Cell Quiz Review - Dr Magranndrmagrann.com/MLT/Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 4.docx · Web viewThe intrinsic pathway of coagulation begins with the activation of _____ in the early

Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 4

1) Normal hemostasis depends on all of the following exceptA. an intact vascular systemB. inadequate numbers of plateletsC. appropriate coagulation factorsD. fibrinolysis

B

2) The sequence of events following injury to a small blood vessel isA. Contact between damaged blood vessel, blood platelets,and coagulation proteinsB. Formation of a platelet plugC. Fibrinolysis and reestablishment of vascular integrityD. Development of a blood clot around the injuryE. Blood vessel spasm (vasoconstriction)

EBADC

3) Which blood vessels have the thickest walls? Arteries4) All blood and lymphatic vessels are lined with endothelium5) Blood passes from the arterial to the venous system via capillaries6) The initiating stimulus to blood coagulation following

injury to a blood vessel iscontact activation with collagen

7) Endothelium is involved in the metabolism and clearance of molecules such as

A. serotoninB. angiotensinC. bradykininD. all of the above

D

8) What is not correct?A. Vasoconstriction reduces blood flow and promotescontact activation of platelets and coagulation factorsB. Platelets adhere to exposed endothelial connective tissuesC. Aggregation of platelets releases thromboxane A2 and vasoactive amines (serotonin and epinephrine)D. None of the above

D

9) What is (are) true of endoreduplication?A. Duplicates DNA without cell divisionB. Results in cells with ploidy values of 4n, 8n, 16n, and 32nC. Is unique to the megakaryocytic type of blood cellD. All of the above

D

10) What is (are) true of thrombopoietin?A. Thought to stimulate the production and maturation of megakaryocytesB. Is influenced by various cytokines, which increase megakaryocyte sizeC. Is influenced by various cytokines, which impact maturational stage and ploidyD. All of the above

D

11) What is not a characteristic of platelets? The presence of a nucleus

1


12) The cellular ultrastructural component(s) unique to theplatelet is (are)

Glycocalyx

13) Choose the incorrect statement regarding storage granules related to hemostasis in the mature platelet.

Lysosomes contain actomyosin, myosin, and filamin

14) At all times, approximately _____ of the total number of platelets are in the systemic circulation.

two thirds

15) The reference range of platelets in the systemic circulation is

150 to 450 × 109/L

16) The functions of platelets in response to vascular damage include

A. maintenance of vascular integrity by sealing minor defects of the endotheliumB. formation of a platelet plugC. promotion of fibrinolysisD. all of the above

D

17) If vascular injury exposes the endothelial surface and underlying collagen, platelets ___(1) _____ to the collagen fibers and _(2) _

1. adhere2. aggregate

18) Agents that are capable of aggregating platelets includeA. collagenB. thrombinC. serotoninD. all of the above

D

19) Examination of a Wright-stained peripheral blood smear provides an estimate of platelet numbers. Using 100× (oil) immersion in the areas of erythrocytes just touching each other, the upper limit of the number of platelets seen per field should not exceed

20 to 25

20) If 10 platelets are seen per oil immersion field, what is the approximate platelet count?

200 × 109/L

21) Aspirin ingestion has the following hemostatic effect in a normal person.

Prolongs the bleeding time.Please review the difference between bleeding time and clotting time

22) The bleeding time test measures platelet adhesion and aggregation on locally injured vascular subendothelium

23) The clot retraction test is a reflection of the quantity and quality of platelets and other factors

2


Match the following.A. Factors II, VII, IX, and XB. Factors I, V, VIII, and XIIIC. Factors XI, XII, prekallikrein, and high–molecular weight kininogen24) Fibrinogen group25) Prothrombin group26) Contact group

29. B30. A31. C

27) The fibrinogen group of coagulation factors isA. known to increase during pregnancyB. known to increase in conditions of inflammationC. known to increase subsequent to the use of oral contraceptivesD. all of the above

D

28) The prothrombin group of coagulation factors isA. dependent on vitamin K for productionB. considered to be stableC. well preserved in stored plasmaD. all of the above

D

29) Warfarin acts by acting as a vitamin K antagonist

Match the name of the coagulation factor with the appropriate symbolic designation.30) _____ Thrombin31) _____ Tissue thromboplastin32) _____ Antihemophilic factor33) _____ Hageman factor

