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Cisco CCIE Voice 350-030 Exam

Vendor：Cisco

Exam Code: 350-030

Exam Name: Cisco CCIE Voice Written v3.0



QUESTION 1

What are two advantages of multicast technologies? (Choose two.)

A. Denial of service attacks in the network are prevented.

B. They eliminate multipoint applications.

C. They reduce traffic by delivering a separate stream of information to each corporate recipient

or home environment, which reduces bandwidth.

D. They control network traffic and reduce server and CPU load.

E. They eliminate traffic redundancy.

Answer: DE

QUESTION 2

Which two descriptions apply to the Calling Search Space function in Cisco Unified Communications

Manager? (Choose two.)

A. It defines which numbers are available for a device to call.

B. It provides a group of dial patterns to look through when making a call.

C. Within a partition, each CSS has a directory number.

D. It defines route patterns and directory numbers from which calls can be received.

E. It defines the search for directory numbers in assigned partitions according to dial patterns.

Answer: AE

QUESTION 3

Which two statements apply to the partitions function in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?

(Choose two.)

A. When a directory number or route pattern is placed into a certain partition, this creates a rule

for who can call that device or route list.

B. A partition is a logical grouping of directory numbers and route patterns that have similar

reachability characteristics.

C. Calling Search Spaces are assigned to partitions.

D. A directory number may appear in only one partition.

E. Within the partition, each CSS has a directory number.

Answer: AB

QUESTION 4



Which three statements are true about multicast IGMP snooping? (Choose three.)

A. When a host in a multicast group sends an IGMP leave message, only that port is deleted from

the multicast group.

B. An IP multicast stream to the IP host can be stopped only by an IGMP leave message.

C. IGMP snooping does not examine or snoop Layer 3 information in packets that are sent

between the hosts and the router.

D. When the switch hears the IGMP host report from a host for a particular multicast group, the

switch adds the host's port number to the associated multicast table entry.

E. IGMP control messages are transmitted as IGMP multicast packets so that they can be

distinguished from normal multicast data at Layer 2.

F. A switch that is running IGMP snooping examines every multicast data packet to verify whether

it contains any pertinent IGMP "must control" information.

Answer: ADF

QUESTION 5

Which three options are valid SCCP call states sent to an IP phone?

A. Ring Off

B. On Hook

C. Call Transmit

D. Connected

E. Disconnected

F. In Use Remotely

Answer: BDF

QUESTION 6

Which three statements are true about Cisco Discovery Protocol? (Choose three.)

A. It is an excellent tool for displaying the interface status on switches.

B. It works on top of the network layer and data link level.

C. It uses a multicast packet with a destination MAC address of 01-00-CC-CC-CC.

D. The platform TLV (TLV type 0x0006) contains an ASCII character string that describes the

hardware platform of the device.

E. You can use the CDP timer feature to change update times. The default is 60 seconds.

F. It uses a broadcast packet with a destination MAC address of 01-00-CC-CC-CC.

Answer: ADE

QUESTION 7

Which two of the following are functions of DHCP snooping? (Choose two.)



A. relies on already discovered trusted and untrusted ports

B. dynamic ARP inspection

C. defines trusted and untrusted ports

D. uses existing binding tables

E. builds a binding table

F. automatically builds ACLs

Answer: CE

QUESTION 8

Refer to the exhibit. Traffic flows from the IP phone that is connected to SW1 to the IP phone on

SW2. If the trust boundary has been extended to the IP phone on SW1, in what two places will

traffic be marked and classified so that the proper QoS settings may be carried through the network?

(Choose two.)

A. IP phone attached to SW1

B. SW1 ingress port

C. R1 ingress port

D. SW1 egress port

E. R1 egress port

Answer: BC

QUESTION 9

Refer to the exhibit. Which gatekeeper mechanism prevents the gatekeeper from using all the



resources on either gateway 1 or gateway 2 when sending calls to zones SE and NW?

A. bandwidth remote

B. resource availability indicator

C. bandwidth total

D. bandwidth zone

E. lrq immediate advance

F. ras timeout brq

Answer: B

QUESTION 10

When implementing a Cisco Unified Communications Manager solution over an MPLS WAN, which

two rules must be observed to prevent overrunning the priority queue? (Choose two.)

A. RSVP will transparently pass application IDs from the customer network across the MPLS WAN.

B. The media streams must be the same size in both directions.

C. Only the connection to the MPLS WAN where the Cisco Unified Communications Manager

resides must be enabled as a CE device.

D. The media has to be symmetrically routed.

E. If the CE is under corporate control, it may support either topology-aware or measurement-

based CAC.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 11

How is fax pass-through traffic treated over IP WAN connections that use the G.729 codec?

A. The fax traffic is demodulated and sent with VAD and echo chancellor disabled.



B. When the TGW detects the CED tone from the fax machine that has been contacted, the TGW

changes to the G.711 codec with echo chancellor and VAD disabled.

C. When the OGW detects the CED tone from the fax machine that is making the call, the OGW

is informed by the contacted device of the Cisco NSF features and switches to the G.711 codec

with VAD disabled.

D. The contacting fax machine sends a TCF message to the contacted fax machine and waits for a

CFR message. When the CFR message is received, the fax tones sent by the contacting fax

machine cause the OGW to send an NSF message to the TGW, instructing it to switch to the

G.711 codec with echo chancellor and VAD disabled.

Answer: B

QUESTION 12

Refer to the exhibit. How many simultaneous G.729 calls can be established between sites SJ and

RTP?

A. 4

B. 5

C. 6

D. 8

E. 12

Answer: C



QUESTION 13

Company Alpha has a central office and a branch office that utilize a central call processing topology.

Calls between the two sites are using the G.729 codec; calls within each site are using the G.711

codec. To conference an existing call between two phones at the central site with a phone at the

remote office, which two of the following are possible solutions? (Choose two.)

A. a software conference bridge that is configured in Cisco Unified Communications Manager

B. a software conference bridge that is configured in Cisco Unified Communications Manager and

a HW transcoder

C. a hardware conference bridge

D. a hardware transcoder and a hardware conference bridge

E. No extra configurations required--phones automatically negotiate using the lowest common

denominator codec (G.729)

Answer: BC

QUESTION 14

Which two of these are possible reasons why a JTAPI subsystem might have the status

PARTIAL_SERVICE? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco Unified Contact Center is not able to resolve the host name of Cisco Unified

Communications Manager.

B. A referenced CTI Route Point is not associated with the JTAPI user.

C. The JTAPI user password is not correct.

D. There is an error in one of the scripts being loaded.

E. The CTI Manager service is not running on Cisco Unified Communications Manager.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 15

Refer to the exhibit. You have been asked to edit the sample auto attendant script so that callers

are prompted to press 1 for sales, 2 for service, or 3 for the directory. If callers select 3, they should

hear the existing menu choices to dial by extension, dial by name, or transfer to the operator. What

steps can you take to create this nested menu?



A. Drag a new Menu step from the palette and drop it on the Start step. Drag the existing Menu

step and drop it on Output 3 of the new Menu.

B. Drag a new Menu step from the palette and drop it on the existing Menu step. This will make

the existing Menu subordinate to the new Menu.

C. Drag a new Menu step from the palette and drop it on the existing Menu step. Drag the existing

Menu step and drop it on Output 3 of the new Menu.

D. Delete the existing Menu. Drag a new Menu step from the palette and drop it on the Set

prefixPrompt=P[] step. Recreate the existing directory menu as the third option of the new

Menu step.

Answer: C

QUESTION 16

Which three of these are mandatory sub-commands of the call-manager-fallback command and

will help an IP phone register to an IOS router in SRST mode? (Choose three.)

A. access-code

B. dialplan-pattern

C. ip source-address



D. keepalive

E. max-dn

F. max-ephones

Answer: CEF

QUESTION 17

Refer to the exhibit. You are debugging a problem on a SIP network and have run the debug ccsip

messages command. One of the messages returned is shown in the exhibit. What information will

the server return to the caller?

A. the acceptable media type

B. a list of acceptable media types

C. a list of acceptable formats

D. a correct directory number

E. an acceptable language code

Answer: C

QUESTION 18

Which type of SIP responses would indicate that a server encountered an error in attempting to

complete a SIP request?

A. 1xx

B. 3xx

C. 4xx

D. 5xx



E. 6xx

Answer: D

QUESTION 19

To hide its identity when initiating calls, SIP Phone B requests that Server B place its calls for it.

What kind of device is Server B?

A. proxy

B. redirect

C. registrar

D. user agent client

E. user agent server

Answer: A

QUESTION 20

Which of the following three messages could be sent by the UAC in response to the 180 Ringing?

(Choose three.)

A. PRACK



B. ACK

C. BYE

D. CANCEL

E. INVITE

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 21

Which three attributes correctly describe aspects of MGCP? (Choose three.)

A. peer-to-peer

B. Master/Slave

C. call preservation on gateway failover from one Cisco Unified Communications Manager server

to another

D. communication with Cisco Unified Communications Manager handled via a proxy server

E. centralized dial plan management

F. intelligent endpoints

Answer: BCE

QUESTION 22

In a VoIP deployment, which two protocols satisfy the following three requirements? (Choose two.)

Requirement 1: the protocol has a mechanism for a centralized dial-plan

Requirement 2: the endpoints are considered to be unintelligent

Requirement 3: the protocol is text-based

A. SIP

B. H.323

C. MGCP

D. SCCP

Answer: CD

QUESTION 23

When implementing PRI backhaul for an MGCP gateway and Cisco Unified Communications

Manager, the Q.921 data-link protocol is terminated on which device?

A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager

B. MGCP gateway

C. signaling link terminal

D. the IP end device, such as an IP phone



Answer: B

QUESTION 24

What occurs if the system clocks are not synchronized between the sender and receiver of an RTP

stream?

A. Packets can be placed in sequence but jitter cannot be compensated for.

B. Packets cannot be reordered, because sequence and jitter cannot be compensated for.

C. Jitter can be compensated for, but packets cannot be reordered if they arrive out of sequence.

D. Packets may be reordered and jitter may be compensated for, because the timestamp is not

related to the system time.

E. When the RTP stream is opened, the sender and receiver synchronize their clocks before the

stream commences so that packet sequencing and dejitter will function correctly.

Answer: D

QUESTION 25

On which gateway or gatekeeper is the IOS command call-rsvp-sync resv-timer 10 used to set the

timer?

A. originating VoIP gateway for completing RSVP reservation setups in 10 seconds

B. originating and terminating VoIP gateway for completing RSVP reservation setups in 10

seconds

C. terminating VoIP gateway for completing RSVP reservation setups in 10 seconds

D. VoIP gatekeeper for completing RSVP reservation setups in 10 seconds

Answer: C

QUESTION 26

If the bandwidth total default 64 command is configured in a gatekeeper, then what is true of that

gatekeeper?

A. it will admit up to 64 calls, regardless of codec used

B. it will not admit any calls because all calls initially account of 128 kb/s

C. it will admit a minimum of four calls using the G.729 codec

D. it will admit up to four calls using the G.729 codec

E. it will admit a G.711 call in one direction only, since 64 is half of 128 kb/s

Answer: D



QUESTION 27

If enabled, the RSVP for LLQ feature will assign which two types of flows to the priority queue?

(Choose two.)

A. all RSVP bandwidth requests

B. voice flows generated from Cisco IOS applications

C. voice flows generated from third-party applications, such as Microsoft NetMeeting

D. all traffic marked DSCP EF

E. all traffic marked CoS 5

Answer: BC

QUESTION 28

Which of these features are supported in RSVP Support for LLQ? (Choose three.)

A. LLQ Support on Tunnels

B. Guaranteed Quality of Service

C. Reserve resources for Low Latency and bandwidth guarantees

D. LLQ on Frame Relay and ATM PVCs

E. Controlled-Load Network Element Service

Answer: BCE

QUESTION 29

Users are complaining that the music on hold marketing files for this month are not being played

when users are placed on hold. Which three of these do you need to verify? (Choose three.)

A. the IP voice media streaming application has been stopped and restarted

B. a new directory has been created for the new media files

C. users have selected the correct MoH files for customer calls

D. the new music files are in the correct format to be used with Cisco Unified Communications

Manager

E. the location of the new music files is what the MoH server expects

Answer: ADE

QUESTION 30

Which of these statements correctly describes the logic for selecting MoH servers and MoH audio

streams?

A. The audio stream and audio server used will be selected according to the configuration of the



phone being placed on hold.

B. The audio stream and audio server used will be selected according to the configuration of the

phone which is being used to place a caller on hold.

C. The audio stream will be selected according to the configuration of the phone which is being

used to place a caller on hold, and the audio server used will be selected according to the

configuration of the phone being placed on hold.

D. The audio stream will be selected according to the configuration of the phone being placed on

hold and the audio server used will be selected according to the configuration of the phone

which is being used to place a caller on hold.

Answer: C

QUESTION 31

Which two conditions will result in an H.323 gatekeeper receiving an ARQ from a registered H.323

endpoint? (Choose two.)

A. A remote zone endpoint initiates a call.

B. A local zone endpoint requests permission to admit an incoming call.

C. A remote zone endpoint sends keepalive to ensure registration continuity.

D. A remote zone gatekeeper initiates a call.

E. A local zone endpoint initiates a call.

F. A local zone endpoint sends keepalive to ensure registration continuity.

Answer: BE

QUESTION 32

Two H.323 gateways are engaged in an active call. How many RTP and RTCP packet streams exist

between these two gateways?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

E. 6

Answer: C

QUESTION 33

On a Cisco IOS MGCP gateway that is registered to Cisco Unified Communications Manager, which



MGCP message is initiated by the gateway?

A. RQNT

B. NTFY

C. EPCF

D. CRCX

E. SETUP

Answer: B

QUESTION 34


four MGCP messages are initiated by Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose four.)

A. AUEP

B. MDCX

C. RQNT

D. NTFY

E. RSIP

F. CRCX

Answer: ABCF

QUESTION 35


MGCP message could be initiated by either Cisco Unified Communications Manager or the gateway?

