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BOEING 777/787 ORAL KNOWLEDGE VALIDATION

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ETIHAD AIRWAYS – UNITED ARAB EMIRATES


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Section 0: Table of Contents


1. GENERAL INFORMATION .................................................................................... 1

1.1. Purpose ..................................................................................................... 1

1.2. Restrictions on Use ................................................................................... 1

1.3. Feedback................................................................................................... 1

1.4. Knowledge Validation Policies & Procedures ............................................. 1

2. AIRCRAFT LIMITATIONS QUESTIONS ................................................................ 1

2.1. General Limitations Questions ................................................................... 1

2.2. Fuel Limitations Questions ........................................................................ 2

2.3. Navigation Limitations Questions ............................................................... 2

2.4. Power plant Limitations Questions ............................................................. 3

2.5. Air Systems Limitations Questions............................................................. 3

2.6. Airplane Structure Limitations Questions ................................................... 3

2.7. Communication Limitations Questions ....................................................... 3

3. MEMORY ITEM PROCEDURES QUESTIONS ...................................................... 1

3.1. Memory Items Questions ........................................................................... 1

3.2. General flight regulation Policies ............................................................... 4

3.3. Cockpit To Cabin Abnormal / Emergency Calls Questions ........................ 6

4. AIRCRAFT SYSTEMS QUESTIONS (SET 1) ........................................................ 1

4.1. General Questions ..................................................................................... 1

4.2. EIS – EFIS Questions ................................................................................ 2

4.3. EIS – EICAS Questions ............................................................................. 3

4.4. Navigation System Questions .................................................................... 4

4.5. Fuel System Questions .............................................................................. 5

4.6. Power Plant Questions .............................................................................. 6

4.7. TCAS System Questions ........................................................................... 7


5.1. Bleed Air Questions ................................................................................... 1

5.2. Air Conditioning Questions ........................................................................ 2

5.3. Fire Protection Questions .......................................................................... 3

5.4. Ice and Rain System Questions ................................................................. 4

5.5. Pressurization System Questions .............................................................. 5


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6.1. Autoflight Systems Questions .................................................................... 1

6.2 Hydraulic Systems Questions .................................................................... 2

6.3. Flight Controls System Questions .............................................................. 3

6.4. Landing Gear & Brakes Systems Questions .............................................. 4

6.5. TCAS System Questions ........................................................................... 4


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Section 1: General Information


1. GENERAL INFORMATION

1.1. PURPOSE

This document contains a list of appropriate questions for instructors to pose to Etihad Airways trainees during the conduct of recurrent training events (EBT Day 2). It is an official Etihad Airways Operations Training department document.

'Operational Knowledge' of all limitations and specifications is expected of Etihad pilots. Certain limits are more 'time sensitive' than others, and the timely recall of these from memory is required where:

1. The limit is a safety of flight item, OR

2. The urgency of the situation does not allow for reference to the FCOM or QRH, AND

3. The limitation does not have an associated placard, indicator marking, warning light, or other indication located in the cockpit for immediate reference.

A sound working knowledge of aircraft systems is also expected, in particular where such understanding is necessary for a timely and effective management of malfunctions and abnormals.

The intention of this question bank is to assist with the assessment of the Knowledge competency by instructors, although this assessment will also take into consideration relevant observations of the trainee performance during the conduct of simulator training, and discussions during the subsequent de-briefing. It is important that the validation is applied in a manner consistent with a supportive learning environment, and that trainees perceive this to be a part of the training process rather than as a pass/fail element.

1.2. RESTRICTIONS ON USE

The information contained in this document is not intended to be a source of information relating to the conduct of any operation carried out by Etihad Airways. The answers listed in this document are a representation of the information extracted from official Etihad Airways operational documentation, but may not necessarily be up-to-date with the latest revisions to those documents.

1.3. FEEDBACK

Where the reader believes there to an error in this document or wishes to suggest a change to its content, please notify the training department via an email sent to [email protected].

1.4. KNOWLEDGE VALIDATION POLICIES & PROCEDURES

In addition to the general policy in OM-D, the following applies:

1. For variant (B777/787) fleet flying crew, the questions asked must be confined to the aircraft type used in the OPC.

2. Where this document states “As specified in/on”, the trainee is not expected to be able to provide the answer from memory but must be able to state the reference/location in the answer. For example, if asked the following question:

What is the Max demonstrated XWC for T/O and LDG?

It is greater than 30 kts. Exact values are as specified in the LIM Chapter.

mailto:[email protected]


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The trainee is expected to state that the information is located in FCOM and QRH: EY SUPP.

3. Where this document states “ then accomplish the actions as per…”, the trainee is expected to be able to state these memory actions without reference to the QRH/FCOM. For example, if asked the following question:

What are the memory items associated with an Approach to STALL RECOVERY?

Accomplish the actions as per the APPROACH TO STALL RECOVERY procedure in the QRH.

The trainee is expected to state the correct memory actions, in sequence for the approach to stall recovery, as it is written in the QRH.

4. Where this document states “No limitation specified”, no limitation is published for the particular aircraft type/variant.


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Section 2: Aircraft Limitations Questions


2. AIRCRAFT LIMITATIONS QUESTIONS

The limitation questions listed here represent all of the limitations that must be committed to memory. In addition, other limitations are listed on placards in the cockpit or listed on other operational documentation readily accessible to the flight crew. Moreover, Etihad Airways pilots should be operationally familiar with the many other aircraft limitations listed in the Operating Limitations Chapter of the applicable FCOM.

2.1. GENERAL LIMITATIONS QUESTIONS

GENERAL LIMITATIONS QUESTIONS

B777 / B777F B787

1. What is the maximum slope for T/O & LDG?

+/- 2%

2. What is the maximum tail wind component for Takeoff & Landing?

15 kts

Maximum Unrestricted Takeoff/Landing Tailwind Component: 10 kts Takeoffs and landings with tailwind components up to 15 kts are permitted with the following restrictions:

Takeoff: • OPT calculation performed • Runway is clear and dry • Antiskid and thrust reversers are fully operational • Max takeoff rated thrust is used.

