BRAIN INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL TERM I CLASS-XII 2020 -21

BRAIN INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL

TERM I CLASS-XII 2020 -21

SUBJECT: ENGLISH(CORE)

A Thing of Beauty

1.Therefore, on every morrow, are we wreathing

A flowery band to bind us to the earth,

Spite of despondence, of the inhuman dearth

Of noble natures, of the gloomy days,

1. What do you mean by wreathing?

2. How does a flowery band bind us to earth?

3. Why the days seem to be gloomy?

4. What gives us pleasure during desperate days?

2.A thing of beauty is a joy forever

Its loveliness increases, it will never

Pass into nothingness; but will keep

A bower quiet for us, and a sleep

Full of sweet dreams, and health, and quiet breathing.

1. How is a thing of beauty joy forever?

2. What do we dream of?

3. Give the rhyming scheme of the poem

4. Why the thing of beauty does not pass into nothingness?

3. Far from gusty waves these

children’s faces.

Like rootless weeds, the hair torn round

their pallor;

The tall girl with her weighed-down

head.

a) Who are these children?

b) What does the poet mean by ‘gusty waves’?

c) What has possibly weighed-down the tall girl’s head?

d) Identify the figure of speech used in these lines.

Keeping Quiet

1.It would be an exotic moment

without rush, without engines,

we would all be together

in a sudden strangeness.

1. What will happen if there is no rush or running of engines?

2. Why would it be called an exotic moment?

3. How would we feel at that moment?

4. Name the poem and the poet.

2 For once on the face of the Earth

let’s not speak in any language,

let’s stop for one second,

arid not move our arms so much.

1.Why does the poet want us to keep quiet?

2.What does he want us to do for one second?

3. What does he mean by “not move our arms”?

4.How can this moment of stillness help us?

Mother at sixty -six

1. familiar ache, m childhood’s fear,

but all I said was, see you soon, Amma,

all I did was smile and smile and smile……………

1. What was the childhood fear that now troubled the poet?

2. What do the poet’s parting words suggest?

3. Why did the poet smile and smile?

4. Explain, “that old familiar ache.”

2 looked out at young

trees sprinting, the merry children

spilling out of their homes, but after the airport’s

security check, standing a few yards away, I looked again at her, wan, plae

as a later winter’s moon and felt that old familiar ache, …………

1. How can the trees sprint?

2. Why did the poet look at her mother again?

3. What did she observe?

4. Identify the figure of speech used in these lines.

3. I saw my mother,

beside me,

doze, open mouthed, her face

ashen like that

of a corpse and realised with pain…

1 Who is “I”?

2 What did ‘I’ realise with pain?

3. Which ‘thought’ did the poet ‘put away’?

4What does the phrase, ‘ashen like a corpse’ mean?

An Elementary school classroom in a slum

On their slag heap, these children

Wear skins peeped through by bones and

spectacles of steel

With mended glass, like bottle bits on stones.

1.Who are these children?

2. What is their slag heap?

3.Why are their bones peeing through their skins?

Answer the following questions briefly:

1. Explain ‘some shape of beauty moves the pal’?

2. Explain- Its loveliness increases?

3. What changes dawned upon people due to the order from Berlin?

4. How was the scene in the school in the morning of the last lesson different from that on

other days?

5. Garbage to them is gold; why does the author say so about the ragpickers?

6. Why does the author say that the bangle makers are caught in a vicious web?

Answer the following in detail

1. Why did Gandhi agree to the planters’ offer of a 25% refund to the farmers

2. Why is the Champaran episode considered to be the beginning of the Indian struggle for

independence?

3. In what sense is the friendship between Mr Lamb and Derry fruitful?

4. Derry sneaked into Mr Lamb’s garden and it became a turning point in his life.

Comment.

5. What signs indicate that Jack’s irritation with his daughter is manifested by a fear that his

bedtime story ritual may soon be coming to an end?

6.What signs indicate that Jack’s irritation with his daughter is manifested by a fear that his

bedtime story ritual may soon be coming to an end?

7. All we have to fear is fear itself”. Describe Douglas’ experiences which led to making of

the statement.

8. How did his experience at the YMCA swimming pool affect Douglas?


TERM-I CLASS-XII 2020-21

SUBJECT: PHYSICS REVISION SHEET

CHAPTER 1: ELECTRIC CHARGES AND FIELD

1. Two small spheres each having mass m kg and charge q coulomb are suspended from a point by

insulating threads each l metre long but of negligible mass. If 𝜃 is the angle, each thread makes

with the vertical when equilibrium has been attained, show that

𝑞2 = (4 𝑚𝑔𝑙2𝑠𝑖𝑛2𝜃 tan 𝜃)4𝜋𝜀0

2. A thin fixed ring of radius a has a positive charge q uniformly distributed over it. A particle of

mass m, having a negative charge Q, is placed on the axis at a distance of x (x ≪ a) from the

centre of the ring. Show that the motion of the negatively charged particle is approximately

simple harmonic. Calculate the time period of oscillation

3. Three point charges of +2 µC, −3 µC and −3 µC are kept at the vertices A, B and C respectively

of an equilateral triangle of side 20 cm as shown in figure. What should be the sign and

magnitude of the charge to be placed at the midpoint (M) of side BC so that the charge at A

remains in equilibrium?

4. Two point charges 𝑞1 and 𝑞2 of 10−8 C and −10−8 C respectively are placed 0.1 m apart.

Calculate the electric fields at points A, B and C shown in figure.

5. The electric field components in figure are E𝑥= α 𝑥1/2 , E𝑦 = E𝑧 = 0, in which α=800 N/𝐶𝑚2.

Calculate (i) the flux ϕ𝐸 through the cube and (ii) the charge within the cube. Assume that a =

0.1m.

6. A hollow cylindrical box of length 1m and area of cross-section 25 cm2 is placed in a three

dimensional coordinate system as shown in figure. The electric field in the region is given by =

50x 𝑖 , where E is in NC−1 and x is in metres.

Find

(i) net flux through the cylinder,

(ii) charge enclosed by the cylinder.

CHAPTER 2: ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE

1. Determine the electric potential at the surface of a gold nucleus. The radius is 6.6 × 10−15 m and

atomic number Z = 79. Given charge on a proton = 1.6 × 10−19 C.

2. A charge of 24 𝜇𝐶 is given to a hollow metallic sphere of radius 0.2 m. Find the potential

(i) at the surface of the sphere, and

(ii) at a distance of 0.1 cm from the centre of the sphere.

3. Four charges are arranged at the corners of a square. ABCD of side d as shown in figure. (i) Find

the work required to put together this arrangement. (ii) A charge 𝑞0 is brought to the centre E of

the square, the four charges being held fixed at its corners. How much extra work is needed to do

this?

4. Three point charges, + Q, + 2Q and – 3Q are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle ABC

of side l. If these charges are displaced to the midpoints 𝐴1, 𝐵1 and 𝐶1 respectively, find the

amount of the work done in shifting the charges to the new locations.

