Cambridge CPE Exam Handbook 1998

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C A M B R I D G EE X A M I N A T I O N S , C E R T I F I C A T E S & D I P L O M A S

English as a

Foreign Language

CPECERTIFICATE O F PRO FICIENCY

IN ENGLISH

H

A N

DB O

OK




http://slidepdf.com/reader/full/cambridge-cpe-exam-handbook-1998 3/60Page 3

CO N T EN T S

This booklet provides the following information about CPE:

Introduction

Background to CPE

CPE Content: An Overview

Grading and Results

CPE Administration

CPE Support

A Detailed Guide to CPE

Paper 1 Reading Comprehension

Paper 2 Composition

Paper 3 Use of English

Paper 4 Listening Comprehension

Paper 5 Interview

Common Questions and Answers

4

6

7

8

8

9

10

17

28

40

49

57





Trial

construction

Trialling

review

Trialling

The Production of EFL Question Papers

The production process for question papers for EFL

examinations and TEFL schemes begins with the

commissioning of material and ends with the printing of

question papers.

For the majority of EFL question papers there are five main

stages in the production process:

• commissioning;

• editing;

• pretesting/trialling;

• analysis and banking of material;

• question paper construction.

This process can be represented in the diagram below.

A B

Vetting and editing of

material

Pretest

construction

Revision

Rejection

Pretesting

Item

Analysis

MATERIALS BANK*

Question paper

construction

*electronic bank for pretested materials

Commissioning of materialfor question papers



The Production Cycle for Pretested Question Papers

UCLES employs a team of Item Writers to produce

examination material, and throughout the writing and editing

process strict guidelines are followed in order to ensure that

the materials conform to the test specifications. Topics or

contexts of language use which might introduce a bias

against any group of candidates of a particular background

(i.e., on the basis of sex, ethnic origin, etc.) are avoided.

After selection and editing, the items are compiled into

pretest papers. Pretesting plays a central role as it allows for

questions and materials with known measurement

characteristics to be banked so that new versions of question

papers can be produced as and when required. The

pretesting process helps to ensure that all versions conform

to the test requirements in terms of content and level of

difficulty.

Each pretest paper contains anchor items or is supplied to

candidates with an additional anchor test. The anchor itemsare carefully chosen on the basis of their known

measurement characteristics and their inclusion means that

all new items can be linked to a common scale of difficulty.

Pretest papers are despatched to a wide variety of EFL

schools and colleges, which have offered to administer the

pretests to candidates of a suitable level. After the completed

pretests are returned to the Pretesting Section of the EFL

Division, a score for each student is provided to the centre

within two weeks of receiving the completed scripts. The

items are marked and analysed, and those which are found

to be suitable are banked.

Material for the productive components of the examinations

is trialled with candidates to assess its suitability for

inclusion in the Materials Bank.

The UCLES Main Suite: A Five-Level System

UCLES has developed a series of examinations with similar

characteristics, spanning five levels. Within the series of five

levels, the Certificate of Proficiency in English is at

Cambridge Level Five.

In 1997 there were over 60,000 candidates for the CPE

examination throughout the world.

B ACK G R O UN D TO CP E

CPE was originally offered in 1913 to meet the special needs

of foreign teachers of English. Regular updating has allowed

the examination to keep pace with changes in language

teaching and testing. The current version of the

examination dates from 1984, when a number of important

changes were made including the introduction of a taped

listening test. Since then, various minor changes have been

implemented in line with a policy of on-going review and

revision.

The Level of CPE

As well as being at Cambridge Level Five, CPE also falls

within Level Five of the ALTE framework, and a brief

description of this level is given below. This description is

not a specification for the examination content, but refers to

language activities in real-world, non-examination contexts.

The CPE examination contains some tasks which are likely

to be more suitable in content for candidates who have

achieved a certain degree of maturity in their handling of

abstract ideas and concepts.

ALTE Level Five

At this level the learner is approaching the linguistic

competence of an educated native speaker, and is able to

use the language in a range of culturally appropriate ways.

Users at this level are able to improve their use of the

language by extending their vocabulary and refining theirusage and command of style and register rather than by

learning about new areas of grammar. Their level of

competence gives them access to the press and other media,

and to areas of the culture such as drama, film and

literature.

Success in examinations at this level may be seen as proof

that the learner is able to cope with high level academic

work. Such examinations frequently have some cultural

academic content, often in the form of an optional

component.

Recognition

CPE is recognised by the majority of British universities for

English language entrance requirements. These are listed in

a leaflet 'Recognition in Britain' available from UCLES. It is

also widely recognised throughout the world by universities,

institutes of higher education, professional bodies and in

commerce and industry as an indication of a very high level

of competence in English. More information about

recognition of the examination is available from UCLES and

from British Council Offices.

Cambridge Level Five

Certificate of Proficiency in English (CPE)

Cambridge Level One

Key English Test (KET)

Cambridge Level Two

Preliminary English Test (PET)

Cambridge Level Three

First Certificate in English (FCE)

Cambridge Level Four

Certificate in Advanced English (CAE)



The combination of a pass in Proficiency with passes in the

optional additional papers in Translation and Literature has

equivalence, recognised by the Matriculation Board of the

University of Cambridge, with one subject at Advanced Level,

the standard examination in Britain for entry to a university

course. A special certificate, recording this combination of

passes gained at one or more examinations, is available on

application.

CPE Candidature

Information is collected about the CPE candidates at each

session, when candidates fill in a Candidate Information

Sheet. The candidates for CPE come from a wide range of

backgrounds and take the examination for a number of

different reasons. The following points summarise the

characteristics of the current CPE candidature.

Nationality - CPE is taken by candidates throughout the

world in about 70 countries, although the total number of

nationalities represented in the candidature is over 150. The

majority of these candidates enter for CPE in European and

South American countries. Many candidates also take the

examination in the UK.

Age - Most candidates (about 80%) are under 25, with the

average age being about 22. In some countries the average

age is lower (e.g. in Greece it is about 19).

Gender - About 75% of candidates are female.

Employment - Most candidates are students, although thereare considerable differences in the proportion of students in

different countries.

Exam Preparation - A large proportion of candidates (about

85%) undertake a preparatory course before taking the

examination.

Reasons for taking CPE- Candidates’reasons for wanting an

English language qualification are roughly distributed as

follows:

• to gain employment (40%)• for further study (42%)

• other (18%)

C P E C O N T E N T: A N O V E RV I E W

Reading Comprehension 1 hour

Composition 2 hoursUse of English 2 hours

Listening Comprehension 40 minutes (approximately)

Interview 15 minutes (approximately)

Reading Comprehension

Candidates are expected to show comprehension of gist,

detailed content, tone and register. They are also tested on

their wider knowledge of vocabulary, usage and

grammatical control.

There are two sections. In the first section there are twenty-

five multiple choice items. In the second section there are

three texts, each between 350 and 550 words in length,

with a total of fifteen items. Candidates must demonstrate

comprehension of the text by completing the items.

Composition

Candidates must be able to write non-specialised texts of a

descriptive, narrative and discursive nature covering a

range of topics.

There are five tasks from which the candidates chooses

two. One of the five tasks is based on an optional readingof one of three books. Responses should be approximately

300 or 350 words, as specified.

Use of English

Candidates are expected to demonstrate their knowledge

and control of the language system by completing various

tasks at text and sentence level. They are also required to

read a text and answer comprehension questions and to

summarise specified information from the text.

There are two sections. The first section consists of forty-two items of the following four types: one-word gap filling,

transformation, word or phrase level gap filling and

rewriting.

The second section is a reading comprehension task with

twelve to fifteen items and a summary writing task

(approximately 80 words).

Listening Comprehension

Candidates are expected to extract information, interpret

speakers’ attitudes and recognise the implications of stress

and intonation. Texts take the form of announcements,

dialogues, extracts from radio programmes, etc.

There are usually three or four texts, each lasting between 1

and 4 minutes, with approximately thirty items of the

following types: multiple choice, selection from three

possible answers, matching information, gap filling. All

parts are repeated.

Interview

Candidates may be tested either individually, in pairs or in

groups of three. They must be able to discuss and comment

on issues and express opinions.

The examination consists of five papers:



needed. Centres are notified if a candidate's results have

been scrutinised by the Awarding Committee.

Notification of Results

Statements of results are issued through centres

approximately two months after the examination has been

taken.

Certificates are issued about six weeks after the issue of

statements of results. Enquiries about results may be made

through Local Secretaries, within a month of the issue of

statements of results.

CP E ADM IN I ST R AT IO N

CPE is held each year in June and December in about 700

centres worldwide. Candidates must enter through a

recognised centre.

Further Information

Copies of the Regulations and details of entry procedure,

current fees and further information about this and other

Cambridge examinations can be obtained from the Local

Secretary for UCLES examinations in your area, or from:

Administration and Systems Division

UCLES

1 Hills Road

Cambridge

CB1 2EU

UK

Telephone: +44 1223 553311

Fax: +44 1223 460278

In some areas this information can also be obtained from the

British Council.

Special Arrangements

Special arrangements are available for disabled candidates. These may include extra time, separate accommodation or

equipment, Braille transcription, etc. Consult the UCLES

Local Secretary in your area for more details.

The first task involves describing and comparing a set of

thematically linked photographs. Candidates are then

required to read a passage silently and to comment on, for

example, its source, its intended audience, etc. The final part

consists of one or more communicative activities (discussion,

planning, problem-solving, etc.).

Weighting of componentsEach component carries approximately 22% of the total

marks except for Listening, which carries approximately

12%.

G R ADIN G AN D R E SULT S

The five CPE papers total 180 marks, after weighting.

A candidate's overall CPE grade is based on the total score

gained by the candidate in all five papers. It is not

necessary to achieve a satisfactory level in all five papers in

order to pass the examination.

The overall grade boundaries (A, B, C, D and E) are set

according to the following information:

• statistics on the candidature;

• statistics on overall candidate performance;

• statistics on individual items, for those parts of the

examination for which this is appropriate (Papers 1

and 4);

• advice, based on the performance of candidates,

and recommendations of examiners where this is

relevant (Papers 2, 3 and 5);

• comparison with statistics from previous years’

examination performance and candidature.

Results are reported as three passing grades (A, B and C) and

two failing grades (D and E). The minimum successful

performance which a candidate typically requires in order to

achieve a Grade C corresponds to about 60% of the total

marks. Statements of results for those candidates who

achieve a pass grade provide an indication of those papersin which an outstanding performance has been achieved.

Statements of results for those candidates who fail provide

an indication of those papers in which performance is

particularly weak.

Awards

The Awarding Committee meets after the grade boundaries

have been confirmed. It deals with all cases presented for

special consideration, e.g. temporary disability,

unsatisfactory examination conditions, suspected collusion,

etc. The committee can decide to ask for scripts to be

re-marked, to check results, to change grades, to withhold

results, etc. Results may be withheld because of

infringement of regulations or because further investigation is



CP E SUP P O RT

Course Material

A number of course books and practice materials are

available from publishers. A comprehensive list of those

published by members of the Publishers' Association is

available from UCLES. CPE requires an all-round language

ability and this should be borne in mind when selectingcourse materials. Most course books will need to be

supplemented; care should be taken to ensure that course

books and practice materials selected accurately reflect the

content and format of the examinations.

