CAREER INSTITUTE KOTA (RAJASTHAN) CLASSROOM CONTACT … · TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2014 15–05–2014 2/36 Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014 01CM413098 MAJOR TEST

MAJOR TEST

TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2014

Path to Success

CAREER INSTITUTEKOTA (RAJASTHAN)

T M

FORM NUMBER

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME(ACADEMIC SESSION 2013-2014)

PAPER CODE 0 1 C M 4 1 3 0 9 8

Corporate Office

CAREER INSTITUTE

“SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005

Trin : +91 - 744 - 2436001 Fax : +91-744-2435003

E-Mail: [email protected] Website: www.allen.ac.in

ENTHUSIAST, LEADER AND ACHIEVER COURSE

INSTRUCTIONS ()

1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be alloted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the

correct seat only. If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be

removed from the examination and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.

2. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.

3. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.

4. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.

5. Each correct answer carries 1 marks, while one third mark will be deducted from the total of individual subject for each

incorrect answer.

1

Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so /

Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to [email protected] within 2 days along with Your FormNo. & Complete Test Details.

Correction Form No. Test Details [email protected] mail

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014

FULL SYLLABUS

AIIMS # 03 DATE : 15 - 05 - 2014

15–05–2014

1/36Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 201401CM413098

MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER COURSE

1. Bacteria are found to be primitive organism

because they :-

(1) Are small and microscopic

(2) Possess incipient nucleus and show amitotic

division

(3) Produce endospores, which are very resistant

to adverse conditions

(4) Cause serious diseases in domestic animals,

human being and plants

2. INF- therapy is------------.

(1) Active immunotherapy

(2) Passive immunotherapy

(3) Biological response modifier therapy

(4) Both 1 and 3

3. Read the following statements carefully

a - Derivative of tyrosine amino acid

b - Binds with nuclear receptors in target cells

c- Stimulates gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis

d - Essential for physical, mental and sexual

development

e - Deficiency may cause dwarfism during early

age.

All the above statements are correct for which

hormone

(1) Growth hormone (2) Cortisol

(3) Thyroxin (4) Insulin

4. Which is/are correct :-

(a) Curd eating man – Secondary consumer

(b) Calf – Secondary consumer

(c) Sparrow – Primary or secondary consumer

(d) Utricularia – Producer and secondary consumer

(1) Only a (2) a, b, c, d

(3) a, c (4) None of the above

5. Which statement is correct for pteridophyta ?

(1) Gametophyte is autotrophic, while sporophyte

is parasitic

(2) Sporophyte is semiparasite and gametophyte

is autotrophic

(3) Both gametophyte and sporophyte are usually

autotrophic

(4) Only sporophyte is autotrophic, while

gametophyte is parasitic

1. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2. INF-

(1) (2) (3) (4) 1 3

3. a -

b -

c -

d -

e -

(1) (2)

(3) (4) 4. :-

(a) – (b) – (c) – (d) – (1) a (2) a, b, c, d

(3) a, c (4) 5. ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING

HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS

15–05–2014TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2014

2/36 Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014 01CM413098

MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

6. Incorrect about antibody is :-

(1) Glycoproteins

(2) Soluble molecules

(3) H2L

2

(4) All are correct informations

7. Choose the correct sequence of the following

events involved in the mechanism of impulse

transmission through a chemical synapse.

a - Movement of the synaptic vesicle towards the

membrane and release of neurotransmitter

b - Arrival of the action potential at the axon

terminal

c - Binding of neurotransmitters with their specific

receptors

d - Generation of excitatory post-synaptic potential

e - Opening of the Naion channels and influx of

Naions in post synaptic neuron.

(1) a, b, c, d, e (2) b, a, c, d, e

(3) b, a, c, e, d (4) b, e, a, c, d

8. Producer Primary Secondary Top

(I) Plant Insect Frog Eagle

(II) Plant Rat Snake Peacock

When food chain I get connected with food chain

II and snake eats frog, then snake is :-

(1) Primary consumer

(2) Secondary consumer

(3) Tertiary consumer

(4) Top consumer

9. The life cycle in bryophyta is haplo-diplontic type,

it means that :-

(1) Haploid generation is multicellular and diploid

generation is single celled

(2) Haploid generation is dominant & multicellular,

diploid generation is also multicellular but

comparatively less developed

(3) Haploid & Diploid generations are equally

developed

(4) Haploid generation is highly reduced

10. Digestion of entire cell by its own lysosomal

enzymes is called :-

(1) Autolysis (2) Autophagy

(3) Heterophagy (4) Crinophagy

6.

(1) (2) (3) H

2L

2

(4)

7.

a -

b - c - d -

e - NaNa

(1) a, b, c, d, e (2) b, a, c, d, e

(3) b, a, c, e, d (4) b, e, a, c, d

8. (I)

(II)

I II

:-

(1)

(2) (3) (4)

9.

:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10. (1) (2)

(3) (4)

15–05–2014


MAJOR TEST : AIIMS


11. Out of the following structures marked as A, B and

C in the given diagram of thin filament, which of

these has myosin binding site that remain masked

during resting state ?

A

B

C

(1) A (2) B

(3) C (4) A and B

12. Choose the fish that is not oviparous :-

(1) Rohu

(2) Gold fish

(3) Scoliodon

(4) Hippocampus

13. Feature absent in Aschelminthes is :-

(1) They have organ system level of body

organisation

(2) They are bilaterally symmetrical

(3) They are pseudocoelomate animals

(4) They have nephridia for osmoregulation and

excretion

14. In a polysaccharide chain like glycogen, right

end is :-

(1) Reducing (2) Non reducing

(3) Amphoteric (4) Amphipathic

15. In an experiment individual homozygous for ab

genes were crossed with wild type (++). The F1

hybrid thus produced was test crossed and

progenies produced in following ratio :-

++ 448, ab 440, +a 54, +b 58

Calculate the distance between a and b genes:-

(1) 22.4 m.u. (2) 44 m.u.

(3) 11.2 m.u. (4) 45 m.u.

16. During high blood pressure, regulations of heart

beat and circulation are controlled by :-

(1) Vasodilator and vasoconstrictor centres

(2) Cardio-stimulatory and vasocontrictor centres

(3) Cardio-inhibitory and vasoconstrictor centres

(4) Cardio-inhibitory and vasodilator centres

17. Which of the following is a matching pair ?

(1) Octopus – Cuttle fish

(2) Pinctada – Pearl oyester

(3) Pila – Squid

(4) Loligo – Apple Snail

11. A,

B C

A

B

C

(1) A (2) B

(3) C (4) A B12. :-

(1) (2) (3) (4)

13. (1) (2) (3) (4)

14. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

15. ab (++) F

1

++ 448, ab 440, +a 54, +b 58

a b (1) 22.4 m.u. (2) 44 m.u.

(3) 11.2 m.u. (4) 45 m.u.

16. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

17. (1) –

(2) –

(3) –

(4) –



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

18. Type of photophosphorylation, in which there is no

reduction of NADP+, Not utilise which of the

following components ?

(1) An iron sulphur protein as a primary acceptor

of electrons

(2) Cytochrome containing electron transport

system to pass the electrons

(3) Reaction centre which causes the release of

O2 during photosynthesis

(4) Reaction centre which has an absorption peak

at 700 nm wavelength of light

19. In Lathyrus odoratus homozygous blue flowered,

long pollen plant go through cross with red

flowered, round pollen plant. The F1 plant is test

crossed and gives rise to 720 seeds. On sowing

of these seeds how many of their offspring plants

will be blue flowered with round pollen ?

(1) 45

(2) 315

(3) 180

(4) Either (1) or (2)

20. Match the column :-

(a) Fabaceae (i) Aloe

(b) Cruciferae (ii) Sesbania

(c) Solanaceae (iii) Mustard

(d) Liliaceae (iv) Tobacco

a b c d

(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

(4) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

21. Select the incorrect statement from the

following:-

(1) Non-endospermic seeds are found in pea, beanand gram

(2) Endospermic seeds are found in castor

(3) Endospermic seeds are found in orchids

(4) Non-endospermic seeds are found in orchids

18. NADP+ , ?(1)

(2)

(3) O2

(4) 700 nm

19.