30. IIa31. III32. VIII33. XII

34) Arrange the four stages of coagulation in their proper sequence.A. FibrinolysisB. Formation of thrombin from prothrombinC. Generation of plasma thromboplastinD. Formation of fibrin from fibrinogen

CBDA

35) The extrinsic pathway of coagulation is triggered by the entry of _____ into the circulation.

tissue thromboplastin

36) The intrinsic pathway of coagulation begins with the activation of _____ in the early stage.

factor XII

37) The final common pathway of the intrinsic-extrinsic pathway is

factor X activation

38) Prothrombin to thrombin conversion is accelerated by factor V and ionized calcium

39) Fibrinogen is converted to fibrin monomers by thrombin40) The inactive plasminogen is activated to ____ by proteolytic

enzymes.Plasmin

3


41) What statements are true of the fibrinolytic system?A. Plasmin digests fibrin and fibrinogenB. The active enzyme of the system is plasminC. Inactive plasminogen circulates in the plasma until an injury occursD. All of the above

D

42) If a pediatric preoperative patient has a family historyof bleeding but has never had a bleeding episode herself,what test should be included in a coagulation profile inaddition to the PT, aPTT, and platelet count?

Bleeding time

43) A patient with a severe decrease in factor X activity would demonstrate normal

bleeding time

44) Neither the aPTT nor the PT detects a deficiency of platelet factor 345) The function of thromboplastin in the prothrombin test is to

provide _____ to the assay.phospholipoprotein

46) An abnormally prolonged aPTT may indicateA. a severe depletion of fibrinogenB. the presence of a circulating anticoagulantC. factor VIII deficiencyD. all of the above

D

47) If a child ingested rat poison, what tests should be performed to test the effect of the poison on the child’s coagulation mechanism?

PT

48) What conditions can cause an increased thrombin time?A. Fibrin split productsB. High concentrations of immunoglobulinsC. Heparin therapyD. All of the above

D

49) Heparin inhibits the clotting of blood by neutralizing the effect of

thrombin

50) A patient has a prolonged aPTT and a normal PT. The aPTT is not corrected by factor VIII–deficient plasma but is corrected by factor IX–deficient plasma. In which factor does the patient appear to be deficient?

Factor VIII

51) The normal protective mechanisms against thrombosis include

A. the flow of bloodB. the action of antithrombin III.C. protein C and protein SD. all of the above

D

52) If heparin therapy is initiated in a patient, a decreased anticoagulant response can be caused by decreased levels of

platelet factor 4

4


53) What is (are) characteristic of protein C?A. It is not vitamin K dependentB. It is formed in response to thrombin generationC. It inactivates factors Va and VIIIaD. Both B and C

D

54) What characteristics is (are) true of protein S?A. It is a cofactor of protein CB. It increases the rate of inactivation of factor VaC. It enhances the binding of APC to phospholipidsD. All of the above

D

55) Antithrombin III is the principal physiological inhibitor of thrombin56) What is not correct regarding cellular proteases? They participate in clot

formation57) Select whether or not lack of the following processes is

involved in hemostasis. Blood vessel spasm

Yes

58) Lysis of a platelet plug No59) Development of a clot at the site of the injury. Yes60) Fibrinolytic removal of excess hemostatic material. Yes61) Capillaries are the __1__ walled vessel and __2__ numerous

of the blood vessels.1. Thinnest2. Most

62) Match each of the endothelial-associated factors with its function

Platelet-activating factor

Prothrombotic


Prostacyclin

Antithrombotic


Thrombomodulin

Antithrombotic

65) The Weibel-Palade body (WPB) represents storage granule for ____.

von Willebrand factor

66) Match the endothelial vasoconstrictor–vasodilator balance with action

Prostaglandin

Constrictor

Match the endothelial vasoconstrictor–vasodilator balance with actionEndothelin I