Landing: • Aircraft performance landing weights are verified by OPT,

Performance, LANDING FIELD LIMIT WEIGHT • Antiskid and thrust reversers are fully operational • Flaps 30 landing • Auto speed brakes are used • No braking action reports less than GOOD

3. What is the Maximum Operating Altitude?

43,100ft Pressure Alt

4. What is the Maximum Altitude for T/O & LDG?

8,400ft Pressure Alt

777F: 9,800ft Pressure Alt

777F: Max field elevation limited to 9,650ft

14,000ft

Pressure Alt

5. What are the Turbulent Air Penetration Speeds?

Below 25,000ft 270 kts

Above 25,000ft 280 kts/M0.82 (whichever is lower)

(Maintain a minimum speed of 15 kts above min manoeuvring speed at all altitudes when airspeed is below M0.82)

290 kts below 25,000ft

310 kts/M.84 above 25,000ft

(whichever is lower)

6. What is the Max EY Crosswind Component for T/O and LDG on a wet runway with Good Braking action?

Values are as specified in the EY QRH Chapter OI – Company wind limitation


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GENERAL LIMITATIONS QUESTIONS

B777 / B777F B787

7. What operational documents list the aircraft maximum taxi weight, takeoff weight, landing weight, and ZFW?

As specified in the FCOM

8. What is the maximum allowable difference between Captain’s or First Officer’s altitude display and field elevation for RVSM operation?

The maximum difference between the Captain’s or First Officer’s altimeter and field elevation for RVSM operation is 75ft

2.2. FUEL LIMITATIONS QUESTIONS

FUEL LIMITATIONS QUESTIONS

B777 / B777F B787

1. What is the Max tank fuel temperature?

49°C At takeoff 49°C

Inflight 65°C

2. What is the Minimum tank fuel temp prior to T/O?

-40°C or 3°C above the fuel freezing point (highest)

-29°C

3. Minimum tank fuel temp in flight is?

3°C above freezing point of fuel being used

4. What are the fuel loading restrictions if Center tank fuel is loaded?

Main tanks must be scheduled to be full if Centre tank fuel loaded. Centre tank can contain 1,360kg (B787 -10,000kg) of fuel with less than full main tanks provided that Center tank fuel + actual ZFW do not exceed MZFW and C of G limits are observed

2.3. NAVIGATION LIMITATIONS QUESTIONS

NAVIGATION LIMITATIONS QUESTIONS

B777 / B777F B787

1. What are the limitations on the use of the GPWS LOOK AHEAD TERRAIN ALERTING system?

Prohibited within 15nm of T/O, APP, LDG at any airport not contained in GPWS database.

Do not use for navigation

2. What are the operational limitations on the use of Runway Awareness and Advisory System?

Do not use RAAS voice annunciations or alerts for navigation.

Do not use RAAS voice annunciations or alerts as substitute for NOTAM or ATIS information

N/A

3. What selection must be done in the Flight Management System if QFE is used for PFD altitude reference instead of QNH?

QFE SELECTION IS PROHIBITED BY ETIHAD’s ALTIMETER POLICY IN OM-A


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2.4. POWER PLANT LIMITATIONS QUESTIONS

POWER PLANT LIMITATIONS QUESTIONS

B777 / 777F B787

1. How are the maximum and minimum power plant limits displayed?

Power plant maximum and minimum limits are indicated by red engine limit display markings

2. Is intentional use of reverse thrust in-flight allowed?

Intentional use of reverse thrust in-flight is prohibited

3. Can the airplane be backed using reverse thrust while on the ground?

Backing the airplane with reverse thrust is prohibited

4. What is the maximum EGT for engine start?

The maximum EGT during start is indicated by a red start limit line on the EGT indication display

2.5. AIR SYSTEMS LIMITATIONS QUESTIONS

AIR SYSTEM LIMITATIONS QUESTIONS

B777 / B777F B787

1. What is the maximum cabin differential pressure (positive relief valves)?

9.1 psi differential 9.9 psi differential

2. What is the maximum allowable cabin pressure differential for takeoff and landing?

0.11 psi differential

3. How is an excessive cabin differential pressure indicated on the EICAS display?

By a red digital readout on the EICAS display

2.6. AIRPLANE STRUCTURE LIMITATIONS QUESTIONS

FLIGHT CONTROL LIMITATIONS QUESTIONS

B777 / B777F B787

1. What precautions should be taken when making flight control changes or inputs?

Rapid and large alternating control inputs are to be avoided, especially in combination with large changes in pitch, roll and yaw

2.7. COMMUNICATION LIMITATIONS QUESTIONS

FLIGHT CONTROL LIMITATIONS QUESTIONS

B777 / B777F B787

1. Which of the ACP’s are not to be used for SATCOM / CABIN conference?

N/A Captain’s or First Officer’s ACP are not to be used


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Section 3: Memory Items Questions


3. MEMORY ITEM PROCEDURES QUESTIONS

The questions listed here represent the Quick Reference Handbook and FCOM Memory Items procedures that must be committed to memory. When asked these questions during a knowledge validation event, Etihad Airways pilots must be able to immediately recite these procedures, in the proper sequence, without errors. In addition, there are many other flight operational procedures that must be carried out in a timely manner. Etihad Airways pilots should be operationally familiar with the many other emergency and abnormal procedures listed in the applicable QRH.

3.1. MEMORY ITEMS QUESTIONS

MEMORY ITEMS QUESTIONS B777 / B777F / B787

1. What are the actions for Aborted Engine Start?

1 FUEL CONTROL switch (affected side) .............. CUTOFF

2. What are the actions for Airspeed Unreliable?

1 Autopilot disengage switch ......................................... Push

2 A/T ARM switches (both) ............................................ OFF

3 FD switches (both) ...................................................... OFF

4 Set the following gear up pitch attitude and thrust:

Flaps extended ......................... 10 degrees and 85% N1

Flaps Up ..................................... 4 degrees and 70% N1

3. What are the actions for Cabin Altitude?

1 Don the oxygen masks

2 Establish crew communications

3 Check cabin altitude and rate

4 If cabin altitude is uncontrollable:

o PASS OXYGEN switch .......................... push to ON and

hold for 1 second

o ... Without delay, descend to the lowest safe altitude or 10,000ft, whichever is higher.

o To descend

Move thrust levers to idle

Extend speedbrake

If structural integrity is in doubt, limit airspeed and avoid high manoeuvring loads.