F1

720

(1) 45

(2) 315

(3) 180

(4) (1) (2)

20. :-

(a) (i)

(b) (ii)

(c) (iii)

(d) (iv)

a b c d

(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

(4) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

21.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Time Management is Life Management

15–05–2014


MAJOR TEST : AIIMS


22. Which one of the following options gives the

correct match of different processes of

respiration with the product they release ?

Glycolysis

Oxidative

Phosphoryl-

ation

Citric acid

cycle

(1)NADH+H+,

FADH2, ATP

NADH+H+,

ATP

GTP, CO2,

Pyruvate

(2)NADH+H+,

GTP

FADH2, ATP

NADH+H+,

ATP, CO2,

GTP

(3)NADH+H+,

CO2

ATPFADH

2,

GTP

(4)NADH+H+,

ATPATP

NADH+H+,

CO2, GTP,

FADH2

23. Given below is a pedigree of a family suffering

from a genetical disorder.

After observing the inheritance pattern, find out

that which of the following disorder can produce

such type of pedigree ?

(1) G-6-PD (2) Colourblindness

(3) Haemophilia (4) Pseudoricketes

24. Find out the sequence of binding of the following

amino acyl t–RNA complexes during translation

to a m–RNA transcribed by a DNA segment

having the base sequence. 3' ATACCCATGGGG

5'. Choose the answer showing the correct order

of alphabets :–

Amino acid

CC Canticodon

Amino acid

UA Ganticodon

(b)(a)

Amino acid

GG Ganticodon

Amino acid

UA Aanticodon

(d)(c)

(1) a, b, c, d (2) d, a, b, c

(3) a, b, d, c (4) b, a, c, d

22. ?

(1)NADH+H+,

FADH2, ATP

NADH+H+,

ATP

GTP, CO2,

(2)NADH+H+,

GTP

FADH2, ATP

NADH+H+,

ATP, CO2,

GTP

(3)NADH+H+,

CO2

ATPFADH

2,

GTP

(4)NADH+H+,

ATPATP

NADH+H+,

CO2, GTP,

FADH2

23.

?(1) G-6-PD (2) (3) (4)

24.

3' ATACCCATGGGG 5'

m–RNA t–RNA

Amino acid

CC Canticodon

Amino acid

UA Ganticodon

(b)(a)

Amino acid

GG Ganticodon

Amino acid

UA Aanticodon

(d)(c)

(1) a, b, c, d (2) d, a, b, c

(3) a, b, d, c (4) b, a, c, d



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

25. In human body dense regular connective tissue can

be seen in :

(1) Ligaments

(2) Certain part of skin

(3) Internal lining of hollow organs

(4) Moist surface of buccal cavity

26.

Enz

yme

acti

vity

pH

Above diagram showing the effect of change in pH

on enzyme activity. Which of the following

conclusions can be made by this diagram ?

(1) Enzyme show its highest activity at a particular

pH, both below and above this pH, enzyme

activity declines

(2) With increasing pH, enzyme activity

increases upto a limit and after that it

become constant

(3) At a particular pH, enzyme activity is

minimum, both below and above this pH,

enzyme activity increases

(4) Enzyme activity is affected by temperature

not by pH so it is completely a hypothetical

graph

27. How many of the following statement is correct :-

(A) The capacity to generate a whole plant from

explant is called totipotency.

(B) Pusa swarnim is the variety of Brassica have

resistance to white rust disease.

(C) Chlorophyll pigments are present in outer

membrane of chloroplast.

(D) During quiescent stage (G0) cells are

metabolically active but no longer proliferate.

(1) Two (2) Four (3) One (4) Three

25. (1) (2) (3) (4)

26.

pH

:-

pH

?

(1) pH

pH

(2) pH

(3) pH

pH

(4) pH

27. ?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) (G0)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

15–05–2014


MAJOR TEST : AIIMS


28. In eukaryotes which of the following RNA takes

part in splicing ?

(1) RNA primer

(2) Genomic RNA

(3) Sn RNA (Small nuclear RNA)

(4) Sc RNA (Small cytoplasmic RNA)

29. Read the following statements and choose the

correct option.

(a) Soon after the infant is delivered; the placenta

is also expelled out of the uterus.

(b) Parturition is induced by a complex

neuroendocrine mechanism.

(c) The milk produced during the initial few days

of lactation is called colostrum.

(d) During parturition oxytocin acts on the ovarian

muscles and causes stronger uterine

contraction.

Which of the above correct statements :-

(1) a, b, c, d (2) a, b, c

(3) a, b (4) a, b, d

30.

(A) Attraction between water

molecules

(C) Negative tension

Stomata

Mesophyll cell

Water vapour

Stem

(B) Attraction between waterand tracheary element's surface

Trachearyelements

Leaf

(i) Which process is shown in above diagram?

(ii) Some other terms can be utilised for A, B, and

C, choose the correct option regarding this:-

(1) (i) Food translocation

(ii) A = Cohesion, B = Adhesion,

C = Surface tension

(2) (i) Guttation

(ii) A = Adhesion, B = Cohesion,

C = Root pressure

(3) (i) Ascent of sap

(ii) A = Surface tension, B = Transpiration pull,

C = Root pressure

(4) (i) Ascent of sap

(ii) A = Cohesion, B = Adhesion,

C = Transpiration pull

28. splicing

?

(1) (2) (3) Sn RNA (Small nuclear RNA)

(4) Sc RNA (Small cytoplasmic RNA)

29.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(1) a, b, c, d (2) a, b, c

(3) a, b (4) a, b, d

30.

(C)

(A)

(B)

(i)

(ii) A, B, C

(1) (i)

(ii) A = , B = , C =

(2) (i)

(ii) A = , B = ,

C =

(3) (i) (ii) A = , B = C =

(4) (i) (ii) A = , B = ,C =



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

31. In orchid and bee relation orchid shows :-

(1) Mimicry

(2) Pseudo copulation

(3) Predation

(4) All of the above

32. One chain of a DNA molecule has nucleotide

arrangement 5' ATT GAC GTA 3' ----- then the

base order of its complementary chain will be:–

(1) 3' TAA CTG CAT 5'


(3) 3' TUU CUU GGG 5'

(4) 5' UAA UAG UGA 3'

33. Which of the following set has hormones of same

chemical nature ?

(1) FSH, LH, Estrogen

(2) FSH, Estrogen, Progesterone

(3) Estrogen, Progesterone, Testosterone

(4) LH, Oxytocin, Estrogen

34. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) Absorption of simple sugar, alcohol, some water

and medicines takes place in stomach.

(2) Small intestine is the major site of digestion and

absorption of food.

(3) Fatty acid and glycerol are absorbed by

lacteals in large intestine.

(4) None of these

35. Which one is correct :-

(a)Inter specificcompetition

Maintain speciesdiversity

(b)Intra specificcompetition

Maintain equilibriumbetween species

(c)Intra specificcompetition

Maintain equilibriumin population

(d)Inter specificcompetition

Induced diversity loss

(1) ab (2) ac

(3) cd (4) ca

31. :-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

32. DNA

5' ATT GAC GTA 3'



(3) 3' TUU CUU GGG 5'

(4) 5' UAA UAG UGA 3'

33.

(1) FSH, LH, Estrogen

(2) FSH, Estrogen, Progesterone

(3) Estrogen, Progesterone, Testosterone

(4) LH, Oxytocin, Estrogen

34.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 35. :-

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(1) ab (2) ac

(3) cd (4) ca

15–05–2014


MAJOR TEST : AIIMS


36. Which of the following is advantage of rDNA

technology over sexual reproduction ?

(1) It create variations

(2) Does not allow inclusion of undesirable gene

(3) Does not allow multiplication of undesirable

gene

(4) Both (2) and 3

37. Incorrect about AIDS is :-

(a) Primary immunodeficiency

(b) Congenital disease

(c) Infectious disease

(d) Secondary immunodeficiency

(1) a, d (2) a, b

(3) b, d, c (4) d, b

38. Find out the correct statement

(1) Kidneys do not play any significant role in

ammonia removal.

(2) Human kidneys can produce only hypertonic

urine nearly five times concentrated than the

initial filtrate.