Constrictor

67) Match the endothelial vasoconstrictor–vasodilator balance with action

Prostacyclin

Dilator

68) Endothelin I Is produced in endothelial cells

69) Endothelin II Has no unique physiologic function

5


70) Endothelin III May regulate proliferation and development in neurons

71) Vasoconstriction can last for up to 30 minutes72) A unique characteristic of a platelet is Anuclear73) The average number of platelets in 10 different fields is

multiplied by a factor of ____ to estimate the approximate total platelet count

20,000

74) What is the fibrinogen coagulation factor? Factor I75) What is the prothrombin coagulation factor? Factor II76) Antihemophiliac factor is which coagulation factor? Factor VIII77) The INR Corrects for variability in PT

results78) The extrinsic pathway of coagulation is triggered by the

entry of ___into the circulationTissue thromboplastin

79) AT III is the principal physiological inhibitor of Thrombin80) Heparin inhibits the clotting of blood by neutralizing the

effect ofThrombin

81) What is a condition associated with purpura?A. Direct endothelial damageB. Inherited disease of the connective tissueC. Mechanical disruption of small venulesD. All of the above

D

82) Match the following platelet disorders with the appropriate morphology: Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

Smallest platelets seen

83) Match the following platelet disorders with the appropriate morphology: May-Hegglin anomaly

Large platelets

84) Match the following platelet disorders with the appropriate morphology: Bernard-Soulier syndrome

Giant platelets

85) Match the etiologies of these platelet dysfunctions with the appropriate associated disorder: Acquired

Uremia

86) Match the etiologies of these platelet dysfunctions with the appropriate associated disorder: Drug induced

Aspirin

87) Match the etiologies of these platelet dysfunctions with the appropriate associated disorder: Hereditary

von Willebrand disease

88) What parameters can be abnormal in classic von Willebrand disease type I?

Bleeding time

89) The most common form of von Willebrand disease is type I90) Laboratory results in acute DIC reflect abnormalities in

what coagulation components?Excessive clotting and fibri-nolysis

91) Primary fibrinolysis is characterized byA. gross activation of the fibrinolytic mechanismB. consumption of fibrinogenC. consumption of coagulation factorsD. all of the above

D

6


92) The hallmark of secondary fibrinolysis is the presence ofA. fibrin split productsB. fibrin degradation productsC. fibrin monomersD. all of the above

D

93) DIC is characterized byA. microvascular thrombosisB. fibrin depositionC. active fibrinolysisD. all of the above

D

94) What factors can contribute to hypercoagulation? Vascular endothelial damage

95) Antithrombin III deficiency Primary hypercoagulable state

96) Oral contraceptives Secondary hypercoagulable state

97) Protein C deficiency Primary hypercoagulable state

98) Cancer Secondary hypercoagulable state

99) Pregnancy Secondary hypercoagulable state

100) Circulating anticoagulants Acquired inhibitors of clot-ting proteins

101) LA Also known as antiphospholipid or Anticardiolipin

102) Factor VIII inhibitor The most common specific factor inhibitor

103) Purpura is characterized by Hemorrhages into the skin

104) The difference between petechiae and purpura is that petechiae appear as

Hemorrhagic spots on the skin or mucous membranes

105) Thrombocytopenia can be caused by Heparin106) Thrombocytopenia can be associated withA) Deep venous thrombosis (DVT)B) DICC) Pulmonary embolismD) All of the above

D

107) Thrombocytopenia due to hypoproliferation can be caused by factors such as

Insecticides

108) Ineffective thrombopoiesis leading to platelet production may be a manifestation of

Nutritional disorder

7


109) Patients treated with heparin may developA) ThrombocytopeniaB) ThrombosisC) AfibrinogenemiaD) Both A and B

D

110) What hereditary platelet function disease has adhesion defects ?

Bernard-Soulier syndrome

111) What hereditary platelet function disease has primary aggregation defects?

Glanzmann thrombasthenia

112) What hereditary platelet function disease has secondary aggregation defects?

Aspirin-like defects

113) Severe coagulation factor deficiencies. Afibrinogenemia114) The most common drug-induced cytopenia is ____

induced.Heparin

115) One of the most frequently encountered forms of increased consumption of platelets is

ITP

116) The new standard nomenclature (term) for ITP is Immune thrombocytopenia117) A characteristic of ITP is A chronic disease in adults118) In acute ITP, the mechanism of platelet destruction is

thought to beA) Absorption of viral antigen onto the platelet surface followed by antibody bindingB) Formation of an immune complex on the surface of platelets via the platelet Fc receptorsC) Auto antiplatelet antibodies attachment to platelet membrane GPsD) Either A or B

D

119) Clinical conditions that can cause thrombocytopenia include

A) DICB) Microbial sepsisC) TraumaD) All the above

D

120) Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) is characterized by

Severe thrombocytopenia

121) Laboratory manifestation of TTP include Elevated D-dimer122) What is a characteristic of Idiopathic TTP? HMW vWF factor in plasma123) What is a characteristic of Secondary TTP? History of medications, e.g.,

quinine124) What is a characteristic of Inherited TTP? Accounts for 5%–10% of

cases125) What is the appropriate characteristic for familial

thrombocytosis?Germline mutation of thrombopoietin gene

126) What is the characteristic associated with neoproliferative neoplasms?

