BYJU’S IAS PRELIMS TEST SERIES

2021

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ALL INDIA PRELIMS TEST SERIES – 2021

TEST CODE: SEC-ENV-01

ANSWER KEY

1. Answer: (c)

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: CPCB is a statutory body which was established under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. Statement 2 is correct: National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) is implemented by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) in consonance with the section 162 (b) of the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1986. Statement 3 is incorrect: The CPCB can also impose financial penalties on the guilty parties including the municipal corporations who do not follow the rules regarding control of pollution. This body comes under the purview of the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change but the act ensures autonomy in its functions.

2. Answer: (a)

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: The sun is the only source of energy for all ecosystems on Earth except for the deep sea hydro-thermal ecosystem. Statement 2 is correct: Of the total incident solar radiation on earth, about 50 per cent of it is photosynthetically active radiation (PAR). Photosynthetically Active Radiation (PAR) is the amount of light available for photosynthesis, i.e. light in the 400 to 700 nanometer wavelength range.

3. Answer: (a)

Explanation: Gynandromorphism is a rare biological phenomenon, which is characteristic of an organism that has traits of both male and

female tissues. The reason behind this phenomenon is either genetic mutation or chromosomal disorder.

This phenomenon has been spotted in a dragonfly recently in Kole wetlands of Kerala. It is also observed in butterflies, crustaceans and some birds.

4. Answer: (b)

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: Convention of Migratory Species (CMS) is an environmental treaty under the aegis of the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). Statement 2 is correct: It is the only convention that deals with taking or harvesting of species from the wild. It provides a global platform for the conservation and sustainable use of migratory animals and their habitats. Statement 3 is correct: The Thirteenth Meeting of the Conference of the Parties to the Convention was held in Gandhinagar,

India from 15 to 22 February 2020. 5. Answer: (d)

Explanation: Food chains are formed starting from producers (plants) such that an animal feeds on a plant or on another animal and it is inturn, is food for another. Such a chain or web is formed because of this interdependency.

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Statement 1 is correct: The detritus food chain begins with dead organic matter. It is made up of decomposers which are heterotrophic organisms, mainly fungi and bacteria. They meet their energy and nutrient requirements by degrading dead organic matter or detritus. These are also known as saprotrophs (sapro: to decompose). Statement 2 is correct: Each trophic level has a certain mass of living material at a particular time called the standing crop. The standing crop is measured as the

total mass of living organisms (biomass) or the number in an unit area. The biomass of a species is expressed in terms of fresh or dry weight. Measurement of biomass in terms of dry weight is more accurate. Statement 3 is correct: Phytoplanktons are tiny organisms that live in the ocean, which are also autotrophs in the grazing food chain. They produce food on their own using sunlight through the process of photosynthesis.

6. Answer: (b)

Explanation: The Odisha government announced that it will give a facelift to the 11th century Lingaraj Temple, at Bhubaneswar akin to its pre-350-year structural status. Statement 1 is correct: The temple was built in the 11th century by the kings of the Somavamsi dynasty, with later additions were made by the Ganga rulers. Statement 2 is correct: It marks the culmination of the temple architecture of the Kalinga School of Temple Architecture. Statement 3 is incorrect: Lord Shiva is worshipped as Hari-Hara, a combined form of Shaivism and Vaishnavism.

7. Answer: (a)

Explanation: The floating treatment wetland (FTW) is used for cleaning a lake by absorbing nutrients dissolved in the water, such as excess nitrates and oxygen with the help of plants, thereby reducing the content of these chemicals in the lake or a water body. Statement 1 is correct: These wetlands are based on the principle of hydroponics whereby there is no need for soil to support the plant species. Statement 2 is correct: These types of wetlands require building of artificial island structures in order to support the whole ecosystem. These are made with the support of gunny bags, bamboo and Styrofoam. Statement 3 is incorrect: Neknampur lake in Hyderabad, and not Loktak lake in Manipur, is the largest FTW in India.

8. Answer: (c)

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Lichens are composite organisms. They live in a symbiotic relationship emerging between algae and fungi. Statement 2 is incorrect: Lichens grow at an extremely slow rate and live for

centuries. Statement 3 is correct: Forest department of Uttarakhand has developed India’s first lichen park in Munsiyari, Uttarakhand.

9. Answer: (d)

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: National Mission for Sustaining Himalayan Ecosystem was launched in 2010 and was formally approved in 2014 with the mandate to assess the vulnerability of himalayan system, devise and implement policies to protect himalayan ecosystem. It

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is being implemented by the Department of science and technology. Statement 2 is correct: It covers all the seven states of North East along with Sikkim, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, West Bengal and the Union Territories of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh.

10. Answer: (c)

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Pyramid of energy is always upright, and can never be inverted, because when energy flows from a particular trophic level to the next trophic level, some amount of energy is always lost as heat at each step. Statement 2 is incorrect: The pyramid of biomass in the sea is generally inverted

because the biomass of fishes far exceeds that of phytoplankton. Statement 3 is correct: One of the limitations of ecological pyramids is that, Saprophytes are not given any place in ecological pyramids even though they play a vital role in the ecosystem.

11. Answer: (c)

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The conservation centre will be built by the Uttarakhand forest department in Uttarkashi forests as part of its six-year long project, SECURE

Himalayas. Statement 2 is incorrect: It is being built with the help of the United Nations

Development Programme (UNDP) and is funded by the Global Environment Facility. Statement 3 is incorrect: The snow leopard is a Schedule I animal under the Wildlife Protection Act of India and is listed as “vulnerable” by the IUCN red list.

12. Answer: (a)

Explanation: Nitrogen fixation is the process of chemically combining free nitrogen with other elements to form more-reactive nitrogen compounds such as ammonia, nitrates, or nitrites. Statement 1, 3 and 4 are correct: Nitrogen as nitric oxide is fixed, or combined, in nature by lightning and ultraviolet rays. However, this plays a very little role in Nitrogen fixation. Almost 90 % of all nitrogen fixation is caused by soil microorganisms like free living bacteria such as Blue Green algae and symbiotic bacteria such as Rhizobium. They convert free nitrogen to ammonia, nitrites, and nitrates.

Statement 2 and 5 are incorrect: There are some microorganisms which convert the nitrates/nitrites available in the soil to elemental nitrogen. Thus, they are called denitrifying bacteria, for example- some species of Serratia, Pseudomonas, and Achromobacter.

13. Answer: (b)

Explanation: Pair 1 is correctly matched: Core zone is the innermost area of biosphere reserve, where human interference is banned completely. However, non-destructive

research activities are allowed here. Pair 2 is correctly matched: Transition Zone is the outermost zone, where humans are free to perform their activities like agriculture, settlements, ecotourism etc. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Buffer Zone comes next to the core zone, where human interference is allowed up to limited extent, like eco-tourism.