N.B. UCLES does not undertake to advise on text books or

courses of study.

Past Papers

Past examination papers, which can be used for practice, are

available from Local Secretaries and from the Publications

Department at UCLES. The sample question papers included

in this Handbook (in reduced format) appeared as part of

previous CPE examinations. However, candidates are

strongly advised not to concentrate unduly on working

through practice tests and examinations as this will not by

itself make them more proficient in the different skills.

Seminars for Teachers

UCLES offers a wide range of seminars designed for teachers

concerned with the EFL examinations; some are also suitableas introductions for administrators, school directors, etc.

Some seminars are intended to provide information and

support for teachers who are familiar with the examinations,

and others can be used to introduce teachers to established

examinations and also to new UCLES examinations. Contact

EFL Information for further details.

Page 9



A DETAILED GUIDETO CPE

PAP ER 1 R EADIN G CO M P R EH E N S IO N

General Description

Paper Format

The paper is divided into two sections. Section A has 25

discrete four-option multiple choice questions. Section B

contains three texts and 15 corresponding four-option

multiple choice questions.

Number of Questions

40.

Length of Texts

1500 - 1800 words approximately overall; 450 - 600 words

approximately per text.

Text Types

From the following: literary fiction and non-fiction,

newspapers, magazines, journals, etc.

Task Focus

Understanding structural and lexical appropriacy in different

contexts; understanding gist, function, message, specific

information, main points and details of a text; recognising

opinion and attitude and underlying meaning in a text.

Task Types

Multiple choice.

Answering

For all parts of this paper, candidates indicate their answers

by shading lozenges on an answer sheet.

Timing

1 hour.

Marks

One mark is given for each correct answer in Section A; two

marks are given for each correct answer in Section B.

Section

A

B

Task Type and Focus

Multiple choiceFocus:

• semantic sets and

collocations

• grammatical rules

• semantic precision• adverbial phrases

and connectives

• phrasal verbs

Multiple choiceMain focus: understandingmain points and detail

25

15

25 discrete sentences, in each of which a word

or phrase has been deleted, followed by four-option multiple choice options. Candidates mustchoose which option best completes thesentence.

Three texts, each followed by four-optionmultiple choice questions.

Number of Questions

Task Format



Candidates should be encouraged to read widely throughout

their studies both to reinforce their knowledge of the

structural and lexical appropriacy tested in Section A and to

gain as much exposure as possible to the variety of text types

which may appear in Section B. Looking at examples of

authentic texts and exercises which develop learners' ability

to understand the main points, even though a few words

may be unknown, will help candidates in this part of the

examination. For example, the main point of a paragraph in

a discursive text can often be found in a summary sentence

at the beginning or end of the paragraph. Candidates should

also be encouraged to discuss the opinions or attitudes of the

writer and identify which parts of the text express this, e.g.,

connectors which express feelings.

As many of the elements tested may depend on inferring

opinion, attitude or underlying meaning, candidates are

advised to read the text carefully first to get an overview

before looking at the questions. The questions always

appear after the text to encourage this strategy. Candidatesmay also need practice in using their time effectively in the

examination and ensuring that they do not spend a

disproportionate amount of time on Section A.

P R EP AR IN G FO R P AP ER 1

Paper 1 is divided into two sections. Section A consists of

25 discrete sentences which test specific areas of linguistic

competence. Section B consists of 3 different texts, each of

which is tested by four-option multiple choice questions.

The passage and questions are intended to encourage not

only an understanding of a range of texts, but also an

appreciation of stylistic effects, nuance and register.

Section A

In Section A, candidates must choose a word or phrase from

a set of four options to fill a gap in a sentence. The

candidates are being tested on their knowledge of semantic

sets and collocations, use of grammar rules and constraints,

semantic precision, adverbial phrases and connectors, and

phrasal verbs.

In preparing for Paper 1, candidates should be encouragedto learn whole phrases (rather than just individual words)

together with their appropriate usage. Vocabulary practice

which studies the differences in meaning and usage between

words with a similar meaning should be part of candidates'

preparation. Candidates should also be given the

opportunity to focus on adjective + noun and verb + noun

patterns, e.g., an unknown quantity, warmest

congratulations, to chair a meeting, to retain the ability

(to...), to be tempted to accept (an offer).

Section BSection B consists of three texts, all drawn from a variety of

authentic sources, each of which is followed by four to six

multiple choice questions. Candidates are asked to select

from the four multiple choice options given for each

question the one that fits best, according to the text. The

third text is usually taken from a novel or literary work and

questions test the candidates’understanding of the

interaction between characters, as well as narrative

sequences. The other two are more expository or discursive

and taken from non-fiction texts aimed at the educated

general reader. Subjects recently have included the media,the philosophy of science, archaeology, education and the

development of musical taste, for example.

Candidates may be tested on various aspects of the texts,

e.g., the main point(s) of the text, the theme or gist of part of

the text, the writer's opinion or attitude, developments in the

narrative, the overall purpose of the text, etc. However, the

multiple choice questions used to test candidates’

understanding of the texts should not be practised to excess

as they are unlikely to improve students' ability to read

English more efficiently.













SECTION A

1 B 14 B

2 A 15 B

3 D 16 A

4 B 17 D5 C 18 C

6 A 19 D

7 C 20 C

8 A 21 B

9 B 22 D

10 D 23 B

11 B 24 A

12 C 25 C

13 C

SECTION B

26 A 34 D

27 A 35 C

28 C 36 A

29 D 37 D

30 B 38 B

31 D 39 C

32 A 40 D

33 B

P AP ER 1 R EADIN G CO M P R EH EN S IO N AN SWER K EY



P AP ER 2 CO M P O S IT IO N

General Description

Number of Tasks

Candidates are required to complete two writing tasks from a

choice of five.

Task Types

From the following: a description, a discursive composition,

a narrative, formal letter, report, short article, essay on

background reading text.

Answering

Candidates write their answers on separate answer paper.

Timing

2 hours.

Marks

Each question in the paper carries equal marks.

Task Type and Focus

Using natural andappropriate written

language in response to avariety of thematic andsituational stimuli.

Two tasks from a

choice of five

Approx. 350 wordseach; Q4 approx.300 words

Four short thematic or situationalprompts or questions on a range of

topics.

One question on each of the threeprescribed background reading texts.

Number of Tasksand Length

Task Format



P R EP AR IN G FO R P AP ER 2

Candidates are asked to write two compositions from a

selection of five. The choice of topics includes a descriptive,

a discursive and a narrative topic, a shorter, more specific

topic or exercise based on a specific task and a topic based

on optional reading (specified in the Examination

Regulations each year). All the topics are designed to

generate a natural use of language. Candidates are assessed

on task realisation, organisation of material and accuracy

and range of vocabulary and structure. The language used

should be at a level of fluency, accuracy and resource

appropriate to the Proficiency examination and language

rather than content is the main concern in the marking.

Marks are not deducted for unorthodox opinions, but

candidates are expected to present their arguments logically.

Credit is given for an imaginative and appropriate selection,

and development of descriptive detail. Candidates are

specifically expected to demonstrate some sophistication of

language use; narrowness of expression, i.e., over-simplisticlanguage or a limited range, although accurate, may not be

enough to achieve a satisfactory level in the paper.

Learners should be encouraged to demonstrate the full range

of their language ability and should be given practice in

writing compositions on all the different task types. They

should be trained to develop the skill of using language

appropriate to the different types of writing. The overall

structure of the piece of writing, both in logic and

appropriacy, is an important feature and candidates should

be given extensive practice in planning and organising their

writing. Candidates will also need to practise writing

compositions within the time limit and should allow

themselves time to check their work. When planning their

writing they should take account of the word limits, as over-

length or under-length compositions may lose candidates

marks because they often contain more mistakes or are

badly structured.

The Descriptive Composition

This type of task is generally to describe an experience,

object, place or person and to offer some reflections on thetopic. Candidates are normally required to produce a

variety of descriptive language and they should be

encouraged to practise using synonyms in order to avoid

repetition. They may also need practice in describing

several aspects of a subject rather than focusing on just one

facet. Attention should be paid to the necessity of balancing

their writing so that the second, reflective part is adequately

covered. Practice in using the language of evaluation

effectively may help candidates in this type of task.

The Discursive Composition

In this task candidates are expected to discuss a serious

theme in a relatively sophisticated way. They may be

required to debate both sides of an argument or to present

only one side. It is important that this type of writing is well-

organised and planning is essential. Learners should be

guided as to a realistic number of points to include within

the word limit. An appropriate introduction and conclusion

will be credited and candidates should be made aware of

the need to clarify the relationship between sentences and

paragraphs with the use of appropriate linking devices.

Generally speaking, a more formal style is required and

inappropriate colloquialisms will mar the overall impression.

At the end of the piece the reader should have a clear idea

of the candidate's opinion and supporting arguments.

The Narrative Composition

In this task candidates may be given a title for a story, or a

sentence with which to begin or finish their story. Usefulpractice could include analysing short, narrative texts for

structure, style and pace. Due to the word limit, detailed

narratives of a specific incident are often more successful

than global stories which attempt to incorporate the time

span of a novel. Learners should be encouraged to plan

their work carefully, to focus on a credible context for the

prompt sentence and to develop good control of tenses. It

should also be emphasised that inclusion of previously learnt

material which is irrelevant to the task will be penalised.

The Task-Directed Exercise

In this task candidates are required to produce a piece of

writing appropriate to a specified context, e.g., formal letter,

report, short article. This type of task is intended to reveal

sensitivity to features of style appropriate to the English used

for various special purposes, and the ability to reproduce

these features appropriately. Candidates should be given

ample practice in a range of specified tasks and encouraged

to examine differences in style, tone and register. In this task

it is essential that candidates fulfil the task set, based on the

input, and evidence of careful planning is more important

than expansion of ideas or opinion. The reduced word limitrequired by this task (about 300 words) reflects the extra

time required for planning and learners will benefit from

practice in developing their organisational language skills.

When planning this type of task, candidates need to focus on

the purpose of the piece of writing, the potential reader and

the role of the writer. In completing the task, candidates

may draw on their personal experience or insights gained

from appropriate modern media.



Irrelevance

The examiners' first priority is to give credit for the

candidates' efforts at communication, but candidates who

introduce blatantly irrelevant material learned by heart or

who deliberately misinterpret the question are penalised.

Background Reading Texts

In Question 5, the examiners are looking for evidence that

candidates have read and appreciated a background reading

text and are able to provide evidence of this in the form of

illustrated description and discussion at an appropriately

abstract level. Candidates are given credit for interpretation,

development of argument and appropriateness of examples

and quotation.

Judgement of compositions set on a background reading text

is based, as for other composition tasks, on control of

language in the given context. It is obviously necessary to

downgrade candidates who attempt these topics withoutpreparation.