A. CRCX

B. RQNT

C. DLCX

D. AUEP

E. RSIP

Answer: C

QUESTION 36

Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum number of inbound calls to 2001 before a Cisco Unified

Communications Manager Express system returns a user busy tone to any additional calls?



A. 3

B. 4

C. 5

D. 6

E. 7

Answer: D

QUESTION 37

Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum number of inbound calls to ephone 1 before a Cisco

Unified Communications Manager Express system returns a user busy tone to any additional calls?

A. 3



B. 4

C. 5

D. 6

E. 7

Answer: B

QUESTION 38

Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum number of calls that are supported on ephone 2?

A. 3

B. 4

C. 5

D. 6

E. 8

Answer: D

QUESTION 39

Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum number of inbound calls to 2001 before a Cisco Unified

Communications Manager Express system returns a user busy tone to any additional calls?



A. 4

B. 5

C. 6

D. 7

E. 8

Answer: D

QUESTION 40

Which two analog voice interfaces support ground-start? (Choose two.)

A. FXS

B. E&M Type I

C. E&M Type II

D. E&M Type IV

E. FXO

Answer: AE

QUESTION 41

Which signaling method cannot solve the FXO disconnect problem?

A. power denial

B. tone-based supervisory disconnect

C. pulse dial

D. ground-start signaling

E. battery reversal

Answer: C



QUESTION 42

Which three signaling types are not used by analog E&M circuits as start dial supervision protocols?

(Choose three.)

A. delay dial

B. wink-start

C. ground-start

D. wink-start Feature Group D

E. immediate-start

F. pulse dial

Answer: CDF

QUESTION 43

Which three are valid T1 CAS types? (Choose three.)

A. E&M signaling

B. semi compelled signaling

C. loop-start signaling

D. line signaling

E. Group 1 signaling

F. ground-start signaling

Answer: ACF

QUESTION 44

Which R2 signaling element passes address information such as calling- and called-party numbers?

A. pulse signaling

B. delay dial signaling

C. line signaling

D. interregister signaling

E. out-of-band signaling

Answer: D

QUESTION 45

How many frames are contained in one multiframe within an SF format?

A. 4



B. 8

C. 15

D. 16

E. 30

F. 32

Answer: D

QUESTION 46

How many channels on a voice E1 circuit are used to carry PCM-encoded voice traffic?

A. 16

B. 28

C. 29

D. 30

E. 31

Answer: D

QUESTION 47

According to the IEEE 802.3af PoE standard, what is the maximum power (in watts) that is delivered

to a power-consuming device?

A. 6.3

B. 14.5

C. 15.4

D. 20

E. 22.5

F. 25.4

Answer: C

QUESTION 48

What is the complete name of LLDP-MED, an enhancement to the vendor-neutral LLDP that is

supported on Cisco switches?

A. Link Layer Discovery Protocol-Media Endpoint Discovery

B. Link Layer Discovery Protocol-Media Enhancement Delivery

C. Link Layer Discovery Protocol-Media Enhancement Discovery

D. Link Layer Discovery Protocol-Multiple Enhancement Delivery

E. Link Layer Discovery Protocol-Multiple Endpoint Discovery



Answer: A

QUESTION 49

Which of these is not a valid switchback method for SCCP hardware conference bridges?

A. immediate

B. never

C. graceful

D. guard

E. uptime

Answer: B

QUESTION 50

Which two are valid switchover methods for SCCP hardware conference bridges? (Choose two.)

A. immediate

B. guard

C. uptime delay

D. schedule time

E. graceful

F. never

Answer: AE

QUESTION 51

What is the default switchback method for an SCCP hardware transcoder when a higher-priority

Cisco Unified Communications Manager becomes available again?

A. graceful

B. immediate

C. uptime

D. never

E. guard

Answer: E

QUESTION 52

Which telephony signaling type cannot be configured for a Cisco IOS MGCP gateway on Cisco

Unified Communications Manager?



A. T1 PRI

B. analog FXO

C. analog E&M

D. T1 CAS E&M delay dial

E. ISDN BRI

Answer: C

QUESTION 53

Which two codecs provide built-in VAD? (Choose two.)

A. G.711 mu-law

B. G.722-64K

C. G.723.1 Annex A

D. G.726

E. G.729

F. G.729 Annex B

Answer: CF

QUESTION 54

Which statement about the G.729 codec is correct?

A. G.729 and G.729A are both high-complexity codecs.

B. G.729A and G.729B both provide built-in VAD.

C. G.729 is a low-complexity codec, while G.729A is a high-complexity codec.

D. G.729 is a high-complexity codec, while G.729A is a medium-complexity codec.

E. G.729 is a low-complexity codec, while G.729A is a medium-complexity codec.

Answer: D

QUESTION 55

Which three codecs are considered to have medium complexity on Cisco IOS voice gateways?

(Choose three.)

A. G.711 a-law

B. G.711 mu-law

C. G.723

D. G.728



E. G.729

F. G.729 Annex A with Annex B

Answer: ABF

QUESTION 56

Which three codecs are considered to have high complexity on Cisco IOS voice gateways? (Choose

three.)

A. G.711 a-law

B. G.711 mu-law

C. G.723

D. G.728

E. G.729a

F. G.729 Annex B

Answer: CDF

QUESTION 57

Which statement about the G.729 codec is correct?

A. G.729 Annex A is a high-complexity codec.

B. G.729 Annex A and G.729 do not interoperate with each other.

C. G.729 Annex A with Annex B is a pre-IETF-standard format.

D. G.729 Annex A with Annex B and G.729 Annex B can interoperate with each other only through

a transcoder.

E. The Cisco IOS configuration option of "g729r8" uses G.729 Annex A when medium complexity

is defined on the voice card.

Answer: E

QUESTION 58

On a Cisco IOS MGCP PRI gateway, what is the maximum configurable length of time for a scheduled

switchback to a higher-priority Cisco Unified Communications Manager?

A. 6 hours

B. 12 hours

C. 18 hours



D. 24 hours

E. 48 hours

Answer: D

QUESTION 59

Which of these is an invalid switchback method for a Cisco IOS MGCP PRI gateway in case a higher-

priority Cisco Unified Communications Manager returns to active service?

A. guard

B. graceful

C. immediate

D. schedule time

E. uptime delay

Answer: A

QUESTION 60

What is the default switchback method for a Cisco IOS MGCP PRI gateway when a higher-priority

Cisco Unified Communications Manager becomes available again?

A. graceful

B. immediate

C. uptime delay

D. never

E. schedule time

Answer: A

QUESTION 61

Which statement about the Media Resource Group on Cisco Unified Communications Manager is

correct?

A. Different types of media resources cannot be grouped into the same Media Resource Group.

B. A Media Resource Group contains a prioritized list of media resources.

C. The default Media Resource Group is defined in the service parameters of Cisco Unified


D. Once a media resource is associated with a Media Resource Group, it is no longer eligible to



be associated with another Media Resource Group.

E. The Media Resource Group configuration page allows administrators to choose whether to use

multicast for MOH audio.

Answer: E

QUESTION 62

Which statement about MRGL on Cisco Unified Communications Manager is incorrect?

A. MRGL can be assigned to devices at the device level, device pool level, or both.

B. MRGL contains a prioritized list of Media Resource Groups.

C. Media resources that are not contained in any Media Resource Groups are not used by MRGL.

D. MRGL can contain a single Media Resource Group.

E. When a call is placed on hold, the MRGL of the device that put the call on hold determines

which MOH server is used to play music to the held device.

Answer: C

QUESTION 63

Cisco Unified Communications Manager Server A and Cisco Unified Communications Manager

Server B are in the same cluster. The cluster has a total of four registered conference bridges: two

software conference bridges (one from each server) and two Cisco IOS hardware conference

bridges. All four conference bridges are registered to Server B as the primary call-processing node

and Server A as the backup. If an administrator accidentally deactivated the Cisco IP Voice Media

Streaming Application service on Server B, what will happen to the conference resources in the

cluster?

A. All four conference bridges will register to Server A.

B. The Server B software bridge will deregister; the other three bridges will register to Server A.

C. The Server B software bridge will deregister; the other three bridges will remain registered to

Server B.

D. Both software bridges will deregister, and both hardware bridges will remain registered to

Server B.

E. Both software bridges will deregister, and both hardware bridges will register to Server A.

Answer: C

QUESTION 64

Cisco Unified Communications Manager Server A and Cisco Unified Communications Manager

Server B are in the same cluster. The cluster has a total of four registered conference bridges: two

software conference bridges (one from each server) and two Cisco IOS hardware conference



bridges. All four conference bridges are registered to Server B as the primary call-processing node

and Server A as the backup. If an administrator accidentally deactivated the Cisco CallManager

service on Server B, what will happen to the conference resources in the cluster?

A. All four conference bridges will register to Server A.

B. The Server B software bridge will deregister; the other three bridges will register to Server A.

C. The Server B software bridge will deregister; the other three bridges will remain registered to

Server B.

D. Both software bridges will deregister, and both hardware bridges will remain registered to

Server B.

E. Both software bridges will deregister, and both hardware bridges will register to Server A.

Answer: A

QUESTION 65

Which string is not a valid route pattern on Cisco Unified Communications Manager?

A. 123@

B. 123.

C. 123*

D. 123$

E. 123?

Answer: D

QUESTION 66

Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager route pattern character represents zero or more

occurrences of the previous digit or wildcard?

A. !

B. +

C. *

D. .

E. ?

Answer: E

QUESTION 67

Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager route pattern character represents one or more

occurrences of digits in the range of zero to nine?



A. !

B. +

C. *

D. .

E. ?

Answer: A

QUESTION 68

Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager route pattern character represents one or more

occurrences of the previous digit or wildcard?

A. !

B. +

C. *

D. .

E. ?

Answer: B

QUESTION 69

Refer to the exhibit. Incoming calls that use this FXO port are hearing two rings before the

destination endpoint, 1001, begins to ring. What is a possible cause for this behavior?

A. Connection plar opx in the current configuration is wrong; it should be replaced with

connection plar.

B. 1001 is configured for delayed ring.

C. Caller ID is not provisioned by the telephone company on this FXO line.

D. FXO ports always ring twice before ringing the destination endpoint.

Answer: C

QUESTION 70

What is the default method of handling an H.323 connection from unknown devices on Cisco

Unified Communications Manager?

A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager accepts incoming H.323 connections from unknown



devices.

B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager ignores incoming H.323 connections from unknown

devices.

C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager rejects incoming H.323 connections from unknown

devices by sending an H.225 reject.

D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager rejects incoming H.323 connections from unknown

devices by sending an H.225 disconnect.

E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager rejects incoming H.323 connections from unknown

devices by closing the TCP socket.

Answer: E

QUESTION 71

What is the default method of handling an H.323 connection from unknown devices on a Cisco IOS

H.323 gateway?

A. A Cisco IOS H.323 gateway accepts incoming H.323 connections from unknown devices.

B. A Cisco IOS H.323 gateway ignores incoming H.323 connections from unknown devices.

C. A Cisco IOS H.323 gateway rejects incoming H.323 connections from unknown devices by

sending an H.225 reject.

D. A Cisco IOS H.323 gateway rejects incoming H.323 connections from unknown devices by

sending an H.225 disconnect.

E. A Cisco IOS H.323 gateway rejects incoming H.323 connections from unknown devices by

closing the TCP socket.

Answer: A

QUESTION 72

An H.225 call setup arrives at Cisco Unified Communications Manager for a directory number on

an IP phone that is engaged in an active conversation. If call waiting is disabled for this directory

number and none of the Call Forward settings are defined, which H.225 disconnect reason code

will be sent to the originating H.323 gateway?

A. No Route To Destination

B. Normal Call Clearing

C. Subscriber Absent

D. User Busy

E. Network Busy



Answer: D

QUESTION 73

When an H.225 call setup arrives at Cisco Unified Communications Manager for an IP phone

directory number with a partition that is not reachable by the H.323 gateway calling search space,

which H.225 disconnect reason code will be sent to the originating H.323 gateway?

A. No Route To Destination

B. Unallocated (Unassigned) Number

C. Number Unreachable

D. Number Available But Out of Reach

E. Network Busy

Answer: B

QUESTION 74

When a call arrives from the PSTN on a Cisco IOS MGCP PRI gateway that is registered to Cisco

Unified Communications Manager, destined to an IP phone directory number with a partition that

is not reachable by the MGCP gateway calling search space, which event will take place?

A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager will send the call to the Call Forward Busy destination

that is configured on the IP phone.

B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager will disconnect the call with an MGCP DLCX message.

C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager will disconnect the call with a Q.931 cause of "No

Route To Destination".

D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager will disconnect the call with a Q.931 cause of

"Unallocated (Unassigned) Number".

E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager will disconnect the call with a cause code of 420,

which means "Bad Extension".

Answer: D

QUESTION 75

A call arrives from the PSTN on a Cisco IOS MGCP PRI gateway that is registered to Cisco Unified

Communications Manager, destined for a directory number on an IP phone that is engaged in an

active conversation. If call waiting is disabled for this directory number and none of the Call

Forward settings are defined, which event will take place?

A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager will disconnect the call with an MGCP RSIP message.

B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager will disconnect the call with an MGCP DLCX message

with a cause of "Busy".

C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager will disconnect the call with a Q.931 cause of "User



Busy".

D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager will disconnect the call with a Q.931 cause of

"Temporary Failure".

E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager will disconnect the call with a cause code of 486,

which means "Busy Here".

Answer: C

QUESTION 76

How many bits in an 802.1Q tagged Ethernet frame are used for 802.1p priority?

A. 3

B. 4

C. 5

D. 6

Answer: A

QUESTION 77

Refer to the exhibit. In this 802.1Q tagged Ethernet frame, which block of bits, labeled A, B, C, and

D, is used as TPID?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Answer: A

QUESTION 78

Refer to the exhibit. In this 802.1Q tagged Ethernet frame, which block of bits, labeled A, B, C, and

D, is used as VID?