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Figure Source: Science Direct

14. Answer: (d)

Explanation: Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) are toxic substances composed of organic (carbon-based) chemical compounds and mixtures. They include industrial chemicals like PCBs and pesticides like DDT. Statement 1 is correct: They accumulate in the body fat of people, marine mammals, and other animals and are passed from mother to fetus. Thus, they can undergo both biomagnification and bioaccumulation. Statement 2 is correct: They persist in the environment for long and can be transported over long distances. Statement 3 is correct: The Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants will phase out and eliminate the production and use of those chemicals. Starting with 12 initial POPs, this treaty is a living process and new POPs have regularly been listed into its annexes. Presently, there are 26 POPs listed.

15. Answer: (a)

Explanation: In ecology, food chain, in ecology, the sequence of transfers of matter and energy in the form of food from organism to organism. Statement 1 is correct: In Marsh community, the correct sequence of a food chain is Green plant-butterfly-dragonfly-frog.

Statement 2 is incorrect. In aquatic ecosystems, the correct food chain sequence is Phytoplanktons-zooplanktons-small fish or crustaceans- large fish-squid. Statement 3 is incorrect: In the Agro ecosystem, the correct sequence of food chain is Mustard crop-aphid-beetle-bird-predatory bird (hawk).

16. Answer: (c)

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: An important characteristic of all communities is that their composition and structure constantly change in response to the changing environmental conditions. This change is orderly and sequential, parallel with the changes in the physical environment. The gradual and fairly predictable change in the species composition of a given area is called ecological succession. Statement 2 is incorrect: The entire sequence of communities that successively change in a given area is called sere (s). The individual transitional communities are termed seral stages or seral communities. In the successive seral stages, there is a change in the diversity of species of organisms, an increase in the number of species and organisms as well as an increase in the total biomass. Statement 3 is correct: Based on the nature of the habitat, whether it is a wet area or a dry area, a succession of plants is called hydrarch or xerarch, respectively. Hydrarch succession takes place in wetter areas and the successional series progress from hydric to the mesic conditions. As against this, xerarch succession takes place in dry areas and the series progress from xeric to mesic conditions.

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17. Answer: (a)

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The National

Health Authority (NHA), which runs the Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana, would be designing and implementing the NDHM. Statement 2 is incorrect: It is voluntary for citizens to get the Health ID which will contain information regarding disease, medical reports, medicine prescribed and consultant doctor details of a person. Statement 3 is incorrect: In 2020, It is launched by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare in a pilot mode in six

Union territories viz Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Chandigarh, Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman & Diu, Ladakh, Lakshadweep and Puducherry.

18. Answer: (c)

Explanation: The Union Cabinet has approved the creation of a National Recruitment Agency (NRA) for conducting a Common Eligibility Test (CET) for various government jobs. Initially it will conduct the recruitment examinations for Railway Recruitment Boards (RRBs), Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) and Staff Selection Commission (SSC) and later gradually expand to other examinations. Statement 1 is incorrect: It conducts the common eligibility test (CET) for the recruitment to non-gazetted posts (Group B and Group C) in central government and public sector banks. It doesn't conduct any test for recruitment in state government Statement 2 is correct: The exam will be conducted in 12 languages that are in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India. Statement 3 is correct: The CET score of a candidate shall be valid for a period of three years from the date of declaration of the result. The best of the valid scores shall

be deemed to be the current score of the candidate.

19. Answer: (b)

Explanation: Both incineration and pyrolysis are forms of combustion in which the thermal decomposition of matter takes place. They differ from each other based on the requirement of oxygen for the combustion process. The key difference between incineration and pyrolysis is that incineration is the combustion of organic matter in the presence of oxygen whereas pyrolysis is the combustion of organic matter in the absence of oxygen.

20. Answer: (b)

Explanation: Option (a) is incorrect: Gir National Park is home of Asiatic Lions. The kamleshwar dam is located in the Gir National Park. It is the largest deciduous forest in western India. Option (b) is correct: It was established as a wildlife sanctuary in 1981 and has received national park status in 2018. In the 1990s it was considered as a possible site for Asiatic Lions relocation and recently for reintroduction of Cheetah in India. It is located in Madhya Pradesh. Option (c) is incorrect: Vansda National Park is situated in the state of Gujarat. It is located on the banks of Ambika River. Established in 1979 as a National Park, the deciduous forest area having groves of "Katas" bamboo owes its beauty to no felling of trees since 1952. Nestled in the Western Ghats of Sahyadri range, it has a unique flavour of flora and fauna population. Option (d) is incorrect: Maharashtra's oldest and largest National Park, the "Tadoba National Park", lies in the Chandrapur district of Maharashtra state. It includes the Tadoba National Park, created in the year 1955. The Andhari Wildlife Sanctuary was formed in the year 1986 and was amalgamated with the park

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in 1995 to establish the present Tadoba Andhari Tiger Reserve.

21. Answer: (c)

Explanation: Option (a) is incorrect: In Amensalism one species is harmed, the other is unaffected. Option (b) is incorrect: In Neutralism, there is no net benefit or harm to either of the species. Option (c) is correct: In Commensalism: one species benefits, the other is unaffected. Here, the commensal obtains food or other benefits from the host other without either harming or benefiting the latter. In such a relation, the host organism is essentially unchanged by the interaction, but the commensal species may reflect morphological adaptation. In such a relation the host species is often larger than the commensal species. Option (d) is incorrect: In Parasitism, one species gets benefit at the expense of the other, sometimes without killing the host organism.

22. Answer: (a)

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Catalytic converters are fitted into automobiles for reducing emission of poisonous gases. They have expensive metals namely platinum-palladium and rhodium as the catalysts. Statement 2 is correct: As the exhaust passes through the catalytic converter, unburnt hydrocarbons are converted into carbon dioxide and water. Carbon monoxide and nitric oxide are changed to carbon dioxide and nitrogen gas, respectively. Statement 3 is incorrect: Motor vehicles equipped with catalytic converters should use unleaded petrol because lead in the petrol inactivates the catalyst.

23. Answer: (b)

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: The initiative is mooted by Japan as a trilateral approach to trade with India and Australia. Whereas Quad has the USA along with these three nations which is not part of the Supply chain resilience initiative (SCRI). Statement 2 is correct: Supply chain resilience is an approach wherein a country instead of being dependent on just one or a few nations has diversified its supply risk across a range of supplying nations.

24. Answer: (a)

Explanation: Option (a) is correct: A flagship species is a species selected to act as an ambassador, icon or symbol for a defined habitat, issue, campaign or environmental cause. Flagship species may or may not be keystone species and may or may not be good indicators of biological process. Option (b) is incorrect: A keystone species is a species that plays an essential role in the structure, functioning or productivity of a habitat or ecosystem at a defined level. Option (b) is incorrect: Indicator species are plants and animals that, by their presence, abundance, lack of abundance, or chemical composition, demonstrate some aspect of the character or quality of an environment. Option (b) is incorrect: Foundation species define ecosystems, control the biological diversity of associated species, modulate critical ecosystem processes and often have important cultural values and resonance.