Descend at Vmo/Mmo

4. What are the actions for Dual Engine Fail/Stall?

1 FUEL CONTROL switches (both) ...... CUTOFF, then RUN

2 RAM air turbine switch ............ Push and hold for 1 second

5. What are the actions for Engine Autostart?

1 FUEL CONTROL switch (affected side) ............. CUTOFF

6. What are the actions for Engine Limit (Exceed – B787)/Surge/Stall?

1 A/T ARM switch

(affected side) .................. Confirm .............................. OFF

2 Thrust lever

(affected side) .................. Confirm .................. Retard until engine indications stay within

limits or the thrust lever is at idle


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7. What are the actions for Engine Severe Damage/Separation?

1 A/T ARM switch


2 Thrust lever


3 FUEL CONTROL switch

(affected side) .................. Confirm ...................... CUTOFF

4 Engine fire switch

(affected side) .................. Confirm ............................... Pull

8. What are the actions for Fire Engine?

1 A/T ARM switch


2 Thrust lever


3 FUEL CONTROL switch

(affected side) .................. Confirm ...................... CUTOFF

4 Engine fire switch

(affected side) .................. Confirm ............................... Pull

5 If FIRE ENG message stays shown:

Engine fire switch (affected side) ..... Rotate to the stop

…..and hold for 1 second

If after 30 seconds, the FIRE ENG message stays shown:

Engine fire switch (affected side) ........... Rotate to the

other stop and hold for 1 second

9. What are the actions for Stabilizer?

1 STAB cutout switches (both) .............................. CUTOUT

2 Do not exceed the current airspeed

10. What are the memory items associated with an Approach to STALL RECOVERY?

Memory Actions as per the APPROACH TO STALL RECOVERY procedure in the QRH

11. What are the Memory actions for a Predictive Windshear caution?

Manoeuvre as required to avoid the windshear

12. What are the Memory actions for a Predictive Windshear warning?

Prior to V1, reject takeoff

After V1, perform the Windshear Escape Manoeuvre

13. What are the Memory actions for a Reactive Windshear escape Manoeuvre?

Memory actions as per the Windshear Escape Manoeuvre in the QRH

14. What are the Memory actions for a GPWS Caution?

Correct the flight path or the airplane configuration

15. What are the Memory actions for a GPWS Warning?

Memory actions as per the GPWS warning response procedure in the QRH


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16. How do you perform a go-around after touchdown?

If a go-around is initiated before touchdown and a touchdown occurs continue with normal go-around procedure

If a go-around is inhibited after touchdown:

Manually advance the thrust levers to go-around (TO/GA switches are inhibited, Autothrottle is not available, SPEEDBRAKE lever stows, CONFIG FLAPS warning will occur)

Maintain flaps configuration

At Vref rotate normally

Once safely airborne, press TO/GA switches

Perform normal go-around

NOTE: If reverse thrust is selected, a full stop landing must be made. If an engine remains in reverse, safe flight is not possible

17. When will the Autothrottle wake-up feature be disabled?

When the pitch mode is in FLCH SPD or TOGA

During a descent in VNAV SPD with A/T in HOLD mode

When the airplane barometric altitude is below 400ft AAL on takeoff or airplane altitude is below 100ft RA on approach

When thrust is at or above reference thrust limit

The autothrottle will not support stall protection when the A/T mode is HOLD


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3.2. GENERAL FLIGHT REGULATION POLICIES

The questions listed here are referenced to the OM-A and represent company limitations and policies.

ETIHAD OPERATIONAL POLICIES

ANSWERS

1. What are the Company speed restrictions?

An aircraft speed shall not exceed 250 KIAS below 10,000ft AGL or minimum clean speed, whichever is greater, unless a specific speed has been assigned by ATC, in which case the speed shall not be greater than 250 KIAS below 5,000ft AGL or minimum clean speed, whichever is greater

2. What are the maximum allowable bank angles?

10 degrees below 300ft AGL

15 degrees at/above 300ft AGL

30 degrees at/above 500ft AGL

3. What are the maximum permissible rates of climb/descent?

During climb or descent, the maximum vertical speed shall not exceed:

2,000 ft/min when within 2,000ft of the cleared flight level/altitude

1,500 ft/min when within 1,000ft of the cleared flight level/altitude

1,000 ft/min when operating within 5NM and +/- 2,000ft of other aircraft

At no time must rates of descent exceed the following values:

5,000 ft/min down to an altitude 5,000 ft AGL





1,200 ft/min below 1,000 ft AGL for Cat D aircraft

1,000 ft/min below 1,000 ft AGL for Cat C aircraft

Note: Adherence to published approach profiles may require, in exceptional cases, (such as steep published glideslope or high gross weights), higher rates of descent than specified above. These cases must be specifically briefed during the approach preparations

4. What is the Company stabilisation approach criteria?

The following parameters must be met and maintained during final approach:

1. The aircraft is on the correct path

2. Pitch is within + 8 and - 3 degrees (Boeing)

3. Bank is not more than 7°

4. Speed is within target speed + 10 kts and VREF/VLS, excluding minor deviations due to gusty conditions on final approach

5. The aircraft is in the correct and briefed landing configuration


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ETIHAD OPERATIONAL POLICIES

ANSWERS

6. Sink rate is not more than:

- 1,000ft per minute for CAT C aircraft, or

- 1,200ft per minute for CAT D aircraft

If a higher rate of descent is required by aircraft configuration, approach procedure or other specific conditions, it shall be briefed during approach preparations

7. Power setting is appropriate for the aircraft configuration. Significant changes are only allowed for gust compensation. Brief reductions to idle power are acceptable as long as all other stabilization criteria are met

8. All briefings and checklists have been completed

9. ILS approaches shall be flown within one dot of glide slope and localizer. During Non-Precision approaches the course deviation must stay within ½ dot or 2.5 degrees for VOR approaches and 5 degrees (ADF) for NDB approaches

5. What is the latest point at which the stabilization approach criteria must be met during a straight-in instrument approach which is cleared to be concluded visually?