Clonal association with somatic mutations (JAK2)

8


127) What is the appropriate characteristic for secondary thrombocytosis?

Also called reactive thrombocytosis

128) A typical disorder or condition associated with an acquired platelet dysfunction is

Uremia

129) Platelet aggregation testing is usually ____ in von Willebrand disease.

Decreased

130) One or two aspirin can extend the bleeding time ____. Twice the value131) Heredity platelet dysfunction can be a ____ defect in

originEither a structural or Biochemical

132) Body fluids usually can be examined forA) Physical characteristicsB) CellsC) Microbial organismsD) All of the above

D

133) Body fluids under normal conditions are Sterile134) Cerebrospinal fluid is primarily produced in _________. Choroid plexus135) The anatomical structure, the blood–brain barrier, is

composed ofA) Choroid plexus epitheliumB) Endothelium of capillaries in contact with CSFC) Subarachnoid spacesD) Both A and B

D

136) The total normal total leukocyte of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is

0 to 10 × 106/L

137) A grossly bloody CSF specimen suggests Subarachnoid hemorrhage138) If an increased number of segmented neutrophils (PMNs)

is observed in a CSF examination, it suggests a(n)______________________.

Bacterial infection

139) Normal CSF may contain Lymphocytes and ependymal cells

140) A cell count on a CSF specimen should be performed within _____ of collection.

1 hour

141) The causes of peritoneal effusion include all of the following except

A) Bacterial peritonitisB) Hepatic cirrhosisC) Congestive heart failureD) Tuberculosis

D

142) An extremely increased leukocyte concentration in the peritoneal fluid can be caused by

Bacterial peritonitis

143) The normal color of peritoneal fluid is Pale yellow144) A cause of significant fluid in the pericardium is Advanced malignant disease145) An increased number of eosinophils in pleural fluid is Nonspecific

9


146) Sperm motility can become decreased if the specimen isA) Stored at room temperatureB) Stored in a plastic container for more than 1 hourC) Examined after 2 hours of storageD) All of the above

D

147) The reference value for fertile semen is ______ × 109/L. 60–150148) An increased percentage of segmented neutrophils

(PMNs) is characteristic ofSeptic arthritis

149) Monosodium urate crystals are found in ___________________.

Acute gouty arthritis

150) Hemarthrosis can be associated with all of the following conditions except

A) Sickle cell disease (crisis)B) Trauma with fractureC) Aspiration of fluidD) Metallic joint prostheses

C

151) The term that gave synovial fluid its name is the description of _______________.

Viscosity

152) Cholesterol crystals in synovial fluid are Nondiagnostic153) Group II synovial fluid is characteristic of a(n)_____

condition.Inflammatory

Match the correct term for the fluid with the clinical state. 167. Transudate168. Exudate

154) Fetal fibronectin (fFN) is a protein produced during pregnancy and ________________.

A) Functions as a biological glueB) Attaches the fetal sac to the uterine liningC) Initiates laborD) Both A and B

D

155) Amniotic fluid is essential to _______________________.

A) HematopoiesisB) Lung developmentC) Protection of the fetusD) Both B and C

D

156) Match each of the terms with their appropriate synonyms.1. _____ CSF2. _____ Synovial fluid3. _____ Peritoneal fluid4. _____ Pericardial fluid5. _____ Pleural fluidA. Lumbar puncture fluidB. Joint fluidC. Chest fluidD. Ascitic fluidE. Fluid from around the heart

1.A2.B3.D4.E5.C

10


157) Match the fluids with the appropriate normal characteristics.

6. _____ CSF7. _____ Synovial fluid8. _____ Seminal fluidA. Clear and yellowB. Turbid and viscousC. Clear and colorless

6.C7.A8.B

158) Match the fluids and normal total leukocyte or total sperm count.