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25. Answer: (a)

Explanation: Option (a) is correct: Hexa Chloro Benzene (HCB), Ethylene thiourea (ETU) and Benzo-imidazoles, etc. are examples of Fungicides. Option (b) is incorrect: Bensulfuron, Fluchloralin, Imazamox, Oxadiargyl, etc. are some of the well known herbicides. Option (c) is incorrect: Benzene hexachloride, Chemosterilant, DDT, etc. are examples of pesticides. Option (d) is incorrect: Pyrethrum and Malathion are examples of fumigants.

26. Answer: (a)

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: Project Lion was launched to protect Asiatic lions whose last remaining wild population is in the Landscape of Gujarat. It seeks to create free ranging lion populations within Gujarat and in India to counter lack of genetic diversity within Asiatic lions. Statement 2 is correct: Six location have been identified for relocation of the lions which includes:

Madhav National Park, Madhya Pradesh.

Sitamata Wildlife Sanctuary, Rajasthan.

Mukundra Hills Tiger Reserve, Rajasthan.

Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary, Madhya Pradesh.

Kumbhalgarh Wildlife Sanctuary, Rajasthan.

Jessore-Balaram Ambaji WLS and adjoining landscape, Gujarat.

27. Answer: (a)

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: The Government of India set up the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) under the provisions of the Energy Conservation Act, 2001. Statement 2 is incorrect: It works under the Ministry of Power. Statement 3 is correct: The mission of the Bureau of Energy Efficiency is to assist in developing policies and strategies with a thrust on self-regulation and market principles, within the overall framework of the Energy Conservation Act, 2001 with the primary objective of reducing energy intensity of the Indian economy.

28. Answer: (c)

Explanation: Biomagnification refers to the ability of living organisms to accumulate certain chemicals in large concentrations. Statement 1 is incorrect: In order for biomagnification to occur, the pollutants should be soluble in fat and not in water because if they will be soluble in water, then it will be excreted by the organism. Statement 2 is correct: Pollutant can be both biologically active or inactive for the occurrence of biomagnification. The difference is if a pollutant is not active biologically, although it may biomagnify, it will not create any harm. If it is biologically active, it will harm living organisms. Statement 3 is incorrect: In order for biomagnification to occur, the pollutants must be long-lived because if a pollutant is short-lived, it will be broken down before it can become dangerous. Statement 4 is correct: In order for biomagnification to occur, the pollutants must be mobile because if they are not mobile, it will stay in one place and is unlikely to be taken up by organisms.

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29. Answer: (a)

Explanation: Export Preparedness Index 2020 has been released by the NITI Aayog in partnership with the Institute of Competitiveness.

The structure of the EPI:

4 pillars –Policy; Business Ecosystem; Export Ecosystem; Export Performance.

11 sub-pillars –Export Promotion Policy; Institutional Framework; Business Environment; Infrastructure; Transport Connectivity; Access to Finance; Export Infrastructure; Trade Support; R&D Infrastructure; Export Diversification; and Growth Orientation.

Key findings of the report:

Gujarat has topped the Export Preparedness Index 2020 followed by Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu.

The other states that have made it to the top 10 include Rajasthan, Odisha, Telangana, Haryana, Chhattisgarh, Karnataka and Kerala.

On the whole, India has scored an average of 39 on the index.

30. Answer: (b)

Explanation: Minimum tillage involves soil disturbance, to a much lesser extent than that associated with conventional tillage. It is aimed at reducing tillage to the minimum necessary for ensuring a good seedbed, rapid germination, a satisfactory stand and favourable growing conditions.

Advantages of minimum tillage:

Improved soil conditions due to decomposition of plant residues in situ.

Higher infiltration caused by the vegetation present on the soil and the decomposition of dead roots.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Less resistance to root growth due to improved structure.

Less soil compaction by the reduced movement of heavy tillage vehicles

and less soil erosion compared to conventional tillage.

Disadvantages of minimum tillage:

Statement 1 is correct: Sowing operations are difficult with ordinary equipment.

Statement 2 is correct: Seed germination is lower with minimum tillage.

Statement 4 is correct: Continuous use of herbicides because of perennial weeds.

In minimum tillage, more nitrogen has to be added as the rate of decomposition of organic matter is slow.

31. Answer: (b)

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Black carbon is a solid particle or an aerosol. It is the strongest absorber of the sunlight and it directly heats the air.

Statement 2 is incorrect: They do not stay in the air for a longer period of time but instead remain just for several days to week. Statement 3 is correct: Project Surya is aimed at reducing the level of black carbon in the atmosphere.

32. Answer: (a)

Explanation: The Bonn Challenge is a global effort to restore 150 million hectares of the world's degraded and deforested lands by 2020 and 350 million hectares by 2030. It is overseen by the Global Partnership on Forest Landscape Restoration, with the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) as its Secretariat.

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33. Answer: (a)

Explanation: Biome refers to the community of plants and animals that occur naturally in an area, often sharing common characteristics specific to that area. The terrestrial part of the biosphere is divisible into enormous regions called biomes, which are characterized by climate, vegetation, animal life and general soil type. Aquatic systems are not called biomes, however they are divided into distinct life zones, with regions of relatively distinct plant and animal life. Estuaries and Mangrove are examples of aquatic systems. Grassland and desert are examples of biomes.

34. Answer: (b)

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Biomanipulation is the deliberate alteration of an ecosystem by adding or removing species, especially predators to the food web. It will restore the ecosystem by eating excess algae produced due to algal bloom. Statement 2 is correct: Aeration is exposure to air or supplied with air. It improves dissolved oxygen content. It helps in the restoration of an eutrophicated water body.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Internal loading refers to release of nutrients like phosphorus and nitrogen from sediments from the bottom of the water body. It will increase the rate of Eutrophication. Statement 4 is incorrect: Anoxic zone is a zone with lack of adequate dissolved oxygen, it leads to hypoxic condition which increases the rate of

Eutrophication process.

35. Answer: (a)

Explanation: Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: Blackbuck National Park is located in the Gulf of Khambhat. Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Indian Wild Ass Sanctuary is situated in the Gulf of

Kachchh. Pair 3 is correctly matched: Marine National Park is situated in the Gulf of

Kachchh. 36. Answer: (c)

Explanation: The animals living in a desert environment have adapted their bodies and lifestyle in order to adapt to a warm and hot environment. They are mostly nocturnal, which ensures that they avoid the heat of the sun. Statement 1 is incorrect: These animals have long legs and are swift runners which ensures that their body is not touching the ground surface, which is hot. Statement 2 is correct: These animals excrete concentrated urine so that no amount of water is wasted through it. Some animals do not excrete for days in order to retain the maximum amount of water. Statement 3 is correct: These animals typically exhibit a large ear in order to facilitate heat exchange. The ear is filled with capillaries with an increasing density as a result of which the blood flowing in that area gets naturally cooled. Hence it is known as an animal's own thermoregulator.