Straight-in instrument approaches which are cleared to be concluded visually must meet the Stabilized Approach Criteria at 1,000ft RA and adhere to the Stabilized Approach Criteria as described for standard Precision and Non-Precision Approaches

6. What is the latest point at which the stabilization approach criteria must be met during circling approaches and visual circuits?

500ft AAL

7. What is Etihad’s policy regarding orbits on final approach?

Orbit on the approach segment, below 2,000ft AGL, is prohibited for any purpose, including losing of height, speed or increasing the track miles, even when requested by ATC

8. What is Etihad’s policy regarding landing within the touchdown zone?

The desired touchdown zone lies between 300 to 600m from the landing threshold

If touchdown cannot be accomplished within the desired touchdown zone, a missed approach should normally be initiated with due regard to the remaining runway length

Spool up of engines, aircraft speed and pitch attitude must be considered carefully

9. What is Etihad’s policy regarding the decision to execute a go-around?

A decision to initiate a 'Go-around' rests with the Commander as long as the aircraft is higher than 1,000ft AAL

Below 1,000ft AAL, a 'Go-around' shall be executed as soon as any active crew member calls out "GO-AROUND", regardless of who is PF/PM


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3.3. COCKPIT TO CABIN ABNORMAL / EMERGENCY CALLS QUESTIONS

The questions listed here are related to cockpit / cabin communications in abnormal and emergency situations.

When asked these questions during a knowledge validation event, pilots must be able to recite these callouts without errors.

ABNORMAL/EMERGENCY CALLS QUESTIONS

ANSWERS

1. What is the standard PA required to summon the CM to the flight deck for a NITS briefing, or in case of pilot incapacitation?

“This is the Captain, Cabin Manager to the Cockpit Immediately”

2. What is the standard PA required to initiate a Rapid Deplaning?

Time Permitting:

“This is the Captain, Cabin Manager to the Cockpit Immediately”

After NITS briefing or if time not available:

“This is the Captain, Attention, Attention. This is an important announcement; all passengers must leave the aircraft via the nearest boarding door, in a quick and orderly manner. Leave all personal belongings behind and follow cabin crew instructions.”

3. What is the standard PA required in the event of an abnormal situation that is deemed to be under control (e.g. engine tailpipe fire under control)?

“This is the Captain, Passengers and Crew remain seated”

4. What is the standard PA required to warn the crew that an abnormal event has arisen, or an emergency evacuation may soon be required?

“This is the Captain, Attention Crew at Stations, Attention Crew at Stations”

5. What is the standard PA required to inform that an Evacuation is NOT required after the “Attention Crew at Stations” call has been performed?

“This is the Captain, Normal Operations, Normal Operations, Passengers remain seated”

6. What is the standard PA required to command an Evacuation?

“This is the Captain, Evacuate, Evacuate”

7. What is the standard PA required to warn the cabin crew immediately after take-off that an abnormal event has arisen?


8. What is the standard PA required 2 minutes before impact (e.g. in case of forced landing, landing with abnormal L/G or ditching situation)?



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ABNORMAL/EMERGENCY CALLS QUESTIONS

ANSWERS

9. What is the standard PA required 30 seconds before impact (e.g. in case of forced landing, landing with abnormal L/G or ditching situation?

“This is the Captain, BRACE, BRACE”

10. What is the standard PA in the event of an Emergency Descent?

“This is the Captain, Emergency descent, Emergency descent.”

11. What is the standard PA required in case the cabin altitude remains above 10,000ft during a level off while conducting an Emergency Descent?

“This is the Captain, Passengers and Crew remain on oxygen until advised.”

12. What is the standard PA required once the cabin altitude is at/below 10,000ft after completing an Emergency Descent?

“This is the Captain, Emergency Descent completed, Emergency descent completed.”


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Section 4: Aircraft Systems Questions (Set 1)


4. AIRCRAFT SYSTEMS QUESTIONS (SET 1)

The questions listed here represent a comprehensive sampling of aircraft systems questions that are considered suitable for the purposes of validating a pilot’s general knowledge of the aircraft systems.

4.1. GENERAL QUESTIONS

GENERAL SYSTEMS QUESTIONS

B777 / B777F B787

1. What is the indication for a Master Brightness switch in the OFF position?

A black ring on the side of the inner switch is visible when the Master Brightness switch is OFF

2. When should the oxygen mask Emergency position be selected?

The oxygen mask emergency position should be selected to protect against smoke and harmful vapours

3. What happens when the evacuation command is switched ON?

When the evacuation command is switched ON, the red EVAC light in the flight deck and amber EVAC light at the flight attendant panel flashes.

An audio horn sounds at each flight attendant panel.

EVAC COMMAND EICAS warning shows in the flight deck.

EVAC lights flash at the designated flight attendant switch panels.

An aural horn sounds in the cabin at all flight attendant locations with evacuation controls.

4. How is the fuselage mounted ELT transmission stopped?

Selecting the ELT switch on the overhead panel to reset ends transmission on emergency locater signal

5. How long does a fully charged emergency lighting battery last?

A fully charged emergency lighting battery provides at least 15 minutes of operation

10 min

6. What removable Safety Equipment is located in the cockpit?

There is one crash axe, one pair of gloves, one fire extinguisher, one PBE, 2 flashlights and four crew life vests

7. When can the 777 upper crew rest area be occupied?

The upper crew rest area can be occupied when above 25,000ft and when the AIRFLOW OFF light is not illuminated

N/A

8. When can the 787 overhead flight attendant rest be occupied?

N/A The OFAR can be occupied above 15,000ft

9. What are the indications for an armed entry door?

Door mode lever is in the unsafe yellow and black band or in the armed red band and door girt bar indicator shows yellow flag in view

Automatic mode is in Armed (red) Automatic mode Indicator light is on

10. What is the correct pilot seat adjustment position?

Seat should be adjusted until top of the glareshield appears as the edge of a plane and crosshairs on the top of the rudder pedal adjustment lines up with the top of the control column


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4.2. EIS – EFIS QUESTIONS

EIS – EFIS QUESTIONS B777 / B777F B787

1. Where is the VNAV Speed band displayed?

On the right side of the speed tape when flaps are up and it indicates the acceptable speed range for VNAV path pitch mode