5. Calculate the work done to dissociate the system of three charges placed on the vertices of a

triangle as shown in figure. Here q = 1.6 × 10−10 C.

6. A network of four capacitors each of 12 µF capacitance is connected to a 500 V supply as shown

in figure. Determine (a) equivalent capacitance of the network, (b) charge on each capacitor.

CHAPTER 3: CUREENT ELECTRICITY

1. In the two electric circuits shown in figure, determine the readings of ideal ammeter (A) and ideal

voltmeter(V).

2. The following graph shows the variation of terminal potential difference V, across a combination

of three cells in series to a resistor, versus the current, i:

(a) Calculate the EMF of a cell

(b)For what current i, power dissipation of the circuit be maximum?

3. Using Kirchhoff’s laws in the electrical network shown in figure, calculate the values of 𝐼1, 𝐼2 and

𝐼3.

4. In figure, a long uniform potentiometer wire AB is having a constant potential gradient along its

length. The null points for the two primary cells of emfs 𝜀1and𝜀2 connected in the manner shown

and obtained at a distance of 120 cm and 300 cm from the end A. Find

(a) 𝜀1/𝜀2and

(b) Position of null point for the cell𝜀1.

How is the sensitivity of a potentiometer increased?

5. A 10 metre long wire of uniform cross-section of 20 Ω resistance is used as a potentiometer wire.

The wire is connected in series with a battery of 5V, along with an external resistance of 480 Ω. If

an unknown EMF 𝜺is balanced at 600 cm of this wire, calculate

(a) the potential gradient of the Potentiometer wire and

(b) the value of the unknown EMF𝜺.

6. The Potentiometer wire of length 200 cm has a resistance of 20 Ω. It is connected in series with

the resistance 10Ω and an accumulator of emf 6 V having negligible resistance. A source of 2.4 V

is balanced against length ‘L’of the potentiometer wire. Find the value of L.

7. A resistance of RΩ draws current from a potentiometer. The potentiometer has a total resistance

of𝑅0Ω. A voltage V is supplied to the potentiometer. Derive an expression for the voltage across

R when the sliding contact is in the middle of the potentiometer.

CHAPTER 4: MAGNETIC EFFECT OF CURRENT

1. Figure shows right-angle isosceles PQR having its base equal to a. A current of 1 ampere is

passing downwards along a thin straight wire cutting the plane of paper normally as soon at Q.

Likewise a similar wire carries an equal current passing normally upwards at R. Find the

magnitude and direction of the magnetic induction B at P. Assume the wires to be infinitely long.

2. Two coaxial circular loops 𝐿1 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐿2 of radii 3cm and 4cm are placed as shown. What should be

the magnitude and direction of the current in the loop 𝐿2 so that the net magnetic field at the point

O be zero?

3. The wire shown in figure carries a current of 10A. Determine the magnitude of the magnetic field

at the centre O. Given radius of the bent coil is 3 cm.

4. A straight wire of length 𝜋

2 metre is bent into a circular shape. If the wire were to carry a current of

5 A, calculate the magnetic field, due to it, before bending, at a point distant 0.01 times the radius

of the circle formed from it. Also calculate the magnetic field, at the centre of the circular loop

formed, for the same value of current.

5. Figure shows a long wire bent at the middle to form a right angle. Show that the magnitudes of

the magnetic fields at the points P, Q, R and S are equal and find this magnitude.

6. Consider a straight piece of length x of a wire carrying a current i. Let P be a point on the

perpendicular bisector of the piece, situated at a distance d from its middle point. Show that for d

>> x, the magnetic field at P varies as 1 𝑑2⁄ whereas for d << x, it varies as1 𝑑⁄ .

7. A regular polygon of 𝓃 sides is formed by bending a wire of total length 2𝜋r which carries a

current i. (a) Find the magnetic field B at the centre of the polygon. (b) By letting n → ∞, deduce

the expression for the magnetic field at the centre of a circular current.

CHAPTER 5: MAGNETTISM

1. The vertical component of earth’s magnetic field at a place is√3 times the horizontal component.

What is the value of angle of dip at this place?

2. What is the angle of dip at a place where the horizontal and vertical components of the earth’s

magnetic field are equal?

3. A magnetic needle, free to rotate in a vertical plane, orients itself vertically at a certain place on

the earth. What are the values of (i) angle of dip at this place, and (ii) horizontal component of

earth’s magnetic field?

4. Name the three elements of Earth’s magnetic field.

5. Draw the magnetic field lines distinguishing between diamagnetic and paramagnetic materials.

Give a simple explanation to account for the difference in the magnetic behavior of these

materials.

CHAPTER 6: EMI

1. A lamp is connected in series with an inductor and an a.c. source. What happens to the brightness

of the lamp when the key is plugged in and an iron rod is inserted inside the inductor? Explain.

2. What is motional electromotive force (motional emf)? A rod of length L is moved horizontally

with a uniform velocity V in a direction perpendicular to its length through a region in which a

uniform magnetic field is acting vertically downward. Derive the expression for the emf induced

across the ends of the rod.

3. Derive the expression for the self-inductance of a long solenoid of cross sectional area A, length L

and having n turns per unit length.

4. Derive an expression for the mutual inductance of two long coaxial solenoids of same length

wound one over the other.

CHAPTER7 : AC

1. A series LCR circuit is connected to an a.c. source having voltage 𝑉 = 𝑉𝑂 sin 𝜔𝑡 . Using phasor

diagram, derive expressions for impedance, instantaneous current and its phase relationship to the

applied voltage. Also draw graphs of V and I versus 𝜔𝑡 for the circuit.

2. Draw a schematic diagram of a step up/step down transformer. Explain its working principle.

Deduce the expression for the secondary to primary voltage in terms of the number of turns in the

two coils. In an ideal transformer, how is this ratio related to the currents in the two coils?

3. (i) Explain with the help of a labelled diagram, the principle and working of an ac generator and

obtain expression for the emf generated in the coil. (ii) Draw a schematic diagram showing the

nature of the alternating emf generated by the rotating coil in the magnetic field during one cycle.

4. Define quality factor (Q-factor) and give its significance. What is its S.I. unit? Name the factors

on which Quality factors depends.


TERM - I Class-XII 2020-21

SUBJECT: CHEMISTRY REVISION SHEET

CH-10 HALOALKANE AND HALOARENE

Q1 Arrange the following in the increasing order of properly indicated :

(i) Paradichloro benzene, matadichlorobenzene, orthodichlorobenzene. (Increasing order

of boiling points).

(ii) 1-chloropropane, isopropyl chloride, 1-chlorobutane (Increasing order

of hydrolysis)

(iii) dichloromethane, chloroform, carbon terachloride. (Increasing order

of dipole moment.

(iv) CH3F, CH3Cl, CH3Br, CH3l (Increasing reactivity towards nucleophilic

substitution and increasing order of dipole moment)

(v) o, m. p- dichlorobenzene (Increasing order of melting points)

CH-11 ALCOHOL, PHENOL AND ETHER

Q2.Give reason for the following:

(i).Ortho- nitro phenol is more acidic than ortho -methoxy phenol.