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37. Answer: (d)

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: BOD is the amount of dissolved oxygen needed by bacteria in decomposing the organic wastes present in water. Since BOD does not include inorganic wastes, it is not a reliable method of measuring water pollution. Statement 2 is incorrect: COD is a slightly better method used to measure pollution load in water. It is the measure of oxygen equivalent to the requirement of oxidation of total organic matter (i.e. biodegradable and non-biodegradable) present in water.

38. Answer: (b)

Explanation: The snow leopard range countries and partners agreed to the shared goal of the Global Snow Leopard and Ecosystem Protection Program (GSLEP) for the seven years through 2020. The countries agreed to work together to figure out and secure at least 20 snow leopard landscapes across the cat’s range by 2020 or, in short– “Secure 20 by 2020.” Secure snow leopard landscapes are defined as those which contain at least 100

breeding age snow leopards who are conserved with the involvement of local communities.

39. Answer: (c)

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: Banni grassland lies in the Rann of Kutch, Gujarat, and not in North-western part of Rajasthan. Statement 2 is correct: Banni is an arid grassland system, which is saline. Statement 3 is correct: Because of salinity, it is not suitable for agriculture, but fertile

for some grasses. It is home to a centuries-old pastoral community, the Maldharis and supports their livestock.

40. Answer: (a)

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: The ‘Aichi

Targets’ were adopted by the Convention

on Biological Diversity (CBD) at its Nagoya conference. It is a short term plan that provides a set of 20 ambitious yet achievable targets, collectively known as the Aichi Targets. Statement 2 is correct: Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) Global Biodiversity Outlook report said, “At the global level, none of the 20 targets have

been fully achieved, though six targets have been partially achieved.”

41. Answer: (d)

Explanation: Bharat stage emission standards (BSES) are emission standards instituted by the Government of India to regulate the output of air pollutants from motor vehicles. The standards and the timeline for implementation are set by the Central

Pollution Control Board under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. Statement 1 is correct: The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways has authorized the International Centre for

Automotive Technology (ICAT) as premier testing and certifying agency. Statement 2 is correct: BS-VI allows a maximum sulphur content of 10 ppm as

compared to 50 ppm under BS-IV.

Similarly, the nitrogen oxide emissions will be brought down by 70% for diesel and 25% for petrol engines. Statement 3 is correct: The Ministry of

Road Transport & Highways has exempted the armoured and other specialized vehicles of Indian army and paramilitary forces from BS-VI norms.

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42. Answer: (a)

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Kelp are not plants, but rather extremely large brown algae which thrive in cold waters. They grow in dense populations much like a forest on land. These underwater towers of Kelps provide food and shelter for thousands of fish, invertebrates, etc. Statement 2 is correct: Kelp forests require shallow, relatively clear water. Therefore, they are always found close to shores.

Source - Norwegian Blue Forests

Network

Statement 3 is incorrect: Large gatherings of sea urchins (a primary herbivore in kelp forests) can prevent kelp plants from growing large enough to form forests. Sea

urchins can destroy entire kelp forests at a rate of 30 feet (9 m) per month by moving in herds. Sea otters play a key role in stabilizing sea urchin populations so that kelp forests may thrive.

43. Answer: (d)

Explanation: Mutualism is a biological interaction between two or more species where each species has a net benefit. Statement 1 is correct: Tube worms host chemosynthetic bacteria inside their bodies and use the products produced by these organisms to survive. The bacteria gets safety from predators and is provided with food by the tube worm circulation system. The tube worm absorbs the readily available oxygen, carbon dioxide and hydrogen sulphide, which the

microbes then convert to organic compounds for it to use. Statement 2 is correct: Alichen is an organism that results from a mutualistic relationship between a fungus and a photosynthetic organism. The other organism is usually a cyanobacterium or green algae. Statement 3 is correct: Garra-Rufa and humans have a mutualistic relationship. Garra-Rufa cleans the dead skin cell and stimulates the new skin growth. It helps in beautifying the human skin. In return, Garra-Rufa gets the food in the form of a dead skin cell. Statement 4 is correct: The corals and zooxanthellae algae have a mutualistic relationship. The coral provides the algae with a protected environment and compounds they need for photosynthesis. In return, the algae produce oxygen and help the coral to remove wastes.

44. Answer: (a)

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: GRIHA is a Sanskrit word meaning – ‘Abode’. It has been developed by TERI and MNRE. It aims to evaluate the ‘greenness’ of a building. Statement 2 is incorrect: GRIHA Council has developed the Building Fitness Indicator (BFI) tool – a free-to-use self-assessment tool that allows organizations to measure the preparedness of their workplaces to prevent exposure to COVID-19.

45. Answer: (a)

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: CITES was adopted in 1963 at a meeting of members of the IUCN (International Union for

Conservation of Nature). The CITES

Secretariat is administered by UNEP.

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Statement 2 is incorrect: The Conference

of the Parties to CITES, is the supreme decision-making body of the Convention and comprises all its parties. CITES Secretariat provides only an advisory role. It is located in Geneva, Switzerland. Statement 3 is correct: CITES is legally

binding on State Parties to the Convention that are obliged to follow their own domestic legislation.

46. Answer: (d)

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Ozone gas can be found in the Stratosphere and

Troposphere. Tropospheric Ozone is harmful to plants and animals and is a pollutant, whereas stratospheric Ozone is good and acts as a shield against harmful ultraviolet radiation from the sun. Statement 2 is correct: The thickness of the ozone is measured in terms of Dobson units (DU). Statement 3 is correct: UV rays convert molecular oxygen into Ozone and deplete it into molecular oxygen in the stratosphere. There is a balance between production and depletion of ozone in the stratosphere. If this balance is disrupted it leads to Ozone hole formation.

47. Answer: (b)

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: Gaur occurs throughout the mainland of South and Southeast Asia, including Vietnam, Cambodia, Laos, Thailand, Peninsular Malaysia, Myanmar, India, Bangladesh, Bhutan, China and Nepal. Hence it is not

endemic to India.

Statement 2 is correct: Indian Gaur is the state animal of Goa. Statement 3 is correct: It is listed under Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) Appendix I. Statement 4 is correct: It is classified as vulnerable in the IUCN Red List. It is also listed in the Schedule I of the Wild Life Protection Act, 1972.

48. Answer: (c)

Explanation: Mangroves are a group of trees and shrubs that live in the coastal intertidal zone. Statement 1 is correct: The leaves of these mangroves have salt secreting glands which push out excess amounts of salts from the system. These salts can often be found in the form of crystals deposited on the leaves. This helps them in coping with the saline environment. Statement 2 is incorrect: The roots of many of the mangrove plants themselves filter out the salts so that the water intake by these plants is not saline. Statement 3 is correct: As they grow in an aquatic environment, these plants have lenticellated barks. Lenticel is a spongy area in the bark of a woody plant, serving as a pore to permit the exchange of gases between the stem and the atmosphere. Statement 4 is incorrect: Mangroves help filter out contaminants from the ecosystem including heavy metals and act as a sink thus keeping the coastal environment clean.