A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Answer: D

QUESTION 79

Refer to the exhibit. In this IPv4 packet, which bits in the ToS byte are used for ECN?

A. bits 0, 1

B. bits 0, 1, 2

C. bits 2, 3, 4

D. bits 5, 6, 7

Answer: A

QUESTION 80

Refer to the exhibit. In this IPv4 packet, which bits in the ToS byte are used for DSCP?

A. bits 0 to 5

B. bits 2 to 7



C. bits 3 to 7

D. bits 5 to 7

Answer: B

QUESTION 81

Refer to the exhibit. In this IPv4 packet, which bits in the ToS byte are used for IP precedence?

A. bits 0 to 2

B. bits 2 to 4

C. bits 4 to 7

D. bits 5 to 7

Answer: D

QUESTION 82

Your client has a business requirement that mandates exact DTMF durations being passed end-to-

end across an H.323 VoIP infrastructure. Which two DTMF relay methods meet the client

requirement? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco RTP

B. H.245 signal

C. H.245 alphanumeric

D. RTP-NTE

E. H.225 Notify

F. in-band voice

Answer: BD



QUESTION 83

Cisco Unified Communications Manager generates different types of alarms to indicate system or

process-related problems. "Code Yellow" is one of these alarms. Which of these system or process

exceptions will trigger a Code Yellow alarm on Cisco Unified Communications Manager?

A. when a hard drive fails

B. when there is a memory leak

C. when the Cisco Unified Communications Manager application generates a core dump

D. when a database replication problem arises

E. when calls are throttled because of an unacceptably high delay in call handling

Answer: E

QUESTION 84

In which two circumstances would Cisco Unified Communications Manager accept inbound H.323

calls from unknown IP hosts? (Choose two.)

A. when inbound H.323 calls are routed via gatekeeper-controlled trunks

B. when inbound calls are routed via intercluster trunks

C. after administrators have changed the Cisco Unified Communications Manager clusterwide

service parameter of "Accept Unknown TCP connection" to true

D. when inbound H.323 calls are routed via non-gatekeeper-controlled trunks

E. when inbound calls are routed using H.323 fast start

F. after administrators have changed the Cisco Unified Communications Manager clusterwide

service parameter of "Unknown Caller ID Flag" to true

Answer: AC

QUESTION 85

The Cisco UMR feature allows Cisco Unity to take outside caller messages while their Exchange

Server is unavailable. Which two statements about Cisco UMR are incorrect? (Choose two.)

A. If the Cisco Unity primary Exchange Server goes offline, all subscribers hear the UMR

conversation.

B. Cisco Unity messages, deposited while the Message Store is down, will have different time

stamps after the Message Store returns to service and handles the message delivery.

C. When Cisco Unity moves messages from Cisco UMR to the Exchange Server, all messages

appear as new even if they were listened to using the UMR conversation, thus also triggering

MWIs.

D. Cisco Unity does not light MWIs for messages that arrived during an outage and are in Cisco

UMR.

E. The Cisco UMR messages that Cisco Unity handled during an Exchange outage are stored in



the local directory at "C:\Commserver\UnityMTA". This path is hardcoded and cannot be

changed after the Cisco Unity installation.

F. During an Exchange outage, messages to the unaddressed message distribution lists appear in

Cisco UMR and can be accessed by all members of the list.

Answer: EF

QUESTION 86

Cisco Unity extends a number of schema object classes in Microsoft Active Directory during the

schema extension process. Which three object classes are extended by the Cisco Unity schema

extension process? (Choose three.)

A. user

B. computer

C. domain

D. organizational unit

E. group

F. contact

Answer: AEF

QUESTION 87

Refer to the exhibit. Using information that is provided in the Cisco IOS gatekeeper configuration

and the show gatekeeper endpoint output, how will the gatekeeper route the call when it receives

an ARQ with a called number of 1000?



A. The call will be extended to the device with the H.323 ID of "cucm".

B. The call will be extended to the device with the H.323 ID of "cme".

C. The information that is provided is insufficient to answer the question. The output of show

gatekeeper gw-type-prefix is needed to determine the gateway selection decision of the

gatekeeper.

D. The call will be rejected by the gatekeeper.

E. The information that is provided is insufficient to answer the question. The output of show

gatekeeper zone status for the bandwidth consumption level is needed to determine if the

gatekeeper will admit the call.

Answer: C

QUESTION 88

Refer to the exhibit. What will be experienced by a PSTN caller when calling into this T1 PRI circuit?

A. The caller will hear a continuous ringback tone.

B. The caller will hear a dial tone.

C. The caller will hear a fast-busy tone.

D. The caller will hear a slow-busy tone.

E. The caller will not hear anything.

Answer: B

QUESTION 89

Which set of SIP headers is mandatory in SIP requests?

A. Call-ID, Contact, User-Agent, RSeq, SDP



B. Allow, Supported, Via, From, To, CSeq

C. Via, From, To, Call-ID, CSeq, Contact

D. Content-Type, Content-Length, Session-Expires, Via, From

E. Req URI, From, Via, To, CSeq

Answer: C

QUESTION 90

Which statement regarding SIP requests or responses is correct?

A. SIP requests always expire after 120 seconds; this is known as the J-Timer in SIP RFC.

B. Secure SIP requests using TLS cannot be interworked to non-TLS networks.

C. SIP responses are always sent to the IP or FQDN in the "Via" header of an incoming request.

D. The "Max-Forwards" header value is incremented as it passes through each SIP hop.

E. Midcall SIP requests are always sent to the IP or FQDN in the "Contact" header of an incoming

request.

Answer: C

QUESTION 91

Which statement about the offer/answer model of SDP is correct?

A. Offer/answer cannot be considered complete when it happens in an INVITE/18x exchange.

B. PRACK message must not carry SDP, or else offer/answer will not work.

C. Offer must be included in the initial INVITE; otherwise, offer/answer cannot complete.

D. It is best to start a call without an offer and wait for an answer.

E. ACK message can carry the SDP answer.

Answer: E

QUESTION 92

Which two mechanisms can be used to detect SIP calls that are hung or stuck in an incomplete

state? (Choose two.)

A. SDP time stamps and version number

B. PRACK (RSeq)

C. session timer

D. periodic hold/resume

E. OOD Refer

F. RTP and RTCP inactivity monitoring

Answer: CF



QUESTION 93

Which statement correctly describes symmetric signaling in SIP?

A. SIP devices use the same listening port for all incoming SIP messages.

B. SIP devices send and receive SIP messages at the same time.

C. SIP devices send SIP traffic to the same IP address and port number of an upstream element.

D. SIP devices use the same source port for SIP messages.

E. SIP devices use the same port number for sending and receiving SIP messages.

Answer: E

QUESTION 94

Refer to the exhibit. The line that is shown in the exhibit appeared in the Cisco Unified

Communications Manager trace for a SIP IP phone that deregisters frequently. What could be the

reason for deregistration?

A. The phone was reset from the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration web

page.

B. The phone lost power momentarily and rebooted itself.

C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager reset the TCP connection to the phone.

D. The phone was restarted from the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration web

page.

E. The phone aborted the TCP connection.

Answer: B

QUESTION 95

Which statement about the "Unknown Caller ID" service parameter in Cisco Unified

Communications Manager configuration is true?

A. This parameter defines a numeric string to be displayed to the called party on inbound calls

that arrived with no caller ID information.

B. This parameter designates a numeric string to be displayed to the called party for outbound

calls without caller ID information.

C. This parameter defines a numeric or a text string to be displayed to the called party for inbound

calls that arrived with no caller ID information.

D. This parameter designates a numeric or a text string to be displayed to the called party for



outbound calls without caller ID information.

E. This parameter defines a numeric string to be displayed to the called party on inbound and

outbound calls with no caller ID information.

Answer: A

QUESTION 96

Which two media resources are not required by Cisco Unified Communications Manager for

outbound early-offer support on SIP trunks? (Choose two.)

A. annunciator

B. software-based MTP in Cisco IOS gateways

C. hardware-based MTPs in Cisco IOS gateways

D. software-based MTPs using the Cisco IP Voice Media Streaming Application on Cisco MCS

E. Cisco Unified Border Element with H.323-to-SIP interworking enabled

Answer: AE

QUESTION 97

There are several methods to transport DTMF digits between SIP endpoints. Which three methods

are supported by Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose three.)

A. Unsolicited Notify

B. INFO

C. KPML

D. RFC 2833 in-band signal tone/event

E. Cisco RTP-NTE

F. H.245 alphanumeric

Answer: ACD

QUESTION 98

According to the Cisco QoS SRND guide, cRTP is recommended on which link speed?

A. lower than or equal to 10 Mb/s

B. lower than or equal to 384 kb/s

C. lower than or equal to 1.544 Mb/s

D. lower than or equal to 768 kb/s

E. lower than or equal to 512 kb/s

Answer: D



QUESTION 99

Which Cisco IOS CLI command can be used to identify the high jitter level of an RTP stream on a

Cisco IOS voice gateway?

A. show call active voice brief

B. show voip rtp connections

C. show voice dsp detailed

D. show voice call summary

E. show policy-map interface

Answer: A

QUESTION 100

According to RFC 3551, where default mappings between RTP payload type numbers and

encodings are defined, which RTP payload type corresponds to G.711 a-law encoding?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 8

D. 13

E. 18

Answer: C

QUESTION 101

According to RFC 3551, where default mappings between RTP payload type numbers and

encodings are defined, which RTP payload type corresponds to encoded packets that are triggered

by silence on a call with voice activity detection?

A. 0

B. 13

C. 15

D. 18

Answer: B



QUESTION 102

Which version of MGCP is used on a Cisco IOS MGCP gateway that is registered to Cisco Unified

Communications Manager?

A. 0.0

B. 0.1

C. 1.0

D. 1.1

E. It varies between Cisco Unified Communications Manager versions.

Answer: B

QUESTION 103

On a Cisco IOS MGCP gateway, which DTMF relay method uses MGCP NTFY messages to send digits

to Cisco Unified Communications Manager?

A. Cisco

B. NSE

C. NTE-CA

D. NTE-GW

E. out-of-band

Answer: E

QUESTION 104

Which SCCP message is used to instruct to an SCCP IP phone the remote IP address and port

number to send RTP packets?

A. Station IP Port message

B. Station Open Receive Channel message

C. Station Start Media Transmission message

D. Station Call Information message

E. Station Open Logical Channel message

Answer: C



QUESTION 105

An IP phone user just answered an incoming call by lifting the handset. Assuming that the IP phone

uses SCCP, which SCCP message will Cisco Unified Communications Manager transmit to this called

IP phone immediately after receiving notification about the off-hook event?

A. Station Media Port List message

B. Station Set Ringer message

C. Station Stop Tone message

D. Station Start Media Transmission message

E. Station Open Receive Channel message

Answer: B

QUESTION 106

Which SCCP message is used by an IP phone to inform Cisco Unified Communications Manager

about the IP address and port number to be used for an incoming RTP stream?

A. Station Capability Response message

B. Station IP Port message

C. Station Open Receive Channel ACK message

D. Station Media Reception ACK message

E. Station Start Media Transmission message

Answer: C

QUESTION 107

When an IP phone that is using SCCP places an active call on hold, which SCCP message will be

transmitted from the phone to Cisco Unified Communications Manager?

A. Station On Hold message

B. Station Keypad Button message

C. Station Close Receive Channel message

D. Station Stop Media Transmission message

E. Station Softkey Event message

Answer: E



QUESTION 108

What is the proper Cisco IOS CLI command to configure an analog FXS port to be controlled by

Cisco Unified Communications Manager using SCCP?

A. dial-peer voice 1 pots

port 1/0

service skinny

B. dial-peer voice 1 pots

port 1/0

service sccp

C. dial-peer voice 1 pots

port 1/0

service stcapp

D. dial-peer voice 1 pots

port 1/0

service sccpapp

E. dial-peer voice 1 pots

port 1/0

application sccp

Answer: C

QUESTION 109

Refer to the exhibit. Listed in the exhibit are five attributes that a Cisco IOS router uses to select an

inbound dial peer. Which attribute order, from highest to lowest priority, is used by a Cisco IOS

router for inbound dial-peer matching?

A. II, I, III, V, IV

B. III, I, II, V, IV

C. III, II, I, V, IV

D. II, III, I, V, IV



E. V, III, II, I, IV

F. V, II, III, I, IV

Answer: C

QUESTION 110

Which two attributes are not used by a Cisco IOS router in the inbound dial-peer selection process?

(Choose two.)

A. default dial-peer 0

B. called number with the destination-pattern command of each dial peer

C. calling number with the destination-pattern command of each dial peer

D. calling number with the answer-address command of each dial peer

E. called number with the incoming called-number command of each dial peer

F. called number with the answer-address command of each dial peer

G. voice port that is associated with an incoming call

Answer: BF

QUESTION 111

Refer to the exhibit. When an inbound call with a calling number of 1001 and a called number of

2112 arrives at a Cisco IOS router with these dial peers, what is the correct order of dial-peer

matching, from highest to lowest priority?

A. II, III, I, IV

B. II, IV, III, I



C. III, IV, II, I

D. III, II, IV, I

E. II, III, IV, I

Answer: D

QUESTION 112

Refer to the exhibit. When an outbound call with a calling number of 2112 and a called number of

1001 is placed through a Cisco IOS router with these dial peers, what is the correct order of dial-

peer matching, from highest to lowest priority?

A. I, II, III, IV

B. II, I, III, IV

C. II, I, IV, III

D. I, II, IV, III

E. II, IV, I, III

Answer: B

QUESTION 113

What is the default DTMF relay for Cisco Unity Express when integrated via SIP?



A. RTP-NTE

B. SIP Notify

C. SIP INFO

D. in-band audio

E. SIP Subscribe/Notify

Answer: B

QUESTION 114

Refer to the exhibit. This Cisco Unified Communications Manager trace shows a SIP message that

is sent by a SIP Cisco Unified IP Phone 7965 to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which of

these regarding the content of this SIP message is correct?