(ii). three degree alcohols can not be used to prepare ether.

(iii). Phenol is more reactive for electrophilic substitution than benzene.

(iv).Bond angle in ether is more than water.

Q3.How will you convert

(i) propene to propan-l-ol.

(ii) anisole to phenol

(iii) butan-2-one to butan-2-ol

(iv) ethanal to ethanol

(v) phenol to ethoxybenzene

CH-12 ALDEHYDE , KETONE AND CARBOXYLIC ACID

Q4.Convert the following:

(i) 1-phenylethene to 1-phenylethanol

(ii) formaldehyde to cyclohexylmethanol

(iii) butyl bromide to pentan-1-ol.

(xii) methyl bromide to 2-methoxy-2-methylpropane

(xiii) ethyl bromide to ethoxybenzene

(xiv) ethanol to benzyl ethyl ether.

CH-13 AMINES

Q5.Giving an example of each, describe the following reactions :

(i) Hoffman Amonolysis reaction

(ii) Gatterman koch reaction

(iii) Coupling reaction

(vi) Carbylamine reaction

(vii) Acetylation of aniline

CH- 14 BIOMOLECULE

Q6.Name the building blocks of DNA and RNA.

Q7.Give the structure of nucleotide.

Q8. Write the Zwitter ionic form of amino acid.

CH- 1 SOLID STATE

Q9.What are anistropic substances.

Q10.How many octahedral voids are there in 1 mole of a compound having

cubic closed packed structure?

Q11.Arrange simple cubic, bcc and fcc lattice in decreasing order of the fraction of the

unoccupied space.

Q12.In Corundum, O2– ions from hcp and Al3+ occupy two third of octahedral

voids. Determine the formula of corundum.

CH-2 SOLUTIONS

Q13. What are azeotrope mixtures?

Q14.State the conditions which must be satisfied if an ideal solution is to be formed.

Q15.A mixture of chlorobenzene and bromobenzene forms nearly ideal solution but a

mixture of chloroform and acetone does not. Why?

Q16.How is the concentration of a solute present in trace amount in a solution

expressed?

Q17. Explain the positive deviation shown by non-ideal solutions.

CH-3 ELECTROCHEMISTRY

Q18. What is fuel cell? write reaction for it.

Q19. Why voltage of mercury cell is remain constant whole life?

Q20. How molar conductivity vary on dilution for weak electrolyte?


TERM-I CLASS: XII 2020-21

SUBJECT: COMPUTER SCIENCE

USING PYTHON LIBRARIES

1. What is a module, package and a library?

2. What is the significance of python module?

3. What is the utility of built-in function help()?

4. What are docstrings? How are they useful?

5. What happens when Python encounters an import statement in a program ? What would

happen,one more import statement for the same module, already imported in the same

program?

6. The random() function generates a random floating point number in the range 0.0 to 1.0 and

randint(a,b) function generates random integer between range a to b. To generate random

numbers between range a and b using random(), following formula is used:

math.random() * (b - a) + a

Now if we have following two statements

(i) int( (math.random() * (b - a) + a))

(ii) math.randint(a,b)

Can we say above two statements are now producing random integers from the same range ?

Why?

7. What would be the output produced by the following code :

import math

import random

print(math.ceil(random.random())

Justify your answer.

8. Consider the following code:

import math

import random

print(str( int(math.pow( random.randint(2, 4), 2))), end ='')

print(str( int(math.pow( random.randint(2, 4), 2))), end ='')

print(str( int( math.pow( random.randint(2, 4), 2))))

What could be the possible outputs out of the given four choices?

(i) 2 3 4 (ii) 944 (iii) 16 16 16 (iv) 2 4 9 (v) 4 9 4 (vi) 4 4 4

9. What possible outputs(s) are expected to be displayed on screen at the time of execution of the

program from the following code ? Also specify the maximum values that can be assigned to

each of the variables FROM and TO.

import random

AR - [20, 30, 40,50, 60,70];

FROM = random.randint(1,3)

TO = random.randint(2,4)

for K in range(FROM, TO+1):

print (AR[K], end ="#")

(i) 10#40#70# (ii) 30#40#50#

(iii) 50#60#70# (iv) 40#50#70#

10. What is the procedure to create own library/package in Python?

11. Why is a package attached to site-packages folder of Python installation? Can't we use it

without doing so?

12. What is the output of the following piece of code?

#mod1

def change(a):

b = [x*2 for x in a]

print(b)

#mod2

def change(a):

b = [x*x for x in a]

print(b)

from modi import change

from mod2 import change

#main

S = [1,2,3]

change(s)

13. What is the output of the following piece of code?

from math import factorial

print(math.factorial(5))



SUBJECT: BIOLOGY REVISION SHEET

CHAPTER 2: SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS

1. When the pollen of a flower is transferred to the stigma of another flower on the same plant, the

process is known as

(a) Autogamy (b) Geitonogamy (c) Xenogamy (d) Cleistogamy

2. In each of the following questions a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed by a

corresponding statement of Reason (R) just below it. Of the statements, mark the correct answer

as:

(1) If both Assertion and Resaon are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion

(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion

(3) If assertion is true but Reason is false

(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

Assertion: Commelina shows cieistogamy.

Reason: This reduces chances of inbreeding.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

3. Name the part of the flower, which the tassels of the corn cab represent.

4. Why do species with abiotic mode of pollination produce larger number of pollen-grains, when

compared to those with biotic pollination?

5. Given below is a T.S. of an apple. Identify a, b and c.

6. Explain the mutually rewarding relationship between Yucca plant and a species of moth.

7. Given below is an enlarged view of one microsporangium of a mature anther.

(i) Name ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘c’ wall layers.

(ii) Mention the characteristics and function of the cells forming the wall layer ‘c’.

8. (a) Why are seeds of some grasses called apomictic? Explain.

(b) State two reasons to convince a farmer to use an apomictic crop.

9. (a) Mention the exact location or the site in a flowering plant, where the following developments

take place:

(i) Deposition of sporopollenin

(ii) Triple fusion

(iii) Release of male gametes

(iv) Megasporogenesis.

(b) Draw a labelled diagram of a male gametophyte of an angiosperm.

10. Describe the process of megasporogenesis in angiosperms, until 8-nucleate stage.

CHAPTER 3: HUMAN REPRODUCTION

1. Morula is a developmental stage [NCERT Exemplar Problems]

(a) between the zygote and blastocyst

(b) between the blastocyst and gastrula

(c) after the implantation

(d) between implantation and parturition



as:





Assertion: Parturition is induced by neural signal in maternal pituitary.

Reason: At the end of gestation period, the maternal pituitary release prolactin which causes

uterine contractions.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

3. Where is acrosome present in humans? Write its function.

4. Why is it important to feed the newborn babies on colostrum?

5. Give a schematic representation showing the events of spermatogenesis in human male.

6. The diagram shows a part of the human female reproductive system.

(a) Name the gamete cells that would be present in ‘X’, if taken from a newborn baby.