9. _____ CSF10. _____ Synovial fluid11. _____ Seminal fluidA. 0 to 10 × 106/LB. 60 to 150 × 109/LC. Less than 200/mL

9.A10.C11.B

159) The anatomical structures associated with the circulation of CSF are

ventricles and subarachnoid spaces

160) CSF production is associated with the choroid plexus and ependymal lining

161) CSF is collected from an intervertebral space between the _____ and _____ vertebrae.

L4, L5

162) Match the following test tube aliquots of CSF with the typical type of testing that should be performed.

15. _____ Tube 116. _____ Tube 217. _____ Tube 3A. Gross examination, cell count, and morphologyB. Microbial examinationC. Chemical and serological examination

15.C16.B17.A

163) Match the following gross examination findings of CSF with the appropriate diagnosis.

18. _____ Cloudy and turbid19. _____ Grossly bloody specimen20. _____ Xanthochromia (yellow color)21. _____ Gel formationA. Increased fibrinogenB. Subarachnoid hemorrhageC. Subarachnoid hemorrhage (more than 12 hoursafter the bleed)D. Pleocytosis

18.D19.B20.C21.A

11


164) Match the following microscopic findings of CSF with the associated condition.

22. _____ Intraventricular rupture of brain abscess23. _____ Viral infection24. _____ 0 to 5 × 106/L25. _____ Bacterial infection26. _____ CNS leukemia or lymphomaA. LymphocytosisB. Increased polymorphonuclear segmentedneutrophils (PMNs)C. MacrophagesD. Extremely elevated leukocyte count in CSFE. Normal leukocyte reference range for CSF

22.D23.A24.E25.B26.C

165) Normal CSF contains lymphocytes and ependymal cells

166) The cell count on a CSF specimen should be performed within _____ of collection.

1 hour

167) Clotting in CSF may be caused by increased protein concentration

168) An increased total leukocyte count in a CSF specimencan be caused byA. bacterial meningitisB. viral meningoencephalitisC. intravascular rupture of a brain abscessD. both A and C

D

169) An increase in the number of lymphocytes in a CSFspecimen can be caused byA. multiple sclerosisB. viral meningoencephalitisC. fungal meningitisD. all of the above

D

170) What is (are) characteristic of an effusion?A. Abnormal accumulation of fluidB. Can be a transudateC. Can be an exudateD. All of the above

D

171) A transudate can be described as specific gravity <1.016, pH 7.4 to 7.5, and lactic dehydrogenase <200 IU/L

172) Match the term with the appropriate physical description.34. _____ Pleura35. _____ Peritoneum36. _____ PericardiumA. Covers abdominal walls and viscera of the abdomenB. Covers the lungsC. A fibrous sac around the heart

34.B35.A36.C

12


173) Match the representative exudate appearance with a typical associated disorder.

38. _____ Yellow and turbid39. _____ Milky40. _____ Bloody41. _____ Clearly visible pus42. _____ Foul odorA. EmpyemaB. Infectious processC. Anaerobic bacterial infectionD. ChylothoraxE. Malignancy in the absence of trauma

38.B39.D40.E41.A42.C

174) Pleural fluid can have a white supernatant fluid after centrifugation owing to

presence of chylomicrons

175) Conditions not associated with pleural effusion include viral pneumonia176) An extremely elevated leukocyte concentration in pleural

fluid is typically associated withempyema

177) An extremely increased leukocyte concentration in peritoneal fluid can be caused by

bacterial peritonitis

178) What cells can be seen in pleural fluid?A. LE cellsB. Mononuclear phagocytesC. Mesothelial cellsD. All of the above

D

179) All of the following describe the characteristics of malignant cells except

A. multiple round aggregates of cellsB. high N:C ratioC. large, irregular nucleoliD. smooth chromatin

D

180) Match the cellular abnormality encountered in pleural and peritoneal fluids with a representative disorder .

47. _____ Many neutrophils, histiocytes, and mesothelial cells48. _____ Abundant, multinuclear cells and clusters of cells49. _____ Many malignant cells (in clusters)50. _____ Many lymphocytes, mesothelial, histiocytes, and plasma cellsA. Viral infectionB. Acute bacterial inflammationC. Metastatic adenocarcinomaD. Malignant mesotheliomaE. Chronic granulomatous inflammation

47.B48.C49.D50.A

181) In a pleural effusion, the percentage of (51) _____ is extremely high in pneumonia and the percentage of (52) _____ is extremely high in viral peritonitis.

51.