Marking

The panel of examiners is divided into small teams each

with a very experienced examiner as Team Leader. The

Principal Examiner guides and monitors the marking process,

beginning with a meeting of the Principal Examiner and the

Team Leaders. This is held immediately after the

examination and begins the process of establishing a

common standard of assessment by the selection of sample

scripts for all the questions in Paper 2. These are chosen to

demonstrate the range of responses and different levels of

competence, and are used for the preliminary co-ordination

of marking of all examiners.

During marking, each examiner is apportioned scripts

chosen on a random basis from the whole entry in order to

ensure there is no concentration of good or weak scripts or

of one large centre in the allocation of any one examiner. A

rigorous process of co-ordination and checking is carried out

before and throughout the marking process.

Topics Based on Optional Reading

The topics of the three books are also task-directed, in the

sense that they require the ability to recall and marshal facts

and themes from the text studied in the framework of the

question set. Detailed factual recall is not a crucial factor,

nor is literary analysis, the emphasis being on the quality of

the language used in the given context. Candidates should

recognise the importance of answering the questionappropriately. This requires illustrated description and

discussion as evidence of having read and appreciated a text

rather than merely a reproduction of the plot of the book.

Candidates who have prepared one of the set texts can

usefully be given practice in discussing various elements,

e.g., the motivation of the characters and/or their own

opinion of the book supported by evidence from the text.

This option is intended to offer candidates an enjoyable and

worthwhile reading experience with an opportunity to

develop the ability to handle fresh ideas and build on

cultural insights in English.

A S S E S S M E N T

The five prompts provide five different tasks, each of which

demands varying responses and techniques. Examiners

assess task-realisation, organisation of material and range of

vocabulary and structure. Within these criteria, they

consider fulfilment of the task set: (i.e., its relevance and

organisation as a whole and in terms of individual

paragraphs) and the quality of the language used (i.e., the

range and appropriateness of vocabulary and sentence

structure; the correctness of grammatical construction,

punctuation and spelling). The examiners assess each

composition based on these considerations, bearing in mind

the general scope and standard of the CPE. The impression

mark for each composition is awarded out of 20 (criteria

summarised on page 20).

Length

The length of answer required is stated for each task. For

answers that are below the required length, the examiner

adjusts the maximum mark and the mark givenproportionately, e.g., a three-quarter length answer deserves

three-quarters of the mark that would otherwise have been

given. For answers that are over-length, the examiner draws

a line at the approximate place where the correct length is

reached and directs close assessment to what comes before

this. However, credit is given for relevant material appearing

later.

Handwriting and Spelling

Poor handwriting, spelling errors or faulty punctuation are

not specifically penalised, but the overall impression mark

may be adjusted if it is felt that communication is impeded.



19 - 20 Excellent control and selection of language, virtually error-free; outstanding in treatment of task.

Clear evidence of sophisticated language used with only occasional native-speaker-type lapses;

ambitious in concept and approach.

Reasonably fluent and natural language with only occasional minor errors; task well developed,

with appropriate treatment of the rubric.

Ideas communicated but language limited or marred by error; task attempted but not adequately

realised.

Lack of language control shown by numerous errors; topic area neither extended nor explored.

Errors and narrowness of expression impede communication; content irrelevant or length of writing

too short.

Totally irrelevant, or too little language for assessment.

16 - 18

11 - 15

8 - 10

5 - 7

1 - 4

0

The criteria for assessment are summarised as follows:





The kitchen in my sister’s house is a rather large room, many windows so it is bright and apart from the

usual kitchen furnishing such as fridge and freezer, stove and cupboards etc there is a big wooden table.

This table is the centre of the kitchen, here the family have their meals, someone is doing his homework or

simply reading the newspaper. On the old wooden coach that stands along one wall it is most likely to find

a little kitten sleeping. It is in fact a bit of a mess in the kitchen most of the time. There is quite often a loaf

of bread lying on the counter and some cheese or ham and on the table one can find a story-book. On the

fridge there are notes or schedules for football trainings.

It is very much alive though, the kitchen in my sister’s house. The personalities of the family-

members reflects on the room. First of all my sister and the mother, has not only three children but is also

working full-time. It shows that she has not enough time to manage everything, even though she is trying

to. The kitchen is not always as tidy as it could be, but she does not mind and the kitchen is much more

cosy when it looks a bit ‘lived in’.

The two elder children are both in school and both are very interested in sports. Almost everyday

they have football practice, always going somewhere. This shows in the kitchen when they ‘forget’ to put

the cheese back into the fridge or the milk or put their glasses or plates in the dishwasher.

The youngest child likes to play out in the kitchen, keeping his mother company. He does not like

to be alone and the kitchen is a very good place if you dont like to be alone, because there is always

someone there.

The kitchen is the natural place for the whole family to meet in and maybe that is because it is

‘lived in’ and the whole family is a bit like the kitchen; messy but very warm-hearted.

The task has been properly realised. Personalities are

reflected through the activities that take place in the room,

which the candidate has made entirely appropriate to the

question.

MARK 13

S A M P L E S C R I P T S W I T H E X A M I N E R C O M M E N T S

Overall the language is sufficient to deal with the theme,

though there is some awkwardness at times, e.g., ... it is

most likely to find ... Word order and subject / verb

agreement are problematic, e.g., The personalities of the

family-members reflects on the room. First of all my sister

and the mother, has not only three children but is also

working full-time. There is some assurance in the writing -

It is very much alive though, the kitchen in my sister's

house - especially towards the end. A wider range of structure and vocabulary would have resulted in a higher

mark.

QU ES T I O N 1 C AN DI DATE A

E X A M I N E R C O M M E N T S



The treatment of the task is appropriate. The candidate has

dealt with the second part of the question in an acceptable

way by detailing the specifics of possible government

control, which implies agreement with the concept of tight

control.

MARK 17

There is evidence of sophisticated language which has been

well matched to the task, e.g., I believe there are various

steps the governments can still take to reduce the number of

drivers. The writing is virtually error free, and the candidate

has used a wide range of vocabulary and expressions

appropriate to the theme - Frequent delays and

cancellations; traffic regularly comes to a standstill;

dangerous exhaust fumes; commuters; more

environmentally friendly cars.

QU ES T I ON 2 C ANDI DATE B


I recently came across an article in my local newspaper, which was about the use of cars in our society. In a comparison

with third world countries a statistic showed that the average number of people per car in Europe was two and in India

355. This statistic clearly underlines the importance of cars in western society. Cars are, by far, the most popular method

of transport, as they are more comfortable and cleaner than public transport. They also enable the user to stop anywhere

and to complete the journey in his own time.

In addition, public transport has become even more unreliable over the past few years. Frequent delays and cancellations

and an increase in ticket prices are hardly and incentive to use buses or trains.

Furthermore, the ownership of one or more cars is a status symbol of relative importance. It is a sign of properity

to have a nice car and it is part of human nature to show off.

For these reasons the number of people who drive to work each morning has grown. The result is that in big

cities, like London, the traffic regularly comes to a standstill during the rushhour. Also, scientists have shown the extensive

damage to the environment, which is caused by pollution. The governments have tried to reduce the amount of dangerous

exhaust fumes by issuing laws, which make it compulsory for every car to have a catalytic converter. Yet, this does very

little to reduce pollution. Furthermore, the British Government has issued a fuel tax, hoping that the rise in price will determany from using their car. Despite all these effort the automobile industry is booming and car sales are increasing at a

surprising speed.

I believe there are various steps the governments can still take to reduce the number of drivers. The most

important one is to improve public transport. Regular trains and buses, punctuality and a wider range of destinations

would increase the number of commuters. If this is not enough, there are other possibilities such as, limiting the

ownerships of cars per family restricting the number of miles each person is allowed to drive O. Furthermore, automobile

companies could be forced to invest is more environmentally friendly cars. The biggest breakthrough to reduce the

emission of CO2 would be to change the energy source from fuel to electricity.

O or inventing a car-share-scheme, which is on trial in Germany.x

x



The ticket collector awoke with a start, to find the train moving through unfamiliar countryside. “Bob must be taking a

wrong way”. he thought. As a veteran ticket collector, Fred was sure that the driver was heading to a wrong direction. He

got up unwillingly and began to walk towards the front coach of the train. His legs looked as if they could have hardly

put up with his flabby body. Only after he got in a carriage on his way to see Bob, did he find a skinny, little boy sitting

on a window sill with his legs dangling down outside dangerously.

“It can’t be my brother”. Fred thought. The train was not in service, so no one shouldn’t have been on board.

Besides, his brother had died when Fred was still in his teens. Fred was about to approach the boy to ask questions when

the boy turned round and grinned at him. He felt as if I had been dreaming. The boy looked identical to his dead

brother. He couldn’t help trembling but his blood floze all over his body. In the next 10 minutes or so, Fred tried to calm

down thinking of his duty.

When he pulled himself together, he walked to the boy and asked several questions. Before he realized, he

addressed the boy John, which was his dead brother’s name, and had a conversation looking back his young days. The

boy, who was wearing old-fashioned clothes, seemed to be enjoying the chitchat with the ticket collector for a while.

After a while, the boy suggested that Fred should go to see the driver about this wrong direction. So Fred stoodup and left the carriage then, realized that he wanted to ask him one more thing. Strangely enough, he couldn’t find the

boy ever again.

No sooner had he realized that he had been dreaming than his colleague came to wake him up for his duty.

QU ES T I ON 3 C ANDI DATE C


wearing old-fashioned clothes, seemed to be enjoying the

chitchat with the ticket collector for a while. The candidate

has also included a number of descriptions which add littleto the storyline, e.g., His legs looked as if they could have

hardly put up with his flabby body.

MARK 5

Poor language control leads to confusion, e.g., Before he

realized, he addressed the boy John, which was his dead

brother's name, and had a conversation looking back his young days.

The task is not treated adequately. The candidate has

attempted to adapt a ghost story to the opening sentence,

and this has entailed the inclusion of material which neither

extends nor explores the topic, e.g., The boy, who was



QU ES T I ON 4 C ANDI DATE D

Christian Berg

Kaptensgt 24

60742 Malmo

Sweden

The manager ph. 0064-53-874201

Lord hotel21 Lancaster gate 10/06/97

W2 6ET

London

Dear sir,

I am writing to express my dissatisfaction of my stay at the Lord Hotel, in London, last weekend.

I booked and paid, for my stay at the hotel, in Sweden and I aslo recieved information about the hotel and of the

facilities there a map of London and some touristinformation. I was promised a luxury weekend well-worth the

£1000 I paid. However, I am not satisfied.

The room was comfortable but the traffic from the road opposite the hotel made it impossible to sleep. I asked for

another room but no single rooms were available. Furthermore, I required roomservice one night and I had to

wait for almost one hour before someone came.

Moreover, the hotel offered (me) health and fitness facilities and since I enjoy exercising I looked forward to it.

However, I never had a chance to use the gym because it was very small and crowded. The swimming pool was

unclean and cold temperatured and the fitness instructors were not helpful at all.