A. phone registration message to the primary Cisco Unified Communications Manager

B. keepalive message to the primary Cisco Unified Communications Manager

C. phone registration message to the secondary Cisco Unified Communications Manager during

a server failover

D. keepalive message to the secondary Cisco Unified Communications Manager

E. phone registration message to the primary Cisco Unified Communications Manager during

fallback

Answer: D

QUESTION 115

Refer to the exhibit. This Cisco Unified Communications Manager trace shows a SIP message that

was sent by a SIP Cisco Unified IP Phone 7965 to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which of



these about the content of this SIP message is correct?

A. phone registration message to the primary Cisco Unified Communications Manager

B. keepalive message to the primary Cisco Unified Communications Manager

C. phone registration message to the secondary Cisco Unified Communications Manager during

a server failover

D. keepalive message to the secondary Cisco Unified Communications Manager

E. phone registration message to the primary Cisco Unified Communications Manager during

fallback

Answer: B

QUESTION 116

A customer purchased 10,000 phone license units for a Cisco Unified Communications Manager

cluster. How many phone license unit overdrafts are permitted in this Cisco Unified

Communications Manager cluster?

A. 200

B. 500

C. 700

D. 1000

E. Phone license unit overdrafts are never permitted.

Answer: B

QUESTION 117

Refer to the exhibit. The error alert that is shown in the exhibit is seen in the "Event Viewer—

Application Log" on Cisco Unified Presence. Which action will be performed by the Cisco LPM tool

in response to the alert?



A. LPM will purge trace and core files until disk usage is below the configured low watermark.

B. LPM will purge all trace files and core files.

C. LPM will not do anything; administrators must manually remove excess files in the active

partition.

D. LPM will not do anything; administrators must manually remove excess files in the common

partition.

E. LPM will purge some of the trace and core files until 50 percent of the disk space is available.

Answer: A

QUESTION 118

Refer to the exhibit. The log was captured for a Cisco Unified Presence client that is not able to

perform desk phone control to a Cisco IP phone. Which two of these could be the potential causes

that are revealed by the log? (Choose two.)

A. The IP phone is not registered.

B. The IP phone is not configured with "Allow Control of Device from CTI."

C. The directory number of the IP phone is not configured with "Allow Control of Device from

CTI."

D. The Standard CTI Enabled group is not added to the Cisco Unified Presence user in Cisco Unified


E. The CTI gateway profile is not added to the user application profile in Cisco Unified Presence.

F. The Cisco CTIManager service is not running on Cisco Unified Communications Manager.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 119

Which network port is not used by the Cisco Unified Presence client?

A. TCP port 143

B. TCP port 2000



C. TCP port 2748

D. UDP port 69

E. TCP port 443

F. TCP port 389

Answer: B

QUESTION 120

When using the Local Route Group feature in Cisco Unified Communications Manager, in which

two levels can you apply the called party transformation pattern? (Choose two.)

A. device pool

B. gateway

C. route pattern

D. route group

E. route list

F. service parameter

Answer: AB

QUESTION 121

Refer to the exhibit. Which dial peer will the Cisco IOS voice gateway match if an incoming call with

a calling number of 100 and called number of 101 arrives at this T1 PRI port?

A. dial-peer voice 2

B. dial-peer voice 3

C. dial-peer voice 5

D. dial-peer voice 8



E. dial-peer voice 0

Answer: B

QUESTION 122

Refer to the exhibit. Which dial peer will the Cisco IOS voice gateway match if an incoming call with

a calling number of 100 and called number of 101 arrives at this T1 PRI port?

A. dial-peer voice 2

B. dial-peer voice 3

C. dial-peer voice 5

D. dial-peer voice 8

E. dial-peer voice 0

Answer: D

QUESTION 123

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about this debug message that was captured from a

Cisco IOS H.323 gateway are correct? (Choose two.)



A. The calling-party number is 2000.

B. If this gateway is able to accept the call, it should respond with an H.225 call proceeding

message.

C. If this gateway is able to accept the call, it should respond with an H.225 setup ACK message.

D. If this gateway is able to accept the call, it should respond with an H.225 connect ACK message.

E. The called-party number is 2000.

F. Neither gateway is allowed to begin RTP transmission until the H.225 connect message is sent.

Answer: AC

QUESTION 124

Which Cisco IOS command and configuration mode can be used to force a Cisco IOS voice gateway



to use TCP as the transport protocol for SIP?

A. router(config)#sip transport tcp

B. router(conf-voi-serv)#no sip transport udp

C. router(conf-serv-sip)#no transport udp

D. router(conf-serv-sip)#transport tcp

E. router(config-sip-ua)#no transport udp

Answer: E

QUESTION 125

Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows how MOH Server A and MOH Server B are associated with

Phone A and Phone B. If Phone A presses the Hold softkey during an active call with Phone B using

the G.711 mu-law codec, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

A. MOH Server A will be used to play MOH toward Phone B.

B. MOH Server B will be used to play MOH toward Phone B.

C. Phone B will continue using G.711 as the codec to receive MOH.

D. Phone B will use G.729 as the codec to receive MOH by default.

E. Phone B will renegotiate the codec with the selected MOH server based on the region settings

of both parties.

Answer: BE

QUESTION 126

When calls are placed by certain Cisco Unified Communications Manager supplementary services,

the Local Route Group feature will be bypassed. Which of these does not belong to the

supplementary services?

A. Call Back

B. Call Forward

C. Message Waiting Indicator



D. Mobility Follow Me

E. Path Replacement

Answer: B

QUESTION 127

Phone A, Phone B, and Phone C are configured to be in Device Pool A, Device Pool B, and Device

Pool C, respectively. The Local Route Group feature was configured on Cisco Unified

Communications Manager for each device pool. Phone B has set CFA to Phone C; Phone C has set

CFNA to a PSTN number. When Phone A calls Phone B and if Phone C does not answer, which local

route group will be used to route the call?

A. The local route group that is configured for the Phone A device pool will be used.

B. The local route group that is configured for the Phone B device pool will be used.

C. The local route group that is configured for the Phone C device pool will be used.

D. All local route groups will be bypassed.

E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager will disallow the forwarded call because it might cause

routing loops.

Answer: A

QUESTION 128

Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows the T.30 message exchanges that resulted in a single page

fax call failure. Which T.30 message sequence will result in a successful fax transmission?



A. PPS, EOP, PPR, PPS, EOP, NSF, DCN

B. MPS, EOP, PPR, PPS, EOP, MCF, DCN

C. PPS, EOP, RTP, PPS, EOP, NSF, DCN

D. PPS, EOP, PPR, PPS, EOP, MCF, DCN

E. PPS, EOP, NSF, DCN

Answer: D

QUESTION 129

Refer to the exhibit. The debug outputs that are shown in the exhibit were collected at the

terminating Cisco IOS gateway for a fax call that failed. Which two of these could be the failure

reasons? (Choose two.)



A. The fax originated from a third-party fax gateway.

B. The fax originated from a Cisco gateway that is configured with a protocol-based Cisco fax relay.

C. The fax originated from a Cisco gateway that is configured with a protocol-based fax

passthrough.

D. The fax originated from a Cisco gateway that is configured with an NTE-based fax passthrough.

E. The fax originated from a gateway that is configured with an NSE-based fax relay.

Answer: AC

QUESTION 130

Which MGCP message is used to indicate fax switchover in a call agent-controlled T.38 fax relay?

A. CRCX

B. NSE

C. NTE

D. NTFY

E. MDCX

Answer: E

QUESTION 131

Refer to the exhibit. The debug that is shown was captured on a Cisco Unified Communications

Manager Express router with FXO ports connecting to the PSTN. All incoming calls from the PSTN

are directed to an IP phone operator for further processing. The IP phone operator has reported

that the calling number and name are absent for all incoming PSTN calls. Which configuration will

resolve this issue?



A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: D



QUESTION 132

Refer to the exhibit. Which two DTMF capabilities are advertised in this SIP INVITE message?

(Choose two.)

A. in-band voice

B. RTP-NTE

C. SIP KPML

D. SIP Notify

E. Cisco RTP

F. RTP-NSE

Answer: BD

QUESTION 133

Refer to the exhibit. Which three header fields do not change for the duration of this call using SIP?

(Choose three.)



A. From tag

B. To tag

C. Contact:

D. transaction ID in the Viheader

E. request URI

F. Call-ID:

Answer: ABF

QUESTION 134

Refer to the exhibit. Which data rate, in bits per second, would be negotiated for a T.38 fax call?

A. 33600

B. 28800

C. 14400

D. 24000

E. 19200

Answer: C

QUESTION 135



Which three statements about a modem pass-through call are correct? (Choose three.)

A. Clear-channel codec is used to transport modem tones.

B. G.711 mu-law codec is used to transport modem tones.

C. VAD is disabled.

D. VAD is enabled.

E. NLP is disabled.

F. NLP is enabled.

Answer: BCE

QUESTION 136

Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct duration, in milliseconds, of the DTMF digit that is received?

A. 30

B. 40

C. 60

D. 65

E. 101

Answer: C

QUESTION 137

Which three services must be activated on Cisco Unified Presence in order for presence and instant

messaging to be functional? (Choose three.)

A. Cisco Unified Presence SIP Proxy

B. Cisco AXL Web Service

C. Cisco Bulk Provisioning Service

D. Cisco Unified Presence Engine

E. Cisco Unified Presence Sync Agent

F. Cisco Serviceability Reporter

Answer: ADE



QUESTION 138

Which Cisco Unified Presence service parameter must be modified from the default value in order

for presence and instant messaging to be functional?

A. server name

B. server IP address

C. DNS domain

D. SIP proxy domain

E. enable presence

Answer: D

QUESTION 139

What is required to back up Cisco Unified Presence configuration?

A. tape backup device

B. USB hard disk

C. FTP server

D. SFTP server

E. TFTP server

Answer: D

QUESTION 140

Refer to the exhibit. Which of the certificates that are shown must be uploaded to Cisco Unified

Presence when integrating the calendar with Exchange Server "email.cisco.com"?



A. DST Root CA X3 only

B. Cisco SSCA only

C. email.cisco.com only

D. DST Root CA X3 and Cisco SSCA

E. Cisco SSCA and email.cisco.com

Answer: D

QUESTION 141

Which of these best describes the "Incoming ACL" configuration on Cisco Unified Presence?

A. permits incoming packets to Cisco Unified Presence

B. bypasses digest authentication

C. allows instant messages

D. allows incoming certificates to Cisco Unified Presence

E. filters incoming presence status requests

Answer: B



QUESTION 142

Which Cisco tool can be used to capture packets on Cisco Unified Presence?

A. Cisco Unified Presence CLI

B. System Troubleshooter on the Cisco Unified Presence web portal

C. Cisco Unified RTMT

D. Cisco Unified Presence "Cisco Unified Serviceability" web portal

E. Cisco Unified Presence "Cisco Unified OS Administration" web portal

Answer: A

QUESTION 143

Which two Cisco Unified Contact Center Express system components do not support integration

redundancy? (Choose two.)

A. CTI ports

B. AXL service

C. Cisco Unified CM Telephony trigger

D. CSQ

E. dialog groups

F. HTTP trigger

Answer: DF

QUESTION 144

Which three statements about the Outbound Dialer solution on Cisco Unified Contact Center

Express are correct? (Choose three.)

A. The Outbound Dialer can make a call as long as the CTI port is available.

B. In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express high-availability system, the Outbound Dialer would

not be functional if one of the database nodes is down.

C. When the Outbound Dialer makes a call to an invalid number, the system disconnects the call

automatically and will not involve any agent.

D. The Outbound Dialer cannot use the Cisco IP Phone Agent to make calls.

E. When the Outbound Dialer selects an agent to take a call, the agent will be given a choice

whether to accept the call.

Answer: BDE

QUESTION 145

Refer to the exhibit. User "jdoe" was not able to download voice mail with his Cisco Unified



Personal Communicator. Which configuration change on the Voicemail Profile Configuration page

on Cisco Unified Presence is most likely to solve this problem?

A. Change the Name field to the IP address.

B. Select the appropriate option in the Voice Messaging Pilot field.

C. Select the appropriate option in the Primary Voicemail Server field.

D. Select the appropriate option in the Primary Mailstore field.

E. Check the "Make this the default Voicemail Profile for the system" check box.

Answer: D

QUESTION 146

Which two statements about the Agent Email feature on Cisco Unified Contact Center Express are

correct? (Choose two.)



A. An email-capable agent can receive both an incoming call and email at the same time.

B. This feature supports IMAPv4, POP3, and SMTP email protocols.

C. All email routing rules are configured at the Cisco Unified Contact Center Express

Administration web interface.

D. An agent can use either Cisco Agent Desktop or Cisco Agent Desktop—Browser Edition to

answer the email.

E. To make an agent email capable, assign the agent to an email CSQ.

Answer: AE

QUESTION 147

You have discovered that the Cisco Unified CM Telephony subsystem is in "PARTIAL_SERVICE" on a

Cisco Unified Contact Center Express server. Which two misconfigurations could lead to this service

state? (Choose two.)

A. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager JTAPI user has invalid login credentials.

B. Not all CTI ports and CTI route points are associated with the Cisco Unified Communications

Manager JTAPI user.

C. The hostname/IP address for Cisco Unified Communications Manager is incorrect.

D. Not all agent phones are associated with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager JTAPI

user.

E. An invalid Cisco Unified Contact Center Express script is used by one of the applications.

Answer: BE

QUESTION 148

After logging into Cisco Agent Desktop, a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express agent could not go

into ready state. Which two reasons could lead to this failure? (Choose two.)

A. The agent has not been assigned to any CSQ.

B. The agent IP phone lost network connectivity.

C. The agent has entered incorrect login credentials.

D. The agent supervisor has not logged in.

E. The agent IP phone has not been associated with the agent user in Cisco Unified


Answer: BE

QUESTION 149

Which of these best describes packetization delay in a VoIP network?

A. the time that is taken by the DSP to compress a block of PCM samples



B. the time that is taken by the compression algorithm to correctly process sample block N

C. the time that is taken to fill a packet payload with encoded/compressed speech

D. the time that is required to clock a voice frame onto the network interface

E. the time that is taken to queue a voice frame for transmission on the network connection

Answer: C

QUESTION 150

Which of these best describes encoder delay in a VoIP network?