(3) Urea may be retained in the kidney matrix of

all animals to maintain a desired osmolarity.

(4) All the above

39. Ecosystem creates :-

(1) Food chain (2) Food web

(3) Both (4) Any one of the both

40. The proteolytic enzymes of pancreas is/are

(1) Trypsinogen

(2) Chymotrypsinogen

(3) Proelastase

(4) All of the above

36. rDNA ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) (2) 3

37. AIDS

(a)

(b)

(c) (infectious)

(d)

(1) a, d (2) a, b

(3) b, d, c (4) d, b

38.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(3)

39. :-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

40.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

41. If ˆ ˆ ˆP 3i 5 j 2k

, ˆ ˆ ˆQ 5i j 4k

and

ˆ ˆ ˆR 4i 2 j 3k

are coplanar, then :

(1) (P Q) R 0

(2) (P Q) R 0

(3) P Q R 0

(4) (P Q) R 0

42. A body 'A' of mass M while falling vertically

downwards under gravity breaks into two parts,

a body B of mass M

3 and body C of mass

2M

3.

The centre of mass of bodies B and C taken

together shifts compared to that of body A

towards:-

(1) Body C

(2) Body B

(3) Depends on height of breaking

(4) Does not shift

43. Two waves y1 = A cos (0.5x – 100t) and

y2 = A cos(0.46x – 92t) are travelling in a pipe

placed along x-axis. Find the number of times

intensity is maximum in time interval of 1 sec.

(1) 4 (2) 6

(3) 8 (4) 10

44. A battery of emf E volt is connected across a coil

of uniform wire as shown radius of coil is a meters

and total resistance of wire is R ohm. Then

magnetic field at the centre O of the coil :-

E

O

(1) zero (2) 0µ E

2Ra

(3) 0µ E

Ra(4)

02µ E

Ra

41. ˆ ˆ ˆP 3i 5 j 2k

, ˆ ˆ ˆQ 5i j 4k

ˆ ˆ ˆR 4i 2 j 3k

(1) (P Q) R 0

(2) (P Q) R 0

(3) P Q R 0

(4) (P Q) R 0

42. M A B

M

3 C

2M

3

B C

A :-(1) C (2) B

(3) (4)

43. x- y1 = A cos

(0.5x – 100t) y2 = A cos(0.46x – 92t)

(1) 4 (2) 6

(3) 8 (4) 10

44. E a R O :-

E

O

(1) (2) 0µ E

2Ra

(3) 0µ E

Ra(4)

02µ E

Ra

15–05–2014


MAJOR TEST : AIIMS


45. The retardation of a particle varies with

instantaneous velocity as a = –where is

a small constant. If the velocity of the particle is

0 at t = 0, then :-

(1) the particle will continue to move for a very

long time

(2) velocity of the particle will decrease by 50%

in a time of log2

(3) the total distance covered by the particle will

be 0

(4) all of the above

46. A rocket is moving away from the earth at a speed

of 6 × 107 m/s. The rocket has blue light in it. What

will be the wavelength of light recorded by an

observer on the earth (wavelength of blue light

= 4600 Å) :-

(1) 4600 Å (2) 5520 Å

(3) 3680 Å (4) 3920 Å

47. A massless rod is suspended by two identical

strings AB and CD of equal length. A block of

mass m is suspended from point O such that BO

is equal to 'x' Further, it is observed that the

frequency of 1st harmonic (fundamental

frequency) in AB is equal to 2nd harmonic

frequency in CD. Then, length of BO is :

A

B

C

DL

O

mx

(1) L

5(2)

4L

5(3)

3L

4(4)

L

4

48. Two concentric circular coils of 10 turns each are

situated in the same plane. Their radii are 20 cm

40 and they carry currents 0.2 A and 0.3A

respectively in opposite directions µ0 is the

permiability of vaccum then magnetic field in

Wb/m2 at the common centre is :-

(1) 0

35µ

4(2) 0

5µ

4(3)

0µ

80(4)

07µ

80

45. 'a'

a = –

t = 0 0

(1)

(2) log2

50%

(3) 0

(4)

46. 6 × 107 /. ( = 4600 Å) :-

(1) 4600 Å

(2) 5520 Å

(3) 3680 Å

(4) 3920 Å

47. AB CD m O BO 'x'

AB CD BO

A

B

C

DL

O

mx

(1) L

5(2)

4L

5(3)

3L

4(4)

L

4

48. 10 20 cm 40 cm 0.2 A 0.3A B µ

0 :-

(1) 0

35µ

4(2) 0

5µ

4

(3) 0µ

80(4)

07µ

80



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

49. A balloon is rising upwards at a velocity of 10m/s.

When it is at a height of 45 m from the ground,

a parachute bails out from it. After 3s the man with

the parachute decelerates at a constant rate of

5 m/s2. What was the height of the man above the

ground when he opens his parachute ?

(Take g = 10 m/s2).

(1) 60 m (2) 45 m

(3) 30 m (4) 15 m

50. In a Young's double slit experiment the intensity

at a point where the path difference is 6

( being

the wavelength of the light used) is I. If I0 denotes

the maximum intensity, 0

I

I is equal to :-

(1)1

2(2)

3

2

(3) 1/2 (4) 3/4

51. Length of a simple pendulum is l and its maximum

angular displacement is , then its maximum K.E.

is :

(1) mgl sin (2) mgl(1 + sin )

(3) mgl(1 + cos ) (4) mgl(1 – cos )

52. A copper disc of radius 0.1m rotated about its

centre with 10 revolutions per second in uniform

magnetic field of 0.1 Tesla with its plane

perpendicular field then emf induced across the

radius of the disc is :-

(1) volt

(2)

2volt

(3) × 10–2 volt (4) 2 × 10–2 volt

53. Rain water is falling vertically downward with

velocity u. When velocity of the wind is blown

in the horizontal direction, water is collected at

the rate of Qm3/s. When the wind velocity in the

horizontal direction is doubled, the rate of

collection of water is :-

(1) Q (2) Q

2

(3)2 2

2

4Q

u

(4)

2

2 2

uQ

u 4

49. 10 45 3 5 2 (g = 10 2).(1) 60 m (2) 45 m

(3) 30 m (4) 15 m

50. 6

I ( )

I0

0

I

I

:-

(1)1

2(2)

3

2

(3) 1/2 (4) 3/4

51. l

(1) mgl sin (2) mgl(1 + sin )

(3) mgl(1 + cos ) (4) mgl(1 – cos )

52. 0.1m 10 0.1 T

:-

(1) volt

(2)

2volt

(3) × 10–2 volt (4) 2 × 10–2 volt

53. u

Q 3

(1) Q (2) Q

2

(3)2 2

2

4Q

u

(4)

2

2 2

uQ

u 4

15–05–2014


MAJOR TEST : AIIMS


54. A transparent solid cylindrical rod has a refractive

index of 2

3. It is surrounded by air. A light ray

is incident at the mid-point of one end of the rod

as shown in the figure

The incident angle for which the light ray grazes

along the wall of the rod is :-

(1) sin–1 (1/2) (2) sin–1 ( 3 2 )

(3) sin–1 (2/ 3 ) (4) sin–1 (1/ 3 )

55. A simple pendulum, suspended from the ceiling

of a stationary van, has time period T. If the van

starts moving with a uniform velocity the period

of the pendulum will be :

(1) Less than T

(2) Equal to 2T

(3) Greater than T

(4) Unchanged

56. The rms value of the emf given by

= 8 Sint + 6 sin 2 t volt is:-

(1) 5 2 (2) 7 2

(3) 10 (4) 10 2

57. There are two identical small holes of area of

cross-section 'A' on the opposite sides of a tank

containing a liquid of density ''. The difference

in height between the holes is 'h'. Tank is resting

on a smooth horizontal surface, horizontal force

which has to be applied on the tank to keep it in

equilibrium is :-

h

(1) gh A (2) 2gh/A

(3) 2gh A (4) gh/A

54. 2

3

:-

(1) sin–1 (1/2) (2) sin–1 ( 3 2 )

(3) sin–1 (2/ 3 ) (4) sin–1 (1/ 3 )

55. T

(1) T (2) 2T

(3) T

(4) 56. = 8 Sint + 6 sin 2 t

:-

(1) 5 2 (2) 7 2

(3) 10 (4) 10 2

57. A h

h

(1) gh A (2) 2gh/A

(3) 2gh A (4) gh/A

Key Filling



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

58. A telescope of diameter 2m uses light of

wavelength 5000 Å for viewing stars. The

minimum angular separation between two stars

whose image is just resolved by this telescope

is :-

(1) 4 × 10–4 rad

(2) 0.25 × 10–6 rad

(3) 0.31 × 10–6 rad

(4) 5.0 × 10–3 rad

59. A man can jump to a height of 1.5 m on a planet

A. What is the height he may be able to jump on

another planet whose density and radius are,

respectively, one-quarter and one-third that of

planet A :-

(1) 1.5 m. (2) 15 m.