I am also very disappointed with the food. The breakfast did leave alot for imagination and the 3 course dinner I

was promised was beyond criticism. Firstly, the waiting personel were rude and unfriendly. Secondly, the quality

of the food was not good. Finally the 3 course dinner I paid for appeard to be only a two course dinner since I

only was offered coffee after the maincourse.

Taking in consideration; the immense amount of money I (have) paid for this stay and the inconvinience and

disappointment the stay at your hotel caused me, I think an apology and a refund would be appropriate.

I am looking forward hearing from you

Yours sincerely

Christian Berg

CHRISTIAN BERG

The range of vocabulary is mostly appropriate - ...but no

single rooms were available; fitness instructors - but

sometimes leads to awkwardness - the swimming pool was

unclean and cold temperatured - or even confusion, e.g.,

....the 3 course dinner I was promised was beyond criticism.

The closing formula 'Yours sincerely' - is inappropriate for a

formal letter opening 'Dear sir' , which is itself incorrect.

The task is handled well and the writer communicates the

reasons for dissatisfaction and the request for a refund very

effectively.

MARK 12

The letter is appropriate in both style and direction. There

are language errors which stand out, e.g., my dissatisfaction

of my stay; I only was offered. Punctuation, especially the

use of commas, is problematic at times, e.g., I booked and

paid, for my stay at the hotel, in Sweden.... Tenses are

generally well-handled, though the use of the past simple

rather than the present would have been more appropriate

when expressing dissatisfaction in the following instances: I

was promised...However, I am not satisfied; I am also very

disappointed with the food.




Stefan Nilsson

9 Old Jamaica Road

London

SE16 4TE

Complaints DepartmentMallorca Grand Hotel

12 Cerveza Road

London SE7 0AP

11 June 1997

Dear Sir/Madam

Concerning my stay 010697-030697

During the weekend I realized that the standard of your hotel did not correspond to the standard

described in your catalouge. To begin with I am a vegetarian. Therefore I had, in advance, ordered food suitable for

vegetarians to both the meal on Friday night and the one on Saturday night. I was chocked when I

realized that the veggie burgers contained meat on both Friday night and Saturday night. I reported this,

but neither the staff or the resturant manager took notice of my complaint. However, this issue is minor

if compared to what happened to me on the morning of Sunday the 3rd.

As I woke up I decided to work-out for a few hours before breakfast, so I went down to the

cellar, were I had been told that I would find luxury health and fitness equipment.

I was stunned to find a gym that only comprised a few weights. Furthermore, I was not able

to use them due to the heavy weight.

Since my main goal with the weekend away was to relax, workout and eat health in order to

get slim, I must say that the circumstances were devastating and that I cannot accept this.I hope you understand that I must ask you to give me a partial refund of the money that I had

payed in advance. I would be satysfied with one third of the 200 pounds, as a symbolic gesture.

I am looking forward to hearing from you in the near future and I sincerely hope that we can settle this.

Yours faithfully

Stefan Nilsson

STEFAN NILSSON

QU ES T I ON 4 C ANDI DATE E

The candidate fails to achieve a consistent tone or style in the

letter. An attempt at a formal letter of complaint has been

made, but does not quite succeed. There are some good

touches, e.g., ... did not correspond to the standard; I

sincerely hope that we can settle this, but at times the

vocabulary used is excessive and not in keeping with the

overall tenor of the letter, e.g., I was stunned; the

circumstances were devastating . At others, the sentence

openers employed are not quite formal enough for the

context, e.g., To begin with, I am a vegetarian. Therefore ...

There is a degree of unnecessary repetition in the earlier part

of the letter, e.g., ... to both the meal on Friday night and the

one on Saturday night; ... contained meat on both Friday

night and Saturday night.

Spelling is problematic, e.g., catalouge; chocked; resturant;

were I had been told; satysfied; payed.

The task has been attempted, but not adequately realised.

The hotel management might well require more detailed

information, particularly on what steps the writer took to

complain about the fitness equipment during the weekend,before considering the request for a refund.

MARK 9




Kazuo Ishiguro: “The Remains of the Day”

‘I gave my best to Lord Darlington. I gave him the very best I had to give.’

What was Stevens’ ‘best’and what were the consequences for him of giving it?

Kazuo Ishiguro in ‘Remains of the Day’shows us a life of a butler in a big, English house belonging toLord Darlington.

Before he starts to work there he makes a long way to being a footman to a position of a butler

in a previous house. This indicates how ambitious and hardworking that young man was.

Stevens comes to Darlington Hall to work as a underbulter and finally he becomes a butler.

He possess all the qualities that great butler should have: He has got a good accent, good command of

English, a general knowledge of everything and he is eloquent.

He is very proud working for Lord Darlington, he likes and respects his master very much.

Saying that he gave his best to Lord Darlington, Stevens is absolutely right.

He gives him many years of his young life in service. He doesn’t have a private life and any

time off. He lives the life of his master all those years.

Stevens never thinks of getting married. Even when the housekeeper of Darlington Hall seems

to like him a lot, he does not care. Nothing can stand between him and his career of a butler.

The dedication to his job and his employer has no limits. His father becomes very ill and he

dies, while this is happening not Stevens but Miss Kenton is with him, because Stevens keeps on

working. Even in such a ‘tragical’ moment the duty is more important than his own father. I found it

rather shocking!

After all Lord Darlington dies too, and after his father’s death and Miss Kenton’s departure to

West Country, Stevens has got no one close left. He has no family, no friends, no possesions. All his life

he worked hard, he served others, but did he “bear many fruits”?

He is getting old, but he seems to be happy and somehow satisfied with his life. He could

have led different life. He could have had a loving wife, children - real home. He did not want all of

that. He is lonely and yet still glad. What an extraordinary man!

Giving “his best” to Lord Darlington he gave “it” to his country. Stevens has got his dignity and

satisfaction coming from the life he had. The consequences of it do not matter unless he is proud of

himself.

QU ES T I ON 5 C ANDI DATE F

The candidate handles the task reasonably effectively and

shows good knowledge of the text. This is a personal

response to the question set - I found it rather shocking;

What an extraordinary man! - which is direct and clear

in the points it makes.

The language employed manages to convey a basic

understanding of the text, but does not display a great dealof range or ambition. There is some awkwardness, e.g.,

Before he starts to work there he makes a long way to being

a footman to a position of a butler in a previous house. The

final sentence is confusing. There is also a recurring

problem with articles, e.g., a underbulter; that great butler

should have; could have led different life; the duty is more

important.

MARK 11




P AP ER 3 U S E OF ENGL I S H

General Description

Paper Format

The paper is divided into two sections. Section A contains

four exercises based on a short text and discrete sentences.

Section B contains comprehension and summary questions

based on a longer text.

Number of Questions

Approximately 53 - 59, plus a summary task.

Task Types

Open cloze, sentence transformations, gapped sentences,

open-ended comprehension questions, and summary task.

Answering

Candidates write their answers in the question booklet.

Timing

2 hours.

Marks

One mark is given for each correct answer in Questions 1

and 3. Questions 2, 4 and 5 are marked according to a

mark scheme; see the sample paper, mark scheme and the

sample candidate answers in this booklet.

Question

1

2

3

4

5

Task Type and Focus

Open cloze

An emphasis on grammar

Sentence transformations

Grammar and vocabulary

Gapped sentences


‘Key’word transformations


Open-endedcomprehension questions

• identifying main

point and examples

• paraphrasing

• identifying function,

etc.

Summary task

• selecting and

synthesising

information

• presenting in

continuous prose

20

8

6

11 - 14

60 - 90words

approx.

8

A modified cloze text containing 20 gaps.

Discrete sentences to be rewritten using a lead-in

phrase.

Discrete gapped sentences to be completed with

an appropriate word or phrase.

Discrete sentences to be rewritten using a given

word.

Candidates are required to select informationfrom a text of 550 - 650 words.

The summary task, as specified in the rubric,requires a logical and coherent summary of thetext.

Number of

Questions

Task Format



candidates. Incorrect spelling is penalised where it affects

the language being assessed.

Question 4

This Question consists of eight discrete sentences to be

rewritten using a given word, in the form given, and

structural manipulation as necessary to produce sentences

similar in meaning to the input provided. This task covers a

wide range of grammatical and lexico-grammatical patterns

and, as above, candidates need to learn whole phrases rather

than just individual words. An awareness of parallel and

synonymous expressions will help candidates in this part of

the paper. For marking purposes, sentences may be divided

into assessed sections. Incorrect spelling is penalised where

it affects the language being assessed.

Section B

This is a comprehension and summary task, based on a text

of 550-650 words in length. Candidates are required to

select information from a written text to show general and

detailed comprehension and to paraphrase the text

successfully in order to demonstrate a thorough

comprehension. In the final question in this section,

candidates are required to produce a paragraph of a

specified length, summarising the required information from

the text in a logical and coherent fashion. In preparing for

Section B, candidates should be given practice in reading a

wide range of texts from different sources and in answering

questions on information given or implied and the language

used.

Question 5

Comprehension Questions

These questions, which precede the summary, focus on

various aspects of comprehension such as identifying and

listing examples relating to the main point or identifying the

particular function of specified language in the text. The

questions are a test of comprehension, not composition, and

grammatical errors and clumsy expression are not penalised

except where they obscure the point. Questions which

specify that candidates should use their own words or

explain a quotation from the text require a successful

paraphrase to gain full marks. Complete sentences are not

necessarily required; some types of question can be

successfully answered by a short phrase or, occasionally, a

single word. The dotted lines are generally intended to

provide sufficient space for a fully expressed answer in

average handwriting; however, a minimum of one full line is

always given.

P REP AR I NG F OR P AP ER 3

The Use of English paper is divided into two sections. In

Section A there are four parts, each part being defined in

terms of its task type and language focus. Section B consists

of a short text followed by a comprehension and summary

task.

In general, candidates are encouraged to read texts from a

variety of sources and to spend time identifying examples of

current usage themselves, rather than relying solely on

exercise completion.

Section A

Candidates are advised against offering alternative answers

in any of the parts of Section A: where such alternatives are

given, marks can only be awarded if all alternatives are

correct.

Question 1

This is a modified cloze test containing twenty gaps, testing

structural and lexical appropriacy, with the emphasis on

structure. A single word is needed to fill each gap. There

may be more than one acceptable answer for each gap, as

defined by the mark scheme. The absence or misuse of

capital letters is ignored; correct spelling is essential. This

type of exercise should not be over-practised in class as it is

unlikely to raise learners’ language awareness. Candidates

are advised to read the whole text before attempting to fill

the gaps. Learning words and expressions in context,especially grammatical patterns and collocations, will help

candidates in this part of the paper.

Question 2

This consists of eight discrete sentence transformations.

Candidates are required to manipulate structures in order to

produce sentences similar in meaning to the input provided.

For marking purposes, sentences may be divided into

assessed sections. A wide range of structures such as passive

voice, inversions, complex conditionals as well as noun to

verb (and vice versa) transformations are tested. In addition,

common expressions such as ‘please -self’, ‘what + adjective

+ noun’and lexical phrases ‘fancy -ing,’ ‘no point -ing’,

object to -ing’ can be tested in this format. Incorrect spelling

is penalised where it affects the language being assessed.