A. the time that is taken by the compression algorithm to correctly process sample block N

B. the time that is taken by the DSP to compress a block of PCM samples

C. the time that is taken to fill a packet payload with encoded/compressed speech

D. the time that is required to clock a voice frame onto the network interface

E. the time that is taken to queue a voice frame for transmission on the network connection

Answer: B

QUESTION 151

Which delay in a VoIP network is also known as accumulation delay?

A. coder delay

B. network switching delay

C. queuing delay

D. packetization delay

E. dejitter delay

Answer: D

QUESTION 152

Which statement about coder delay in a VoIP network is correct?

A. Coder delay is the time that is taken to fill a packet payload with encoded/compressed speech.

B. Coder delay is also known as algorithmic delay.

C. Coder delay transforms a variable delay into a fixed delay.

D. Coder delay varies with the voice coder that is used and the processor speed.

E. Coder delay compensates for network switching delay.

Answer: D



QUESTION 153

Which Cisco IOS command is used to define the size of the jitter buffer on Cisco IOS VoIP gateways?

A. jitter-buffer

B. expect-factor

C. acc-qos

D. playout-delay

E. dejitter-buffer

Answer: D

QUESTION 154

Which three Cisco IOS commands can be used to verify configured playout delay values on Cisco

VoIP gateways? (Choose three.)

A. show voice call summary

B. show call active voice

C. show dial-peer voice tag number for dial peer

D. show voice port voice interface number

E. show voice dsp detail

F. show voice accounting method

Answer: BCD

QUESTION 155

Which two characteristics about traffic shaping on Cisco IOS VoIP gateways are incorrect? (Choose

two.)

A. Traffic shaping propagates burst.

B. Traffic shaping buffers and queues excess packets above the committed rates.

C. Traffic shaping token values are configured in bits per second.

D. Traffic shaping is applicable to both inbound and outbound traffic.

E. FRTS and generic traffic shaping are two ways of implementing traffic shaping.

F. Traffic shaping could introduce delays becaus of deep queues.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 156

Which two characteristics about traffic policing on Cisco IOS VoIP gateways are correct? (Choose

two.)

A. Traffic policing buffers and re-marks excess packets above the committed rates.



B. Traffic policing propagates burst.

C. Traffic policing token values are configured in bits per second.

D. Traffic policing is applicable to both inbound and outbound traffic.

E. Traffic policing is an inbound-only concept.

F. Traffic policing could introduce delays because of deep queues.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 157

CRTP belongs to which Cisco quality of service feature?

A. classification

B. congestion management

C. congestion avoidance

D. shaping and policing

E. link efficiency mechanisms

Answer: E

QUESTION 158

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the QoS configuration for interface GigabitEthernet

1/0/1 on the Cisco Catalyst 3750 Series Switch is correct?

A. Egress shaping is enabled with queue 1 being shaped to 25 percent of the available bandwidth.

B. Egress sharing is enabled for all four queues; each queue is allocated 25 percent of the available

bandwidth.

C. Egress shaping is disabled.

D. Egress shaping is enabled with queue 1 being shaped to 4 percent of the available bandwidth.

E. Egress shaping is enabled with queue 4 being shaped to 4 percent of the available bandwidth.

Answer: D

QUESTION 159



Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct expansion of the srr-queue abbreviation that is shown in

the Cisco IOS command of the Catalyst 3750 Series Switch?

A. shared round-robin queue

B. serviced round-robin queue

C. shaped round-robin queue

D. special round-robin queue

E. serial round-robin queue

Answer: C

QUESTION 160

Which statement about the Cisco Unity Connection message quota enforcement policies when a

mailbox has exceeded the send/receive quota is incorrect?

A. The user is unable to send messages.

B. Cisco Unity Connection will automatically purge all deleted messages in the user mailbox.

C. The user hears a warning that the message cannot be sent.

D. Unidentified callers are not allowed to leave messages for the user.

E. Messages from other users generate nondelivery receipts to the senders.

Answer: B

QUESTION 161

What is the default mailbox size that triggers disablement of sending and receiving voice messages

for a Cisco Unity Connection user?

A. 2 MB

B. 4 MB

C. 10 MB

D. 14 MB

E. 20 MB

Answer: D



QUESTION 162

Which two statements about system broadcast messages on Cisco Unity Connection are correct?

(Choose two.)

A. Users can fast-forward a system broadcast message.

B. Users can save a system broadcast message.

C. Users must listen to a system broadcast message in its entirety before they are allowed to hear

new and saved messages or to change setup options.

D. A system broadcast message that has been listened to in its entirety will still be played again

the next time that the user logs in, but the user will be offered an option to skip it.

E. If a user hangs up before playing the entire system broadcast message, the message plays again

the next time that the user logs in, as long as the message is still active.

F. Users can forward a system broadcast message.

Answer: CE

QUESTION 163

Which two statements about system broadcast messages on Cisco Unity Connection are correct?

(Choose two.)

A. Users receive system broadcast messages even when they exceed their mailbox size limits and

are no longer able to receive other messages.

B. System broadcast messages trigger MWIs on user phones but do not trigger MWIs on alternate

devices such as a pager.

C. Users hear broadcast messages only when listening to messages by phone.

D. A system broadcast message that has been listened to in its entirety will still be played again

the next time that the user logs in, but the user will be offered an option to skip it.

E. Users can only receive a limited number of system broadcast messages that are defined by the

Cisco Unity Connection Broadcast Message Administrator.

F. Users can respond to a system broadcast message.

Answer: AC

QUESTION 164

What is the maximum number of days for Cisco Unity Connection to retain expired system

broadcast messages?

A. 1 day

B. 5 days

C. 10 days

D. 30 days

E. 60 days



Answer: E

QUESTION 165

What is the default maximum recording length that is allowed for system broadcast messages on a

Cisco Unity Connection server?

A. 5 minutes

B. 10 minutes

C. 15 minutes

D. 20 minutes

E. 30 minutes

Answer: A

QUESTION 166

What is the maximum recording length that is allowed for system broadcast messages on a Cisco

Unity Connection server?

A. 5 minutes

B. 10 minutes

C. 15 minutes

D. 30 minutes

E. 60 minutes

Answer: E

QUESTION 167

Which of these is not a valid VPIM message addressing option that is provided by Cisco Unity

Connection to individuals on a remote voice messaging system?

A. blind addressing

B. Cisco Unity Connection directory

C. implicit addressing

D. private distribution list

E. system distribution list

Answer: C

QUESTION 168

Which three call handlers are predefined on Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose three.)



A. goodbye

B. holiday greeting

C. internal

D. opening greeting

E. operator

F. closed

G. standard

Answer: ADE

QUESTION 169

Which greeting type is not a valid call handler on Cisco Unity Connection?

A. busy

B. closed

C. external

D. holiday

E. standard

Answer: C

QUESTION 170

Which two call handler greeting types on Cisco Unity Connection are overridden by the holiday

greeting? (Choose two.)

A. alternate

B. busy

C. closed

D. error

E. internal

F. standard

Answer: CF

QUESTION 171

Which three call handler greeting types on Cisco Unity Connection are overridden by the internal



greeting? (Choose three.)

A. alternate

B. busy

C. closed

D. error

E. holiday

F. standard

Answer: CEF

QUESTION 172

Which two call handler greeting types on Cisco Unity Connection cannot be disabled? (Choose two.)

A. alternate

B. busy

C. closed

D. error

E. holiday

F. standard

Answer: DF

QUESTION 173

Which three options are not valid application types on Cisco Unified Contact Center Express?

(Choose three.)

A. alternate application

B. busy

C. Cisco script application

D. Cisco Unified CM Telephony

E. Ring No Answer

F. standard application

Answer: ADF

QUESTION 174

What is the correct variable type for the "CSQ" variable in the "icd.aef" script on Cisco Unified

Contact Center Express?



A. string

B. user

C. queue

D. document

E. Boolean

Answer: A

QUESTION 175

What is the correct variable type for the "DelayWhileQueued" variable in the "icd.aef" script on

Cisco Unified Contact Center Express?

A. string

B. user

C. number

D. integer

E. Boolean

Answer: D

QUESTION 176

Which statement about embedded Tcl scripts for B-ACD on Cisco Unified Communications

Manager Express is correct?

A. The Tcl scripts that are required for B-ACD services, along with the default audio files, must be

available on the router flash memory.

B. The Tcl scripts and the default audio files for B-ACD services are embedded natively in the Cisco

IOS Software, eliminating the requirement to download these files to the router flash memory.

C. The Tcl scripts that are required for B-ACD services are embedded natively in the Cisco IOS

Software; however, the default audio files must still be downloaded to the router flash memory.

D. The default audio files are embedded natively in the B-ACD Tcl scripts.

E. The Tcl scripts and the default audio files for B-ACD services must be available on a TFTP server

other than the router itself.

Answer: C

QUESTION 177

Which of these is not a mandatory configuration component to enable B-ACD service on Cisco



Unified Communications Manager Express?

A. an automated attendant Tcl script that handles the welcome prompt and menu choices

B. a call-queue Tcl script that manages call routing and the queuing behavior number

C. an ephone hunt group to receive calls from the call-queue service

D. incoming dial peers for automated attendant pilot numbers

E. Cisco Unity Express for voice mail to receive undelivered B-ACD calls

Answer: E

QUESTION 178

On Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express with a B-ACD application that is provisioned

for four hunt groups—aa-hunt1, aa-hunt2, aa-hunt3, and aa-hunt4—which hunt group will be

chosen when a caller dials 0?

A. aa-hunt0

B. aa-hunt1

C. aa-hunt2

D. aa-hunt3

E. aa-hunt4

Answer: E

QUESTION 179

What is the maximum number of calls that are allowed in each ephone hunt group call queue that

is used by Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express B-ACD?

A. 10

B. 15

C. 20

D. 25

E. 30

Answer: E

QUESTION 180

What is the default number of calls that are allowed in each ephone hunt group call queue that is

used by Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express B-ACD?

A. 5

B. 10



C. 15

D. 20

E. 30

Answer: B

QUESTION 181

What is the maximum number of ephone hunt groups that can be used with a call-queue service

by Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express B-ACD?

A. 3

B. 5

C. 10

D. 15

E. 20

Answer: C

QUESTION 182

Refer to the exhibit. What is the pilot number for the ephone hunt group that is configured on this

Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express with B-ACD?



A. 1

B. 30

C. 3000

D. 3333

E. 5553000

Answer: C

QUESTION 183

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the B-ACD configuration on Cisco Unified

Communications Manager Express is correct?



A. B-ACD will wait 20 seconds between retries to connect to an ephone hunt group pilot number.

B. The B-ACD automated attendant script will play the "_bacd_welcome.au" file as soon as an

incoming call is answered.

C. The caller is able to dial extension numbers when selecting menu option 3.

D. Calls are answered and routed to a call queue immediately without invoking any interactive

menu.

E. The maximum number of calls that are waiting in the B-ACD queue is 20.

Answer: D

QUESTION 184

Which attribute is not associable with a device profile on Cisco Unified Communications Manager?

A. User Hold MOH Audio Source

B. phone button template

C. softkey template



D. directory URL

E. expansion module information

Answer: D

QUESTION 185

Which two attributes are associable with a device profile on Cisco Unified Communications

Manager? (Choose two.)

A. MLPP information

B. Network Hold MOH Audio Source

C. privacy

D. directory URL

E. authentication service URL

Answer: AC

QUESTION 186

The Cisco Dialed Number Analyzer service belongs to which feature service group on Cisco Unified


A. Database and Admin Services

B. Performance and Monitoring Services

C. CM Services

D. CTI Services

E. Voice Quality Reporter Services

Answer: C

QUESTION 187

The Cisco AXL Web Service belongs to which feature service group on Cisco Unified




C. CM Services

D. CTI Services




Answer: A

QUESTION 188

The Cisco Unified Communications Manager Assistant service belongs to which feature service

group on Cisco Unified Communications Manager?



C. CM Services

D. CTI Services


Answer: D

QUESTION 189

Which two of these are valid modes of operation for the Cisco Unified Communications Manager

Assistant feature? (Choose two.)

A. forwarded line support

B. pickup line support

C. proxy line support

D. hybrid line support

E. shared line support

F. dual line support

Answer: CE

QUESTION 190

Which three features override the DND setting on an SCCP-controlled IP phone on Cisco Unified

Communications Manager? (Choose three.)

A. park reversion for remotely parked calls

B. callback—terminating side

C. MLPP

D. hold reversion

E. park reversion for locally parked calls



F. remotely placed pickup request

Answer: CDE

QUESTION 191

Which two features do not override the DND setting on an SCCP-controlled IP phone on Cisco

Unified Communications Manager? (Choose two.)

A. park reversion for remotely parked calls

B. MLPP

C. callback—terminating side

D. hold reversion

E. intercom

F. park reversion for locally parked calls

Answer: AC

QUESTION 192

Which statement about whisper intercom implementation on Cisco Unified Communications

Manager is correct?

A. Only one-way audio exists from the calling to the called party.

B. The speaker volume on the called phone will be reduced automatically to avoid disturbance to

other users nearby.

C. The called party auto-answers the call in headset mode.

D. Only one-way audio exists from the called to the calling party.

E. Whisper Intercom is visual only, there is no audio.

Answer: A

QUESTION 193

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the "Operational VLAN Id" parameter on the

Cisco IP phone Network Configuration menu are true? (Choose two.)



A. This parameter can be configured from the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Web

Administration Phone Configuration page.

B. This parameter can be manually administered from the phone, as long as the Settings menu of

the phone is unlocked.

C. This parameter is learned from the connected switch port.

D. This parameter cannot be locally administered from the phone.

E. This parameter can be configured by establishing an HTTP session to the IP address of the

phone.

Answer: CD

QUESTION 194

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the "Admin. VLAN Id" parameter on the Cisco IP

phone Network Configuration menu are true? (Choose two.)