2. When is the RA and the RA Round dial displayed?

It is displayed as a digital readout below 2,500ft AGL. A round dial displays below 1,000ft with the perimeter of the dial removed as RA decreases. Turns amber and flashes when below set RA minima

3. What does the Anticipation Cue (Ghost Pointer) / Final Approach Course Pointer on the PFD represent?

It indicates the relative position of the path for the selected and activated approach

4. What does the Navigation Performance Deviation scale represent?

It indicates the difference / margin between ANP/RNP. The bars represent ANP. The area between the bars represents the difference between ANP and RNP. ANP equals RNP when bars meet and the scale turns amber and UNABLE RNP EICAS displays

5. If the current EICAS display processing channel fails, how do you select an alternate display channel?

Select ALTN with the DSPL CTRL instrument source select switch

N/A

6. What is the background colour of the altitude tape when QFE is selected?

The background colour changes to green N/A

7. What does the speed trend vector arrow indicates?

It indicates the predicted airspeed in 10 seconds

8. How do you transfer control of the EFIS (to the CDU)?

By the EFIS control select key on the CDU EFIS/DSP Control Selection

By selecting SYS in any MFD then EFIS/DSP


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4.3. EIS – EICAS QUESTIONS

EIS – EICAS QUESTIONS B777 / B777F B787

1. What is the grouped priority level for multiple EICAS messages?

Warnings in red at the top, cautions next in amber, lastly advisories indented one space

2. How is a red box for a previously exceeded engine parameter cancelled?

It is cancelled by pushing the CANC/RCL switch

3. How do you know if more than one page of messages exists?

A white Page Number indication will be displayed

4. When is an alert message preceded by a white Checklist Icon []?

When a checklist with procedural steps, notes or other information of which the crew must be made aware exists for the respective message

5. When is the secondary engine indications displayed in Compact Display Format?

When the lower MFD is failed, unpowered or occupied with EICAS, and the secondary engine display is manually or automatically selected

N/A

6. What happens to the lower MFD on the 777 or the EICAS on 787 when any of the following occurs?

- Fuel control switch moved to cut off in flight;

- Eng Fire Switch pulled in flight;

- Secondary Eng parameter exceeded or

- N2 below idle in flight.

The secondary engine parameters are automatically displayed and cannot be cleared until the condition no longer exists

7. What alerts the crew to a new status message on the blanked secondary EICAS display?

A STATUS cue on the primary EICAS display indicates a new status message is displayed in the secondary EICAS display


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4.4. NAVIGATION SYSTEM QUESTIONS

NAVIGATION SYSTEM QUESTIONS

B777 / B777F B787

1. What is the alignment limit for the ADIRU on the 777, or the IRU on the 787?

ADIRU alignment should not be attempted at latitudes greater than 78 degrees 14.75 minutes.

No limits

2. What happens if the ADIRU fails on the 777 or the IRU fails on the 787?

The SAARU automatically supplies attitude, heading and air data. Initial heading is from ADIRU heading before it failed and will be supplied for three minutes. SAARU heading must be manually inserted three minutes after the failure, and updated periodically.

The FMC will continue to receive hybrid GPS inertial position using the AHRU

3. When does the ADIRU / IRU enter an automatic realignment mode?

It occurs when the airplane stops for an extended period and alignment is refined until airplane moves again. New position is able to be entered when dashes appear in the POS INIT page.

4. When in-flight, can the power source be removed from the ADIRU on 777, or IRU on 787?

System logic prevents the ADIRU from being unpowered in flight.

IRU power can be selected off in flight and a complete realignment in flight is possible provided GPS data is available

5. If there is no other electrical power available, what provides power to the ADIRU?

The ADIRU continues to receive its power from the hot battery bus.

N/A

6. What does the ADIRS do?

The ADIRS calculates airplane attitude, airspeed, altitude, heading and position data for the displays, flight management system, flight controls, engine controls and other systems to use.

N/A

7. Should GPS position updates be used at airports not referenced to WGS-84 standards?

GPS updates should be inhibited for approach operations not based on WGS-84 standards.

8. What is indicated by the Position Trend Vector in Map mode, and what is the display logic?

The Position Trend Vector depicts the predicted position at the end of the cumulative 30 Second segment displayed, based on actual Ground Speed/Bank.

9. What is the alternate source for tuning the Navigation radios if both FMCs fail?

The CDU can be used as an alternative navigation system, accessed through the CDU ALTN NAV RAD page. The L CDU tunes the L radio-navaids and CTR ILS. The R CDU tunes the R radio-navaids.

The TCP can be used to tune the ISFD ILS


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4.5. FUEL SYSTEM QUESTIONS

FUEL SYSTEM QUESTIONS B777 / B777F B787

1. What does an amber PRESS light on the fuel pump switch indicate?

It indicates the fuel pump output pressure is low. The centre pump PRESS light is inhibited with the centre pump switch selected off

2. What does a bar across the cross feed switch indicate?

It indicates the cross feed valve is open

3. What does an amber FAULT light on the fuel jettison arm switch indicate?

It indicates the fuel jettison system is inoperative or a system fault has occurred

4. How many detents are available on the fuel to remain selector knob?

The fuel to remain selector knob has two detents. The first detent provides a slow rate of fuel to remain selection. The second detent provides a fast rate of fuel to remain selection.

N/A

5. When is the expanded fuel to remain indication displayed?

The fuel indication is expanded when one or both cross feed valves are open, one or more fuel tank quantity indications are inoperative, FUEL IN CENTER alert message is displayed and centre tank quantity is amber, FUEL QTY LOW and main tank quantity is amber, FUEL IMBALANCE alert message is displayed, and when the airplane is on the ground and one or both engines are off.

The fuel indication is expanded when:

The cross feed is open 1 or more fuel tank indication inop

Fuel in centre alert message is displayed

Fuel quantity low alert message is displayed

Fuel low centre alert message is displayed

Fuel flow eng alert message is displayed

The insufficient alert message is displayed

The fuel imbalance alert message is displayed

The airplane is on the ground and both eng off

The balance system is active

The balance is on and fuel is already balanced

6. When does an amber fuel imbalance pointer appear in the expanded fuel quantity indicator?

The amber point appears when FUEL IMBALANCE message is displayed

7. What does a flashing fuel imbalance pointer indicate?

It indicates that fuel balancing is going the wrong way


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FUEL SYSTEM QUESTIONS B777 / B777F B787

8. If the centre tank is loaded with fuel, must the main tanks be scheduled to be full?

Yes, the main tanks must be scheduled to full if fuel in centre tank is more than 1,360 kilograms. The main tanks do not have to be scheduled to full if centre tank is less than 1,360 kilograms provided centre tank fuel weight plus actual zero fuel weight does not exceed maximum zero fuel weight and centre of gravity limits are observed.