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49. Answer: (b)

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Inside the trunk of a tree, there are a number of growth rings called annual rings. They are used to determine the age of a tree. This technique is called dendrochronology. Statement 2 is correct: Pith is a tiny dark spot of living cells, present at the centre of the trunk of a tree. It carries essential nutrients to the tree. Statement 3 is incorrect: Phloem is the inner layer of bark, which acts as a food supply line from the leaves to the rest of the tree. It carries sap (sugar and nutrients dissolved in water). However, being an inner layer of the bark, it is made up of

living cells. The outer layer of the bark is made up of dead cells.

50. Answer: (d)

Explanation: The GEF serves as the financial mechanism for the following conventions:

Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)

United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)

Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs)

UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD)

Minamata Convention on Mercury

The GEF, although not linked formally to the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer, supports implementation of the Protocol in transition economies.

51. Answer: (a)

Explanation: Pair 1 is correctly matched: Neuston are unattached organisms which live at the air water interface such as floating plants like water lilies or insects like beetles.

Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Nekton are animals which are swimmers. They are comparatively large and powerful as they have to overcome the water currents. While organisms which are found living in the bottom of the water mass are called Benthos or benthic organisms. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Plankton includes both microscopic plants like algae (phytoplankton) and animals like crustaceans and protozoans (zooplankton) found in all aquatic ecosystems, except certain swift moving waters.

52. Answer: (c)

Explanation: Option (a) is incorrect: Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory (LIGO) is an experiment and observatory to detect cosmic gravitational

waves. Option (b) is incorrect: Large Hadron Collider (LHC) is the world's largest and highest-energy particle collider used for

studying particle physics. Option (c) is correct: International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor (ITER) is the largest plasma-based nuclear

fusion reactor to maintain fusion for long periods of time. Option (d) is incorrect: Synchrotron-Light for Experimental Science and Applications in the Middle East (SESAME) is an independent laboratory constructed in Jordon to promote peace between Middle

Eastern countries. 53. Answer: (d)

Explanation: Pair 1 is correctly matched: Aestivation or “summer sleep”, is to lower the metabolic process by the animals during summers. It occurs in animals living in deserts and tropical regions to protect themselves from hot and dry climate and the scarcity of food and water. These animals look for a moist, cool and shady place to sleep and to prevent excessive water loss and

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internal body damage due to high temperatures. Aestivation takes place in cold-blooded animals like snails, earthworms, frogs, etc.

Pair 2 is correctly matched: Hibernation is the condition in which the animals go dormant during winters by lowering their metabolic activities. These animals eat a lot of food and store it in the form of excess fat to combat the problem of food shortage during hibernation. These animals look for a warm place to sleep to prevent any internal body damage due to low temperatures. Hibernation takes place in warm and cold-blooded animals like bats, mammals, birds, etc. Pair 3 is correctly matched: Diapause is a state of temporary dormancy marked by the pause in the growth and development of an organism, mostly in insects. It takes place both in summer and winter. It is marked as a dormant stage in the nourishment and development of an organism. The diapause is seen in monarch butterflies and in the embryos of many oviparous species of fishes.

54. Answer: (b)

Explanation: Prior Informed Consent procedure is a mechanism for formally obtaining and disseminating the decisions of importing Parties as to whether they wish to receive future shipments of hazardous chemicals and wastes and for ensuring compliance with these decisions by exporting Parties. Option (a) is incorrect: The Basel Convention sets out a detailed PIC procedure with strict requirements for transboundary movements of hazardous wastes and other wastes. Option (b) is correct: The Vienna Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer and its Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer are dedicated to the protection of the earth’s ozone layer. It does not contain PIC procedure.

Option (c) is incorrect: The Rotterdam Convention establishes a PIC procedure to ensure that restricted hazardous chemicals are not exported to countries that do not wish to receive them. Option (d) is incorrect: Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants sets out a PIC procedure for Parties to follow if export of chemicals listed in Annexes A and B is to take place.

55. Answer: (d)

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: The red mangroves are distributed in estuarine ecosystems throughout the tropics and they are found along the coasts. They have aerial prop roots, which arch above the water level. Statement 2 is incorrect: White mangroves have grey colour bark. As compared to Red and Black mangroves they grow at the higher elevations. Statement 3 is correct: Black mangroves have dark bark. They have access to more

oxygen and their seeds do not grow in the water. Hence, Black Mangroves are usually found higher up the shore than Red Mangroves.

56. Answer: (b)

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: Agriculture Infrastructure Fund is a Central Sector

Scheme, under the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare. Statement 2 is correct: It provides medium - long term debt financing facility through interest subvention and credit guarantee. All loans under this financing facility will have interest subvention of 3% per annum up to a limit of Rs. 2 crore. Credit guarantee coverage will be available for eligible borrowers from this financing facility under Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises (CGTMSE) scheme for a loan up to Rs. 2 crore.

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Statement 3 is correct: The beneficiaries include farmers, Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS), Farmer Producers Organizations (FPOs), Agri-entrepreneurs, Startups, Central/State agency or Local Body sponsored Public-Private Partnership Projects etc. Hence it includes both individuals and associations.

57. Answer: (d)

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: E- waste management in India covers both the

electronic and electrical wastes. Statement 2 is incorrect: Under E-waste management rules, 2016, there is an exemption provided to the micro industries from the Extended Producer Responsibility.

58. Answer: (b)

Explanation: The EPI takes into account two fundamental dimensions of sustainable development: 1. Environmental health, which rises

with economic growth and prosperity, and

2. Ecosystem vitality, which comes under strain from industrialization and urbanization.

Statement 1 is correct: The index is a measure of the environmental health which includes the air and water pollution levels in the country along with parameters for ecological vitality measuring the sustainability of the different ecosystems from forests to marine. Statement 2 is incorrect: It is a biennial report brought out by Yale University along with Columbia University, working in tandem with the World

Economic Forum.

59. Answer: (a)

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Emission Gap which is also known as the Commitment gap measures the gap between what we need to do and what we are doing to tackle climate change. It measures the pace at which emissions must be reduced to reach an emission low that would limit the temperature increase to 1.5°C. G20 nations as a whole account for 78 percent of all global greenhouse gas emissions. Statement 2 is incorrect: India is not the

only country, but one among the nine

countries who are expected to meet their pledges.

60. Answer: (b)

Explanation:

Recently, UAE and Israel signed a US-brokered agreement that has come to be known as the ‘Abraham Accord’ that aims to establish formal relations between the two countries.

The United Arab Emirates is situated in the Middle East, bordering Persian Gulf and Gulf of Oman.

Figure: Map of Gulf countries.

Source: https: //culturalroots.weebly.com/middle-east-

and-uae.html

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61. Answer: (d)

Explanation:

Red tide occurs in coastal waters due to the growth of red algae imparting a reddish hue to the tides. Statement 1 is incorrect: The tides are not

latitude specific but are area specific i.e they depend upon the amount of coastal pollution. Statement 2 is incorrect: These tides emit

toxic gases into the atmosphere, thus they pollute the atmosphere. Statement 3 is incorrect: These tides have got nothing to do with the lunar and solar cycles. Statement 4 is incorrect:: Due to red algal bloom the dissolved oxygen content in the water significantly reduces, thus it is a disaster for marine animals. It does not

help in reproductive cycles in marine animals.