A. This parameter can be configured from the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Web

A. Administration Phone Configuration page.

B. This parameter can be manually administered from the phone, as long as the Settings menu of

the phone is unlocked.

C. This parameter is not learned from the connected switch port.

D. This parameter cannot be locally administered from the phone.

E. This parameter can be configured by establishing an HTTP session to the IP address of the

phone.



Answer: BC

QUESTION 195

Refer to the exhibit. All incoming calls to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express B-

ACD are disconnected immediately. What is the reason for the failure?

A. The wrong Tcl is associated with POTS dial-peer 30. The correct Tcl script should be "app-bacd".

B. The drop-through option is in conflict with the welcome prompt.

C. The param aa-pilot should be 3000 instead of 5553000.

D. The mandatory command param voice-mail is missing.

E. The number that is specified in param number-of-hunt-grps should be more than 1.

Answer: D



QUESTION 196

Which two strings are valid route patterns on Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose

two.)

A. 123+

B. 123$

C. 123/

D. 123%

E. 123D

F. 123T

Answer: AE

QUESTION 197

Which four of these are reasons why TCP cannot be used for transferring audio and video over UDP?

(Choose four.)

A. TCP does not have a mechanism for sufficiently long buffering and adequate average

throughput.

B. Reliable transmission is inappropriate for delay-sensitive data such as real-time audio and

video.

C. TCP cannot support multicast.

D. The TCP congestion control mechanisms decrease the congestion window within which packet

losses are detected ("slow start").

E. TCP headers are larger than UDP headers.

Answer: BCDE

QUESTION 198

Which of the following applications uses JTAPI as an interface to Cisco Unified Communications

Manager?

A. Cisco Unity Express

B. Cisco Unity

C. Extension Mobility

D. JTAPI Plugin software

E. JTAPI User Interface

Answer: A



QUESTION 199

For which two reasons has Cisco chosen to use the SCCP protocol in its IP telephony networks?

(Choose two.)

A. It is a peer-to-peer protocol.

B. It is less resource intensive.

C. It uses intelligent endpoints.

D. It is an industry standard, open protocol.

E. It enables the use of a rich set of features.

Answer: BE

QUESTION 200

When deploying IPMA in proxy mode, what is the minimum number of partitions and calling search

spaces required?

A. three partitions and one calling search space

B. three partitions and two calling search spaces

C. two partitions and three calling search spaces

D. two partitions and two calling search spaces

E. one partition and four calling search spaces

Answer: B

QUESTION 201

A Cisco Unity server is being deployed in a dual integration with Cisco Unified Communications

Manager and a PBX. The PBX integration will utilize a PIMG. Which two statements are true?

(Choose two.)

A. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager integration must be completed first.

B. PCI voice cards are not required for the Cisco Unity server.

C. The PBX will require an analog port for each PIMG port.

D. The PBX and the PIMG must be colocated.

E. The PIMG will communicate with Cisco Unity using SCCP.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 202

Which service parameter family would you select to change the TCP ports used for collecting real-

time information within a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster?



A. CallManager

B. Database Layer Monitor

C. Extended Functions

D. RIS Data Collector

E. Serviceability Reporter

Answer: D

QUESTION 203

VXML and TCL provide similar services. Which two of these are unique to VXML? (Choose two.)

A. authentication of callers

B. storage and forwarding of audio streams

C. support for RTSP servers

D. speech recognition and text-to-speech

E. DTMF digit collection on VoIP dial peers

Answer: BD

QUESTION 204

How does the function of IPMA in proxy-line mode differ from IPMA in shared-line mode?

A. In proxy-line mode, managers and assistants have separate directory numbers or lines on their

phones, but calls to managers are usually diverted to assistants' lines.

B. In shared-line mode, managers and assistants have separate directory numbers and calls are

usually diverted to assistants' lines.

C. In proxy-line mode, managers and assistants have separate directory numbers, but assistants

can handle calls without disturbing managers.

D. In shared-line mode, managers and assistants have separate directory numbers or lines on

their phones, but calls to managers are usually diverted to assistants' lines.

Answer: A

QUESTION 205

When implementing PRI backhaul for an MGCP gateway and Cisco Unified Communications

Manager, the Q.921 data-link protocol is terminated on which device?

A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager

B. MGCP gateway

C. signaling link terminal

D. the IP end device, such as an IP phone

Answer: B



QUESTION 206

Two ports on a 3600 gateway platform are stuck in the EM_PARK state. Which two of these are

possible causes of this problem? (Choose two.)

A. A call is parked and no one has answered.

B. A fake answer has been configured on the router.

C. The DSP is having hardware or software issues.

D. The PSTN switch is sending a continuous off-hook signal.

Answer: CD

QUESTION 207

When configuring ICD, which two of these must be associated with the JTAPI user? (Choose two.)

A. agent devices

B. agent ICD numbers

C. CTI Ports

D. CTI Route Points

E. hunt pilot

Answer: CD

QUESTION 208

Which function does Cisco CTI Manager provide for Cisco Unified Communications Manager

clusters?

A. Cisco CTI Manager and Cisco TSP provide TAPI applications with access to Cisco Unified

Communications Manager resources and functionality without being aware of specific Cisco

Unified Communications Manager systems.

B. When a Cisco Unified Communications Manager node fails, Cisco CTI Manager recovers the

affected JTAPI ports and route points.

C. Cisco CTI Manager and Cisco TSP provide both TAPI and JTAPI applications with access to

specific Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers in a cluster.

D. When a Cisco TAPI application fails, Cisco CTI Manager closes the provider while calls at JTAPI

ports and route points that have not yet been terminated get redirected to the Call Forward

On Failure number that has been configured for them.

Answer: A



QUESTION 209

Acme Widgets Inc. wants to compress the voice data traveling over its WAN connection to its

parent company. It is currently using G.729, loading two voice frames per packet. When Acme

Widgets Inc. implements cRTP using the ip rtp header-compression command, what will be the

Layer 3 bandwidth consumption per call on the WAN link?

A. 8.0 kb/s

B. 8.8 kb/s

C. 9.6 kb/s

D. 12.0 kb/s

E. 16.0 kb/s

Answer: B

QUESTION 210

Approximately what percentage of overall bandwidth is saved (at Layer 2) by cRTP for a G.729 VoIP

call packetized at 50 p/s and running over an ATM link?

A. 60 percent

B. 50 percent

C. 40 percent

D. 30 percent

E. 20 percent

Answer: B

QUESTION 211

A company has a headquarters with a centralized Cisco Unified Communications Manager

deployment and five remote offices. All the remote offices have extensions in the range of 1000-

1150. To allow inter-office calls, each office has been assigned a 3-digit site code. To call between

sites, users will dial an access code followed by the 3-digit site code and the extension. How should

these inter-office access codes be configured?

A. Create a translation pattern for each office and place it in a partition available to all phones.

The translation pattern will strip the access code and site code and be assigned a Calling Search

Space that includes only the phones located in the office.

B. Create a translation pattern for each office and place it in a partition available to the phones

at that office. The translation pattern will strip the access code and site code and be assigned



to a Calling Search Space that includes all phones.

C. Create a route pattern for each office and place it in a partition available to all phones. The

route pattern will strip the access code and site code and route the call to the remote office's

gateway.

D. Create a route pattern for each office and place it in a partition available to the phones at that

office. The route pattern will strip the access code and site code and route the call to the

remote office's gateway.

Answer: B

QUESTION 212

Which command will make the VoIP gateway wait for 10 seconds for RSVP setup before proceeding

with call setup or release?

A. call rsvp-sync resv-timer 10

B. call rsvp-sync setup-timer 10

C. call resv-timer 10

D. call rsvp-sync-timer 10

E. call rsvp-sync timer 10

Answer: A

QUESTION 213

Which three command snips would create a class map that classifies input audio and transactional

traffic? (Choose three.)

A. class-map match-any audio match ip precedence flash

B. class-match match-any transactional match ip precedence priority

C. class-map matchD. class-map match-any transactional match protocol flash-override

D. class-map match-any audio match protocol critical precedence

E. class-match match-any transactional match ip protocol priority

Answer: BCE

QUESTION 214

Which three functions are performed by the Cisco MOH Audio Translator service? (Choose three.)

A. monitors a configured path for new files

B. converts new MOH source files to separate .wav files for MOH codecs

C. adjusts volume levels of MOH source files

D. provides audio data from .wav files such as ANN and MOH



E. supports any audio file format except Microsoft DirectX

F. provides TFTP client download of MOH files

Answer: ABC

QUESTION 215

Cadorna's Inc. is planning a deployment Cisco IP telephony using the centralized call-processing

model. The company has a headquarters and 25 branches in a hub-and-spoke configuration. The

company wants to offer the option to use Cisco IP Communicator to some of its employees that

are often on the road. Which of these statements is false in this situation?

A. It is recommended that a new region be created for all instances of Cisco IP Communicator,

and that a low-bandwidth codec, such as G.729, be used for this region at all times.

B. The administrator will need to load-balance the load across the various CTI Managers in the

cluster.

C. It is recommended that all users be requested to accept a company note stating that 911 calls

will not work due to the mobility nature of the Cisco IP Communicator.

D. The IT department will need to verify that the technical characteristics of all laptops employees

intend to use with Cisco IP Communicator meet the minimum requirements for Cisco IP

Communicator.

Answer: C

QUESTION 216

You have deployed Cisco Unified Communications Manager with a software conference bridge.

However, when users try to use the conference bridge they get an error "No conference bridges

available." Which of these solutions will resolve this issue?

A. Stop and restart the Cisco Unified Communications Manager deployment to allow the

conference bridge to register.

B. Stop and restart the IP voice media streaming application for the Cisco Unified

Communications Manager deployment to allow the conference bridge to register.

C. Since the DSP conference resources on the IP gateway have been improperly configured, delete

and reconfigure these resources.

D. Configure external DSP resources for the software conference bridge to allow the service to

operate correctly.



Answer: B

QUESTION 217

Which two of the following functions best match and describe a Cisco IOS Software MTP? (Choose

two.)

A. It transcodes a-law to mu-law and vice versa for G.711 codecs.

B. It transcodes between G.729 and G.711 codecs.

C. It supports the G.711 (a-law, mu-law) and G.729 (G.729a, G.729b, G.729ab) codecs, but only

one codec is supported at any one time.

D. Cisco IOS Software MTPs are identical to the transcoder-type Cisco IOS Media Termination

Point.

E. MTPs are used to extend supplementary services to H323 devices that support Empty

Capability Set.

Answer: AC

QUESTION 218

Which of these identifies the correct sequence in which to implement a non-standard softkey

template?

A. select a softkey template, copy it, rename it, insert it, modify it, and update the changes

B. select a softkey template, rename it, modify it, and update the changes

C. select the default softkey template, rename it, insert it, modify it, and update the changes

D. select "add softkey template," name the template, insert it, modify it, and update the changes

Answer: A

QUESTION 219

Which three options are valid service parameters that are associated with the Cisco Unified

Communications Manager Real-Time Monitoring Tool? (Choose three.)

A. Secondary Collector

B. RMI Client Enabled

C. Data Collection Reenumeration Interval

D. Retry Count Period

E. Server Synchronization Period

F. Primary Collector

Answer: CEF



QUESTION 220

What is the proper topology or best way of deploying CAC in a centralized deployment?

A. use an H.323 gatekeeper at a centralized location and Cisco Unified Communications Manager

systems at remote locations

B. use Cisco Unified Communications Manager at a centralized location and H.323 gatekeepers

at remote locations

C. use a single Cisco Unified Communications Manager system at a centralized location to control

all of the remote locations

D. use Cisco Unified Communications Manager in a cluster at a centralized location and also at

remote locations

Answer: C

QUESTION 221

Based upon your understanding of an SCCP 7960 IP phone bootup sequence, which two of these

must be true in order for Cisco Unified Communications Manager to send an IP phone an

SEPDefault.cnf file instead of an SEP (MAC address) file? (Choose two.)

A. The IP phone must request the SEPDefault.cnf file explictly.

B. Auto registration must be enabled.

C. The IP phone must be configured in the "default" partition.

D. The IP phone should not have previously registered with this Cisco Unified Communications

Manager cluster.

E. The IP phone must have previously registered, but also power cycled.

Answer: CE

QUESTION 222

Which two of these require specific Active Directory schema extensions? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco Unity Bridge Networking

B. Cisco Unity SMTP Networking

C. Cisco Unity AMIS Networking

D. Cisco Unity VPIM Networking

Answer: AD

QUESTION 223

Which four of these are reasons why TCP cannot be used for transferring audio and video over UDP?

(Choose four.)



A. TCP does not have a mechanism for sufficiently long buffering and adequate average

throughput.

B. Reliable transmission is inappropriate for delay-sensitive data such as real-time audio and

video.

C. TCP cannot support multicast.

D. The TCP congestion control mechanisms decrease the congestion window within which packet

losses are detected ("slow start").

E. TCP headers are larger than UDP headers.

Answer: BCDE

QUESTION 224

A software media termination point should be deployed to support which call-processing models

and services?

A. remote sites for multi-site distributed call-processing models and H.323v2

B. remote sites in a centralized call-processing model and H.323.v4

C. single-site call-processing models and H.323v2

D. IP telephony service providers

Answer: C

QUESTION 225

If all n MTP transcoding sessions are utilized, and an n + 1 connection is attempted, how will the

next call be treated?

A. it will not use an MTP and will use the transcoding resources associated with the codec to

complete the call

B. it will be redirected to the PSTN due to a lack of MTP resources

C. it will use the alternate codec type and attempt to complete the call

D. it will complete the call without using the MTP transcoding resource

Answer: D

QUESTION 226

A company has two remote sites and one main site. Each site has a Cisco Unified Communications

Manager Express router with many IP phones in an IP telephony deployment. The network

administrator wants to provide all of the phones with voice-mail access using Cisco Unity Express.

How should Cisco Unity Express be deployed?



A. Cisco Unity Express and the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express gateway at each

site must be collocated in the same router chassis that provides voicemail access to local IP

phones that are registered to the local instance of Cisco Unified Communications Manager

Express.

