)

Page 5 of 6

Q35 Five years ago, A was thrice as old as B and ten years later, A shall be twice as old as B

What are the present ages of A and B. (5)

Q36 A boy of height 150 m is walking away from the base of a lamp-post at a speed of

1.6m/sec. If the lamp is 4.5 m above the ground, find the length of his shadow after

5 sec. (5)

Page 6 of 6