(3) 18 m. (4) 28 m.

60. The charge of a parallel plate capacitor is varying

as q = q0 sin t. Then find the magnitude of

displacement current through the capacitor :-

(Plate Area = A, separation of plates = d)

(1) q0 cos (t) (2) q0 sin t

(3) q0 cos t (4) 0q A

cos td

61. Block of mass 4 kg is to be kept at rest against

a smooth vertical wall by applying a force F as

shown in figure. The force required is :-

45°

F

(1) 40 2 N (2) 20 2 N

(3) 10 2 N (4) 15 2 N

62. A ring of radius r and mass m rotates about an axis

passing through its centre and perpendicular to its

plane with angular velocity . Its kinetic energy

is:-

(1) mr2 (2) mr2/2

(3) mr22 (4) 2 2mr

2

58. 2m 5000 Å

:-

(1) 4 × 10–4 rad

(2) 0.25 × 10–6 rad

(3) 0.31 × 10–6 rad

(4) 5.0 × 10–3 rad

59. A 1.5

A

:-

(1) 1.5 m. (2) 15 m.

(3) 18 m. (4) 28 m.

60. q = q0 sin t (Plate Area = A, separation of plates = d)

(1) q0 cos (t) (2) q0 sin t

(3) q0 cos t (4)

0q Acos t

d

61. 4 kg F :-

45°

F

(1) 40 2 N (2) 20 2 N

(3) 10 2 N (4) 15 2 N

62. r m :-(1) mr2 (2) mr2/2

(3) mr22 (4) 2 2mr

2

15–05–2014


MAJOR TEST : AIIMS


63. Calculate current from battery just after switch is

closed (t 0) :-

R

R

RE

C

L

Sw

(1)E

R(2)

E

2R(3)

2E

3R(4) Zero

64. In the experiment of P.E.E., if incident wavelength

of light is then kmax

of photo electrons is l ev.

If is replaced by /2 then kmax

is 3eV. What will

be value of kmax

if wavelength of light is 2 :-

(1) 0.5 eV (2) 0.25 eV

(3) 0.75 eV (4) Zero

65. Co-efficient of friction between blocks and

surface is 0.1. If at some instant the acceleration

of 10 kg mass is 12 m/s2 then what is the

acceleration of 20 kg mass?

10 kg 20 kg 200 N

µ = 0.1

(1) 1.2 m/s2 (2) 2.5 m/s2

(3) 3.6 m/s2 (4) 4.0 m/s2

66. The figure shows two thin rods, one made of

aluminum [ = 23 × 106 (C°)1] and the other of

steel [ = 12 × 106 (C°)–1]. Each rod has the same

length and the same initial temperature. They are

attached at one end to two separate immovable

walls. Temperature of both the rods is increased

by the same amount, until the gap between the

rods vanishes. Where do the rods meet when the

gap vanishes?

Aluminum Copper

Midpoint

(1) The rods meet exactly at the midpoint.

(2) The rods meet to the right of the midpoint .

(3) The rods meet to the left of the midpoint.

(4) Information insufficient

63. (t 0) :-

R

R

RE

C

L

Sw

(1)E

R(2)

E

2R(3)

2E

3R(4) Zero

64. P.E.E., k

max l ev

/2 kmax

3eV

2 kmax

:-(1) 0.5 eV (2) 0.25 eV

(3) 0.75 eV (4) 65. 0.1

10 kg 12 m/s2 20 kg

10 kg 20 kg 200 N

µ = 0.1

(1) 1.2 m/s2 (2) 2.5 m/s2

(3) 3.6 m/s2 (4) 4.0 m/s2

66.

[ = 23 × 106 (C°)1]

[ = 12 × 106 (C°)1]

Aluminum Copper

Midpoint

(1) (2) (3) (4)



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

67. A quantity X is given by X = 0

VL.

t

where 0

be the permitivity of free space. L is length, V

is potential difference and t is time interval. The

dimensional formula for X is same as that of :-

(1) Resistance (2) Charge

(3) Voltage (4) Current

68. Half life of a radio active sample is T. At

instant t, 70% amount is active. At which instant

35% amount will remain active –

(1) T (2) t + T

(3) 2t/T (4) t/T

69. With what minimum velocity should block be

projected along belt from left end A towards end

B such that it reaches the end B of conveyer belt

moving with velocity v. Friction coefficient

between block and belt is µ :-

L

v

v0

µ

A B

(1) gL (2) 2 gL

(3) 3 gL (4) 2 gL

70. For an ideal gas, each of the following processes

definitely leads to an change in the pressure of

the gas, except one. Which is the process in which

pressure doesn't change.

(1) Increasing the temperature, while keeping the

volume and the number of moles of the gas

constant.

(2) Increasing the temperature and volume

proportionally while keeping the number of

moles of the gas constant.

(3) Increasing the number of moles of the gas,

while keeping the temperature and the volume

constant.

(4) Increasing the volume, while keeping the

temperature and the number of moles of the

gas constant.

67. X X = 0

VL.

t

, 0

L V t X :-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

68. T t 70% 35%

–

(1) T (2) t + T

(3) 2t/T (4) t/T

69. A

B

v

µ. :-

L

v

v0

µ

A B

(1) gL (2) 2 gL

(3) 3 gL (4) 2 gL

70.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15–05–2014


MAJOR TEST : AIIMS


71. A capacitor of capacitance C is charged to a

constant potential difference V and then connected

in series with an open key and a pure resistor R.

At time t = 0, the key is closed. If I is the current

at time t, a plot of log I against t is shown as (1)

in the graph. Later one of the parameters, i.e., V,

R and C is changed, keeping the other two

constant and graph (2) is recorded. Then :-

Log

1

(1)

(2)

tO

(1) C is reduced

(2) C is increased

(3) R is reduced

(4) R is increased

72. The ionisation energies of K–shell for cobalt,

copper, and molebdenum are 7.8, 9.0 and

20.1 KeV respectively. If any metal out of these

is used as target in an X–ray tube operated at 8

KV, then :–

(1) The K–series of characteristic X-ray will be

emitted by Co only

(2) The K–series of characteristic X–rays will be

emitted by Cu and Co only.

(3) The K–series of characteristic X–rays will be

emitted by Cu, Co and Mo.

(4) The minimum wavelength of continuous

X–rays emitted by the three metals will not

be same.

73. Which vector in the figures best represents the

acceleration of a pendulum mass at the

intermediate point in its swings?

(1)

a

(2)

a

(3)

a

(4)

a

71. V

t = 0 t

I log I

(1) V, R C

(

(2) :-

Lo

g 1

(1)

(2)

tO

(1) C (2) C (3) R (4) R

72. K–7.8, 9.0 20.1 KeV

X–

8 KV –

(1) X–K–

(2) X–K–

(3) X–K–

(4) X–

73.

