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BMS SPECIAL BOOKLET (Inclusive of questions from previous years‟ CAT papers and series of preparatory questions)

Bms Special Booklet

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  • BMS SPECIAL BOOKLET

    (Inclusive of questions from previous years CAT papers and series of preparatory questions)

  • 2 PRATHAM: BMS Special Booklet

    TABLE OF CONTENT

    UNIT 1: QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE ____________________________ 03 Number System, Simplification, Percentage ___________________________ 04 Profit and Loss, Ratio & Proportion ___________________________________ 05 Averages __________________________________________________________ 06 Simple Interest, Compound Interest, Time, Speed & Distance ___________ 07 Time and Work ____________________________________________________ 08 Clocks and Calendars, Linear Equations, Quadratic Equations ___________ 09 Progression, Probability, Permutation & Combination __________________ 10 Geometry _________________________________________________________ 11 Mensuration _______________________________________________________ 12 Heights and Distance, Coordinate Geometry, Function _________________ 13 Set Theory, Trigonometry Ratio _____________________________________ 14 Differentiation, Integration, Application of Derivative __________________ 15 Differential Equation, Vectors _______________________________________ 16 3D, Logarithms, Data Interpretation _________________________________ 17

    UNIT 2: LOGICAL REASONING _________________________________ 21 Coding & Decoding, Family Tree _____________________________________ 22 Arrangements and Puzzles __________________________________________ 23 Groups & Conditionalities ___________________________________________ 24 Directions ________________________________________________________ 26 Venn Diagram _____________________________________________________ 27 Syllogism _________________________________________________________ 28 Ranking & Series __________________________________________________ 29 Data Sufficiency ___________________________________________________ 30 Statement and Conclusion __________________________________________ 31 Visual Reasoning ___________________________________________________ 32 Cubes & Dices _____________________________________________________ 33 Input Output ____________________________________________________ 34 Statement & Assumptions __________________________________________ 35 Statement & Course of Action ______________________________________ 36 Statement & Argument, Assertion & Reason __________________________ 37 Inference from Passage _____________________________________________ 38

    UNIT 3: VERBAL ABILITY ____________________________________ 40 Synonyms, Antonyms _______________________________________________ 41 Analogies, Idioms __________________________________________________ 42 Sentence Completion _______________________________________________ 43 Sentence Improvement _____________________________________________ 44 Sentence Correction________________________________________________ 45 Jumbled Sentences _________________________________________________ 48 Reading Comprehension ____________________________________________ 49

    ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS __________________________________ 67

  • QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

    1

  • 4 PRATHAM: BMS Special Booklet

    1. Suppose you have a currency, named Miso, in three denominations: 1 Miso, 10 Misos and 50 Misos. In how many

    ways can you pay a bill of 107 Misos? (CAT 2007) (a) 16 (b) 18 (c) 15 (d) 19

    2. The sum of four consecutive two-digit odd numbers, when divided by 10, becomes a perfect square. Which of the following can possibly be one of these four numbers? (CAT 2006) (a) 21 (b) 25 (c) 41 (d) 67

    3. If a, a + 2 and a + 4 are prime numbers, then the number of possible solutions for a is- (CAT 2003) (a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) More than three

    4. The owners of a local jewellery store hired 3 watchmen to guard his diamonds, but a thief still got in and stole some

    diamonds. On the way out, the thief met each watchman, one at a time. To each he gave 1

    2 of the diamonds he had

    then and 2 more besides. He escaped with one diamond. How many diamonds did he steal originally? (CAT 2002) (a) 40 (b) 36 (c) 34 (d) 45

    5. ABC is a three-digit number in which A > 0. The value of ABC is equal to the sum of the factorials of its three digits. What is the value of B? (CAT 1997) (a) 9 (b) 7 (c) 4 (d) 2

    6. The value of 1 +1

    +1 1 +

    1

    +2 1 +

    1

    +3 1 +

    1

    +4 is

    (a) 1 + 1

    +5 (b)

    1

    +5 (c) x +

    1

    +5 (d)

    +5

    +1

    7. If r = -2, then r4 + 2r3 + 3r2 + r = ? (a) 8 (b) 4 (c) 0 (d) 10

    8. Let

    = and (x y) =

    +

    , then x is equal to

    (a) (+ )

    (b)

    (+)

    (c)

    ()

    (d) None of these

    9. Assuming that in Harappan era, rocks, stones and pebbles were used for money. The following used to be the currency valuations: 1 rock = 7 stones, 1 stone = 7 pebbles. If a person used 6 rocks to purchase a cave that costs 5 rocks, 2 stones and 3 pebbles, then how much would the change be? (a) 4 stones, 4 pebbles (b) 5 stones, 4 pebbles (c) 1 rock, 5 stones, 4 pebbles (d) 5 stones, 5 pebbles

    10. The term 2 + 1

    2 approximately equal to r +

    2. Which of the following is the closest approximation to

    85 1/2 ? (a) 9.06 (b) 9.34 (c) 9.22 (d) 9.28

    Directions for Questions 11 and 12: In an examination, there are 100 questions divided into three groups A, B and C such that each group contains at least one question. Each question in group A carries 1 mark, each question in group B carries 2 marks and each question in group C carries 3 marks. It is known that the questions in group A together carry at least 60% of the total marks. (CAT 2004) 11. If group B contains 23 questions, then how many questions are there in group C?