Yes, the main tanks must be scheduled to full if fuel in centre tank is more than 10,000 kilograms. The main tanks do not have to be scheduled to full if centre tank is less than 10,000 kilograms provided centre tank fuel weight plus actual zero fuel weight does not exceed maximum zero fuel weight and centre of gravity limits are observed

9. What do you do to the centre fuel pumps if there are less than 4,800 kilograms in the centre tank before start?

The centre fuel pumps are left in the OFF position for engine start and takeoff. Turn ON again after established in the climb phase

N/A just follow the fuel in centre alert message

4.6. POWER PLANT QUESTIONS

POWER PLANT QUESTIONS

B777 / B777F B787

1. What parameters does the autostart monitor during an engine ground start?

It monitors eight parameters. They are hot start, hung start, no EGT rise, compressor stall, starter shaft failure, no N1 rotation, insufficient air pressure for starter operation and starter cycle exceeds the starter duty cycle timer.

It monitors 10 parameters. They are loss of 1 starter, loss of both starters, no N1 rotation, no oil pressure, compressor stall, high residual EGT, hot start, hung start, no EGT rise and starter cycle time

2. When is approach idle selected?

Approach is automatically selected in flight if engine anti ice is operating, if flaps are commanded to 25 or greater, if flaps are out of the UP position and one hydraulic system air-driven demand is inoperative, and if the opposite engine bleed air valve is closed.

Approach is automatically selected in flight when

The flaps are commanded to 25 or greater

The landing gear is selected down

3. What happens when N1 or N2 approaches red line limit?

EEC commands a reduced fuel flow and advisory message ENG RPM LIMITED is displayed

4. Is thrust protection available in alternate EEC mode?

Thrust protection is not available in alternate EEC mode and maximum rated thrust is reached at a thrust lever position less than full forward. N1 and N2 red line protection is available in alternate EEC mode.


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POWER PLANT QUESTIONS

B777 / B777F B787

5. What information is available when the In-Flight Start Envelope message is displayed?

The In-Flight Envelope message displays the airspeed range for an in-flight start at the current flight level or maximum flight level (whichever is less)

6. What does the EICAS message “ENG AUTOSTART” identify?

During a ground start, the message will be displayed when autostart did not start the engine or fuel control switch is in RUN at low engine RPM with the autostart switch OFF

During a ground start, the message will be displayed when autostart did not start the engine

7. What does the EICAS message “ENG STARTER CUTOUT” identify?

During Ground start, the Start/Ignition selector remains in the START position, or the engine start valve remains open when commanded to close

The start selector stays in START when commanded to NORM

8. What is the indication when oil quantity is low?

Low oil quantity is indicated by black numbers displayed on a white background and LO is displayed next to the quantity indication

9. What is Thrust Asymmetry Protection (TAP)?

N/A An automatic feature that provides protection against asymmetric thrust during TO or GA by limiting thrust on the higher thrust engine

4.7. TCAS SYSTEM QUESTIONS

TCAS SYSTEM QUESTIONS B777 / B777F B787

1. Which control enables TCAS traffic to be displayed on the ND?

The inner TFC switch on the EFIS control panel when pushed displays TCAS traffic on ND.

The TFC switch on the EFIS control panel when pushed displays TCAS traffic on ND and PFD mini map.

2. What is the symbol for Traffic Advisory traffic?

Traffic Advisory traffic is indicated by a filled amber circle

3. What is the symbol for Resolution Advisory traffic?

Resolution Advisory traffic is indicated by a filled red square

4. What is the symbol for proximity traffic?

Proximity traffic is indicated by a filled white diamond

5. What is the symbol for other traffic?

Other traffic is indicated by an unfilled white diamond

6. What is the indication when TCAS traffic display is enabled?

A cyan TFC displayed on the ND indicates TCAS traffic display is enabled


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TCAS SYSTEM QUESTIONS B777 / B777F B787

7. When a RA occurs, what is the colour of the vertical speed indicator that ensures RA traffic is avoided?

A white vertical speed indicator ensures RA traffic is avoided.

A red vertical speed indicator indicates present vertical speed does not ensure RA traffic is avoided.

8. When are TCAS TA voice alerts inhibited?

TCAS TA voice alerts are inhibited on the ground and ends at approximately 500ft RA

TCAS TA voice alerts are inhibited from ground until 600ft RA during takeoff and from 400ft until Go-around passing 600ft RA during landing

9. When are TCAS RA voice alerts inhibited?

TCAS RA voice alerts are inhibited on the ground and ends at approximately 1,000ft RA

TCAS RA voice alerts are inhibited on the ground and ends at approximately 1,100ft RA during takeoff and 1,000ft RA during landing


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The questions listed here represent a comprehensive sampling of aircraft systems questions that are considered suitable for the purposes of validating a pilot’s working knowledge of the aircraft systems.

5.1. BLEED AIR QUESTIONS

BLEED AIR SYSTEMS QUESTIONS

B777 / B777F B787

1. What are the sources of bleed air?

Bleed air can be supplied from APU, engines, and a ground air source.