(b) Name ‘Y’ and write its function.

(c) Name ‘Z’ and write the events that take place here.

7. Draw a diagram of T.S. of a part of seminiferous tubule of testis of an adult human male and label

any four parts in it

8. Draw a diagram showing a developing foetus within the uterus and label six parts in it.

9. Human female is not fertile after menopause whereas males can produce gamete at any age after

puberty. Analyse the statement and schematically represent a comparison between gametogenesis

in males and females.

10. (a) Read the graph given above and correlate the uterine events that take place according to the

hormonal levels on:

(i) 6 – 15 days

(ii) 16 – 25 days

(iii) 26 – 28 days (if the ovum is not fertilised).

(b) Specify the sources of the hormones mentioned in the graph.

CHAPTER 4: REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH

1. Sterilisation techniques are generally fool proof methods of contraception with least side effects.

Yet, this is the last option for the couples because:

i. It is almost irreversible

ii. Of the misconception that it will reduce sexual urge/drive

iii. It is a surgical procedure

iv. Of lack of sufficient facilities in many parts of the country

Choose the correct option:

(1) i and iii (2) ii and iii (3) ii and iv (4) i, ii, iii and iv

2. Emergency contraceptives are effective if used within:

(1) 72 hrs of coitus (2) 72 hrs of ovulation

(3) 72 hrs of menstruation (4) 72 hrs of implantation

3. Why is there a statutory ban on amniocentesis? Why is the technique so named?

4. Describe the following assisted reproductive technologies

(i) IVF (ii) ICSI (iii) AI

5. Describe vasectomy and tubectomy with diagram.

6. How do ‘implants’ act as an effective method of contraception in human females? Mention its one

advantage over contraceptive pills.

CHAPTER 5: PRINCIPLLES OF INHERITANCE AND VARIATION

1. In a dihybrid cross, if you get 9:3:3:1 ratio it denotes that:

(a) The alleles of two genes are interacting with each other.

(b) It is a multigenic inheritance.

(c) It is a case of multiple allelism.

(d) The alleles of two genes are segregating independently.



as:





Assertion: Phenylketonuria is a recessive hereditary disease caused by body’s failure to oxidise an

amino acid phenylanine to tyrosine, because of a defective enzyme.

Reason: It results the presence of phenylalanine acid in urine.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

3. Match the items in Column I with those in Column II.

Column I Column II

A. ABO blood group in humans. 1. Polygenic inheritance.

B. Flower colour in snapdragon. 2. Mendelian genetic disorder.

C. Human skin colour. 3. Sex-linked Mendelian disorder

D. Phenylketonuria. 4. Incomplete dominance

5. Multiple allelism.

4. If the distance between the genes a, b, and c on a chromosome is as follows, prepare a genetic map

assigning the correct order of genes. Which of the gene pairs will show maximum frequency of

crossing over?

a — b = 5 cm, b — c = 3 cm and a — c = 2 cm.

5. Differentiate between Polygenic inheritance and Pleiotropy.

6. a) Why are thalassemia and haemophilia categorised as Mendelian disorders? Write the symptoms

of these diseases. Explain their pattern of inheritance in humans.

(b) Write the genotypes of the normal parents producing a haemophilic son.

7. Observe the pedigree chart and answer the following questions:

(a) Identify whether the trait is sex-linked or autosomal.

(b) Give an example of a disease in human beings which shows such a pattern of inheritance.

8. A cross was carried out between a pea plant, heterozygous for round and yellow seeds with a pea

plant having wrinkled and green seeds.

(a) Show the cross in a Punnett squares.

(b) Write the phenotypes of the progeny of the cross.

(c) What is this cross known as? State the purpose of conducting such a cross.

9. Study the figures given below and answer the question.

Identify in which of the crosses the strength of linkage between the genes is higher. Give reasons

in support of your answer.

10. (a) Write the blood group of people with genotype IA IB. Give reasons in support of your answer.

(b) In one family of four children, each has a different blood group. Their mother has blood group

A and their father has blood group B. Work out a cross to explain how it is possible.

CHAPTER 6: MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERTANCE

1. Eukaryotic RNA polymerase III catalyses the synthesis of

(a) mRNA (b) rRNA (c) hnRNA (d) tRNA



as:





Assertion : Repression occurs at transcription level.

Reason : When repressor binds to the operator, transcription occurs.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

3. How is the length of DNA usually calculated?

4. Describe the steps involved in the sequencing of genome of an organism.

5.

Shown above is the electron micrograph (EM) picture of ‘beads-on-string’.

(a) Identify and explain the detailed structure of a bead with the help of a labelled diagram.

(b) Describe the packaging of ‘beads-on-string’ in a eukaryotic cell.

6. Draw a double-stranded dinucleotide chain with all the four nitrogen bases. Label the polarity and

the components of the dinucleotide.

7. (a)

Look at the above sequence and mention the events , and .

(b) What does central dogma state in molecular biology? How does it differ in some viruses?

(i) Name ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘c’ wall layers.

(ii) Mention the characteristics and function of the cells forming the wall layer ‘c’.

8. (a) Identify the polarity at A and B respectively in the figure given below:

(b) Explain the mechanism the figure represents.

9. Monocistronic structural genes in eukaryotes have interrupted coding sequences. Explain. How

are they different in prokaryotes?

10. Given below is a sequence of steps of transcription in a eukaryotic cell. Fill up the blanks (1, 2, 3,

4) left in the sequence.



SUBJECT : ECONOMICS REVISION SHEET

INDIAN ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT

UNIT: INDIAN ECONOMY ON THE EVE OF INDEPENDENCE

Q1. When was Railways introduced?

Q2. Define export surplus.

Q3. Name some notable economist who estimated India’s per capita income during colonial

period.

Q4. What was the two fold motive behind the de- industrialization by the colonial govt. in pre-

independent India?

Q5. How did the British ruler’s policy adversely affect the foreign Trade of India?

Q6. Give a brief account of qualitative aspect of demographic profile of India during British

rule?

Q7. What does colonialism refer?

Q8. When was India’s first official census operation undertaken?

Q9.Whose interest were served by the economic policies pursued by the British govt. in India?

UNIT: INDIAN ECONOMY (1950-90)

Q1. Differentiate between long term and short term planning.

Q2. Give a brief note on Industrial Policy Resolution 1956.

Q3. Who formulated plans in India?

Q4. When was India’s planning commission constituted and who was its chairman?

Q5. What is the current name of the planning commission and when it was constituted?

Q6. What were the main objectives of first three five year plan?

Q7. What is the main objective of current five year plan and its duration?

Q8. Differentiate among different type of economic system.

Q9. Explain the following:

(a) Self-reliance

(b) Equity

(c) Modernization

(d) Growth

(e) Land reforms

(f) Land ceiling

(g) Green revolution

(h) Industrial Policy resolution 1956.

(i) Trade Policy/ Import substitution

Q10. Define new economic policy and its features of it.