Question 3

In this Question there are six discrete gapped sentences, to

be completed with an appropriate word or phrase. As in

other sections of the paper, candidates need to know whole

phrases rather than just individual words. Exercises whichexamine lexico-grammatical collocations, e.g., ‘how on

earth could you have + participle’, ‘(it) doesn’t stand a

chance of + -ing’ and their likely context will help



Summary Task

This is intended to test candidate’s ability to select and

synthesise specified information, and to present it in

continuous form, with clarity, coherence and conciseness.

The paragraph must be written in continuous prose, i.e., in

complete sentences and not in note form. It should be in a

formal/neutral register. The sentences should be well-linked,

and the complete piece of writing should be well-structured

and organised to form a self-contained whole. Candidates

should be encouraged to use their own words rather than

relying on ‘lifting’; they will be credited for successfully

paraphasing the points required. They should also be careful

to adhere to the instructions given in the rubric as

irrelevancies and misinterpretation will be penalised.

Candidates are expected to extract all the information

required from the text and not to offer their own opinion.

Candidates should write within the word limits given as

excessively long answers will lose marks while short answers

tend to omit information or show sufficient evidence of

structural and stylistic control. Exercises which practiseunderstanding, interpreting and summarising the information

presented in texts should be part of candidates’preparation

for this task.











Question 3

Total 6 (one mark for each correct answer; some variations

in answers allowed)

(a) for handing/giving/having handed/having given in

OR because + Past tenses (1)

(b) round/around/down to

OR (the) time/chance/opportunity to do (1)

(c) no need (for you) to (1)

(d) good as yours/that (is) (1)

(e) were meant/supposed (1)

(f) such good value (1)

Question 4

Total 11 (marks as shown; some variations in answers

allowed)

(a) The management’s statement is in (complete/total)

contrast to previous policy.

OR There is a (complete/total) contrast between the

management’s previous policy and this statement.

OR The contrast between the management’s previous

policy and this statement is striking. (1)

(b) Everyone could see that Alice had taken a dislike to

my friends.

OR Everyone was aware of/could see Alice’s dislike of my

friends.

OR Alice’s dislike of my friends was apparent/obvious to

everyone/something that everyone could see. (1)

(c) Could you cast your/an eye (1) over this letter... (1)

(2)

(d) My daughter’s health has improved since she gave up

smoking.

OR Since my daughter gave up smoking her health has

improved.

OR Giving up smoking has improved my daughter’s health.

OR Having given up smoking, my daughter’s health has

improved. (1)

(e) The speaker’s arguments drew an angry reaction/angryreactions (1) from the audience. (1) (2)

(f) The/This government’s taxation policy has undergone

(1) a complete change since the last general

election.(1)

OR The taxation policy of this government has undergone

(1) a complete change since the last general election.

(1) (2)

(g) There is little/not much prospect of Donald getting the

job/that Donald will get the job.

OR The prospect of Donald getting the job is remote.

OR Donald has little/not much//hasn’t any prospect of

getting the job. (1)

(h) Hamilton’s latest book provides (the reader with) food

for thought.

OR Hamilton’s latest book gives the reader/us (plenty

of/considerable) food for thought.

OR Hamilton’s latest book is food for thought. (1)

Question 5

Total 31

This section is designed to test the candidate's ability to

understand, interpret and summarise. Marks are awarded as

shown for coherent and relevant answers (some variations in

answers allowed).

(a) buy/purchase them (1)

straightaway/immediately/quickly (1) (2)

(b) gives a very good vivid/strong/striking idea/impression

of (1) what life was like at a particular age (in the past)

(1) (2)

(c) (drawn from practically) every conceivable genre (1)

(d) nobody would ever have heard of/recognise the name

of/remember know any of the artists (1)

(e) (the huge gap/gulf that exists between) the vast

numbers/huge amount of works of art (1) and/but the

few/small amount that will remain/continue to exist

(1) (2)

(f) Why should we expect a work of art to survive (longer

than it deserves to)?//There is no reason why a work of

art should survive.

OR We shouldn’t expect a work of art to survive (longer

than appropriate).

OR Many people/artists/the public do expect more.// More

is often expected by people/artists/the public. (1)

(g) the fact that anyone other than the artist should like a

picture enough to (stop and) look at it/consider it is

worth looking at (1)

(h) work finds a place in the history of art/recognition of

the value of a work of art by (art) historians (1)/place is

found for a work in a museum/exhibition (1) (2)

(i) (an artistic) style/genre/type/kind of painting (1)

(j) A good picture by a minor artist is better than a poorone by a major/great/famous artist.

OR that even famous artists sometimes produce poor

pictures (1)

(k) underlines/reinforces the writer’s opinion that such

pictures/pictures of this type are contrived/artificial

OR emphasizes the derogatory/pejorative attitude of the

writer (1)

(l) photos do not incorporate the artist’s own

personality/individual perceptions (1)//less realistic/less

satisfying as documentary evidence (1) (2)

(m) a way of making sure that a painting/an artist is never

forgotten/never disappears completely (1)

(n) Lowry’s paintings illustrate/depict life as he saw

it. (1)



(o) Content: Award up to 4 marks for the mention of the

following points - 1 mark for each point made up to a

maximum of 4.

(i) Insurance for artists against oblivion.

(ii) Provides social record/evokes their period/life (in a

fascinating way).

(iii) More worthwhile than a ‘stuffy composition’/less

artificial than a composition/an abstract.(iv) Even poor works of art have a value/may give pleasure

(if they depict people).

(v) Shows what real life was like from a personal point of

view.

Language: Award up to a maximum of 8 marks for the

ability to construct a well-written and concise paragraph;

credit for evidence of overall construction, use of

connectors, economy of style, some attempt to re-phrase as

opposed to reliance on 'lifting' and conformity to the

required length.

There follow some sample answers for the Question 5

summary, with examiner comments and marks.



This candidate has mentioned four of the five relevant

points, namely (iii), (iv), (ii) and (v), giving her full marks for

content.

In general, the paragraph is well constructed and expressed,

(except perhaps for could successfully depict and completely

different than others’ ); it is appropriately punctuated, free of

serious linguistic errors and linked by suitable connectors.

There is only one instance of lifting - the people around him

and the life they lead - but the number of words has been

exceeded (108 in this case) due to repetition of ideas in the

last two sentences and unnecessary verbiage, e.g., clearly, in

the text, of art, in the past, of the world and, which may be

completely different than others’. As a result it just qualifies

as a ‘competent summary’, sufficient for a mark of 5.

TOTAL MARK: 4+5=9

By including four of the five content points listed in the

markscheme, i.e., (ii), (v), (iv) and (iii), the candidate has

demonstrated good comprehension of the passage andappreciation of what is required. She therefore receives the

maximum of 4 for this task.

The summary is fluently, if simply written, with good overall

cohesion and correct punctuation. It makes adequate use of

connectors and contains no significant errors in grammar or

usage. There is a real attempt to paraphrase the language of

the text and no lifting of vocabulary or phraseology, placing

it in the top band as regards expression. Any weaknesses are

of a minor nature: they used without an antecedent in the

first sentence, the misuse of look and the missing apostrophe

in Thats . It is also slightly overlength (94 words). For these

reasons the mark awarded was 7 rather than 8.

TOTAL MARK: 4+7=11

C ANDI DATE A

Q U E S T I O N 5 S A M P L E S C R I P T S W I T H E X A M I N E R C O M M E N T S

C ANDI DATE B



The writer thinks that they are very evocative. These paintings show what life was like

in a period through the artist’s personal look and experience and that adds to it validity

and life. Thats why they are better than photographs. Moreover they give us pleasureespecially if they are well painted, although they might not offer us something unique.

Sometimes they might even be better than a piece by a famous artist. Certainly future

generations will appreciate them more than abstract ones because they can learn more

from them, about life in past years.

The writer clearly states in the text that an artist should not try to impress by making

his works of art complex and abstract. On the other hand, even a bad artist could

successfully depict the people around him and the life they lead. This is because

people are very interested in seeing how life was at a certain period of time in the past

and in understanding the artist’s perception of the world and the people around him.

In other words, they are interested in the way each artist may depict the same period

with his very unique personal style, which may be completely different than others’.



Points (ii) and (i) are made in the third and fourth sentences,

giving only 2 marks for content and conveying the

impression that this candidate had not properly understood

the task or was unable to extract the required information

from the text.

This impression is reinforced by the first two sentences

which are nothing more than irrelevant lifting from the

passage. Although the paragraph conforms to the prescribed

length, it repeats certain phrases, making virtually no use of

connectors and suffers from poor expression, e.g., this work

will look in the future. It contains so little candidate input

and reveals such weak summary skills that it falls into the

category of ‘barely competent summary’ and is thus worthonly 2.

TOTAL MARK: 2+2=4

control resulting in a number of errors in usage: need of

painting, a invaluable document, art which are dead, are

due to have a lasting interest in peoples, hundreds of years.

In view of these defects a mark of 4 was awarded.

TOTAL MARK: 3+4=7

C ANDI DATE C


In this passage the writer puts emphasis on the need of painting real life. This is

justified if we bear in mind that such paintings include, the personal opinion of an

artist, so they act as a invaluable document from these times. Consequently they are

realistic and full of life, in comparison with abstract art which are dead. Moreover

they are actual accounts of the past and are due to have a lasting interest in peoples

who will live hundreds of years later.

C ANDI DATE D


In this text the writer wants to show us how important is to snap up all the old

exhibition catalogues we find. Furthermore he wants to show his approval of painting

the people around us and the life they lead. He believes that in this way the new

generations will be able to know about the way of life we lead. Also in this way of

painting every artist can be sure that his work will look at in the future.

The candidate gains 3 marks for points (v), (ii) and (iii) but fails

to express point (i) with sufficient clarity in the final sentence.

By being reasonably concise (83 words), relevant, attempting

to rephrase the language of the text and using connectors such

asThis, Consequently and Moreover, the summary fulfils the

markscheme’s definition of ‘an adequate attempt’, putting it in

the 3-4 mark band. Its main weakness is a lack of linguistic



repetition and elementary linguistic errors like in few years

time, in it with a plural antecedent, it worths and misuse of

the definite article. It therefore represents a rather weak

example of ‘an adequate attempt’, hence the mark of 3.

TOTAL MARK: 1+3=4

C ANDI DATE E


The most important reason according to the writer is that in few years time people will

be interested in previous years and they will want to know what there was before

them. So as a result the abstract paintings will not be wanted. He also thinks that the

only way to make paintings more endurable is to depict in it the real life. Finally he

believes that it worths showing through paintings the real life, the daily simple and

everyday facts.

Point (ii) is correctly identified at the beginning of the

paragraph, whereas (i) is subsequently hinted at but too

vaguely to justify the mark, giving only 1 for content.

The candidate’s version shows some evidence of basicsummary skills and knowledge of what is required, it does not

exceed the prescribed length or rely on lifting and it attempts

to use connectors. It is, however, marred by some irrelevance,



PA P E R 4 L I S T E N I N G C O M P R E H E N S I O N

General Description

Paper Format

The paper contains three or four parts. Each part contains a

recorded text or texts and corresponding comprehensiontasks.