Bleed air can only be supplied by the engine

2. What is bleed air used for?

Bleed air is used for;

Air conditioning

Air driven hydraulic pumps

Pressurization

Hydraulic reservoir pressurization

Wing and engine anti-ice

Potable water tank pressurization

Aft cargo heat

TAT probe aspiration

Bleed air is used for

Engine anti-ice

3. When are the engine bleed valves closed automatically?

The engine bleed valves close automatically:

During start

For a bleed air duct leak

For bleed source loss

When an engine fire switch is pulled

For bleed air over-temperature

When a ground cart is supplying air

For bleed air overpressure

N/A

4. What is APU bleed air primarily used for during ground operation?

APU bleed air is used primarily during ground operation for pack operation and engine starting

N/A

5. What crew action is required in the event of a bleed duct leak?

No crew action is required – a duct-leak is detected automatically and the system automatically isolates the leak

N/A


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5.2. AIR CONDITIONING QUESTIONS

AIR CONDITION QUESTIONS

B777 / B777F B787

1. What temperature is set at the mid (12 o’clock) position of the FLT DECK and CABIN temperature selectors?

Approximately 24°C

2. To which zones is trim air from the left engine added for temperature control?

Trim air from the left engine is added to conditioned air ducts for the flight deck and 3 passenger cabin zones on B777-300ER; on B777F it is added to conditioned air ducts for the flight deck, supernumerary cabin, forward main deck cargo, and lower aft cargo compartments.

N/A

3. To which zone is the right trim air on the 787 connected to

N/A The right trim heat is connected to the flight deck, A and C zones

4. Can the target temperature for each passenger cabin temperature zones be modified by a cabin crew member?

The cabin temperature zone may be modified manually plus or minus 6°C within the range of 18°C and 29°C

5. What temperature is produced if a flight deck or cabin temperature selector setting fails or is unavailable?

Pack outlet temperature is regulated to achieve either the last temperature set or an average cabin temperature of 24°C

6. On B777-300ER if the AFT & BULK CARGO TEMP selector is set on HIGH, what temperature is maintained in the cargo compartments?

Bleed air heating system maintains the compartment temperature between 18°C and 24°C. For the bulk compartment only, the bulk compartment ventilation fan operates continuously.

N/A

7. On the 787 how is the bulk cargo heated

N/A Air from the cabin run through an inline electric heater

8. How many temperature zones are there on the B777 or the 787?

The B777-300ER is divided into 8 temperature zones: the flight deck, 6 passenger cabin zones, and forward cargo compartment. The B777 -200LR has 7 temperature zones.

The B777F is divided into 6 temperature zones: the flight deck, supernumerary cabin, forward and aft main deck cargo zones, and the forward and aft lower cargo compartments.

The B787 is divided into 7 temperature zones: the FD and 6 passenger cabin zones.


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5.3. FIRE PROTECTION QUESTIONS

FIRE PROTECTION – EICAS QUESTIONS

B777 / B777F B787

1. What does the EICAS advisory message BOTTLE DISCH CARGO indicate?

It indicates that both rapid discharge cargo fire extinguisher bottle pressures are low

2. What happens if the MAIN DECK CARGO FIRE ARM switch is pushed (777 Freighter)?

On the freighter, it configures one pack off and the other to a low flow mode

N/A

3. On the freighter, what happens if the CARGO DEPR/DISCH switch is subsequently pushed (after pushing the MAIN DECK CARGO FIRE ARM switch)?

It initiates a controlled depressurization to a cabin altitude of approximately 23,000ft with the airplane altitude at 25,000ft

N/A

4. How many fire detector loops/channels have to detect a fire or overheat condition to cause an engine fire warning or overheat caution?

Both have to detect to produce an engine fire warning or overheat caution

5. When does the APU fire extinguisher bottle discharge automatically?

On the ground with both engines off an APU fire signal from either APU fire detector loop causes APU shutdown and extinguisher bottle discharge

On the ground with both engines off an APU fire signal from either APU fire detector loop causes APU shutdown and extinguisher bottle discharge. In flight, the APU extinguisher bottle automatically discharges after a 15 second delay to allow time for the fuel valve to close.

6. Where is the fire extinguisher bottle located in the lavatories?

Each lavatory has a fire extinguisher located in the waste container cabinet


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5.4. ICE AND RAIN SYSTEM QUESTIONS

ICE AND RAIN SYSTEM QUESTIONS

B777 / B777F B787

1. When will the EAI valves OPEN if the selector is in AUTO position?

After two ice/heat cycles of the ice detector probe (ice detected on either side) when icing conditions exist

When the Ice detection system senses ice

2. Can the EAI or WAI operate in the AUTO mode when on the ground?

They cannot operate in the AUTO mode when on the ground

The EAI system cannot operate in the auto mode on the ground

The WAI can operate on ground in auto when ice is detected and speed is above 75 kts

3. When must EAI be selected ON if on the ground?

When OAT (on the ground) or TAT (in-flight) is < 10°C and visible moisture is present (rain, snow, vis < 1 statute mile in fog)

Must be selected ON manually after engine start & returned to AUTO after airborne

4. Is there an EAI leak protection system?

Yes, by a dual loop EAI leak detection system. It closes only the associated EAI valve

Yes, by a duck leak detection system

5. When will WAI come ON with selector in AUTO position?

AUTO and MAN is inhibited until 5 mins after takeoff if TAT > 10°C.

AUTO inhibited with TO thrust up to 10 mins.

When ice is detected.

When ice is detected and airspeed above 75 kts

6. If a WAI duct leak occurs in one side (or if one WAI valve fails to OPEN) what will happen?

In AUTO, both WAI will close to prevent asymmetric icing condition

N/A

7. When should the EAI be used in flight?

It must be selected to ON or AUTO when TAT is 10°C or less and icing condition exists (except when the SAT is below -40°C)

It must be selected to ON or AUTO when TAT is 10°C or less and icing condition exists (except when the SAT is below -40°C)

FCOMB Number ETI-6:

(For manual operations) EAI must be selected ON in-flight when TAT is 15°C or less and visible moisture is present

8. How can window overheat be reset?

Turning the respective window heat off, wait 10 sec and turn it back on.

9. When would Wing A/I be shed?

N/A During high electrical loads (max 30 seconds)

10. How does the EAI and WAI affect the stick shaker logic?

N/A With flaps out of UP, the stick shaker and MIN manoeuvring speeds are increased


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5.5. PRESSURIZATION SYSTEM QUESTIONS

PRESSURIZATION SYSTEM QUESTIONS

B777 / B777F B787

1. What are the conditions required to use the Door 5 Upper Crew Rest Area on the 777, or the OFAR on the 787 for the purpose of in-flight rest?