B. One instance of Cisco Unity Express can be used at the main site, with a Cisco Unified

Communications Manager Express router providing voice-mail access to all three sites.

C. One instance of Cisco Unity Express can be used at the main site, providing voice-mail access

to the IP phones at the main site, and another instance of Cisco Unity Express with Cisco Unified

Communications Manager Express can be used at one of the remote sites, providing voice-mail

access to all of the IP phones at both remote sites.

D. Cisco Unity Express and the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express gateway at each

site may not be collocated in the same router chassis that provides voice-mail access to local

IP phones registered to the local instance of Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express.

Answer: A

QUESTION 227

Which three statements apply to the Certificate Trust List file? (Choose three.)

A. It is a list of devices and credentials that a phone should trust on the network.

B. It is signed using the administrator workstation password.

C. It contains identity, public key, and role information.

D. Phones need to trust only the Cisco Unified Communications Manager and TFTP entries in the

CTL file.

E. It is loaded on the phone each time an authentication is required.

F. It is created by the CTL client on the administrator workstation.

Answer: ACF

QUESTION 228

Which one of these Cisco Unified CallManager 4.1(2) applications requires JTAPI support?

A. Forced Account Codes (FAC)

B. First-Party Call Control

C. CTI Route Point

D. Third-Party Call Control

Answer: A

QUESTION 229



On a converged network, CAC is used to ensure that new voice calls do not degrade which of these?

A. existing voice calls on a time division multiplexed circuit

B. existing voice calls on a statistically multiplexed circuit

C. existing data flows on a time division multiplexed circuit

D. existing data flows on a statistically multiplexed circuit

Answer: B

QUESTION 230

Which three statements apply to DHCP snooping? (Choose three.)

A. It protects DHCP servers from denial of service attacks.

B. It can validate ARP packets in a network and permit the interception, logging, and discarding

of ARP packets with invalid MAC address to IP address bindings.

C. It will provide security by filtering untrusted DHCP messages and then using these messages

to build and maintain a DHCP snooping binding table.

D. DHCP snooping considers untrusted any DHCP messages that originate from a user-facing port

that is not a DHCP server port or an uplink to a DHCP server.

E. The DHCP snooping binding table contains information about hosts that are connected with

any interface configured to send messages from within the network only.

F. The DHCP snooping binding table contains information regarding hosts that are interconnected

with the trusted interface configured to receive messages from within the network only.

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 231

Which two ways are customized phone services subscribed to? (Choose two)

A. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager administrator uses the Cisco IP Phone Services

Configuration menu to define and maintain the list of Cisco Cisco IP phone services to which

users can subscribe at their site.

B. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager administrator uses the Cisco IP Telephony Services

Configuration menu to develop separate lists of users and services.

C. Users can log into the Cisco Unified Communications Manager User Options menu to subscribe

to services already configured by the Cisco Unified Communications Manager administrator.

D. Users can log into the Cisco Unified Communications Manager User Options menu and select

the services they want to subscribe to and CallManager will automatically configure those

services.

E. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager administrator can add services to Cisco IP phones

and device profiles.



Answer: CE

QUESTION 232

Which two attributes correctly describe aspects of H.232? (Choose two.)

A. peer-to-peer

B. Master/Slave

C. call preservation on gateway failover from one Cisco Unified Communications Manager server

to another

D. communication with Cisco Unified Communications Manager handled via a proxy server

E. centralized dial plan management

F. intelligent endpoints

Answer: AF

QUESTION 233

What is the required bandwidth for three G.729 VoIP calls on a WAN Frame Relay link with cRTP

turned off? (Note: The payload size is 30 bytes.)

A. 72 kb/s

B. 66 kb/s

C. 55.8 kb/s

D. 60.9 kb/s

Answer: D

QUESTION 234

Approximately what percentage of overall bandwidth is saved (at Layer 3) by cRTP for a G.711 VoIP

call packetized at 50 p/s?

A. 60 percent

B. 50 percent

C. 40 percent

D. 30 percent

E. 20 percent

Answer: E



QUESTION 235

Cadorna's Inc. is planning to deploy Cisco IP telephony using a centralized call-processing model.

The company has one headquarters and 25 branches in a hub-and-spoke configuration. In addition,

there will be an interconnection with multiple telephony service providers using H.323. Which Call

Admission Control methods should be used in this network?

A. use locations-based CAC with the telephony service providers and gatekeeper-based CAC with

the branches

B. use locations-based CAC with the Telephony Service Providers and with the branches

C. use locations-based CAC with the branches and gatekeeper-based CAC with the telephony

service providers

D. use gatekeeper-based CAC with the telephony service providers and with the branches

E. use gatekeeper-based CAC with the telephony service providers only

Answer: C

QUESTION 236

Which three statements are true regarding a Cisco Unity implementation in an existing Lotus

Domino environment? (Choose three.)

A. The Lotus DUC server component must be installed on the Cisco Unity server.

B. The Lotus Domino server with which Cisco Unity communicates must be installed on a

Microsoft Windows 2000 Server platform.

C. The Lotus Domino server with which Cisco Unity communicates must be in the same Windows

domain as Cisco Unity.

D. Lotus Notes must be installed on the Cisco Unity server.

E. The Cisco Unity server can service only one Lotus Domino domain.

F. The Lotus Domino server with which Cisco Unity communicates must be installed on a

Microsoft Windows XP Server platform.

Answer: BDE

QUESTION 237

An access-layer Cisco Catalyst 3550 is configured with voice and data VLANs. All QoS settings

remain the factory default settings, with two exceptions.

1. 1."mls qos trust device cisco-phone" is applied to all access-edge ports

2. "mls qos trust dscp" is applied to all uplink-ports

Some access-edge ports are connected to Cisco IP phones and other ports are directly connected

to PCs. Assume that malicious users are setting all CoS values on their PCs to 6 and DSCP values to



EF. Also assume IEEE 802.1Q trunks are used to connect the uplink ports to the distribution layer

and that the IP phones are being administered by Cisco Unified CallManager 4.0 (or later).

What will be the CoS and DSCP settings of the (IP phone-generated) voice and call-signaling packets,

as well as the (PC-generated) data packets as these packets exit the switch en route to the

distribution layer?

A. Voice: CoS 5 and DSCP 40

Call-Signaling: CoS 3 and DSCP 24

Data: CoS 0 and DSCP 0

B. Voice: CoS 5 and DSCP 46



C. Voice: CoS 5 and DSCP 40



D. Voice: CoS 5 and DSCP 40



E. Voice: CoS 5 and DSCP 46



Answer: E

QUESTION 238

Which three of these are minimum requirements that must be fulfilled in order to enable signaling

encryption between Cisco Unified CallManager and a gateway, as well as SRTP between the

gateway and IP phones? (Choose three.)

A. Cisco Unified CallManager 4.1 with a CTL installed

B. IOS router configured in MGCP

C. IOS router configured in H.323

D. IPsec tunneling in Windows 2000 of the Cisco Unified CallManager server

E. router with NM-HDV module

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 239



What is the required bandwidth for three G.711 VoIP calls on an Ethernet link? (Note that the

packets-per-second count should be set to 33 p/s.)

A. 192 kb/s

B. 240 kb/s

C. 238.5 kb/s

D. 223.8 kb/s

Answer: C

QUESTION 240

On authentication, if the login profile matches the login device (that is, the user has a user device

profile that is configured for a Cisco IP Phone 7960 and logs in to a Cisco IP Phone 7960), in which

two ways does Cisco Unified Communications Manager Extension Mobility behave? (Choose two.)

A. The system uses the device profile default for each phone model to configure the phone

template, softkey template, and, if the phone can support add-on modules, the add-on module.

B. Each user can access all the services configured on the device profile for that user's phone.

C. If the phone model supports Cisco IP phone services and those services are configured, the

services get copied from the user device profile.

D. The system copies all device-independent configurations ((that is, user hold, audio hold, audio

source, user locale, user ID, speed dial number, and directory number configuration for this

device) from the user device profile to the login device.

E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Extension Mobility automatically reconfigures the

phone with the individual user device profile information.

Answer: BE

QUESTION 241

A single Cisco Unity server is being deployed to provide voice mail for multiple Cisco Unified

Communications Manager Express systems. One Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express

system is colocated with the Cisco Unity server and the rest are connected via a WAN. Which of the

following best describes how to configure the remote Cisco Unified Communications Manager

Express systems so calls can be forwarded to the central Cisco Unity server?

A. Each remote Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express system should be defined as a

Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster in the Unity server.

B. Each remote Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express system should be configured



with ephones that register with dedicated ports on the Cisco Unity server.

C. Each remote Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express system should be configured

with a VoIP dial peer for each port assigned to it in Cisco Unity.

D. The remote Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express systems should be configured

with VoIP dial peers that direct calls to the Cisco Unity pilot number to the central Cisco Unified

Communications Manager Express system.

Answer: D

QUESTION 242

When compressing RTP traffic across low-speed links using the cRTP feature, the 40 bytes of header

information (12-byte RTP header, 8-byte UDP header, and 20-byte IP header) can be reduced to

either 2 or 4 bytes. What is the primary difference between the 2-byte cRTP packet and the 4-byte

cRTP packet?

A. The 4-byte cRTP packet contains an additional field containing the full destination IP address.

B. The 4-byte cRTP packet contains an additional field containing the full source IP address.

C. The 4-byte cRTP packet contains a UDP Checksum.

D. The 4-byte header has 2 bytes of padding in order to align the packet on a word boundary.

E. The 4-byte header is used for larger payload RTP packets (such as 30 ms samples, as opposed

to 10 ms samples).

Answer: C

QUESTION 243

What is the output from the following voice translation rule if 4085551234 is dialed?

voice translation-rule 7

rule 1 /^.*\(

A. 614085551234

B. 615551234

C. 611234

D. 61234

Answer: D

QUESTION 244

Your business needs to send and receive faxes over a VoIP network in real time. Which two fax

protocols could you implement? (Choose two.)



A. T.38 fax relay

B. T.37 Fax-over-IP

C. fax passthrough

D. MGCP

Answer: AC

QUESTION 245

A Cisco Unified Communications Manager group can provide which two features to your call-

processing system? (Choose two.)

A. support for SRST at remote offices

B. the ability to distribute the control of devices across multiple Cisco Unified Communications

Manager systems

C. the ability to distribute voice-mail support across multiple Cisco Unity servers

D. support for redundancy by enabling you to designate primary and backup Cisco Unified

Communications Manager systems for each group

E. support for control of IPMA across primary and backup Cisco Unified Communications

Manager systems for each group

Answer: BE

QUESTION 246

Which three statements describe best practices when implementing Cisco Unity in an Exchange

2000 environment? (Choose three.)

A. Cisco Unity should be installed in the same Windows 2000 site as the Exchange servers.

B. Each Cisco Unity server should have its own partner Exchange server.

C. A Cisco Unity server should service a single Exchange Administrative Group.

D. Cisco Unity should use the same domain controller that the Exchange servers use.

E. A Cisco Unity server should be used to service remote mailboxes if they are in the same

Exchange 2000 Routing Group as the partner Exchange server.

Answer: ACD

QUESTION 247

When configuring a DSP farm in a centralized call-processing environment, how many DSPs would

be required to support 8 G.711 conferences and 32 transcoding resources with an NM-HDV2?



A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

Answer: E

QUESTION 248

When configuring IPMA in shared-line mode, how are manager and assistant directory numbers

configured?

A. Managers and their assistants share directory numbers.

B. Managers and their assistants have separate directory numbers, but share IPMA directory

numbers.

C. Managers and their assistants have separate directory numbers.

D. Managers and their assistants share directory numbers and IPMA directory numbers.

Answer: A

QUESTION 249

Which method could be used to determine if there is a JTAPI memory leak in a Cisco Unified

Communications Manager server?

A. look at the physical memory available on the server

B. review all Cisco Unified Communications Manager user logs

C. check for changes to IP phone settings, like ring settings reverting to default values

D. determine if dialing the voice-mail pilot number fails to connect to voice mail

E. check for an increasing number of fast-busy tones when dialing to the PSTN

Answer: A

QUESTION 250

Which three statements apply to the route filter function in Cisco Unified Communications

Manager? (Choose three.)

A. A route filter can be used to restrict dialing certain numbers.

B. A route filter can be used to identify a subset of a wildcard pattern.

C. A route filter cannot effectively block the dialing of 900 area codes.

D. The "." wildcard denotes a portion of a route pattern that is not stripped when the pattern

matches.



E. The wildcard "@" denotes any number that you can dial in the North American numbering

system.

F. A route filter cannot be used in conjunction with partitions and Calling Search Spaces to set up

complex dialing rules.

Answer: ABE

QUESTION 251

While testing a new Cisco Unified Communications Manager integration, it is determined that IP

phones can place and receive calls from PBX phones but cannot place calls to the PSTN. Which two

of these are possible causes of this problem? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager is not sending the correct digits to the PBX.

B. The IP phones' CSS does not contain the partition assigned to the gateway.

C. The gateway's CSS does not contain the partition assigned to the IP phones.

D. The PBX is restricting trunk-to-trunk transfers.

E. The T1 to the PBX is using a different ISDN protocol than the T1 to the PSTN.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 252

Which three functions are performed by Cisco IP Media Streaming App Service? (Choose three.)

A. provides an SCCP stack for four software devices: ANN, CFB, MOH, and MTP

B. supports database change notification processing

C. converts new MOH source files to separate .wav files for MOH codecs

D. provides SDI trace, event logs, and perfmon counters

E. adjusts volume levels of MOH source files

F. provides audio data from .wav files for CFB and MTP

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 253

How can a dependecy record be used when deleting a device pool?

A. The dependency record searches all databases for records that match the search parameter

and returns all the record indices prior to deletion.

B. The dependency records indicate where records are located in the database so they can be

migrated to different records before deletion.

C. The dependency record shows which records are associated with each record a user wants to

delete.



D. The dependency record indicates which members of a device pool are subsets of other device

pools so they can be moved easily.