62. Answer: (b)

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Based on the PM 2.5 and PM 10 levels categories namely, Moderate to Poor, Very Poor, Severe and Severe+ or Emergency have been added in the Graded Response Action Plan. Statements2 is incorrect: Respective State Pollution Control Boards and Municipal corporations are the implementing agencies. Statement 3 is incorrect: It is applicable only to the National Capital Region. Cities are declared non-attainment if over a 5-year period they consistently do not meet the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) for PM 10 (Particulate matter that is 10 microns or less in diameter) or NO2 (Nitrogen Dioxide).

63. Answer: (d)

Explanation: National tribunal Act, 2010 brings the following scats under the jurisdiction of the NGT

Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974

Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981

Environment (Protection) Act, 1986

The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991

Forest Conservation Act, 1980

Biological Diversity Act, 2002

Thus, the Forest rights act does not come

under the jurisdiction of NGT. 64. Answer: (d)

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: The State government of Tamil Nadu recently notified the Tamil Nadu Protected Agricultural Zone Development Rules, 2020 the objectives to use the available agricultural lands for sustainable development of agriculture and ensure that the agricultural activities were not unduly constrained by non-agricultural use or other development objectives. Statement 2, 3 is incorrect: Only new projects are prohibited under the act, while pre-existing hydrocarbon extraction projects in the zone are allowed.

65. Answer: (b)

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: Located in the eastern part of Union Territory of Ladakh. Hemis National Park has the distinction of being the largest national park in India. The park is a protected home for endangered mammals like leopards, Asiatic ibex, Tibetan wolf, the Eurasian brown bear and the red fox. Statement 2 is incorrect: Six villages exist within the confines of the park. The villages – Rumbak, Kaya, Sku, Shingo,

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Urutse and Chilling are home to about 1600 people. Several gompas and chortens are also located within the park. The 400-year-old Hemis Monastery is also located within the park which is revered as the largest monastic institution in Ladakh.

Statement 3 is correct: Hemis National Park has the distinction of being the only national park in India situated north of the Himalayas.

Figure: Map of Hemis National Park.

Source: sites.google.com

Statement 4 is incorrect: Hemis National park is not a natural habitat of Kashmir Stag. It can be found in Dachigam National Park in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.

66. Answer: (d)

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: It is being set up under the Prevention of Cruelty to

animals act, 1960 and not wildlife protection Act. It is aimed at studying the existing laws to prevent the cruelty against animals and suggest necessary amendments to these actas. Statement 2 is correct: Shrimati Rukhamni Devi Arundale was behind the setting up of the Animal welfare board of India. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying is the nodal agency. The board works under its administrative guidance.

67. Answer: (c)

Explanation: Extended Producer’s Responsibility means the responsibility of a producer for the environmentally sound management of the product until the end of its life. Statements 2 and 3 are correct: The E-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011 introduced the concept of EPR for the first time in India, while the E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2016 brought more stringent targets for collection of end-of-life products and simplified the process of applying for EPR authorisation. In 2016 Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) was introduced into the Plastic

Waste Management Rules, 2016. Statements 1 and 4 are incorrect: There is no provision related to Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) in Hazardous and Other Wastes (Management and Transboundary Movement) Rules, 2016 and Bio-Medical Waste Management Rules, 2016.

68. Answer: (d)

Explanation: NITI Aayog launched the India component of the Nationally Determined Contributions (NDC) – Transport Initiative for Asia (TIA). Statement 1 is incorrect: The NDC Transport Initiative for Asia (NDC-TIA) is a joint program of the World Resource

Initiative and eight other organizations that looks to enhance low carbon transport ambition and decarbonization targets in Asia. Statement 2 is incorrect: It is not a connectivity project. It is a regional initiative aimed at a holistic approach to decarbonize the transport sector in China, India, Vietnam, and further Asian countries.

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Statement 3 is incorrect: The implementing partner in India for the project is NITI Aayog.

69. Answer: (d)

Explanation: Option (a) is incorrect: Emission Reduction Units (ERUs) are a Kyoto Protocol unit equal to 1 metric ton of CO2 equivalent. It is generated as a unit for carbon trading, but it is not referred to as ‘Hot Air’. Option (b) is incorrect: Greenhouse gas emission due to waste produced or loss occurred during the production, storage or transportof fuel are called fugitive fuel

emissions, and not ‘Hot AIr’. Option (c) is incorrect: The atmospheric gases that cause global warming or climate change such as carbon dioxide and methane are called Greenhouse gas and not ‘Hot Air’. Option (d) is correct: The carbon credits resulting from the carbon market design problems are called “Hot Air'' because they do not represent real emission reductions. If used by countries to count towards mitigation pledges, they increase overall emissions. Under the Kyoto Protocol, carbon markets have created an 11 gigatonne “Hot Air”.

70. Answer: (d)

Explanation: Phytoremediation is a bioremediation process that uses various types of plants to remove, transfer, stabilize, and/or destroy contaminants in the soil and groundwater. Pair 1 is correctly matched: Phyto-stablisation: A process that reduces the

mobility of substances in the environment, for example, by limiting the leaching of substances from the soil. Pair 2 is correctly matched: Phyto-accumulation: A process where plant

roots absorb the contaminants along with other nutrients and water.

Pair 3 is correctly matched: Phyto-stimulation: A process of enhancement of

soil microbial activity for the degradation of organic contaminants.

71. Answer: (a)

Explanation: Invasive alien species (IAS) are species whose introduction and/or spread outside their natural past or present distribution threatens biological diversity. Statement 1 is correct: In the short run, the invasive species add to the species richness as new species are added to the ecosystem. However, in the long run, it will reduce species richness as the invasive species do not have natural predators and compete with the native species for resources. Statement 2 is incorrect: There is competition among invasive alien species and native species for water, sunlight and food. So there is no mutual cooperation between invasive and native species. Statement 3 is correct: Islands are especially vulnerable to IAS because they are naturally isolated from strong competitors and predators. Islands often have ecological niches that have not been filled because of the distance from colonizing populations, increasing the probability of successful invasions.

72. Answer: (d)

Explanation: Recently, European Space Agency (ESA) has updated the development of South Atlantic Anomaly (SAA) and it has dropped in strength by over 8 per cent between 1970 and 2020. Statement 1 is correct: The South Atlantic Anomaly is the weakening of the Earth’s magnetic field between Africa and South America.

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Figure: Location of South Atlantic

Anomaly Source: www.esa.int

Statement 2 is correct: Recent observations and forecasts show that the region is expanding westward and continues to weaken in intensity. Statement 3 is correct: SAA creates no visible impacts on daily life on the surface. The region can be hazardous for low-Earth orbit satellites that travel through it.