Q11. Define WTO

UNIT: LIBERALIZATION, PRIVATIZATION AND GLOBALIZATION ( INCLUDING

GST AND DEMONETIZATION)

Q1. Define new economic reforms. And its objectives .

Q2. Define LPG in details.

Q3. Define Navratnas

Q4. What is the effect of Demonetisation in India?

Q5. Discuss the disadvantages of Demonetisation?

Q6. What are the advantages of Demonetisation?

Q7.What do you mean by Demonetisation?

Q8. What are final GST rate slabs?

Q9. What are CGST, SGST and IGST?

Q10. What are the differences between the UPA’s GST and the NDA’s GST?

Q12. What are the taxes that GST replaces?

Q13.What will be the short-term impact of GST?

Q14.What is a constitutional amendment?

Q15.What are the finer points in the implementation of the bill?

Q16.What is the Empowered Committee?

Q17.What will become costlier and cheaper?

UNIT: POVERTY

Q1. What do you mean by poverty? Discuss the common characteristics of poor people.

Q2 .“Poverty in India has been studied from two points: urban and rural.”Comment.

Q3 .Distinguish between relative and absolute measures of poverty.

Q4 .Give a brief comparison of poverty determination in pre and post independent India.

Q5 .Discuss the concept of poverty line.

Q6 .State the criticism of “Monthly Per Capita Expenditure” method of determining poverty line.

Q7 .How the situation of poverty can be categorized?

Q8 “.Poverty is continuously declining in India” Support the statement by giving some historical

trends of India.

Q9 .What are the causes of poverty in India?

Q10. Why agriculture sector is regarded a s the core sector for Indian economic development?

Q11. Discuss the three dimensional approach adopted by Government of India to tackle the

situation of poverty.

Q12. Mention any two poverty alleviation programmes started by Government of India. Explain

the reasons for their unsatisfactory performance.

UNIT: HUMAN CAPITAL FORMATION

Q1 Distinguish between Human Capital and Physical Capital.

Q2 What do you mean by Human Capital Formation (HCF)?

Q3 Discuss various sources of HCF.

Q4 Why is it difficult to prove cause and effect relation between HCF and Economic Growth?

Q5 Discuss the role of Human Capital Formation for an economy.

Q6 What are the problems related to HCF?

Q7 Distinguish between Human Capital and Human Development.

Q8 Discuss the need for Government Intervention in Human Capital formation (HCF).

Q9 Why education and health sector are regarded as the pillars of an economy. Mention the

regulatory authorities of the respective sectors.

Q10 Discuss the educational achievements in India.

Q11What are the future prospects of Educational sector in India?

UNIT: RURAL DEVELOPMENT

Q1 What do you mean by rural development? Explain the process of rural development.

Q2 Discuss the importance of credit in the process of rural development.

Q3 Explain the institutional and non- institutional sources of rural credit.

Q4 What are the problems faced in the process of rural banking?

Q5 What do you mean by agricultural marketing? Discuss the problems faced by farmers in

marketing of their agricultural produce.

Q6 Briefly discuss some measures adopted by Government of India to improve the system of

agricultural marketing.

Q7 Why is agricultural diversification required? State the benefits of diversification. What are

the two types of diversification.

Q8 Bring out the importance of animal husbandry, fisheries and horticulture as a source of

diversification.

Q9 What is meant by organic farming? How does it promote sustainable development?

UNIT: EMPLOYMENT: GROWTH, INFORMALISATION AND OTHER ISSUES

Q1 What do you mean by employment? Discuss the two main forms of employment.

Q2 Distinguish between Labour Force and Work Force.

Q3 Describe the concept of Worker-Population ratio. Explain its importance.

Q4 Why does people work? Who all are included in ‘Workers’?

Q5 Briefly discuss the causes of unemployment in India.

Q6 Discuss the male-female distribution of workforce on the basis of

Region (rural-urban) in India.

In different sectors

Q7 Briefly discuss the distribution of overall employment

In different sectors of the economy.

By gender

Q8 Discuss various remedial measures which are needed to solve the problem of unemployment

in India.

Q9 What do you mean by formal and informal sectors? Discuss the conditions of workers in each

of these sectors.

Q10 What do you mean by casualization of workforce? Discuss the concept with relevant facts.

Q11 Discuss the steps taken by the government to solve the problem of unemployment?

Q12 Discuss the distribution of workforce in formal and informal sectors.

UNIT: INFRASTRUCTURE

Q1 What do you mean by infrastructure? Discuss the importance of infrastructure.

Q2 Discuss the main types of infrastructure.

Q3 What is the state of infrastructure in India?

Q4 Describe the condition of social infrastructure in India.

Q5 Suggest some measures to meet the power crisis in India.

Q6 What are the main characteristics of health of the people of our country?

Q7 Write a short note on the alternative systems of health care in India.

Q8 Discuss the main drawbacks of our health care system.

Q9 Discuss the role of private sector in improving the health status in India.

MACROECONOMICS

UNIT: NATIONAL INCOME

Q1. How will you treat the following while estimating national income of India.

(a) Dividend received by an Indian from his investment in shares of a foreign company.

(b) Money received by a family in India from relatives working abroad.

(c) Interest received on loan given to a friend for purchasing a car.

Q2. How will you treat the following while estimating national income of India? Give reason for

your answer?

(a) Dividend received by a foreigner from investment in shares of an Indian Company.

(b) Money received by a family in India from relatives working abroad.

(c) Interest received on loan given to a Friend for purchasing a car.

Q3. Explain the problem of double counting in estimating national income, with the help of an

example. Also , explain two alternative ways of avoiding the problem.

Q4. Distinguish between real gross domestic product and nominal gross domestic product. Can

gross domestic product be used as an index of welfare of the people? Give two reasons.

Q5. How will you treat the following in estimating national income of India? Give reasons for

your answer.

(a) Value of bonus shares received by shareholders of a company.

(b) Fees received from students.

(c) Interest received on loan given to a foreign company in India.

Q6. Explain the steps of measuring national income by income method.

Q7. Explain value added method of estimating National Income with the help of suitable

example.

Q8. Giving reasons, categories following into transfer payment or factor payments.

(a) financial help gives to flood victims

(b) Old age pension.

(c) Imputed rent.

UNIT: MONEY AND BANKING

Q1. How the monetary system solved the problems of barter system?

Q2. Define M1 also explain the meaning of its components.

Q3. Explain unit of value function of money.

Q4. How was the money evolved?

Q5. Explain how the commercial banks create credit.

Q6. Explain the Banker’s bank and Supervisor function of Central Bank.

Q7. How the Central bank of a country control the credit creation in the economy? Explain any

three measures.

Q8. Why the Post Offices and LIC are not bank?

Q9. Give the four definitions used by the Reserve Bank of India to estimate money supply in the

Economy,

UNIT: DETERMINATION OF INCOME AND EMPLOYMENT

Q1. What is aggregate demand?

Q2. What is meant by aggregate supply in macroeconomics?