(1)

a

(2)

a

(3)

a

(4)

a



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

74. An ideal gas is taken through a process where

dQ = dU – dW. The specific heat of the ideal gas

in this process is (dQ = heat supplied to the gas,

dU = change in internal energy, dW = work done

by gas)

(1) CV

(2) CV +

3

2R

(3) CV – R

(4) the process is impossible

75. Three charges of 0.1C each are placed on the

corners of an equilateral triangle of side 1.0m. If

the energy is supplied to this system at the rate

of 0.1 KW, how much time would be required to

move all the charges at infinite separation :-

(1) 1.5 × 107 sec

(2) 1.8 × 105 sec

(3) 2.7 × 106 sec

(4) 1.9 × 1010 sec

76. The logic circuit for the Boolean operation

A B C will be :-

(1) A

B

C

(2)

A

B

C

Y

(3) YA

CB

(4) A

B

C

Y

74. dQ = dU – dW

(dQ = dU =

, dW = )(1) C

V

(2) CV +

3

2R

(3) CV – R

(4) 75. 1.0

0.1 0.1

:-(1) 1.5 × 107 sec

(2) 1.8 × 105 sec

(3) 2.7 × 106 sec

(4) 1.9 × 1010 sec

76. A B C

:-

(1) A

B

C

(2)

A

B

C

Y

(3) YA

CB

(4) A

B

C

Y

Use stop, look and go method in reading the question

15–05–2014


MAJOR TEST : AIIMS


77. A particle of mass 'M' is moved under a constant

power P0. At some instant after the start, its speed

is v and at a later instant the speed is 2v.

Neglecting friction, distance travelled by the

particle as its speed increases from v to 2v is :-

(1)

3

0

12 Mv

5P(2)

308 P v

M

(3)

3

0

9 Mv

5P(4)

3

0

7 M v

3P

78. Two electric lamps A and B radiate the same

power. Their filaments have the same dimensions

and have emissivities eA and e

B. Their surface

temperatures are TA and T

B. The ratio

A

B

T

T will be

equal to :-

(1)

1/ 4

B

A

e

e

(2)

1/ 2

B

A

e

e

(3)

1/ 2

A

B

e

e

(4)

1/ 4

A

B

e

e

79. In the following circuit, the potential difference

between the points A and B will be (VA – VB):

B

A

4V2

2

3 34V

4V

(1) –4 V (2) –6 V (3) 8 V (4) 12 V

80. The graph of variation of charge density close to

the junction in a P–N junction diode with distance

is :-

(1)

NP(+)

(–) r (2)

(+)

(–)r

P N

(3)

(+)

(–)

r

P N

(4)

(+)

(–)

r

P N

77. 'M' P0

v 2v v 2v :-

(1)

3

0

12 Mv

5P(2)

308 P v

M

(3)

3

0

9 Mv

5P(4)

3

0

7 M v

3P

78. A B

eA e

B

TA T

B A

B

T

T

(1)

1/ 4

B

A

e

e

(2)

1/ 2

B

A

e

e

(3)

1/ 2

A

B

e

e

(4)

1/ 4

A

B

e

e

79. A B (VA – VB)

B

A

4V2

2

3 34V

4V

(1) –4 V (2) –6 V (3) 8 V (4) 12 V

80. P–N :-

(1)

NP(+)

(–) r (2)

(+)

(–)r

P N

(3)

(+)

(–)

r

P N

(4)

(+)

(–)

r

P N



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

81. Assuming fully decomposed, the volume of CO2

released at STP on heating 9.85g of BaCO3

(Atomic mass of Ba = 137) will be :-

(1) 0.84 L (2) 2.24 L

(3) 4.06 L (4) 1.12 L

82. The volume of atoms present in a face-centred

cubic unit cell of a metal (r is atomic radius) is:-

(1) 20

3r2 (2)

24

3r3

(3) 12

3r3 (4)

16

3r3

83. H3BO

3 Strong

Heat (major)P product 'p' is :-

(1) HBO2

(2) H4B

2O

7

(3) B2O3 (4) H4B2O6

84. For which of the following reactions K310/K300

would be maximum ?

(1) A + B C ; Ea = 50 KJ

(2) X + Y Z ; Ea = 40 KJ

(3) E + F G ; Ea = 100 KJ

(4) P + Q R ; Ea = 60 KJ

85. On reduction with hydrogen, 3.6 g of an oxide

of metal left 3.2g of metal. If the vapour density

of metal is 32, the simplest formula of the oxide

would be :-

(1) MO (2) M2O3

(3) M2O (4) M2O5

86. According to Henry's law, the solubility of a gas

in a given volume of liquid increases with

increase in :

(1) Temperature (2) Pressure

(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) None of these

87. Which of the following carbanion is resonance

stabilized ?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

88. Which of the following oxide can not act as

reducing agent ?

(1) SO2 (2) NO2 (3) ClO2 (4) CO2

81. 9.85 BaCO3 CO2

STP (Ba = 137) :-

(1) 0.84 (2) 2.24

(3) 4.06 (4) 1.12 82. fcc

(r ) :-

(1) 20

3r2 (2)

24

3r3

(3) 12

3r3 (4)

16

3r3

83. H3BO

3 Strong

Heat (major)P 'p' :-

(1) HBO2

(2) H4B

2O

7

(3) B2O

3(4) H

4B

2O

6

84. K310/K300 ?(1) A + B C ; Ea = 50 KJ

(2) X + Y Z ; Ea = 40 KJ

(3) E + F G ; Ea = 100 KJ

(4) P + Q R ; Ea = 60 KJ

85. 3.6 3.2 g 32 :-(1) MO (2) M2O3

(3) M2O (4) M2O5

86.

(1) (2)

(3) (1) (2) (4) 87.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

88. ?(1) SO2 (2) NO2 (3) ClO2 (4) CO2

15–05–2014


MAJOR TEST : AIIMS


89. The spliting of energy level in the presence of a

magnetic field is called :

(1) Stark effect (2) Zeeman effect

(3) Raman effect (4) Photoelectric effect

90. The freezing point of a solution containing

0.2 g acetic acid in 20.0 g benzene is lowered by

0.45°C. Calculate the degree of dimerization of

acetic acid in benzene. Kf for benzene is

5.1K kg mol–1

(1) 0.52 (2) 0.80

(3) 0.94 (4) 0.47

91. Which of the following weakest base ?

(1) CH C3—NH

NH2

(2) CH3–CH=NH

(3) CH C NH3 2— —

O

(4)

NH2

92. On the electrolysis of 10–8 M HCl solution :-

(a) O2 gas is produced at anode

(b) Cl2 gas is produced at anode

(c) H2 gas is produced at cathode

(d) O2 gas is produced at cathode

(1) a, b (2) a, c (3) b, c (4) c, d

93. The I.P. of an atom is 16 eV. What is the value

of first excitation potential :

(1) 10.2 eV (2) 12 eV

(3) 14 eV (4) 16 eV

94. Which has both polar & non polar bonds :-

(1) H2O

2(2) C

2H

6

(3) N2H4 (4) All

95. Which of the following best explains the reason

for the relative stabilities of the conformers

shown?

(I) H

H

CH3

H

CH3

H(II)

CH3

H

H

H

CH3

H

(1) I has more torsional strain

(2) I has more steric strain

(3) II has more torsional strain

(4) II has more steric strain

89. (1) (2) (3) (4)

90. 20.0 g 0.2 g

0.45°C

Kf 5.1K kg mol–1

(1) 0.52 (2) 0.80

(3) 0.94 (4) 0.47

91.

(1) CH C3—NH

NH2

(2) CH3–CH=NH

(3) CH C NH3 2— —

O

(4)

NH2

92. 10–8 M HCl :-(a) O2 (b) Cl2 (c) H2 (d) O2 (1) a, b (2) a, c (3) b, c (4) c, d

93. 16 eV (1) 10.2 eV (2) 12 eV

(3) 14 eV (4) 16 eV

94. :-(1) H2O2 (2) C2H6

(3) N2H

4(4)

95.

(I) H

H

CH3

H

CH3

H(II)

CH3

H

H

H

CH3

H

(1) I has more torsional strain

(2) I has more steric strain

(3) II has more torsional strain

(4) II has more steric strain

Take it Easy and Make it Easy



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

96. Which of the following is not applicable to

chemisorption ?

(1) Heat of chemisorption is negative

(2) It takes place at high temperature

(3) It is reversible

(4) It forms mono-molecular layer

97. Calculate internal energy charge in the following

equation at 100°C ?

H2 +

1

2O

2 H

2O + 68.4 Kcal

(1) 68.4 Kcal (2) –68.4 Kcal

(3) – 68.03 Kcal (4) none of these

98. Which cannot produces radish brown gas on

heating :-

(1) Be(NO3)

2(2) KNO

3

(3) AgNO3

(4) LiNO3

99. Which of the following is most reactive toward

AgNO3 or SN1 reaction ?