51.A52.D

13


A. polymorphonuclear segmented neutrophilsB. eosinophilsC. basophilsD. monocytes52.A. polymorphonuclear segmented neutrophilsB. eosinophilsC. basophilsD. lymphocytes182) An abnormal-appearing peritoneal effusion can be caused

by all of the following exceptA. bacterial peritonitisB. pancreatitisC. neoplasmD. tuberculous peritonitis

D

183) Match the following peritoneal effusion colors with the respective condition (use each answer once).

55. _____ Pale yellow56. _____ Straw colored57. _____ BloodyA. NormalB. Pulmonary infarctC. Congestive heart failure

55.A56.C57.B

184) Match an increase in the following cells in peritoneal fluid with the representative abnormality.

59. _____ Eosinophils60. _____ Lymphocytes61. _____ Mesothelial cellsA. Chronic peritoneal dialysisB. Congestive heart failure, cirrhosis, and nephrotic syndromeC. Tuberculous peritonitis

59.A60.B61.C

185) Match the various types and respective causes of pericardial effusion.

62. _____ Infectious agents63. _____ Collagen vascular disease64. _____ Neoplastic diseaseA. Rheumatic diseaseB. MesotheliomaC. Dressler post infarction syndromeD. Coxsackie group viruses

62.D63.A64.B

186) A cause of an increased concentration of cells in pericardial fluid is

A. microbial infectionB. malignancyC. congestive heart failureD. both A and B

D

14


187) Match the following male reproductive structures with their constituents.

66. _____ Testicle67. _____ Seminal vesicles68. _____ Prostate69. _____ Cowper glandsA. Fructose and prostaglandinsB. UnknownC. SpermD. p30 glycoprotein

66.C67.A68.D69.B

188) Sperm motility can become decreased if the specimen isA. stored at room temperatureB. stored in a plastic container for more than 1 hourC. examined after 2 hours of storageD. all of the above

D

189) Match the normal values or appropriate term.72. _____ Motility (fresh specimen)73. _____ Sperm morphology74. _____ Viability (fresh specimen)75. _____ Agglutination76. _____ Artificial inseminationA. At least 50%B. 40% to 90% (mature and oval headed)C. Test for infectious diseaseD. Prostatitis or sperm-agglutinating antibodiesE. Greater than 60%

72.E73.B74.A75.D76.C

190) The normal value of sperm cells is _____ × 109/L. 60 to 150191) Arthrocentesis is a liquid biopsy192) Disorders that can be diagnosed definitively by synovial

fluid analysis aregout, CPPD deposition disease, and septic arthritis

193) What would not be an aspiration site for synovial fluid? Posterior iliac crest194) If a synovial fluid aspirate is very turbid and septic

arthritis is suspected, a _____ should definitely be performed.

Gram stain and culture

195) Crystals that are in multiple three-dimensional forms are CPPD crystals196) An increased percentage of polymorphonuclear

segmented neutrophils (PMNs) is characteristic ofseptic arthritis

15


197) Match the following crystals with an associated disorder (use each answer once).

83. _____ MSU84. _____ Calcium oxalate85. _____ Cholesterol86. _____ Lipid liquid “maltese cross”A. Chronic renal diseaseB. Chronic rheumatoid effusionsC. Acute and chronic arthritisD. Acute gouty arthritis

83.D84.A85.B86.C

198) Important parts of the CLSI format include all of the following sections except

A) Test principleB) Type of safety equipment to wearC) Specimen collection and preparationD) Reagents, supplies, and equipment

B

199) The stain for a reticulocyte count is New methylene blue200) The Westergren method ___. Is a procedure that measures

the rate of erythrocyte settling

201) Hemolysis of whole blood specimen will produce an error in the result of a hematocrit reading.

True

202) Refractile bodies can produce a false-positive observation in a platelet count

True

203) Excessive anticoagulant will produce a decreased reticulocyte count.