Answer: C

QUESTION 254

Cadorna Inc. is planning a deployment of Cisco IP telephony using the centralized call processing

model. The company has a headquarters location with 25 branches. They are interconnected with

an MPLS network that provides full-mesh connectivity between all sites. Which two statements are

true? (Choose two.)

A. From an IP routing perspective on the enterprise side of the network, each site is two hops

away from all other sites.

B. From the Call Admission Control perspective of Cisco Unified Communications Manager, a

service-provider IP WAN service that is based on MPLS is, in reality, equivalent to a hub-and-

spoke topology without a hub site.

C. This design requires that Call Admission Control be performed on the central site link

independently of the branch links.

D. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers need to be aware of the underlying MPLS

network by setting the appropriate enterprise parameters.

E. This design using MPLS will not allow Call Admission Control to be performed.

Answer: BC

QUESTION 255

On a WAN PPP link, what is the required bandwidth for three G.729 VoIP calls when cRTP is turned

off, and what is it when cRTP is turned on? (Note: The payload size is 20 bytes.)

A. cRTP off: 72.6 kb/s; cRTP on: 24.6 kb/s

B. cRTP off: 90 kb/s; cRTP on: 36 kb/s

C. cRTP off: 79.2 kb/s; cRTP on: 33.6 kb/s

D. cRTP off: 26.4 kb/s; cRTP on: 11.2 kb/s

E. cRTP off: 48 kb/s; cRTP on: 24 kb/s

Answer: C

QUESTION 256

A DPA 7630 is being used to integrate a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster with an

Octel voice-mail system. What should be configured in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager

cluster to establish call paths to the DPA 7960?



A. A 7960 IP phone should be configured for each call path.

B. A VIP 30 IP phone should be configured for each call path.

C. A CTI port should be configured for each call path.

D. A CTI route point should be added with a Directory Number for each call path.

E. A voice-mail port should be added for each call path.

Answer: B

QUESTION 257

When using RSVP to dynamically set up end-to-end QoS across a heterogeneous network, there

are several QoS levels that can be configured on the originating and terminating gateways. Which

three statements correctly describe the differences between these three QoS Levels: controlled-

load, guaranteed-delay, and best-effort? (Choose three.)

A. With the controlled-load QoS level, if synchronized RSVP is attempted and fails, the call is

released.

B. With the controlled-load QoS level, if synchronized RSVP is attempted and fails, the call

receives best-effort service.

C. With the best-effort QoS Level, no RSVP synchronization is attempted and the call receives

best-effort service.

D. With the guaranteed-delay QoS level, if synchronized RSVP is attempted and fails, then if the

acceptable QoS on the terminating gateway is controlled-load or guaranteed-delay, the call

receives best-effort service.

E. With the guaranteed-delay QoS level, if synchronized RSVP is attempted and fails, then if the

acceptable QoS on either gateway is anything other than best-effort, the call is released.

Answer: ACE

QUESTION 258

If the response to a DNS query comes back with a TC bit set, it means that which two of these

statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. The size of the response exceeded 512 bytes, so only the first 512 bytes were returned by the

server.

B. The size of the response exceeded 1024 bytes, so only the first 1024 bytes were returned by

the server.

C. The size of the response exceeded 1500 bytes, so only the first 1500 bytes were returned by

the server.

D. The message was longer than the bandwidth would allow.

Answer: AD



QUESTION 259

In Cisco SS7 Interconnect-based networks, Signaling Link Terminal can terminate which type of link

from the PSTN?

A. T1/PRI

B. A-Link or F-Link

C. T1 with IMTs

D. IMTs with bearer channels

E. A-Link only

Answer: B

QUESTION 260

Which of these is true about the 802.1Q frame header?

A. 802.1Q frame headers, which normally contain the destination host, source host, and protocol,

are altered with additional information. After the source host, a 48-bit 802.1Q header is

included, with 32 bits for the ether type (0x8000), 3 bits for the priority field (not used in this

implementation), 1 bit for the canonical field (always 0), and 12 bits for the VLAN identifier.

Following the VLAN header is the actual ether type for the frame and length information.

B. 802.1Q frame headers, which normally contain the destination host, source host, and protocol,





C. 802.1Q frame headers, which normally contain the destination host, source host, and protocol,





D. 802.1Q frame headers, which normally contain the destination host, source host, and protocol,





Answer: B



QUESTION 261

Which three of the following are benefits of using Cisco IOS VoiceXML? (Choose three.)

A. Existing web server and application logic can be used for VoiceXML voice applications.

B. FTP or TFTP can be used to dynamically load audio prompts or VoiceXML documents.

C. Incoming VoIP calls can be transferred to POTS dial peers or between VoIP call legs.

D. Full editing features such as pause, fast forward, rewind, and append are supported.

E. Hosting of VoiceXML voice applications can be added to the services that are offered to

customers.

F. HTML web development skills can be transferred to those developing voice applications.

Answer: AEF

QUESTION 262

Which three suggestions would make good requirements for hardening an MCS operating system

and its services? (Choose three.)

A. Keep the operating system up to date and install Cisco operating system upgrades that can be

downloaded from Cisco.com.

B. Harden the IP stack by mitigating redirection attacks and enabling SYN flood protection.

C. Enable all services, including file sharing.

D. Use an intrusion protection system like Cisco Security Agent.

E. Enable all services except file sharing.

F. Ensure local applications' access to system registry.

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 263

A centralized call processing topology comprises a headquarters and a branch office. Calls within

both the headquarters and the branch office utilize the G.711 codec. Calls between the

headquarters and the branch office utilize the G.729 codec. Multicast MoH must always be

transmitted using the G.711 codec. Which of the following configurations would meet this

requirement?

A. A total of two regions are required for all sites with G.729 codec specified between the two

regions; G.711 codec is used within regions. The MoH server should belong to the

headquarters region.

B. A total of two regions are required for all sites with G.729 codec between the two regions;

G.711 codec is used within regions. The Cisco IP Voice Media Streaming App needs to be

configured for G.711 codec only.

C. A total of two regions are required for all sites with G.729 codec between the two regions;

G.711 codec is used within regions. The MoH server is placed in a separate location with the



G.711 codec utilized between itself and each office.

D. The MoH server cannot be configured to transmit G.711 because the phones are negotiating

G.729 codec during call setup.

E. Three separate regions are required: one for the headquarters, one for the branch office, and

one for the MoH server. Codecs between and within each region are specified accordingly.

Answer: E

QUESTION 264

Consider the exhibit. According to the list, please identify all the links between the devices shown

where SCCP (Skinny Client Control Protocol) can be used for the two listed devices to communicate.

(Please note that the Call Manager version is 4.x or below.)

A. Link1, Link 2, Link 5, Link 6, Link 7

B. Link 1, Link 2, Link 3, Link 8

C. Link 1, Link 5, link 6, Link 8

D. Link 1, Link 2, Link 3, Link 7, Link 8

E. All Links shown can use SCCP for the devices to communicate.

Answer: D

QUESTION 265

Company CADORNA's INC. is planning a deployment of Cisco Contact Center Express and are

looking for a design that provides maximum resilience, performance, and redundancy. They are

planning to install Cisco CallManager 4.1(3) and Cisco Contact Center Express 4.0. How many CTI

Managers can we configure in one cluster?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 4

D. 8



E. 16

Answer: D

QUESTION 266

Which of the following features are supported in Cisco's implementation of RSVP Support for Low

Latency Queueing (LLQ)? (Choose three.)

A. LLQ Support on Tunnels

B. Guaranteed Quality of Service

C. Reserve resources for Low Latency and bandwidth guarantees

D. Controlled-Load Network Element Service

Answer: BCD

QUESTION 267

Which 2 functions are performed by a Route list?

A. Matches dialed number for external calls

B. Performs digit manipulation

C. Points to a route list for routing

D. Chooses path for call routing

E. Points to prioritized route groups

F. Points to the actual devices

Answer: DE

QUESTION 268

When implementing IP Communicator in CallManager, which two steps need to be accomplished

in order for the application to operate correctly? (Choose two.)

A. Verify CallManager version.

B. Create and associate a user ID with the communicator device.

C. Configure a new CTI port to connect IP Communicator to CallManager.

D. Associate directory number from desk phone with IP Communicator software.

E. Configure MAC address from Ethernet interface on the PC where IP communicator will be

installed in Phone Configuration screen in CallManager.

Answer: AE

QUESTION 269

A company would like to provide marketing messages when callers are placed on hold. Each



department in the company needs to have a specific MoH message for their callers. There are 12

departments in the company. Eleven of the departments are sales oriented and need to market to

customers with MOH. The 12th department is administration and will require specific messages

for each group within that department. How should the MoH services be configured for this

company?

A. Use multicast to stream the MoH files for the sales departments and multicast for a single

stream for administration.

B. Use unicast to stream the MoH files for the sales departments and multicast for a single stream

for administration.

C. Use unicast to stream the MoH files for the sales departments and administration.

D. Use multicast to stream one message to each caller for all the sales departments and unicast

to stream a different set of messages to each caller for each administrative group.

E. Use multicast to stream a different message to each sales department caller and unicast to

each caller for each administrative group.

Answer: E

QUESTION 270

ACME is migrating from Exchange 5.5 to Exchange 2000. They have setup an Exchange Mixed-Mode

Environment. Which of the following statements regarding integrating Unity into this environment

are correct?

A. The partner server must be an Exchange 2000 server for Unity to service both Exchange 5.5

and Exchange 2000 mailboxes.

B. One Unity server partners with an Exchange 2000 server and one Unity server partners with

an Exchange 5.5 server. Digital networking is used to forward messages between the systems.

C. The Unity server can support multiple Exchange 5.5 organizations but only one Exchange 2000

domain.

D. The Unity server must be voice-mail only until the Exchange migration is complete.

Answer: A

QUESTION 271

Which two of the following attributes would correctly describe H.323? (Choose 2)

A. Peer-to-Peer

B. Master/Slave

C. Uses a Proxy Server to communicate with Cisco CallManager

D. Centralized dial plan management

E. Intelligent Endpoints



Answer: A

QUESTION 272

There are customer complaints about voice quality between IP Phones. What could be the

potential problem? (Assume that all switchports are configured to trust DSCP and that the WAN

link is less than 768 kbps).

A. It is NOT possible to configure multiple DSCP matches in one statement under 'class-map'. So,

the packets that are marked as DSCP=5 by IP phones are not going through priority queue.

Instead, it is going through 'default queue '. So, IP phone packets are getting delayed. Thus, it

caused the voice quality problem.

B. It is possible to configure only TWO DSCP matches in one statement under 'class-map'. Due to

this invalid config the packets that are marked as DSCP=5 by IP phones are not going through

priority queue. Instead, it is going through 'default queue '. So, IP phone packets are getting

delayed. Thus, it caused the voice quality problem.

C. It is possible to configure multiple DSCP matches in one statement under a given class-map.

Since the "voice-qos" class is matching three different DSCP values, they are all being assigned

to the same "priority" queue, where they are processed in a FIFO manner, which is causing

excessive delays on the slow-speed WAN link.

D. None of the above.

Answer: C

QUESTION 273

What is the primary difference between 2 byte cRTP packet and the 4 byte cRTP packet?

A. The 4 byte cRTP packet contains an addtional field containing the full destination IP address.



B. The 4 byte cRTP packet contains an additional field containing the full source IP address.

C. The 4 byte cRTP packet contains a UDP Checksum.

D. The 4 byte header has 2 bytes of padding in order to align the packet.

E. The 4 byte header is used for RTP packets that have a larger payload (i.e 30 msec samples vs

10 msec samples).

Answer: C

QUESTION 274

Which one of the following type of SIP responses would indicate that a server encountered an error

in attempting to complete a SIP request?

A. 1xx

B. 3xx

C. 4xx

D. 5xx

E. 6xx

Answer: D

QUESTION 275

You are a network administrator at EnsurePass. Your newly appointed EnsurePass trainee wants to

know what the term "MGCP backhaul" means. What will your reply be?

A. Transporting T1 CAS messaging to the MGCP Call Agent across IP.

B. Transporting ISDN Q.931 messaging to the MGCP Call Agent across IP.

C. Transporting ISDN Q.921 messaging to the MGCP Call Agent across IP.

D. Transporting ISDN Q.931 messaging into MGCP events to the MGCP Call Agent.

Answer: B

QUESTION 276

On which of the following does the maximum device weight capacity a Cisco MCS server depend?

(Choose three.)

A. The quantity and the type of phones configured on the Cisco MCS server.

B. CCM software release version.

C. The amount of memory, CPU and I/O throughput.

D. The server model and type.

Answer: BCD



QUESTION 277

Migrating form TDM voice requirements to VoIP usually does not cause migration issues for

customers who expect to be:

A. Deploying in a Green-Field scenario.

B. Fully IP in 1 to 3 years.

C. Fully IP within 12 months.

D. All of the above.

Answer: A

QUESTION 278

Your newly appointed EnsurePass trainee wants to know what type of signaling can provide

automatic Number Identifications (ANI) on a T1/E1 line. What will your reply be? (Choose two.)

A. E&M-fgd

B. Loop Start

C. PRI

D. E&M-fgb

Answer: AC

QUESTION 279

You are contracted as a network administrator for a small company, EnsurePass Inc. Your newly

appointed EnsurePass trainee wants to know What settings have to be in place in order to pass

hook-flash on h.323 from FXS to FXO. What will your reply be?

A. connection trunk must be configured on the voice-port (FXS) and (FXO)

B. connection plar must be configured on the voice-port (FXS)

C. connection trunk must be configured on the voice-port (FXS) and (FXO)

D. connection plar must be configured on the voice-port (FXS) and (FXO)

Answer: D

QUESTION 280

You are a network administrator at EnsurePass. EnsurePass has a Cisco voice gateway that will be

connected to a PBX/PSTN-switch via ISDN (PRI, QSIG, BRI). Which attributes of the PBX/PSTN-

switch must you know to understand which features to configure on the voice GW in order to

connect successfully to the PBX/PSTN-switch? (Choose two.)

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