Q3. Define MPC.

Q4. What is the saving function?

Q5. Define MPS

Q6. If in an economy investment is greater than saving, what is the effect on the national

income?

Q7. What is meant by equilibrium?

Q8. What is under employment equilibrium?

Q9. What is the meaning of excess demand in an economy?

Q10. When does a situation deficient demand arise in an economy?

Q11. Give the meaning of MPS and APS. Can the value of APS be negative? If yes, when?

Q12. What is difference between plant (Expost) and actual (Exante) investments?

Q13. Explain two physical measures by which excess demand in an economy can be reduce.

Q14.What is deficient demand in an economy? What is its impact on out put, employment and

prices?

Q15. With help of a diagram explain the concept of inflationary gap.

Q16. What is monetary policy? Explain the role of 1. Bank Rate and 2. Margin requirement in

influencing the available of the credit in an economy.

Q17. Explain the theory of determination of income and employment with the help of aggregate

demand and aggregate supply curves.


TERM – I CLASS-XII 2020-21

SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS REVISION SHEET

CHAPTER 1: RELATIONS AND FUNCTIONS

1. Let R be the relation in the set N given by R = (a,b)| a = b – 2 , b > 6

Whether the relation is reflexive or not ? justify your answer.

2. Show that the relation R in the set N given by R = (a , b)| a is divisible by b , a , b

N

is reflexive and transitive but not symmetric.

3. Let R be the relation in the set N given by R = (a ,b)| a > b Show that the relation is

neither reflexive nor symmetric but transitive.

4. Let R be the relation on R defined as (a , b) R iff 1+ ab > 0 a,b R.

(a) Show that R is symmetric.

(b) Show that R is reflexive.

(c) Show that R is not transitive.

5. Check whether the relation R is reflexive, symmetric and transitive.

R = (x ,y)| x – 3y = 0 on A =1,2,3……….13,14.

6. Show that the relation R on A ,A = x| x Z , 0 ≤ x ≤ 12 ,

R = (a ,b): |a - b| is multiple of 3. is an equivalence relation.

7. Let N be the set of all natural numbers & R be the relation on N × N defined by

(a , b) R (c , d) iff a + d = b + c. Show that R is an equivalence relation.

CHAPTER 2: INVERSE TRIGONOMETRY

1. Write the principal value of the following :

2. Write the principal value of the following :

1. 2.

3.

2

3cos.1 1

2

1sin.2 1

3tan.3 1

2

1cos.4 1

3

π2sinsin

3

π2coscos 11

5

π4sinsin 1

6

7coscos 1

CHAPTER 3: MATRICES

1. Find the matrix P satisfying the matrix equation .

2. Express A = as the sum of a symmetric and a skew-symmetric matrix.

3. Let A = , prove by mathematical induction that : .

4. If A = , find x and y such that A2 + xI = yA. Hence find .

5. 7. Let A= . Prove that

.

CHAPTER 4 : DETERMINANTS

1. If A is a square matrix order 3 such that adj A= 64, find |A|.

2. Find inverse of

1 1

0 2 3

2 4

2

3

3. Using determinant find the equation of line passing through (1,2) and (5,7).

4. Find the determinant of the square matrix A of order 3*3 which satisfies the equation

given by A3 + 5A2 – 7A + 2I = 0. Also find the relation to find the adjoint of same

matrix, the determinant of adjoint and that of inverse also.

12

21

35

23P

23

12

542

354

323

31

41

n21n

n4n21An

57

13 1A

02

tan

2tan0

10

01Iand

cossin

sincos)AI(AI

CHAPTER 5: CONTINUITY AND DIFFERENTIABILITY

1. Give an example of a function which is continuous at x=1,but not differentiable at

x=1.

2. For what value of k, the function is continuous at x=2.

3. If f(x)= Find whether f(x) is continuous at x=0.

4. For what value of k, the function f(x)= is continuous at

x=0?

5. If Function f(x)= , for x 0 is continuous at x=0, then Find f(0).

6. Let f(x)= If f(x) be a continuous function at

x= , find a and b.

7. For what value of k, is the function f(x) continuous at x=0?

f(x)=

8. Discuss the differentiability of the function f(x)=(x-1)2/3 at x=1.

9. Differentiate y=tan-1 .

10. If y= , Find .

11. Find , y = cos(log x)2.

12. Find of y=tan-1

2x , 2,

3, 2

k if x

if x

sin 3, 0

1, 0

xwhen x

x

when x

2

1 cos4, 0

8x

, 0

xx

k x

2 3sin

3 2sin

x x

x x

3

2

2

1 sin,

3Cos 2

,2

(1 sin ),

( 2x) 2

xif x

x

a if x

b xif x

2

sin cos, 0

, 0.

x x xwhen x

x

k when x

2

2

1 x

x

2

2

( 3)(x 4)

3x 4 5

x

x

dy

dx

dy

dx

dy

dx

21 x 1

x

13. If y=eax sin bx, then prove that -2a +(a2+b2)y=0.

14. Find , if y= , x= .

15. Find y = tan-1 .

16. Find y = cot-1 . 0<x< .

17. If y= sin-1 , Show that = .

18. Prove that .

19. Find if (cosx)y = (cosy)x

20. IF Xp.Yq = (X+Y)p+q, prove that 𝑑𝑦

𝑑𝑥 =

𝑦

𝑥. Also find the second order derivative w.r.t x.

CHAPTER 6: APPLICATIONS OF DERIVATIVES

1. Show that f(x) = x3 – 6x2 + 18x + 5 is an increasing function for all x R.

2. Show that the function x2 – x + 1 is neither increasing nor decreasing on (0,1)

3. 3. Find the intervals in which the function f(x) = sin x – cos x, 0< x< 2 is increasing

or decreasing.

4. Prove that the function y = is an increasing function of in [ 0, /2]

5. Find the equations of the normals to the curve 3x2 – y2 = 8 which are parallel to the

line x + 3y = 4.

6. Find the point on the curve y = x2 where the slope of the tangent is equal to the x-

coordinate of the point.

7. At what points on the circle x2 + y2 – 2x – 4y + 1 = 0, the tangent is parallel to x axis

?

8. Find the equation of the normal to the curve ay2 = x3 at the point ( am2, am3)

9. For the curve y = 2x2 + 3x + 18, find all the points at which the tangent passes

through the origin.

10. Find the equation of the normals to the curve y = x3 + 2x + 6 which are parallel to the

line x + 14y + 4= 0.

11. Find the equation of the tangent line to the curve y = – 2 which is parallel to

the line 4x – 2y +3 =0

2

2

d y

dx

dy

dx

2

2

d y

dx

3

1

at

t

22at

1 t

dy

dx

2 2

2 2

1 1

1 1

x x

x x

dy

dx

1 sin 1 sin

1 sin 1 sin

x x

x x

2

cos

cos

a b x

b a x

dy

dx

2 2

cos

b a

b a x

21

2 42

1 x 2 1 1 2 1log tan

1 x 1 x4 2 x 2 1 2 2

d x x

dx x

dy

dx

θθcos2

θsin4

3x5

12. Show that the curve x2 + y2 – 2x = 0 and x2 + y2 – 2y = 0 cut orthogonally at the

point (0,0)

13. Find the condition for the curves and xy = c2 to intersect orthogonally.

14. Prove that the area of a right-angled triangle of given hypotenuse is maximum when

the triangle is isosceles.