False

204) The correct reference value for an erythrocyte count for an adult male is

4.5 to 5.9 × 1012/L

205) The average reference value for a total WBC count for a newborn is

18.1 × 109/L

206) The correct reference value for a reticulocyte for an adult is

0.5%–2.0%

207) The reference value for the total platelet count in an adult is

150 to 400 × 109/L

208) The clinical or specimen condition that will produce a significantly increased total leukocyte count is

Inflammation

Match the following procedures with a clinical or specimen condition that will produce an increased test result.209) Packed cell volume Polycythemia210) Platelet count Splenectomy211) Reticulocyte count Hemolytic anemia212) Westergren ESR method Rouleaux formation

16


Match the following leukocyte types with a clinical condition that will produce an increased value.213) Neutrophils Appendicitis214) Lymphocytes The flu215) Monocytes Tuberculosis216) Eosinophils Hay fever

Match the following procedure with a clinical condition that will produce an increased value.217) Platelet count Acute hemorrhage218) Reticulocyte count Hemolytic anemia219) Westergren ESR Myocardial infarction220) The packed cell volume procedure can be affected by the

A) Type of anticoagulant in the evacuated tubeB) Length of time of centrifugationC) Ratio of anticoagulant to whole bloodD) All of the above

D

221) The sedimentation rate of erythrocytes can be affected by the

A) Ratio of anticoagulant to whole bloodB) Angle of the tubeC) Temperature of the specimen or laboratoryD) All of the above

D

222) A decreased number of platelets per oil immersion field in an area where the erythrocytes are just touching each other is

5

223) What erythrocytic inclusions contain DNA and can be observed by staining with Wright-Giemsa stain?

Howell-Jolly bodies

224) The average reference range for a prothrombin time result is

10–15 seconds

225) True or False: the activated partial thromboplastin time is the test of choice for the control of heparin therapy.

True

226) True or False: the activated partial thromboplastin time is abnormal in cases of severe liver disease.

False

227) What is not a benefit of laboratory instrumentation to the hematology laboratory?

Reduced cost on rarely performed procedures

Match the following principles of cell counting instrumentation.A.) The volume of each cell is proportional to the degree of light scatterB.) Each cell momentarily increases resistance228) Electrical impedance principle B229) Optical detection principle A230) The abbreviation laser stands for light amplified by

stimulated emission of radiation

231) A photon is the basic unit of all radiation

17


232) The major application of flow-cell cytometry is sorting of cells and cellular identification using monoclonal antibodies

233) The term parameter means any numerical value that describes an entire population

234) Data output from three-part differential counters includesA. an erythrocyte histogramB. a leukocyte histogramC. a platelet histogramD. all of the above

D

235) Applying the optical principle of laser scatter technology to cell counting and analysis, discrimination between erythrocytes and platelets depends on the

A. cellular volumeB. cellular refractive indexC. time of flight through the sensing zoneD. all of the above

D

236) A bimodal histogram distribution is suggestive ofA. cold agglutinin diseaseB. posttransfusion of normal red cells to a person with abnormally sized red cellsC. the presence of RBC fragmentsD. all of the above

D

237) Which parameters are calculated rather than directly measured? Hematocrit and erythrocyte distribution width

238) In an erythrocyte histogram, the erythrocytes that are larger than normal will be to the _____ of the normal distribution curve.

right

Match the formulas to the RBC test.241) Patient RBC variation – average normal RBC variation SD of average normal RBC variation242) (SD/Mean) × 100

241. Red cell measurement index242. RDW

243) The RDW and MCV are both quantitative descriptors of erythrocyte size. If both are increased, the most probable erythrocytic abnormality would be

megaloblastic anemia

244) If the RBC distribution on a histogram demonstrates a homogeneous pattern and a small SD, the peripheral blood smear would probably exhibit

very little anisocytosis

18


245) The ____ can be determined from a WBC histogram.A. percent of lymphocytesB. absolute number of lymphocytesC. frequency distribution of granulocytesD. all of the above

D

The sorting of leukocyte subpopulations in the WBC histogram determined by electrical impedance reflects the _1____, which is primarily related to their _2____.

1. relative size2. nuclear size

246) The mononuclear cells in a WBC histogram can includeA. blast cellsB. promyelocytesC. monocytesD. all of the above

D

247) A combined scatter histogram measures cell size and granularity

248) The MPV is a measurement of the average volume of platelets

249) The MPV is often decreased in megaloblastic anemia

250) A normal PDW is less than 20%251) What can be an application of flow-cell cytometry?

A. Screening erythrocytes for malariaB. Counting of reticulocytesC. Quantitation of T and B cellsD. All of the above

D

252) Major systems in a flow cytometer include all of the following except

A. fluidicsB. opticsC. computerized electronicsD. gating

D

253) The restriction of data analysis to one cell population is accomplished by

gating

254) Which cell surface membrane marker is used for enumeration of HPC enumeration?