The Amber Airflow Off light must not be illuminated

It must not be occupied below 25,000ft

There is no ventilation below 15,000ft

2. If the cabin altitude controller is in cruise mode, what is maximum cabin altitude?

8,000ft 6,000ft, during some degraded mode cabin may climb to 8,000ft

3. When is APU Bleed Air available in-flight?

Below 22,000ft N/A

4. Is automatic control of cabin pressurization still available if only 1 outflow valve is operating automatically?

Yes, cabin pressurization is still able have full automatic control with only one outflow valve in auto and the other in manual mode

5. What happens to the outflow valves if cabin altitude exceeds 15,000ft?

The Cabin altitude limiter closes both outflow valves


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The questions listed here represent a comprehensive sampling of aircraft systems questions that are considered suitable for the purposes of validating a pilot’s working knowledge of the aircraft systems.

6.1. AUTOFLIGHT SYSTEMS QUESTIONS

AUTOFLIGHT SYSTEMS QUESTIONS

B777 / B777F B787

1. What happens when the autopilot disengage bar is pulled down?

The autopilot disengages if it was engaged

Prevents autopilot engagement

NO AUTOLAND EICAS is displayed

Disables bank angle protection control feedback

Exposes the amber and black stripes

2. With the flight director switch in the OFF position, when can the “pop-up” feature be activated?

“Pop-up” steering information can be activated by pressing the TOGA when airspeed is greater than 80 kts with the flaps out of UP

3. When does an LNAV capture occur?

LNAV occurs when above 50ft RA and within 2.5 NM of the active leg

4. How many degrees from the inbound course is localizer course capture possible?

Localizer course capture is possible when the intercept track is

within 120 of the inbound course

5. Is glide slope capture possible before localizer capture occurs?

No, glide slope capture is inhibited before localizer course capture occurs

6. How can a degraded autopilot mode be identified?

A degraded autopilot mode is indicated by:

An Amber line is displayed through the affected active pitch/roll mode

The respective F/D command bar being removed, and

EICAS caution message AUTOPILOT being displayed


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6.2 HYDRAULIC SYSTEMS QUESTIONS

HYDRAULIC SYSTEMS QUESTIONS

B777 / B777F B787

1. Can the RAT be stowed in flight once it has been deployed?

The RAT cannot be stowed back once it has been deployed in flight.

2. When does a hydraulic demand pump operate when it is in the AUTO position?

In the AUTO position the demand pump operates when system and/or primary pump(s) pressure is low, or when control logic anticipates a large system demand.

3. What is the situation when “LO” is indicated next to the hydraulic quantity indication?

The reservoir quantity is low when “LO” is indicated next to the hydraulic quantity display.

4. What is the situation when “OF” is indicated next to the hydraulic quantity indication?

The reservoir quantity is over filled when “OF” is indicated next to the hydraulic quantity display.

5. What is the status when “RF” is indicated next to the hydraulic quantity indication?

The reservoir quantity requires refilling when “RF” is indicated next to the hydraulic quantity display.

6. Are the thrust reversers hydraulically actuated?

Yes, the thrust reversers are actuated by its respective hydraulic system (left or right).


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6.3. FLIGHT CONTROLS SYSTEM QUESTIONS

FLIGHT CONTROLS QUESTIONS

B777 / B777F B787

1. How does the flight control system operate in normal mode during manual flight?

The ACES receive input signals from all pilot controls and sends the signals to the three PFC. The PFC verifies the signals in order to compute control surface commands and sends it back to the ACES. The ACES sends the enhanced signals to the flight control surface actuators.

2. During high speed flight, which flight control surfaces are used in a turning manoeuvre?

During high speed flight the flaperons and operating spoilers provides turn control. Ailerons and spoilers 5 and 10 are locked out during high speed flight.

During high speed flight the flaperons assisted by the spoilers provides turn control.

3. What are the three flight control system modes?

The three flight control system modes are normal, secondary and direct mode.

4. What flight envelope protections are provided in normal mode?

Stall, over speed and bank angle protection.

5. Can the autopilot be used when the flight control system is in the secondary mode?

The autopilot cannot be used when the flight control system is in secondary mode.

6. When are the pitch trim switches on the control column inhibited?

The control column pitch trim switches are inhibited when the autopilot is engaged.

7. Should the alternate trim switches be used with the autopilot engaged?

No, the alternate trim switches should not be used with the autopilot engaged

Alternate pitch trim switches are inhibited when the autopilot is engaged

8. When does the TAC come into effect?

TAC automatically adds rudder to minimize yaw when engine thrust levels differ by 10% or more. However, it does not fully compensate for the failed engine.

N/A

9. When does the TAP come into effect?

N/A During ENG out TAP reduces thrust on the operating ENG to ensure there is sufficient rudder for directional control

10. How many modes of operation are possible for the flaps and slats?

There are three possible modes, primary (hydraulic), secondary (electric) and alternate (electric)

11. Within which flap position range does flap load relief provide flap over speed protection?

Flap load relief protection is available with the flaps in the 15 through 30 position

Flap load relief protection is available with the flaps in the 10 through 30 position


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6.4. LANDING GEAR & BRAKES SYSTEMS QUESTIONS

LANDING GEAR & BRAKES QUESTIONS

B777 / B777F B787

1. During a rejected takeoff, when does the RTO function apply aircraft braking?

The RTO function automatically applies maximum brake pressure when both the thrust levers are retarded to idle above 85 kts

2. Which hydraulic system supplies pressure to the normal brake system?

The right hydraulic system supplies pressure to the normal brake system

N/A

3. Which hydraulic system supplies pressure to the alternate brake system?

The centre/reserve hydraulic system supplies pressure to the alternate brake system

N/A

4. After landing when does auto brake application begin?

The auto brake begins applying brake pressure when both thrust levers are retarded to idle and the wheels have spun up

5. What is the indication when the landing gear is in transit?

The in transit condition is indicated by white crosshatch on the EICAS landing gear indication display

6. On the 787 how many power supply unit does the brake system uses

N/A The brake system uses 4 power supply units

7. What is the function of the semi-levered gear?

The semi-levered gear improves airplane takeoff performance by restricting the rotation of the main gear truck to allow rotation about the aft wheel axle.

N/A

6.5. TCAS SYSTEM QUESTIONS

Refer to TCAS questions in section 4.7

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