(1)

Br

(2)

Br

(3)

Br

(4) Br

100. Poling process is used for the removal of :-

(1) Al2O3 from Al (2) CuO from Cu

(3) Fe2O3 from Fe (4) All

101. Proceeding from the enthalpy of formation of

gaseous CO2 ( fH = – 393.5 kJ mol–1) and the

thermochemical equation

C(graphite) + 2N

2O(g) CO

2(g) + 2N

2(g) ;

H = – 557.5 KJ mol–1

Calculate the enthalpy of N2O(g).

(1) 82 kJ mol–1 (2) 164 kJ mol–1

(3) 951 kJ mol–1 (4) –195 kJ mol–1

102. Which produces both acidic and basic oxide on

heating :-

(1) Calamine (2) Washing soda

(3) Dolomite (4) Cerrusite

96. ?(1) (2) (3) (4)

97. 100°C ?

H2 +

1

2O

2 H

2O + 68.4 Kcal

(1) 68.4 Kcal (2) –68.4 Kcal

(3) – 68.03 Kcal (4)

98. :-

(1) Be(NO3)2 (2) KNO3

(3) AgNO3 (4) LiNO3

99. AgNO3 SN1

(1)

Br

(2)

Br

(3)

Br

(4) Br

100. poling :-

(1) Al2O3 from Al (2) CuO from Cu

(3) Fe2O3 from Fe (4) All

101.

C() + 2N2O(g) CO2(g) + 2N2(g) ;

H = – 557.5 KJ mol–1 N2O(g)

(1) 82 kJ mol–1 (2) 164 kJ mol–1

(3) 951 kJ mol–1 (4) –195 kJ mol–1

102.

:-

(1) (2) (3) (4)

15–05–2014


MAJOR TEST : AIIMS


103. In order to accomplish the following conversion,

what reagent and conditions would be required?

Cl

?

(1) Cold sodium hydroxide

(2) Hot conc. sodium hydroxide

(3) Potassium t-butoxide and heat

(4) Hot water

104. Which of the following compound do not show

optical activity :-

(1) [Co(en)3]Cl3

(2) [Fe(5–C5H5)2]

(3) Cis–[Cr(en)2Cl2]Cl

(4) [Zn(NH3)(H2O)(CO)(NO)]Cl3

105. The rate of diffusion of a gas having molecular

weight just double of N2 gas is 56 mL/sec. The

rate of diffusion of N2 gas will be :-

(1) 79.19 mL/sec. (2) 112 mL/sec.

(3) 56 mL/sec. (4) 90 mL/sec.

106. Debye force is present in:-

(1) HF & H2O (2) H

2O & Benzene

(3) Br2 & CCl4 (4) CHBr3 & Acetone

107. Match the column :-

Column-I Column-II

(a) HBr

Peroxide (p)

Br

(b) H Br

No Peroxide

(q) Br

(c) HCl

Peroxide (r)

Cl

(d) NBS (s)Br

(1) a q, b p, c r, d s

(2) a p, b q, c r, d s

(3) a q, b p, c s, d r

(4) a p, b s, c q, d r

108. Which of the following complex follow EAN

rule ?

(1) [Fe(5–C5H5)2] (2) [Cr(6–C6H6)2]

(3) [Mn2(CO)10] (4) All of these

103.

Cl

?

(1) Cold sodium hydroxide

(2) Hot conc. sodium hydroxide

(3) Potassium t-butoxide and heat

(4) Hot water

104. :-

(1) [Co(en)3]Cl3

(2) [Fe(5–C5H5)2]

(3) Cis–[Cr(en)2Cl2]Cl

(4) [Zn(NH3)(H2O)(CO)(NO)]Cl3

105. 56 mL/sec N2 N2 :-(1) 79.19 mL/sec. (2) 112 mL/sec.

(3) 56 mL/sec. (4) 90 mL/sec.

106. :-(1) HF H

2O (2) H

2O

(3) Br2 CCl

4(4) CHBr

3

107. :-Column-I Column-II

(a) HBr

Peroxide (p)

Br

(b) H Br

No Peroxide

(q) Br

(c) HCl

Peroxide (r)

Cl

(d) NBS (s)Br

(1) a q, b p, c r, d s

(2) a p, b q, c r, d s

(3) a q, b p, c s, d r

(4) a p, b s, c q, d r

108. EAN ?(1) [Fe(5–C5H5)2] (2) [Cr(6–C6H6)2]

(3) [Mn2(CO)10] (4) All of these



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

109. pH at which a basic indicator with

Kb = 1.0 × 10–10 changes colour when the

concentration of indicator is 10–2 M :-

(1) 10 (2) 7 (3) 4 (4) 8

110. Ba is strong reducing in nature among IIA due to :-

(1) High HE (2) Minimum IP

(3) Minimum HE (4) Both (2) & (3)

111. Which of the following is/are aromatic ?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

112. A nucleotide consists of :-

(1) Pentose sugar

(2) Nitrogen containing base

(3) Phosphoric acid

(4) All of these

113. At 25ºC, the solubility product of Mg(OH)2 is

1.0 × 10–11. At what pH, will Mg2+ ion start

precipitating in the form of Mg(OH)2 from a

solution of 0.001 M Mg2+ ions :

(1) 8 (2) 9

(3) 10 (4) 11

114. Which is non linear :-

(1) Cyanogen (2) Carbon suboxide

(3) Silica (4) Butadiyne

115. Which of the following compounds is less

reactive than benzene toward ring bromination ?

(1)

OH

(2)

NHCCH3

O

(3)

C CH— 3

O

(4)

CH3

116. Which of the following is elastomer polymer :-

(1) Glyptal (2) Dacrone

(3) Teflon (4) Buna–S

109. Kb = 1.0 × 10–10 pH

10–2 M

:-(1) 10 (2) 7 (3) 4 (4) 8

110. IIA Ba :-

(1) HE (2) IP

(3) HE (4) (2) (3) 111.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

112. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

113. 25ºC Mg(OH)2 1.0 × 10–11

0.001 M Mg+2 pH Mg(OH)

2 Mg2+

:

(1) 8 (2) 9

(3) 10 (4) 11

114. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

115.

(1)

OH

(2)

NHCCH3

O

(3)

C CH— 3

O

(4)

CH3

116. :-(1) (2) (3) (4) –S

15–05–2014


MAJOR TEST : AIIMS


117.

:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

118. :-

(1) CH3OCH3 > CCl4 > NCl3

(2) OF2 < H2O < Cl2O

(3) BF3 < BCl3 < BBr3

(4) NF3 < NCl

3 < NBr

3

119.

N Cl2

3 2H PO ? :-

(1)

NH NH– 2

(2)

Cl

(3)

H

(4)

OH

120.

?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

121 180

A.

B.

C.

D.

117. When anion leaves the normal sites an electron

occupies interstitial sites in a crystal lattice it is

called :-

(1) Schottky defect

(2) Frenkel defect

(3) Metal excess defect

(4) Metal deficiency

118. Incorrect order of bond angle is:-

(1) CH3OCH3 > CCl4 > NCl3

(2) OF2 < H

2O < Cl

2O

(3) BF3 < BCl3 < BBr3

(4) NF3 < NCl3 < NBr3

119.

N Cl2

3 2H PO ? :-

(1)

NH NH– 2

(2)

Cl

(3)

H

(4)

OH

120. Which of the following drug used in the treatment

of typhoid ?

(1) Meprobamate (2) Streptomycine

(3) Furacine (4) Chloramphenicol

DIRECTIONS FOR Q. NO. 121 TO 180

These questions consist of two statements

each, printed as Assertion and Reason.

While answering these Questions you are

required to choose any one of the

following four responses.

A. If both Assertion & Reason are True & the

Reason is a correct explanation of the

Assertion.

B. If both Assertion & Reason are True but

Reason. is not a correct explanation of the

Assertion.

C. If Assertion is True but the Reason is False

D. If both Assertion & Reason are false.



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

121. Assertion :- Diatomaceous earth is used in

polishing, filtration of oil and syrups.