CD34

255) Reticulocytes can be detected by using _____ stain.A. new methylene blueB. thiazole orangeC. propidium iodideD. both A and B

D

256) The newer clinical instruments for measuring blood clotting are based on

changes in optical density

19


257) The fibrometer relies on the principle of conduction or impedance of an electrical current by fibrin

258) In the photo-optical method, the change in light transmission vs the _____ is used to determine the activity of coagulation factors/ stages.

time

259) In measuring platelet aggregation, platelet-rich plasma can be treated with _____ to aggregate platelets.

A. salineB. collagenC. epinephrineD. both B and C

D

260) A source of error when using the fibrometer in coagulation studies can be

A. improper reaction temperatureB. overincubation of the substrate reagentC. overincubation of the test plasmasD. all of the above

D

Match the following principles of cell counting instrumentation262) As each cell passes through the sensing zone of the flow cell, it scatters the focused light.263) The output histogram is a display of the distribution of cell volume and frequency.

262. The output histogram is a display of the distribution of cell volume and frequency263. Optical detection principle

Match the characteristics of light scatter264) Diffracted light, which relates to the size or volume of the cell265) Refraction of internal components, which correlates with internal complexity

264. Low-angle light scatter265. Orthogonal light scatter

266) True or False? Laser light is almost exclusively of one wavelength. True267) True or False? Laser light is multicolored. False268) True or False? Laser has parallel waves that travel in one direction. True261) With a particle-counting instrument, a high background count can

be due tocontaminated diluent

269) The term parameter means A statistical270) The term, sample, means A subset of a

population271) A statistic is Any numerical

value describing a sample

272) The delta check method of quality control Uses the patient’s own data to monitor population values

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273) In an erythrocyte histogram, the erythrocytes that are smaller than normal will be to the _____ of the normal distribution curve.

Left

274) The reticulocyte hemoglobin content (CHr) demonstrates The functional state of erythropoiesis

275) The RDW and MCV are both quantitative descriptors of erythrocyte size. If the RDW is increased and the MCV is decreased, the most probable erythrocytic abnormality would be

Iron deficiency anemia

276) Beckman Coulter instrumentation differs from other hematology instrumentation because it uses

VCS Technology

277) Requires a quality assurance/quality control system.A) The Joint CommissionB) College of American PathologistsC) Clinical laboratory Improvement AmendmentsD) All of the above

D

278) The native cell size of a platelet is reflected in platelet counting and sizing in

A) Electrical impedance methodB) Optical methodC) Only microscopic examinationD) Both A and B

D

279) The mean platelet volume is The average volume of platelets

280) In healthy patients, the platelet volume _1_ as platelet count _2_. 1. Increases2. Decreases

281) MPV values should be based on specimens that are _________old. Between 1 and 4 hours

282) If the platelet count is normal, an MPV between _______ and _______ is in the normal range.

9.0 and 9.8 fL

283) The PDW is a measure ofA) The uniformity of platelet sizeB) The number of platelets in a blood specimenC) The age of plateletsD) Thrombopoiesis

The uniformity of platelet size

284) The MPV is often decreased inA) Aplastic anemiaB) Megaloblastic anemiaC) PostchemotherapyD) All of the above

D

285) Flow cytometer instrumentation relies onA) A cytochemical reaction to prepare the blood cells for analysisB) A cytometer to measure specific cell propertiesC) Algorithms to convert these measurementsD) All of the above

D

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286) Peroxidase staining used in flow cytometry systems is positive in all of the following except

A) EosinophilsB) NeutrophilsC) MonocytesD) Blasts

D

287) In the basophil/lobularity (nuclear) channel of some instruments, only the bare nuclei remain for all of the following cells except

A) NeutrophilsB) LymphocytesC) BasophilsD) Monocytes

C

288) All of the following stains can be used in automated reticulocyte counting except

A) Thiazole orangeB) Oxazine 750C) New methylene blueD) Propidium iodide

D

289) Flow cell cytometry can be used to diagnose PNH and can replaceA) Ham testB) Acid hemolysis testC) Sucrose water testD) All of the above

D

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Cell Quiz Review - Dr Magranndrmagrann.com/MLT/Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 4.docx · Web viewThe intrinsic pathway of coagulation begins with the activation of _____ in the early