Number of Questions

Approximately 25 - 30.

Text Types

From the following: announcements, radio broadcasts,public speeches, interviews, talks, lectures, meetings, etc.

Recording Information

Each text is heard twice.Recordings will contain a variety of accents corresponding to

standard variants of English native speaker accent, and to

English non-native speaker accents that approximate to the

norms of native speaker accents.

Background sounds may be included before speaking begins,

to provide contextual information.

Task Types

From the following: note taking, gap filling, sentencecompletion, multiple choice, selection from three possible

answers.

Task Focus

Understanding specific information, gist, tone and attitude,

main points and detail, deducing meaning.

Answering

For all parts of this paper candidates write their answers onan answer sheet.

Timing

Approximately 40 minutes.

Marks

Each question in this paper carries one mark. The total scoreis then weighted out of a maximum 20 marks for the whole

paper.

Task Type and Focus

Three or four different tasks

from the following: note

taking, gap filling, sentence

completion, multiple choice,

selection from three possible

answers.

Understanding specific

information, gist, tone and

attitude, main points anddetail, deducing meaning.

Approx.

25 - 30

Three or four monologues or texts involving interacting

speakers, of approximately 3 - 4 minutes each.

Number of Questions

Task Format



P REP AR I NG F OR P AP ER 4

This paper comprises three or four recordings each with a

separate task. On any one version of the paper there is a

range of task and text types, reflecting the variety of real-

world listening situations which candidates at this level need

to be able to cope with. Whilst the paper has no

predetermined format, certain text and task types occur

regularly and candidates should be both familiar with these

and prepared in terms of the listening skills tested by each

task type.

Text Types

Texts are adapted from authentic sources and recorded in a

studio to ensure the required level of sound quality. Texts

may take the form of monologues, dialogues, three-way

conversations or include contributions from a number of

speakers. They have their origin in a range of authentic

sources, including broadcast interviews and documentaryfeatures, talks and lectures, public announcements and more

informal conversations.

Task Types

Each text is accompanied by a task that aims to test the

communicative point of what is said. Some of these tasks

may represent an authentic response to a text, for example,

where a listener takes notes in a talk or lecture. Others are

more abstract, testing areas of understanding in situations

where the listener in the real world makes no direct

response, for example, multiple-choice questions.

The main task types can be divided into those which are

productive, where the candidates give a written response to

some kind of prompt, and objective , where the candidates

choose from a number of alternatives.

Productive Tasks

There are two main types of productive task, each of which

requires quite a different kind of response from the

candidate.

Note Taking

Candidates are asked to note down points of information

from the text in response to given prompts. These prompts

may take the form of questions to be answered, lists of points

under headings to be completed, or the notes made by an

imagined listener with certain sections gapped out.

Candidates are required to write a word or short phrase in

response to prompts which focus on the main points of

information presented in the text. Such tasks test listening

for detail, the ability to follow the structure of the text and

locate relevant information. Most answers will be short,

often single words or noun groups, and these should be

spelled correctly. Candidates will not be asked to produce

or interpret any particular system of note taking and will not

be penalised for the omission of articles, prepositions, etc.,

except where they are essential for meaning

Sentence Completion

Candidates are asked to complete gaps in sentences with

information from the text. The sentences provide a kind of

summary of the main ideas presented in the text and may

focus on abstract ideas and feelings expressed by speakers aswell as points of information. Such tasks test a wide range

of listening skills, therefore, in addition to those tested by

note taking, including the attitudes and opinions of speakers,

both stated and implied. Most answers are short, again

generally in the form of single words or noun groups, must

be spelled correctly and must fit into the grammatical

structure of the sentence. Candidates need to check

carefully, therefore, that their answers produce a final

completed sentence which is both coherent and

grammatically correct, as well as including the relevant

information. Candidates should be discouraged fromattempting to write long or complicated answers, the size of

the boxes on the question paper and answer sheet serving as

a guide to the length of expected responses.

In productive tasks, the questions generally follow the order

of information found in the text, and candidates will often

write down actual words that are heard on the tape. They

should not automatically assume that there is a need to find

synonyms or to paraphrase ideas, but should aim to

complete the task with the information given in the manner

most appropriate to the task.

Objective Tasks

The most familiar objective task type is multiple choice

which is regularly used on the paper. It is especially suitable

for testing the understanding of texts that include both

concrete information and more abstract ideas. It is often used

to test understanding of the attitudes and opinions of

speakers, both stated and implied, as well as the ability to

distinguish what was said from what was not said.

Other objective tasks include those where two or three

alternatives are provided. They are often used with texts of a

more conversational nature and the testing focus may be on

the attitudes and opinions of speakers, on what was said or

not said, or may focus on whether or not speakers are in

agreement on certain points. For example, each of a list of

statements may reflect the views of one of three speakers, or

candidates may be asked to decide which of two speakers

holds a given opinion and whether they agree. In such tasks,

candidates should be listening for the attitudes of speakers as

expressed through intonation and choice of idiom as well as

through what is directly stated.

In objective tasks, the questions generally follow the order of

information found in the text, but the final question may test

global understanding of the text as a whole.



Helping Students to Prepare

In preparing for this part of the examination, candidates

should be made aware that understanding spoken English

involves extracting the main points of information and does

not necessarily depend on understanding every word that is

spoken. Candidates need to have an opportunity to hear as

wide a variety as possible of unsimplified English spoken at

natural speed. Classroom practice using task-based exercises

is recommended. Exercises which encourage learners to

listen with a specific focus, for example, understanding the

main points of what they hear, note-taking exercises,

inferring attitude, etc., will help candidates.

The instructions on the tape are followed by a pause for the

candidates to study the task for that section. Candidates

should use this time to study the questions on the page to

help them predict what they will hear. This mirrors what

happens in real-life listening situations when we all bring a

variety of extra areas of knowledge to what we hear, such as

knowledge of the context, the speaker and/or the subject. The use of pre-listening tasks in classwork will be of great

benefit in raising awareness of this and candidates should be

given practice in anticipating what they will hear and/or the

kind of information they will need to grasp. For example,

candidates should look at the words before and after each

gap in a sentence completion task and think about what kind

of information is missing. Helping learners to develop

strategies to prepare for listening is important for candidates’

confidence and is an essential element in reducing feelings

of anxiety which may beset them if they feel they have

‘missed’an answer or lost their place.





4

P A R T

T H R E E

L i s t e n t o t h i s

d i s c u s s i o n b e t w e e n t w o f r i e n d s ,

A n n e a n d D a

v e , w h o h a v e b e e n t o t h e c i n e m a t o

s e e a f i l m . F o r q u e s t i o n s 1 7 - 2 6 ,

i n d i c a t e w h i c h o f t h e o p i n

i o n s l i s t e d a r e g i v e n b y e a c h

s p e a k e r .

I n e a c h b o x ,

w r i t e e i t h e r :

D

( D a v e )

o r

A

( A n n e )

o r

B

( b o t h A n n e a n d D a v e )

1 7

T h e f i l m

h a d a n i n t e r e s t i n g p l o t .

1 7

1 8

T h e p r o d u c e r ’ s i n t e n t i o n s w e r e n o t r e a l i s e d

.

1 8

1 9

T h e l o c a t i o n f a i l e d t o c o n v i n c e .

1 9

2 0

T h e d a u g h t e r b e h a v e d u n p r e d i c t a b l y .

2 0

2 1

T h e d a u g h t e r ’ s b e h a v i o u r w a s c e n t r a l t o t h e s t o r y .

2 1

2 2

T h e m o t h e r w a s i n s i n c e r e .

2 2

2 3

T h e f a t h e r s h o u l d h a v e b e e n p o r t r a y e d a s a n a s t i e r c h a r a c t e r .

2 3

2 4

A t t h e e n d ,

t h e f a t h e r ’ s b e h a v i o u r w a s o u t o f c h a r a c t e r .

2 4

2 5

T h e v i o l e n c e i n t h e f i l m

w a s u n j u s t i f i e d .

2 5

2 6

T h e f i l m

w i l l h a v e g o o d r e v i e w s .

2 6



P AP ER 4 T AP ESCR IP T

PART 1

Announcer: Well, er, you’ve heard the arguments

supporting the motion ‘Modern farming is

harmful both to humanity and to the

environment’. I now call upon Mr Roland

Mackie, President of the Young FarmersAssociation, to oppose the motion - Mr

Mackie.

Roland

Thank you Mr Chairman. Ladies and

Gentlemen. The motion isn’t nonsense - er,

there are real problems that modern

agriculture must address but if balance and

perspective have anything to do with this

argument, er, then it’s as near nonsense as it

could be without actually being nonsense.

Um, just think, please, what you have had for

breakfast today. Er, a wide variety of cereals,

milk eggs, erm, wide variety of cheeses, tea,

coffee, er, even steak and fried potato for the

odd American, erm, and not forgetting my

porridge, of course. Now, that splendid

variety of inexpensive foodstuffs, er, all in

abundant supply is the direct result of the

development of a highly efficient modern

food-producing industry. It’s a spectacular

success story. In less than forty years, Europe

has moved from barely 50% self-sufficiency

to a happy surplus capacity situation. Astrategic achievement that’s as important

today as it ever was. To get, therefore, this

perspective in balance, to get it right, note

therefore three important points. Firstly, in a

still starving world it is a splendid luxury just

to have this debate. Furthermore, it is a

fragile luxury. World stocks are only a 30-day

supply. And secondly, this splendid luxury is

a direct outcome of the appliance of science

and technology to modern agriculture.

Memories are short but there are still somewho remember going to market not to get

what was wanted for supper but to see what

could be got for supper. Now, my third point

is to do with the first charge of the motion

that out there is a degraded environment.

You cannot have highly productive agriculture

without changing the countryside. But keep

the perspective. Did anyone on their way

here see anything other than a highly-

productive, attractive countryside bustling

with activity? Nevertheless, we have to

accept that there are real problems. Wildlife

is at risk. Nitrate levels have risen in our

water supplies and, and things like that. And

that is of concern. But the good news is, is

that industry’s selfsame productivity furnishes

much of the solutions to these problems.

Europe’s surplus capacity now means that up

to twenty per cent of the land can be turned

or returned, whatever the taxpayer wants.

Sensitive areas near water supplies or around

sites of special scientific or, or scenic interest

can be set aside for special care. Even cities,

er, they can now have large scale parkland

around them. Now the greater we improve

our productivity the cheaper our food

becomes and the greater our ability to do

these things.

As for sickly people, er, people being affected

by pesticides or other chemicals in the food

chain, this must be the nearest to nonsense.