73. Answer: (d)

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: Both Lentic and Lotic ecosystems are freshwater ecosystems. Statement 2 is incorrect: Lentic ecosystems are not marshy or swampy areas. Lentic ecosystems include standing

water habitats. The ecosystems with marshy or swampy areas are called wetlands. Wetland ecosystems have high diversity as compared to lotic and lentic ecosystems. Statement 3 is incorrect: Lotic ecosystems refer to the ecosystems having rapidly flowing waters moving unidirectionally, such as rivers and streams, whereas still water habitats like ponds and lakes are included under lentic water ecosystems.

74. Answer: (b)

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: In Africa, southern white rhinos, once thought to be extinct, now thrive in protected sanctuaries and are classified as near threatened. Statement 2 is correct: Indian Rhinoceros is listed as vulnerable on the IUCN Red List, as their populations are fragmented and restricted to less than 20,000 km2.

75. Answer: (c)

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Photochemical smog is formed by the reactions between nitrogen oxides (NOX) and volatile organic Compounds (VOCs) in the presence of sunlight. Statement 2 is incorrect: These reactions happen in the presence of sunlight. Therefore a long and cold night is an ideal condition for formation of photochemical smog. Statement 3 is correct: It contains anthropogenic air pollutants, mainly ozone, nitric acid, and organic compounds.

76. Answer: (d)

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: Pulikali dance is a part of Onam celebrations in Thrissur, Kerala. Statement 2 is correct: It is also known as Tiger dance. The artists wear a tiger mask, paint their bodies like tigers. Statement 3 is correct: It was introduced by Sakthan Thampuran, the ruler of Cochin, over two centuries ago as a street art form.

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77. Answer: (d)

Explanation: Pair 1 is correct: Bhagwan Mahavir Sanctuary is the home of nomadic buffalo herders known as Dhangar. Pair 2 is correct: Maldhari Tribe lives near the Gir National park and helps in the protection of Asiatic Lions. Pair 3 is correct: Baiga Tribe lives near Kanha National Park. The Kabirdham District Mineral Foundation Trust's in Chhattisgarh has taken an initiative to recruit educated Baiga youth as teachers.

78. Answer: (d)

Explanation: Pollutants that are emitted into the environment from a source are called primary pollutants. A secondary pollutant is not directly emitted as such, but forms when other pollutants (primary pollutants) react in the atmosphere. Statement 1 is correct: Tropospheric ozone (O3) is not emitted directly from anthropogenic sources. It is a secondary pollutant formed by a complicated series of chemical reactions in the presence of sunlight. Statement 2 is correct: Photochemical smog is formed by a complex series of chemical reactions involving sunlight, oxides of nitrogen, and volatile organic compounds. Hence, it is a secondary pollutant. Statement 3 is correct: Nitrogen dioxide is formed as NO combines with oxygen in the air. Hence, it is a secondary pollutant.

79. Answer: (c)

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Unlike tropical corals, cold-water corals don't have symbiotic algae living in their polyps so they don’t need sunlight to survive. They feed solely by capturing food particles from the surrounding water. Statement 2 is correct: As per the United Nation Environment Programme (UNEP) report, there are more cold reefs worldwide than tropical reefs.

80. Answer: (a)

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: It entered into force in 1996 and is part of UNEP’s Regional Seas Programme. It is a partnership between governments, civil society and the private sector. Statement 2 is incorrect: Parties to the Convention: Comoros, France, Kenya, Madagascar, Mauritius, Mozambique, Seychelles, Somalia, Tanzania and the Republic of South Africa.

81. Answer: (a)

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Act provides for the protection of wild and domesticated animals, birds & plants. Statement 2 is incorrect: Schedule I and part II of Schedule II of the acts providing absolute protection. Hunting of wild

animals is permitted in certain cases. The Chief WildLife Warden may permit any person to hunt, if any wild animal specified in Schedule I has become dangerous to human life or is so disabled or diseased as to be beyond recovery. Statement 3 is incorrect: The plants in Schedule VI are not prohibited from cultivation and planting. A person can cultivate these plants with a proper licence granted by the authorities.

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82. Answer: (a)

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Nationally determined contributions or Intended

Nationally determined contributions (INDCs) are at the heart of the Paris Agreement and the long-term goals to be achieved by it. It embodies voluntary efforts by each country to reduce emissions and adapt to the impacts of climate change. Statement 2 is incorrect: INDCs are to be submitted every five years to the UNFCCC secretariat, and not in every CoP, as it takes place annually. The Paris Agreement also provides that successive INDCs should be in progression as compared to the previous INDC. The first round of INDCs has to be submitted by 2020, and thereafter in every 5 years.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The countries are not legally bound to achieve the INDCs submitted by them. However, they are legally bound to allow technical experts to track their progress, assess achievements and determine ways to strengthen ambition.

83. Answer: (a)

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Habitat of the Great Indian Bustard ranges from arid, semi-arid grasslands to open thorny scrubs. Statement 2 is incorrect: It is the state bird of Rajasthan. Statement 3 is correct: It is protected under Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Statement 4 is correct: IUCN status of the Great Indian Bustard is critically

endangered.

84. Answer: (b)

Explanation: Researchers at the Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS), Hyderabad have found a better way to forecast waves based on Boreal Summer IntraSeasonal Oscillation (BSISO). Statement (a) is incorrect: BSISO is the transfer of heat from Indian Ocean to

western Pacific Ocean roughly every 10-50 days during the monsoon (June-September). Statement (b) is correct: It represents the monsoon’s active and break periods, in which weeks of heavy rainfall give way to brilliant sunshine before starting all over again. Statement (c) is incorrect: The active phase enhances monsoon winds. Statement (d) is incorrect: It is one of the most prominent sources of short-term

climate variability in the global monsoon system.

85. Answer: (c)

Explanation: An indicator species is a species or group of species chosen as an indicator of, or proxy for, the state of an ecosystem or of a certain process within that ecosystem. Statements 1 and 3 are correct: Examples include crayfish as indicators of freshwater quality; corals as indicators of marine processes such as siltation, seawater rise and sea temperature fluctuation; peregrine falcons as an indicator of pesticide loads and lichens can be used as air pollution indicators, especially of the concentration of sulphur dioxide in the atmosphere. Statement 2 is incorrect: Tiger is a top predator which is at the apex of the food chain and keeps the population of wild ungulates in check, thereby maintaining the balance between prey herbivores and the vegetation upon which they feed, hence it is a keystone species not indicator species.

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86. Answer: (d)

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Blue baby syndrome is a disorder where the skin of a baby turns blue, also known as infant methemoglobinemia. Water contaminated

with nitrates is the most common cause of blue-baby syndrome. Statement 2 is correct: Blackfoot disease (BFD) is a serious type of peripheral vascular disease (PVD) that causes extensive damage to the blood vessels in the lower limbs, ultimately leading to progressive gangrene. Long-term exposure to arsenic is correlated with it. Statement 3 is correct: Byssinosis is a rare lung disease. It is caused by inhaling hemp, flax, and cotton particles. It is sometimes referred to as brown lung

disease. It's a form of occupational asthma.