15. A piece of wire 28(units) long is cut into two pieces. One piece is bent into the shape

of a circle and other into the shape of a square. How should the wire be cut so that the

combined area of the two figures is as small as possible.

16. A window is in the form of a rectangle surmounted by a semicircular opening. The

total perimeter of the window is 10 m. Find the dimensions of the window to admit

maximum light through the whole opening.

17. Find the area of the greatest isosceles triangle that can be inscribed in a given ellipse

having its vertex coincident with one extremity of major axis.

18. An open box with a square base is to be made out of a given quantity of card board of

area c2 square units. Show that the maximum volume of the box is cubic units.

19. A window is in the shape of a rectangle surmounted by an equilateral triangle. If the

perimeter of the window is 12 m, find the dimensions of the rectangle that will

produce the largest area of the window.

20. Find the intervals in which the following function is strictly increasing or decreasing:

f(x) = – 2x3 – 9x2 – 12x + 1

21. Find the intervals in which the following function is strictly increasing or decreasing:

f(x) = sinx + cosx ,

22. For the curve y = 4x3 – 2x5, find all the points at which the tangent passes through the

origin.

23. Find the equation of the tangent line to the curve y = x2 – 2x +7 which is

(a) parallel to the line 2x – y + 9 = 0 (b) perpendicular to the line 5y – 15x = 13.

24. Prove that the curves x = y2 and xy = k cut at right angles if 8k2 = 1.

25. Prove that the volume of the largest cone that can be inscribed in a sphere of radius R

is of the volume of the sphere.

26. An open topped box is to be constructed by removing equal squares from each corner

of a 3 metre by 8 metre rectangular sheet of aluminium and folding up the sides. Find

the volume of the largest such box.

1b

y

a

x

2

2

2

2

36

c3

2x0

27

8

CHAPTER 7: INTEGRATION



SUBJECT : PHYSICAL EDUCATION REVISION SHEET

UNIT 1: PLANNING IN SPORTS

Q.1 Define special seeding.

Q.2 Draw a fixture of twenty eight teams with consolation knock out method.

Q.3 Draw a fixture of ten teams with league tournaments with stair case method.

Q.4 Write down the definition of planning.

Q.5 Enlist the types of fixture in combination tournaments.

Q.6 Describe the disadvantages of league tournament.

Q.7 Allotment of bye is on basis of:

a) Pre-decided Sequence b) Random Draws

c) Performance d) First Cum First Serve

Q.8 What is the another name of league matches?

a) Knock out b) Ladder

c) Cob web d) Round Robin

Q.9 If 8 teams are participating in single league tournaments. What would be the total number of matches?

a) 24 b) 26

c) 28 d) 30

UNIT 2: SPORTS AND NUTRITION

Q.1 What do you mean by nutrition?

Q.2 Enlist the elements of diet.

Q.3 What do you mean by dieting?

Q.4 Explain any three importance of diet.

Q.5 What are the causes of food intolerance?

Q.6 Elucidate the nutritive components of diet.

Q.7 Deficiency of protein in infants leads to:

a) Marasmus b) Goiter

c) Obesity d) Anemia

Q.8 Total numbers of vitamins required by human body are:

a) 10 b) 11

c) 12 d) 13

Q.9 Glucose is a type of:

a) Fats b) Simple Carbohydrates

c) Proteins d) Complex Carbohydrates

UNIT 3: YOGA AND LIFESTYLE

Q.1 What do you mean by asana?

Q.2 What is diabetes?

Q.3 What are the benefits and contraindications of chakrasana?

Q.4 Discuss the procedure of bhujangasana.

Q.5 Elaborate the procedure and benefits of gomukhasana.

Q.6 What is hypertension? Which asana is useful for the same Discuss?

Q.7 When first International Yoga Day celebrated?

a) 21 June b) 21 May

c) 21 December d) 21 March

Q.8 Which among is not the type of asana?

a) Meditation b) Relaxative

c) Recreation d) Corrective

Q.9 Which asana is known as Fish pose?

a) Matsyasana b) Bhujangasana

c) Shalabhasana d) Sukhasana

UNIT 4: PHYSICAL EDUCATION AND SPORTS FOR CWSN

Q.1 What is diorder?

Q.2 What do you mean by ASD?

Q.3 Write down the full form of OCD.

Q.4 What are the cause of ADHD?

Q.5 Explain about the general disability etiquettes.

Q.6 What do you mean by Intellectual Disability?

Q.7 What is SPD?

a) Sensory Personal Disorder b) Sensory Processing Disability

c) Sensory Processing Disorder d) Sensory Personal Disability

Q.8 Avoiding eye contact and preferring to stay alone are common to which disorder?

a) ASD b) ADHD

c) ODD d) SPD

Q.9 Causes of Disorders are:

a) Heridity b) Environment

c) Both (a) & (b) d) None of the above

UNIT 5: CHILDREN AND WOMEN IN SPORTS

Q.1 What do you mean by motor development?

Q.2 Define flat foot.

Q.3 Discuss about the corrective measures for lordosis.

Q.4 Write a short note on middle childhood.

Q.5 Discuss the concept of women’s participation in sports in India.

Q.6 Explain the causes, precautions and remedies of scoliosis.

Q.7 What is bulimia nervosa?

a) Mental Diseases b) Simple Diseases

c) Eating Diseases d) Serious Diseases

Q.8 In which Olympics P.T. Usha secured 4th place in 400 m hurdle race?

a) 1980 Olympics b) 1984 Olympics

c) 2000 Olympics d) None of the above

Q.9 In which Olympics did women participate for the first time?

a) 1900 b) 1904

c) 1908 d) 1896

UNIT 6: TEST AND MEASUREMENT IN SPORTS

Q.1 What do you mean by test?

Q.2 What is the purpose of partial curl up?

Q.3 Discuss about the modified pushups in detail.

Q.4 Describe the procedure of chair stand test in detail.

Q.5 Which test would you suggest for your grandmother to test upper body flexibility?

Q.6 Explain any one cardio vascular fitness test.

Q.7 Height of stool in Harved step test for college men is:

a) 18 inch b) 19 inch

c) 20 inch d) 16 inch

Q.8 Skin fold calippar is used for:

a) Adipose tissue of specific sites b) Thickness of skin

c) Quality of skin d) Subctaneous fat tissue

Q.9 Height is measured by_______.

a) Dynomometer b) Stadiometer

c) Skin fold Calipper d) Plumb Line Test

UNIT 7: PHYSIOLOGY AND INJURIES IN SPORTS

Q.1 What do you mean by bone injuries?