Reason :- Diatomaceous earth is gritty due to

presence of silica.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

122. Assertion :- An increase in body fluid volume

activate osmoreceptors, which stimulate the

hypothalamus to release ADH.

Reason :- ADH facilitates water reabsorption from

proximal parts of the tubule.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

123. Assertion :- Gonyaulax shows water bloom.

Reason :- Gonyaulax secrete toxic substance

which are called saxitoxin.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

124. Assertion :- Eyes appeared coloured although

cornea is colorless.

Reason :- Cornea is transparent but iris is

pigmented.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

125. Assertion :- All deuterostomous animals have

tube within a tube body plan.

Reason :- Animals with complete digestive tract

are definitely deuterostomous

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

126. Assertion :- Human exploited the variations that

were present naturally in wild populations of

plants and animals.

Reason :- Variations are base of new adaptations

for better survival.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

127. Assertion :- Gymnosperms lack vessels in their

xylem.

Reason :- Tracheids perform conduction of water

in gymnosperms because they are primitive

vascular plants as compared to angiosperms.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

128. Assertion :- The unmodified allele, which

represents the original phenotype is the dominant

allele and the modified allele is generally the

recesive allels.

Reason :- The modified allele could be

responsible for production of a non functional

enzyme or no enzyme at al.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

121. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

122. :- ADH :- ADH (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

123. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

124. :- :-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

125. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

126. :-

:-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

127. :-

:-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

128. :-

:-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

15–05–2014


MAJOR TEST : AIIMS


129. Assertion :- Placenta also acts as an endocrine

tissue.

Reason :- It secrets FSH hormone during

pregnancy.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

130. Assertion :- Increase in concentration of the

toxicant at successive trophic levels is called

Biomagnification.

Reason :- Toxic substance accumulated by an

organism cannot be metabolised or excreted and

is thus passed on the next higher trophic level.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

131. Assertion :- Contents of nucleolus are

continuous with rest of nucleoplasm.

Reason :- Nucleolus is not a membrane bound

structure.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

132. Assertion :- Many fish thrive in Antarctic water

where the temperature is always below zero.

Reason :- Antarctic fishes have anti freezing

protein, which decreases their freezing point.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

133. Assertion :- Tay-sachs disease is lysosomal

disorder.

Reason :- Hex–A enzyme breaks down

GM2–ganglioside.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

134. Assertion :- Binding of O2 with haemoglobin is

primarily related with 2OP .

Reason :- 2COP , H concn., temperature are other

factors which can interferae in this binding.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

135. Assertion :- Starch gives iodine test but

Cellulose does not give iodine test.

Reason :- In cellulose complex helix are absent

so it can not hold iodine.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

136. Assertion :- When the carpels are free in a

gynoecium, condition is called apocarpous

gynoecium.

Reason :- Apocarpous condition is present in

rose.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

129. :-

:- FSH

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

130. :-

:-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

131. :-

:-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

132. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

133. :-

:- Hex–A GM2–

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

134. :- O2 O2

:- 2COP , H

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

135. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

136. :-

:-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

137. Assertion :- Spraying sugarcane crop with

gibberellins increasing the yield.

Reason :- Gibberellins have ability to speed up the

malting process and they also delay senescence.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

138. Assertion :- In embryo stage birds show tooth

buds for some time.

Reason :- Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

139. Assertion :- Phosphorus is a constituent of cell

membranes, certain nucleic acids, all proteins and

is required for all phosphorylation reactions.

Reason :- Phosphorus is absorbed by the plants

from soil in the form of either H2PO4+ or HPO4

2+.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

140. Assertion :- Transgenic animal production is most

complicated then transgenic bacteria and plants.

Reason :- Animals have a very narrow range of

vectors.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

141. Assertion :- Liquid in a capillary tube of small

diameter rises higher than the capillary tube of

large diameter.

Reason :- The height of the liquid column through

which liquid rises in the capillary is inversely

proportional to the diameter of capillary.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

142. Assertion :- Sound produced by an open organ

pipe is richer than the sound produced by a closed

organ pipe.

Reason :- Outside air can enter the pipe from both

ends, in case of open organ pipe.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

143. Assertion :- In a non-uniform circular motion

tangential acceleration arises due to change in

magnitude of velocity.

Reason :- In a non-uniform circular motion

centripetal acceleration is produced due to change

in direction of velocity.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

144. Assertion :- In the case of a stationary wave, a

person hear a loud sound at the nodes as compared

to the antinodes.

Reason :- In a stationary wave all the particles

of the medium vibrate in phase.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

137. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

138. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

139. :- :- H2PO4

+ HPO42+

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

140. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

141. :-

:-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

142. :-

:- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

143. :-

:-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

144. :-

:- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

15–05–2014


MAJOR TEST : AIIMS


145. Assertion :- If dot product and cross product of

A

and B

are zero, it implies that minimum one

of the vector A

and B

must be a null vector.

Reason :- Null vector is a vector with zero

magnitude.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

146. Assertion :- Two particles of same charge are

placed in uniform E, then their acceleration must

be same.

Reason :- Force on each charge is same.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

147. Assertion :- In both cases shown in figures tension

in the strings will be different.

Reason :- Tension in the light strings shown is

the force with which the ends are pulled.

M

M/2 M/2

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

148. Assertion :- Efficiency of ideal cell is 100%

Reason :- Internal resistance of ideal cell is zero.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

149. Assertion :- The work done by friction is always

negative.

Reason :- If frictional force acts on a body its

kinetic energy may decrease.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

150. Assertion :- Gauss theorem is valid in gravitation

also.

Reason :- Gravitation is a conservative field obeys

inverse square law.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

151. Assertion :- An empty test tube dipped into water

in a beaker appears silver, when viewed from a

suitable direction.

Reason :- Due to refraction of light, the substance

in water appears silvery.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

145. :- A

B

A

B

:-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

146. :- E

:-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

147. :- :-

M

M/2 M/2

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

148. :- 100%

:-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

149. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

150. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

151. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

152. Assertion :- In a conductor, electric field setup in

wire at a speed which is nearly equal to the speed

of light.

Reason :- Current density is a scalar quantity

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

153. Assertion :- Corpuscular theory fails in explaining

the velocities of light in air and water.

Reason :- According to corpuscular theory, light

should travel faster in denser medium than, in

rarer medium.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

154. Assertion :- If we change the velocity or radius

of orbit or both in the arrangement of cyclotron,

cyclotron frequency remain constant

Reason :- Cyclotron frequency is given by qB

2 m

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

155. Assertion :- The total kinetic energy of a rolling

solid sphere is the sum of translational and

rotational kinetic energies.

Reason :- For all solid bodies total kinetic energy

is always twice the translational kinetic energy.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

156. Assertion :- A glowing bulb becomes dim when

an iron bar is put in the inductor in the a.c. circuit

Reason :- Resistance of the circuit increases.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

157. Assertion :- CP (molar heat capacity at constant

pressure) can be less than CV (molar heat capacity

at constant volume).

Reason :- CP– C

V=R is valid only for ideal

monoatomic gases.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

158. Assertion :- The net magneitc flux coming out of

a closed surface is always zero.

Reason :- Unlike poles of equal strength exist

together.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

159. Assertion :- The isothermal change takes place

slowly.

Reason :- The isothermal curves intersect each

other at a certain point.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

152. :-

:-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

153. :-

:-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

154. :-

:- qB

2 m

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

155. :-

:- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

156. :-

:- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

157. :- CP

CV

:- CP– C

V=R

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

158. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

159. :-

:-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

15–05–2014


MAJOR TEST : AIIMS


160. Assertion :– Two electrons having equal

momentum must have equal wavelength.

Reason :– Two electrons having equal wavelength

must have equal momentum.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

161. Assertion :- One atomic mass unit (amu) is mass

of an atom equal to exactly one-twelfth the mass

of a carbon-12 atom.

Reason :- Carbon-12 isotope was selected as

standard.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

162. Assertion :- Potassium ferocyanide is used in the

detection of Cu+2 as well as fe+3 ion

Reason :- A dark blue colour is obtained on

adding excess of potassium ferrocyanide in

aquous solution of CuSO4.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

163. Assertion :– Total spin of 2p4 electrons is 1.

Reason :– Total spin = 1

2× number of unpaired

electrons.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

164. Assertion :- Elimination of 2-Bromobutane gives

2-Butene as a major product not 1-Butene.