Statement 4 is correct: Leukemia is a type of blood cancer usually associated with exposure to benzene vapors (through inhalation).

87. Answer: (a)

Explanation: Option (a) is correct: Valmiki tiger reserve forms the eastern most limit of the Himalayan Terai forests in India. The Gandak River forms the western boundary of the Tiger Reserve. Barking Deer, Sambhar and flying Squirrels are the important animals of this tiger reserve. Option (b) is incorrect: Pilibhit Tiger Reserve is located in Pilibhit district, Lakhimpur Kheri District and Bahraich District of Uttar Pradesh. Pilibhit Tiger Reserve is located in the west of the Terai region and Gandak River. Thus, the Gandak River cannot form the western boundary of this Tiger Reserve, nor this reserve can form the eastern most limit of the Himalayan Terai forests.

Option (c) is incorrect: Buxa Tiger Reserve is located at the north eastern corner of West Bengal at the foothill of lower Himalayas. The Gandak River doesn’t form the western boundary of this Tiger Reserve, nor does this reserve form the eastern most limit of the Himalayan Terai forests. Option (d) is incorrect: Palamu tiger reserve is located in the state of Jharkhand, India. It forms part of Betla National Park and Palamau Wildlife Sanctuary. It is not near the Terai region.

88. Answer: (a)

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Recently, Tonga formally ratified the ILO Convention No 182. This marks a historic event as it is the first time for an International Labour Convention to be ratified by all member states. This marks the first universal ratification of a global labour standard. Statement 2 is incorrect: Under Convention No 182, a country commits itself to taking immediate action to prohibit and eliminate the worst forms of child labour.

89. Answer: (b)

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: In the atmosphere, these particles are mainly situated in the low layers of the atmosphere (< 1.5 km) since aerosol sources are located on the terrestrial surface. However, certain aerosols can still be found in the

stratosphere, especially volcanic aerosols

ejected into the high altitude layers. Statement 2 is correct: Aerosols interact with the Earth's radiation budget directly, as they scatter sunlight directly back into space, which results in cooling of the earth’s surface and reduction in global

warming. Statement 3 is incorrect: Ground level ozone is formed due to the interaction of nitrogen oxides which are emitted from

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vehicles, power plants, industrial boilers, refineries, chemical plants, and other sources and volatile organic compounds.Aerosols are not constituent

factors. 90. Answer: (b)

Explanation: Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design (LEED) is the standard for green building design and green building operations certification developed by the U.S. Green Building Council.

91. Answer: (b)

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: The Special Climate Change Fund (SCCF) was established under the UNFCCC in 2001 to finance projects relating to: adaptation

and technology transfer. Hence, mitigation is not one of its focus areas. Statement 2 is correct: It is administered by the Global Environment Facility.

92. Answer: (a)

Explanation: Recently, the Prime Minister has launched a platform to honour honest taxpayers.

This move is aimed at easing compliance and expediting refunds, benefiting honest taxpayers.

The new platform aims at boosting the confidence of the taxpayer and decreasing the fear associated with the taxation process.

Statement 1 is correct: It aims to have Faceless assessment to eliminate direct contact between Taxpayer and Income Tax officers. Statement 2 is incorrect: There is no such provision of rebate on paid taxes.

93. Answer: (b)

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: This act gives rights only to land that is cultivated by the family concerned before the law has been enacted. New land taken up for cultivation once the law has been enacted will not be eligible. Statement 2 is correct: The land recognised under this Act cannot be sold or transferred. Statement 3 is incorrect: Gram sabha is not the final authority to approve the land rights. But it is the first nodal agency to recommend land rights to the villagers. Then the gram sabha’s recommendation goes through two stages of screening committees at the taluka and district levels. The final decision is taken by the district level committee.

94. Answer: (a)

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: An ecosystem engineer is any organism that creates, significantly modifies, maintains or destroys a habitat. Statement 2 is correct: They can alter the distribution and abundance of large numbers of plants and animals. Statement 3 is correct: The best known examples of ecosystem engineers are human beings (Homo sapiens).

95. Answer: (d)

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: TEEB is a global initiative focused on “making nature’s values visible”. Its principal objective is to mainstream the values of biodiversity and ecosystem services into decision-making at all levels. TEEB demonstrates their values in economic terms and not its intrinsic value.

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Statement 2 is correct: TEEBAgriFood is designed to guide the evaluation of food systems and their complex linkages to the environment, society and human health. Its implementation is supported by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).

96. Answer: (d)

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: 1% of the total project cost of all highways projects will be kept aside for the highway plantation and its maintenance. About Rs. 1000 crore per year will be available for plantation purpose. Statement 2 is correct: It is developed by the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) under the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways.

Statement 3 is correct: The Policy envisages a strict system of auditing whereby money will be released by the government to the empanelled agencies only if they have achieved a tree survival rate of 90 per cent the previous year. There will be a strong monitoring mechanism in place by using ISRO’s Bhuvan and GAGAN satellite systems.

97. Answer: (b)

Explanation: Earth Overshoot Day marks the date when humanity’s demand for ecological resources and services in a given year exceeds what Earth can regenerate in that year. Earth Overshoot Day is hosted and calculated by Global Footprint Network, an international research organization that provides decision-makers with a menu of tools to help the human economy operate within Earth’s ecological limits. To determine the date of Earth Overshoot Day for each year, the number of days of that year that Earth’s biocapacity suffices to provide for humanity’s Ecological Footprint is calculated. Earth Overshoot Day is computed by dividing the planet’s biocapacity (the amount of ecological

resources Earth is able to generate that year), by humanity’s Ecological Footprint (humanity’s demand for that year), and multiplying by 365, the number of days in a year.

98. Answer: (c)

Explanation: The total mangrove cover in India is 4,975 sq km. West Bengal has the highest mangrove cover of 42.45%, followed by Gujarat which is 23.66%. Lastly 12.39% of mangrove cover is found in Andaman and Nicobar Islands. Further mangrove cover is found in much smaller areas in states like Odisha and Maharashtra.

Figure: fao.org.

Source: India State of Forest Report, 2019 99. Answer: (a)

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The National Biodiversity Authority is a statutory autonomous body under the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change, Government of India established in 2003 to implement the provisions under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002.

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Statement 2 is incorrect: Dr. V. B. Mathur is the present chairperson of National Biodiversity Authority. Statement 3 is incorrect: There is no

requirement of seeking permission for carrying out research, if it is carried out in India by Indians, as well as under collaborative research projects.

100. Answer: (b)

Explanation: Pair 1 is correctly matched: The pokkali rice is a variety endemic to central Kerala is known for its saltwater tolerance. Pair 2 is correctly matched: Nuakhai Juhar is also called Nuakhai Parba or Nuakhai Bhetghat and is celebrated in Odisha, Chhattisgarh and areas of neighbouring states. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Thumbimahotsavam is a State Dragonfly Festival in Kerala.

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