Q.2 State any three physiological factor which determines flexibility.

Q.3 Describe about the management of laceration.

Q.4 What is the aim of medicine in sports?

Q.5 Write a short note on contusion.

Q.6 Elucidate any three effects of exercise on cardiovascular system.

Q.7 In PRICE, R stand for:

a) Remove b) Rest

c) Run d) Renew

Q.8 What is tendon?

a) Attach muscle to bone b) Attach muscle to muscle

c) Attach bone to bone d) Attach ligament to bone

Q.9 Exercises are done in the:

a) Anaerobic b) Aerobic

c) (a) & (b) Both d) None of the above

UNIT 8: BIOMECHANICS AND SPORTS

Q.1 What do you mean by biomechanics?

Q.2 What extension?

Q.3 Define pronation.

Q.4 Explain Newton’s third law of motion with example.

Q.5 What is the difference between adduction and abduction?

Q.6 Movement possible in ball and socket joint are:

a) Rotation b) Flexion

c) Extension d) All of the above

Q.7 Newton Ist law of notion is known as:

a) Law of accleration b) Law of inertia

c) Law of action-reaction d) None of these

Q.8 The simplest possible joint movement is:

a) Circular Motion b) Flexing Movement

c) Gliding Movement d) Swinging Motion


TERM-I CLASS: XII 2020-21

SUBJECT: PYCHOLOGY REVISION SHEET

CHAPTER 1: VARIATIONS IN PSYCHOLOGICAL ATTRIBUTES

Q1. The ___________ approach considers intelligence as an aggregate of abilities.

Q2. An IQ below _________ is generally considered intellectually disabled

a) 100

b) 70

c) 120

d) 110

Q3. If a person has a skill of understanding the motives, feelings and behaviors of other people,

he/she is said to have

a) Interpersonal intelligence

b) Intrapersonal Intelligence

c) Linguistic Intelligence

d) Social Intelligence

Q4. The ratio which states the relationship between mental age and the chronological age is

called ______________

Q5. The concept of “Emotional Intelligence” has been proposed by:

a) Morgan and Murry

b) Binet and simon

c) Salovey and Mayer

d) Guilford and Thurstone

Q6. Individual underlying potential for acquiring skills is known as ___________.

Q7. What is CAS?

Q8. What is NPC?

Q9. Classify people on the basis of IQ or How are IQ scores distributed in a population?

Q10. Why are some people more intelligent than others? Is it due to heredity or environment?

Q11. “Intelligence is not a single entity; rather distinct types of intelligences exist”. Define this

statement by stating an intelligence theory with example.

Q12. What are the misuses of intelligence test?

CHAPTER 2: SELF AND PERSONALITY

Q1. Value judgement of a person about himself/herself is called _____________.

Q2. A student who believes that he has ability to excel in sports demonstrates high

___________.

Q3. Learning to delay or defer the gratification on needs is called ___________.

Q4. __________ is a biologically based characteristic way to reacting.

Q5. ___________ is a way of reducing anxiety by distorting.

Q6. Oedipus complex involves love for ___________.

Q7. Tendency to place individuals in the extreme positions is called __________.

Q8. Is personality a dynamic organization? Explain.

Q9. Discuss the personality types given by Sheldon.

Q10. What does Carl Jung mean by “Collective Unconscious”?

Q11. “She adopted a more optimistic view of human life with emphasis on human growth and

self actualisation”. Identify the theorist and explain the concept.

Q12. Discuss main propositions of behavioral approach to the study of personality.

CHAPTER 3: MEETING LIFE CHALLENGES

Q1. Stress if often a factor in ____________disease, the leading cause of death.

a) Heart

b) Cancer

c) Dementia

d) Both a and b

Q2. __________ is the term to describe stress level that helps in achieving peak performance.

Q3. __________ involves feelings of tension or uneasiness that occur before, during and after an

examination.

Q4. Psychoneuroimmunology focuses on the links between the mind, the brain and the

________.

Q5. Match the following:

A) T cells (i) Increase immunological activity

B) T helper cells (ii) Involved against viruses

C) Natural Killer cells (iii) Destroys invaders

D) B cells (iv) Produces antibodies

Q6. Stressed individuals are more likely to expose themselves to ________ which are agents

causing physical illness.

Q7. Making changes in oneself or surrounding like managing time better is an example of:

a) Task oriented strategy

b) Avoidance-oriented strategy

c) Emotion-oriented strategy

d) None of the above

Q8. Putting off what we know we need to do is called ____________.

Q9. Explain the behavioral effects of stress.

Q10. What do you understand by Resilience?

Q11. Describe the techniques that can help manage stress in life.

Q12. Describe the life skills which help meeting the challenges of school life.

CHAPTER 4: PSYCHOLOGICAL DISORDERS

Q1. __________ are the standards of test performance that permit the comparison of one

person’s score on the test to the scores of others who have taken the test.

Q2. “At risk” people fall into which category or model of abnormal behavior?

a) Psychodynamic model

b) Behavioral model

c) Cognitive model

d) Diathesis-stress model

Q3. Rajni’s older daughter works in a hospital. Inspite of knowing her late night ward duty she

continues to have prolonged vague and intense fear accompanied by hyper vigilance. Identify the

disorder she is suffering from.

Q4. “I can control the weather according to my mood”. This is a statement made by a person

suffering from delusion of ___________.

a) Persecution

b) Reference

c) Control

d) Grandeur

Q5. The craze of thinness valued by models and actors is termed as _____________ eating

disorder.

Q6. __________ elaborated the role of four humors in personal character and temperament.

Q7. What is mental health stigma?

Q8. “Biological Psychological and social factors play an important role in psychological

disorders”. Comment.

Q9. Differentiate between the terms anxiety and panic.

Q10. What are the causes of suicide? How it can be prevented? Describe the ways to strengthen

students’ self-esteem.

Q11. “A person who has normal eye sight reports a complaint of blindness just before the exams

and complains that he is not able to read a book anymore”. Identify and explain the disorder by

giving one example.

Q12. State the salient features of dissociative amnesia.

CHAPTER 5: THERAPEUTIC APPROACHES

Q1. The psychological model that explains abnormal behavior in the light of learning

maladaptive ways is

a) Behavioral model

b) Social model

c) Cognitive model

d) Existential model

Q2. The technique used for treating phobias or irrational fears is ____________.

Q3. Client centered therapy focuses on creating unconditional positive regard in the client. T/F

Q4. Rational emotive therapy had been proposed by _____________.

Q5. Illustrate the importance of therapeutic relationship in psychotherapy.

Q6. How empathy is different than sympathy?

Q7. Briefly explain the therapy given by Frankl.

Q8. Mention and explain the therapy that encourages client to seek personal growth.

Q9. Explain the major characteristics of psychotherapeutic approaches.

Q10. “Behavior therapy use principles of learning theory”. Please explain the statement. Also

which behavioral technique can be useful to treat a person who has a phobia of cockroaches?

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BRAIN INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL TERM I CLASS-XII 2020 -21