Reason :- 2-Butene is more stable than 1-Butene.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

165. Assertion :– The enthalpy of formation of H2O()

in greater than that of H2O(g)

Reason :– With decrease in temperature entrophy

decrease.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

166. Assertion :- Ethane-1,2-diol have maximum

stable conformation in Gauche form.

Reason :- In Gauche form there is minimum

repulsion.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

167. Assertion :– Sb(iii) is precipitated as sulphide

when in its alkaline solution H2S is passed.

Reason :– The concentration of S2– ion in alkaline

medium is inadiquate for precipitation.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

168. Assertion :- Ph–COCHO gives cannizaro reaction.

Reason :- PhCOCHO does not show tautomerism.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

160. :–

:–

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

161. :- (amu) -12 1/12

:- -12 (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

162. :- Cu+2 fe+3

:-

CuSO4

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

163. :– 2p4 1

:– = 1

2×

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

164. :- 2-2-1- :- 2-1-(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

165. :– H2O() H2O(g)

:–

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

166. :- -1,2-

:-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

167. :– Sb(iii) H2S :– S2– (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

168. :- Ph–COCHO :- PhCOCHO (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

169. Assertion : On mixing equal volumes of 1M HCl

and 2M CH3COONa an acidic buffer solution is

formed.

Reason : Resultant mixture contains CH3COOH

and CH3COONa which are parts of acidic buffer.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

170. Assertion :- Debromination of d-2,3-dibromobutane

gives Trans-2-butene.

Reason :- trans-2-butene have more dipole

moment than Cis-2-butene.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

171. Assertion :- Osmotic pressure is a colligative

property

Reason :- Osmotic pressure developed in a

column due to osmosis

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

172. Assertion :- Fe is protected from corrosion by

connecting Mg metal with it.

Reason :- Fe act as cathode and Mg as anode.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

173. Assertion :- F2 is strongest oxidising agent

Reason :- Fluorine is most Electronegative

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

174. Assertion :- The rate of reaction sometimes does

not depend upon concentration.

Reason :- The order of reaction can be fractional.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

175. Assertion :- Chlorine can be displaced by

bromine from potassium chlorate

Reason :- Chlorine is more reactive than Bromine

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

176. Assertion :- [CO(N2H4)2(NH3)2]Cl2 is a chelating

complex.

Reason :- N2H4 can act as a bidantate ligands.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

177. Assertion :- Acidified dichromate turn green on

reaction with SO2.

Reason :- Dichromate reduces SO2 in to SO4–2.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

178. Assertion :- CO is a toxic air pollutant.

Reason :- CO binds with haemoglobin of blood

and reduces oxygen transport efficiency of blood.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

169. : 1M HCl 2M CH3COONa

: CH

3COOH

CH3COONa

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

170. :- d-2,3- -2-:- -2--2-(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

171. :-

:-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

172. :- Mg Fe :- Fe Mg (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

173. :- F2 :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

174. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

175. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

176. :- [CO(N2H4)2(NH3)2]Cl2 :- N2H4

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

177. :- SO2

:- SO2 SO4–2

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

178. :- (CO) :- CO (blood) (blood)

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

15–05–2014


MAJOR TEST : AIIMS


179. Assertion :- Bond angle of PF3 is more than PH3.

Reason :- Due to resonance partial double bond

present in PF3

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

180. Assertion :- All condensation polymer are

co-polymers.

Reason :- Because during condensation

polymerisation elimination of H2O takes place.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

181. Which Fundamental Right in Indian Constitution

prohibits traffic in human beings ?

(1) Right against Exploitation

(2) Right to Freedom

(3) Right to Equality

(4) Right to Constitutional Remedies

182. Who was the composer of 'Prayag Prashasti' ?

(1) Ban Bhatt (2) Harishen

(3) Harsh Kavi (4) Chanakya

183. Who was the first President of Indian National

Congress ?

(1) A.O. Hume

(2) Gopal Krishna Gokhale

(3) Womesh Chandra Banerjee

(4) Surendra Nath Banerjee

184. Revolutionary sepoy Mangal Pandey revolted at

the cantonment of :

(1) Meerut (2) Naseerabad

(3) Delhi (4) Barrackpore

185. What were the Sufi followers called ?

(1) Peer (2) Sheikh

(3) Mureed (4) Waris

186. Who among the following leaders was not

founder of "Non aligned Movement" ?

(1) Stalin (2) Nasir

(3) Tito (4) Nehru

187. Which workers union later developed as Bahujan

Samaj Party ?

(1) CITU (2) INTUC

(3) BMS (4) BAMCEF

179. :- PF3 PH3

:- PF3

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

180. :-

:- H2O

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

181.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

182.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

183.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

184.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

185.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

186.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

187.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

188. Make the pairs of rivers to their place of origin :

(A) Ganga (i) Multai

(B) Chambal (ii) Gaumukh

(C) Son (iii) Janapav

(D) Tapi (iv) Amarkantak

Code :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) ii i iii iv

(2) ii iii iv i

(3) i iii ii iv

(4) iii ii i iv

189. According to the Census 2011, the state having

the minimum percentage of population of India, is:

(1) Goa (2) Tripura

(3) Nagaland (4) Sikkim

190. Which of the following pairs is not correctly

matched ?

(1) Jainism – Nine Ratna

(2) Buddhism – Four Noble Truths

(3) Bhagvad Gita – Niskama Karma

(4) Gandhiji – Truth is God

191. Who among the following was initiator of Bhakti

Movement in Northern India ?

(1) Nanak (2) Kabir

(3) Ramanand (4) Dadudayal

192. The President addresses his resignation to :

(1) Chief Justice of India

(2) Attorney General of India

(3) Speaker of Lok Sabha

(4) Vice President of India

193. Which of the following pairs is not correctly

matched ?

(1) Arundhati Roy – The God of Small Things

(2) Jhumpa Lahiri – The Name Sake

(3) Kiran Desai – The Inheritance of Loss

(4) V S Naipaul – The White Tiger

194. Which date is observed as Malala day by United

Nation in 2013 ?

(1) 5th June (2) 15th June

(3) 2nd July (4) 12th July

195. Which Indian movie is nominated for Oscar

award 2014 ?

(1) Bhaag Milkha Bhaag

(2) The Past

(3) The Lunch Box

(4) The Good Road

188. (A) (i) (B) (ii) (C) (iii) (D) (iv)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) ii i iii iv

(2) ii iii iv i

(3) i iii ii iv

(4) iii ii i iv

189. 2011(1) (2) (3) (4)

190. ?

(1) –

(2) –

(3) –

(4) – 191.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

192. (1) (2) (3) (4)

193. ?

(1) –

(2) –

(3) –

(4) – 194. '' 2013

?(1) 5 (2) 15 (3) 2 (4) 12

195. 2014 ?(1) (2) (3) (4)

15–05–2014


MAJOR TEST : AIIMS


Your moral duty

is to prove that is

196. Wikileaks founder Julian Assange launched his

Political Party in

(1) Australia (2) Germany

(3) USA (4) U.K.

197. The proposed 182 meter tall "Statue of Unity" will

be the statue of :

(1) Mahatma Gandhi (2) Indira Gandhi

(3) Lal Bahadur Shastri (4) Vallabh Bhai Patel

198. Which player wins the US Open Men's Singles

title in 2013 ?

(1) Roger Federer (2) Andy Murray

(3) Rafael Nadal (4) Novak Djokovic

199. Which one of the following is a vitamin ?

(1) Linoleic acid (2) Citric acid

(3) Glutamic acid (4) Folic acid

200. Name the country through which both Equator

and Tropic of Capricorn pass

(1) Ecuador (2) Uruguay

(3) Colombia (4) Brazil

196. (1) (2) (3) . (4)

197. 182 "" (1) (2) (3) (4)

198. 2013 (1) (2) (3) (4)

199. (1) (2) (3) (4)

200. (1) (2) (3) (4)



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK /

Documents

CAREER INSTITUTE KOTA (RAJASTHAN) CLASSROOM CONTACT … · TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2014 15–05–2014 2/36 Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014 01CM413098 MAJOR TEST