People are living fuller, longer and happier

lives than ever before. A consequence of a

plentiful and varied diet. Materials are usedfor the control of pests, disease and rotting

but without these, the ravages of disease and

pestilence would again be colossal. In their

use the industry has become highly

sophisticated, having moved as new products

have appeared, from the somewhat

blunderbuss approach to a caring targeting

mode. The agrochemical industry itself has

put enormous effort into producing target-

specific, short-life products paying great

attention to environmental effects and the

safety procedures now in place are extremely

rigorous. There is no evidence to show that

the minute amounts of residue that find their

way through to the consumer are anything

other than totally safe. To put it in

perspective, the caffeine in coffee is more of a

risk than anything in foodstuffs.

PART 2

Interviewer: This weekend sees the culmination of three

years’ hard work on one of the most unlikely

of culinary projects - the world’s largest meat

and potato pie. Weighing more than six tons,

it will be cut open tomorrow in the West

Yorkshire village of Grimsdale, where 75,000

visitors are likely to be queuing up, hoping to

buy a slice.

Marjorie Swale, you helped organise the last

record-breaking pie in 1964 which measured

18 feet long, 6 feet wide and 18 inches deep,

and have co-ordinated efforts on the even

bigger one this year. Now, what lies behindthe idea of giant pie-making?

Mackie:



Marjorie Pie-making was current in the 17th and 18th

centuries in Grimsdale as a way of bringing

isolated people together for a community

event. It was a way of bringing the outlying

villagers into the centre of the community for

a joint celebration.

Interviewer: But not necessarily one big pie, I imagine.

Marjorie: Well no. Nobody really knows why giant

pies are baked here. The first recorded one

was made over 200 years ago to celebrate

King George III recovering from madness. In

1887 another was cooked to commemorate

the jubilee of Queen Victoria. Unfortunately,

that one went bad and had to be buried in

quicklime in a local wood. They’d brought

some professional people in to cook it and

they kept pouring hot stuff on to cold stuff

which was lethal, you see. It was

commemorated with a set of black-edged

funeral cards. It really was interred.

Interviewer: So after that what happened?

Marjorie: Well, actually in the 1928 pie, the local

women themselves cooked it, you see. I

mean, it wasn’t so vast as it is today and then

when it grew to all these dimensions, I mean

they just couldn’t cope with it, could they?

So now the women just serve it.

Interviewer: So that’s when the men got involved, was it?

Marjorie: Yes, but I think local men have been involved

with every pie, with the ovens and that sort of

thing, but the women had been involved in

the baking before a lot more than the men,

until 1964. One man in particular, Ahmed,

has a degree in Food Technology and so he

has taken charge of the baking, and the

design of the dish, the design of the cooking

method, if you like; everything from start to

finish. He has surrounded himself with a

team, I think mostly of men, although I do

know of one or two women who are joining

in on this team of eleven who will be working

on the all-night cooking.

Interviewer: Oh, I see. And how does it feel when it’s all

cooked and ready?

Marjorie: Oh, well, when it was over in ‘64, when it

was baked and it was in the field most of us

wept because to think that we’d worked

about 18 months, and it was hard actually,

and when we saw that it was all right it was

such a great feeling, it was wonderful and we

wept.

In the ‘64 pie, I organised the serving and

about 60 ladies, on pie day, just served the

pie. You were stood there two solid hours

just serving portions of pie and they’d finished

all 30,000 portions at five o’clock, and at five

o’clock, strangely enough, it started to rain,

poured down, so people just drifted away.

But luckily we’d served all the pie by then!

Interviewer: So how did this co-ordinator role come

about?

Marjorie: I said there was no way I was going to get

involved this time I’d had enough. But then I

thought, well, I’m getting a bit long in the

tooth, I might not get another chance and so

here I am doing more than ever!

Interviewer: Well, Majorie, thank you for finding the time

to talk to us.

Marjorie: Thank you. Just wish me luck for tomorrow!

PART 3

Dave: What did you think of that then Anne? I feel

like I’ve been in there for ages!

Anne: Yes, it was a pretty long film although I didn’t

notice the time that much... I don’t know

what I think, Dave... I’m in two minds about

it really... I got quite hooked on the story in a

sort of soap-opera sense, but I don’t think that

was what the producer really intended,

[laughs]

Dave: Yeah, I know what you mean... you think it

was meant to be some kind of grand epic?

Anne: But it didn’t come off, did it?

Dave: Mmm-mm... maybe we’ve seen too many

heroic films - we can’t take them seriously

anymore... Oh Anne, I thought you’d like it.

Anne: Oh I don’t know - I think I’ve got an open

mind still... it’s just that... well a lot of things

didn’t really add up.

Dave: [laughs] The setting was just unreal.

Anne: I didn’t mean that so much. I didn’t really

notice the location - it was more...

Dave: You mean you didn’t wonder where they

were - half the time you couldn’t tell whereone place was in relation to another and I

thought that was crucial!



Dave: Yes - he did go a bit over the top.

Anne: Oh he was so awful to her in the end that I

couldn’t bear it - I just couldn’t watch.

Dave: You’re a softie.

Anne: No - well, yes - maybe I am... But why on

earth do film-makers have to get their pointacross so violently these days? - and it wasn’t

called for in that film at all.

Dave: Because it was supposed to be symbolic,

anyway?

Anne: That’s right. It’s like - let’s make a beautiful,

symbolic film but we’d better throw in a bit of

violence because that will suit the people’s

tastes.

Dave: Well it’s one film to miss if it comes aroundagain... although I bet the critics’ll like it and

prove us both wrong...

Anne: I don’t know... I’ll read the reviews before I

answer that!

Anne: I can’t remember... anyway that didn’t bother

me...

Dave: But that was why she felt so isolated! That’s

why she left!

Anne: It was more the awful characterisation. I

mean, why did the daughter betray her

mother? - just suddenly like that, I mean. You’d think that there’d have been some

indication that she could behave that way

before then...

Dave: Oh, I suppose children are like that - maybe

she was obeying her father.

Anne: But they were devoted to each other, Dave - I

mean, they wouldn’t let the father have a

look-in and then suddenly - boom! - out of

the blue she tells on her mother.

Dave: Mmm-mm, you didn’t think it was realistic?

Anne: No - and the whole story hinged on that

event. It was such a weak thread.

Dave: I thought she was weird anyway.

Anne: Who - the daughter?

Dave: No, the mother. She frustrated me terribly.

Pretending she was all coy and innocent and

then running off like that with another man.

Anne: Well I don’t know about her but... well... her

husband was OK really. That’s it - he should

have been more - well... you know.

Dave: Mmmm...?

Anne: Well, chauvinistic... or just generally

unlikeable.

Dave: It’s more acceptable then is it if she leaves

him?

Anne: Oh, you know what I mean...

Dave: Well he was pretty cruel to her when he

found out that she hadn’t obeyed him... he

locked her in that dreadful room.

Anne: Yes, but it’s like the daughter - he behaved

sort of OK most of the time - and he was quite

a nice-looking person - I mean he wasn’t ugly

and he didn’t shout or anything - but then

suddenly he became almost irrational... he

over-reacted... or that was how it seemed to

me, anyway.



PA P E R 4 L I S T E N I N G C O M P R E H E N S I O N A N S W E R S H E E T

P AP ER 4 ANSWER KEY

Part One

1 C

2 B

3 C

4 B

5 D

6 C

Part Two

7 (world’s) largest/biggest (in the world)

8 isolated people/the community

9 one big pie/big pies/a giant pie

10 (went/was) bad11 so/too big/large/vast/enormous

12 qualifications/degree (in food technology)/training

13 all night (cooking)

14 crying/weeping

15 organise the serving/organise sixty/60 women

16 (had) finished (serving) the pie

Part Three

17 A

18 B

19 D

20 A

21 A

22 D

23 A

24 B

25 B

26 D



P AP ER 5 INT ER V I EW

General Description

Paper Format

There are nine ‘general’ theme based packages and three ‘set

text’ packages.

The ‘general’ packages contain three parts: photographs,

passages, communicative activities.

The ‘set text’ packages contain three parts: photographs,

extracts, discussion.

The test may be taken singly, in pairs, or in a group of three.

In the single, and sometimes the paired format, one

examiner acts as both interlocutor and assessor. In the group

format (and the paired format in some centres) there are two

examiners; one acts as interlocutor and the other as assessor.

The assessor takes no part in the interaction.

Task Types

Exchanging personal and factual information, expressing and

finding out about attitudes and opinions, planning, decision-

making, problem-solving, prioritising, speculating, etc.

Task Focus

A theme-based conversation with the examiner, and the

other candidate(s) where present.

Timing

Individual candidate: approximately 15 minutes. Paired

candidates: approximately 20 minutes. Group of three:

25 - 27 minutes.

Marks

Candidates are assessed on their performance throughout the

test, in relation to Fluency, Grammatical Accuracy, ProsodicFeatures, Individual sounds, Interactive Communication and

Vocabulary Resource.

Task Type and FocusPart

Conversation between thecandidate(s) and the examinerleading to discussion

Giving factual informationexpressing attitudes andopinions, describing andcomparing, analysing

Comments by the candidate(s)

Expressing attitudes andopinions, analysing,hypothesising

Exchanges between thecandidate(s) and the examiner

Demonstrating rhetoricalskills, e.g., negotiating,collaborating, persuading,reporting, justifying, etc.

1 candidate5 minutes

2 candidates

7 minutes

3 candidates10 minutes

Establishing thetheme

Communicativeactivity basedon the theme

Expanding onthe theme







The candidate(s) are each given a visualprompt (three photographs) and asked to talkabout or compare them.

The examiner establishes the theme fordiscussion and extends the conversation.

The candidate(s) are each asked to commenton a short text, related in theme to thediscussion in Part 1.

Texts may be in the form of ‘written-as-spoken’ language, extracts from letters,advertisements, newspaper articles,regulations, etc.

The candidate(s) are given visual and/orwritten prompts and asked to take part in acommunicative activity. This may take theform of a problem-solvingor ranking task, simulation, discussion,decision-making activity, etc.

Length ofParts

Task Format



P R EP AR ING F OR P AP ER 5

The Speaking Test consists of a theme-based conversation

between the candidate and the examiner, or in the case of

group tests, among the candidates with occasional

intervention by the examiner. Prompt material consisting of

photographs, short passages, authentic texts and problem-

solving activities is used to stimulate and guide the

discussion.

The Speaking Test is divided into three parts and candidates

can be prepared for the test by practising talking in groups

or in pairs about a wide variety of topics. Learners should

be encouraged at all times to do more than just ‘answer

questions’ and to participate actively in a variety of

communicative activities and discussions. The examination

expects candidates to have a certain maturity of approach to

their topic as well as more straightforward ones. They are

required to produce long stretches of clear, coherent speech

and to perform well in complex and serious discussions. The material that is used in this test is designed to give

candidates the opportunity to demonstrate that ability.

When preparing, candidates should be given similarly

suitable material as a stimulus. Throughout the test

candidates should not be afraid to ask for clarification if they

have not understood what has been said.

After a brief introduction, in which the examiner greets the

candidates and asks one or two brief, social questions to

settle them, the candidates are then handed the theme-

related material.

The Photographs

In this part the candidates are asked to speak about the

people or places in the photographs or to compare the

photographs. The conversation starts with specific

commentary of the situation shown in the pictures, but

detailed descriptions requiring specialised vocabulary are

not part of the test. It moves to an in-depth discussion on

associated themes, with the candidates being encouraged to

speak freely. This part of the test is intended to elicit an

extended sample of language and candidates should be

given practice in developing topics based on their own

views and experiences.

The Passages

The candidates are then asked to read through one of the

short passages quickly to themselves and to comment on it,

saying where they think the passage may have been taken

from and how it relates to the general theme of the

discussion, giving reasons for their opinion. This part tests

candidates’ability to comment on the source and the register

of the passage as well as to expand further the theme fordiscussion. Learners may need practice in absorbing the

discussion content quickly from short texts and other

material, without attempting to puzzle out every word or

background reference. The passages may be taken from a

variety of sources, e.g. letters, advertisements, newspapers,

magazines, rules and regulations, etc.

The Communicative Activity

In the final part of the Speaking Test, candidates are asked to

take part in a communicative activity. This may take any of

the forms outlined in the task format description of the

information section. The task will be outlined by theexaminer and candidates should listen carefully to the

instructions so that they carry out the task appropriately.

Candidates are expected to show that they can communicate

in situations which are different from those already covered,

and that they can use language appropriate to the task.

Similar activities can be practised in class.

Background Reading Option

Candidates may choose to be interviewed on the optional

reading material. The format of this test is similar to that of

the general theme-based material. The material is designed

as a stimulus for discussion, rather than a test of literary

appreciation. Candidates are first asked in general terms

about pictures relating to the story. They are then asked to

identify extracts from the text and go on to discuss plot,

characters and themes, and express their own reactions to

the text.

N.B. Test format depends on local administrative

arrangements. Candidates may be tested in pairs or in groups

of three. The increased amount of ‘candidate talking time’

generated and reduction in ‘examiner talking time’ meanthat such speaking tests do not need to take proportionately

longer than the individual format.



examiner may thank they are capable of saying. Prepared

speeches are not acceptable.

Marks are awarded throughout the test according to the

following assessment criteria which together make up the

candidate’s linguistic profile. These criteria should be

interpreted within the overall context of the Cambridge

Common Scale for Speaking (page 52) where CPE is at

Level 5.

Speed and rhythm, choice of structures, general naturalness and clarity.

Control of structures (including tenses, prepositions, etc) to an effective level

of communication.

Stress timing, rhythm and intonation patterns, linking of phrases.

Correct use of consonants and vowels in stressed and unstressed position for

ease of understanding.

Flexibility and linguistic resource in exchange of information and social

interaction.

Variety and correctness of vocabulary in the communicative context.

Where candidates take the test in the paired or group format,

they are assessed on their own individual performance

according to the established criteria and are not assessed in

relation to each other.

Assessment is based on performance in the whole test, and is

not related to performance in particular parts of the test,

Marks are awarded 0-5 on each of the criteria listed above.

After initial training of examiners, standardisation of marking

is maintained by both bi-annual examiner co-ordination

sessions and by monitoring visits to centres by Team Leaders.

During co-ordination sessions, examiners watch and discuss

sample Paper 5 Speaking Tests recorded on video and then

conduct practice tests with volunteer ‘candidates’ in order to

establish a common standard of assessment.

The sample tests on video are selected to demonstrate a

range of task types and different levels of competence, and

are pre-marked by a team of experienced assessors.

In many countries, Oral Examiners are assigned to teams,

each of which is led by a Team Leader who may be

responsible for approximately fifteen Oral Examiners. Team

Leaders give advice and support to Oral Examiners, as

required.

The Team Leaders are responsible to a Senior Team Leader

who is the professional representative of UCLES for the oralexaminations. Senior Team Leaders are appointed by UCLES

and attend an annual co-ordination and development session

in the U.K. Team Leaders are appointed by the Senior Team

Leader in consultation with the local administration.

A S S E S S M E N T A N D M A R K I N G

Throughout the Speaking Test candidates are assessed on

their language skills, not their personality, intelligence or

knowledge of the world. Candidates must, however, be

aware that examiners can only base their assessment on

what they hear and see. Candidates who fail to exploit the

opportunities to show what they are capable of will be

assessed only on what they say and not on what the

1 Fluency

2 Grammatical

Accuracy

3 Pronunciation

(sentences)

4 Pronunciation

(individual sounds)

5 Interactive

Communication

6 Vocabulary

Resource



C O M M O N S C A L E F O R S P E A K I N G

Cambridge

Main Suite

CPE

CAE

FCE

PET

KET

Cambridge Common Scale for Speaking

CAMBRIDGE LEVEL 5

Fully operational command of the spoken language.

Able to handle communication in most situations, including unfamiliar or unexpected ones.

Able to use accurate and appropriate linguistic resources to express complex ideas and concepts and

produce extended discourse that is coherent and always easy to follow.

Rarely produces inaccuracies and inappropriacies.

Pronunciation is easily understood and prosodic features are used effectively; many features including

pausing and hesitation are ‘native-like’.

CAMBRIDGE LEVEL 4

Good operational command of the spoken language.

Able to handle communication in most situations.

Able to use accurate and appropriate linguistic resources to express ideas and produce discourse that is

generally coherent.Occasionally produces inaccuracies and inappropriacies.

Maintains a flow of language with only natural hesitation resulting from considerations of appropriacy

or expression.

L1 accent may be evident but does not affect the clarity of the message.

CAMBRIDGE LEVEL 2 (Threshold)

Limited but effective command of the spoken language.

Able to handle communication in most familiar situations.

Able to construct longer utterances but is not able to use complex language except in well-rehearsed

utterances.

Has problems searching for language resources to express ideas and concepts resulting in pauses and

hesitation.

Pronunciation is generally intelligible, but L1 features may put a strain on the listener.

Has some ability to compensate for communication difficulties using repair strategies but may require

prompting and assistance by an interlocutor.

CAMBRIDGE LEVEL 1 (Waystage)

Basic command of the spoken language.

Able to convey basic meaning in very familiar or highly predictable situations.

Produces utterances which tend to be very short - words or phrases - with frequent hesitations and pauses.

Dependent on rehearsed or formulaic phrases with limited generative capacity.

Only able to produce limited extended discourse.

Pronunciation is heavily influenced by L1 features and may at times be difficult to understand.

Requires prompting and assistance by an interlocutor to prevent communication from breaking down.

Pre-Waystage Level

Zero

CAMBRIDGE LEVEL 3

Generally effective command of the spoken language.

Able to handle communication in familiar situations.

Able to organise extended discourse but occasionally produces utterances that lack coherence and

some inaccuracies and inappropriate usage occur.

Maintains a flow of language, although hesitation may occur whilst searching for language resources.

Although pronunciation is easily understood, L1 features may be intrusive.Does not require major assistance or prompting by an interlocutor.











C O M M O N Q U E S T I O N S A N D A N S W E R S

GENERAL

What is the mark allocation for each paper?

Papers 1, 2, 3 and 5 are weighted at 40 marks; Paper 4

(Listening Comprehension) is weighted at 20 marks.

What is the pass mark?

To pass the examination with Grade C it is necessary to

achieve approximately 60% of the total marks available

(180).

Must candidates achieve a pass on each paper to pass

the examination?

No. Candidates cannot pass or fail any individual paper.

The candidate’s grade is based on their total score from all

five papers. There are no ‘hurdles’ or minimum levels of

achievement required.

Can candidates make notes on the question paper?

Yes, but their notes won’t be marked.

Is the use of dictionaries allowed?

No.

PA P E R 1 R E A D I N G C O M P R E H E N S I O N

What is the mark allocation?

One mark is given for each correct answer in Section A; two

marks are given for each correct answer in Section B. The

total score is then weighted out of a maximum 40 marks for

the whole paper.

If candidates make a mistake in filling in their answer

sheets, is this picked up by the computer?

If they omit a question, the computer accepts the answer

sheet. If they fill in more than one lozenge for a question,

the computer rejects it.

Do questions in the multiple choice task follow the

order of the text?

Yes, with global questions at the end.

P AP ER 2 C OMP OS I T I ON

Do candidates have to write in pen or pencil?

Pen should be used, because compositions written in pencil

may not be very legible.

How long are the set books retained?

They are normally retained for two years.

The set books for June and December 1998are:

E.M. Forster, A Room With a View

Kazuo Ishiguro, The Remains of the Day

P.D. James, A Mind to Murder


E.M. Forster, A Room With a View

Robert Bolt, A Man for All Seasons

Ray Bradbury, Fahrenheit 451


Ray Bradbury, Fahrenheit 451

Robert Bolt, A Man for All Seasons

Susan Hill, I’m the King of the Castle

Refer to the Examination Regulations for up-to-date

information.

P AP ER 3 U S E OF ENGL I S H

If candidates write two possible answers to a question,

how are they marked?

If both are correct, the candidate is awarded the mark(s); if

one is incorrect, no marks are awarded. (This is also the

same for Paper 4.)

What if the answer is right, but a candidate has mis-

spelt it?

In Section A, all spellings must be correct in words which

are directly tested. In Section B, mis-spellings are allowed.

PA P E R 4 L I S T E N I N G C O M P R E H E N S I O N

Is there any background noise on the tape?

Sound effects may be used to ‘set the scene’, but are not

used while there is speech.

Does spelling have to be correct?

Yes.

How do you guarantee that the different versions are all

equal in difficulty?

For security purposes, there are several versions of theListening Test in use at each session. As for the other papers,

the material for the Listening Tests is pretested in advance, in

order to check that it is suitable in terms of content as well

as levels of difficulty. After the examination has been taken,



How do I get my results?

Results are issued to Local Secretaries approximately six

weeks after the examination has been taken. Certificates are

issued about a month after that.

before grading takes place, the Listening Test results are

analysed and the average marks gained by candidates in

each test are compared.

P AP ER 5 I NTERV I EW

How many parts of the test are there?After a brief introductory phase, there are three parts to the

Interview all based around the same theme: the first two

parts are based around photographs and a short passage,

and the third part consists of a communicative activity.

Can candidates take the test on their own?

The test may be taken singly or in pairs, or in a group of

three; the format chosen depends on the local administrative

arrangements. You should contact your Centre for more

details.

Do candidates have to talk about the set texts?

If they wish, candidates may choose to talk about the

background text which they have read. Candidates who

choose this format must inform their local Centre when they

enrol.

Do the reading passages test comprehension?

No. They are designed as a stimulus to expand the theme

set by the photographs.

Does it matter if a candidate uses slang or speaks with a

regional accent?

The use of slang is acceptable provided that it is appropriate

and grammatically correct. Regional accents are also

acceptable so long as they are used consistently.

E N T R I E S & R E S U LT S

What is the date of the CPE examination?

The CPE examination can be taken twice a year, in June and

in December. The dates are published in the Examination

Regulations. Check with your UCLES Local Secretary or

British Council Office.

Where can candidates enrol?

The UCLES Local Secretary or British Council Office can

give you information about Centres where the examination

is taken. You do not need to apply to UCLES directly. Fees

are payable to the local Centre, and will vary slightly from

place to place.



Documents

Cambridge CPE Exam Handbook 1998