    (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) Cannot be determined 12. If group C contains 8 questions and group B carries at least 20% of the total marks, which of the following best

    describes the number of questions in group B? (a) 11 or 12 (b) 12 or 13 (c) 13 or 14 (d) 14 or 15

    NUMBER SYSTEM:

    PERCENTAGE:

    SIMPLIFICATION:

  • 5 PRATHAM: BMS Special Booklet

    QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

    13. At the end of year 1998, Shepherd bought nine dozen goats, henceforth, every year he added p% of the goats at the

    beginning of the year and sold q% of the goats at the end of the year where p>0 and q>0. If Shepherd had nine dozen goats at the end of year 2002, after making the sales for that year, which of the following is true? ( CAT 2003) (a) p = q (b) p < q (c) p > q (d) p = q/2

    14. One bacteria splits into eight bacterias of the next generation. But due to environment, only 50% of one generation can produce the next generation. If the seventh generation number is 4096 million, what is the number in first generation? (CAT 1998) (a) 1 million (b) 2 million (c) 4 million (d) 8 million

    15. The number of votes not cast for the Praja Party increased by 25% in the National General Election over those not cast for it in the previous Assembly Polls and the Praja Party lost by a majority twice as large as that by which it had won the Assembly Polls. If a total 2,60,000 people voted each time, how many voted for the Praja Party in the previous Assembly Polls? (CAT 1994) (a) 1,10,000 (b) 1,50,000 (c) 1,40,000 (d) 1,20,000

    Directions for Questions 16 and 17: Answer the questions based on the following information. (CAT 1999) The following table presents the sweetness of different items relative to sucrose, whose sweetness is taken to be 1.00

    Lactose 0.16 Maltose 0.32 Glucose 0.74 Sucrose 1.00 Fructose 1.70 Saccharin 675.00

    16. What is the minimum amount of sucrose (to the nearest gram) that must be added to one gram of saccharin to make

    a mixture that will be at least 100 times as sweet as glucose? (a) 7 (b) 8 (c) 9 (d) 100

    17. Approximately how many times sweeter than sucrose is a mixture consisting of glucose, sucrose and fructose in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 3? (a) 1.3 (b) 1.0 (c) 0.6 (d) 2.3

    18. Using only 2, 5, 10, 25 and 50 paise coins, what will be the minimum number of coins required to pay exactly 78 paise, 69 paise and Re 1.01 to three different persons? (CAT 2003) (a) 19 (b) 20 (c) 17 (d) 18

    19. Instead of walking along two adjacent sides of a rectangular field, a boy took a short cut along the diagonal and saved a distance equal to half the longer side. Then, the ratio of the shorter side to the longer side is (CAT 2002)

    (a) 1

    2 (b)

    2

    3 (c)

    1

    4 (d)

    3

    4

    20. Mayank, Mirza, Little and Jaspal bought a motorbike for $60,000. Mayank paid one half of the sum of the amounts paid by the other boys, Mirza paid one third of the sum of the amounts paid by the other boys; and Little paid one fourth of the sum of the amounts paid by the other boys. How much Jaspal had to pay? (CAT 2002) (a) $15,000 (b) $13,000 (c) $17,000 (d) None of these

    21. Which is the larger among two numbers if they are in the ratio of 6 :13 and their least common multiple is 312 ?

    (a) 52 (b) 26 (c) 24 (d) 12

    PROFIT AND LOSS:

    RATIO & PROPORTION:

  • 6 PRATHAM: BMS Special Booklet

    22. The ratio between the number of passengers travelling by I and II class between the two railway stations is 1: 50, whereas the ratio of I and II class fares between the same stations is 3 : 1. If on a particular day, Rs. 1325 were collected from the passengers travelling between these stations, then what was the amount collected from the II class passengers ? (a) Rs. 750 (b) Rs. 850 (c) Rs. 1000 (d) Rs. 1250

    23. It is given that y 1

    3 .For x = 2, value of y is

    1

    6 .If x = 1, then the value of y will be :

    (a) 1 (b) 0 (c) -1 (d) None of these 24. Suppose y varies as the sum of two quantities of which one varies directly as x and the other varies inversely as x. If y

    = 6 when x = 4 and y = 31

    3 when x = 3, then the relation between x and y is :

    (a) y = x + 4

    x (b) y = - 2x +

    4

    (c) y = 2x +

    8

    x (d) y = 2x -

    8

    25. Which of the following is the ratio between a number and the number obtained by adding one-fifth of that number to it ? (a) 6 : 5 (b) 5 : 6 (c) 5 : 4 (d) 4 : 5

    26. A shipping clerk has five boxes of different but unknown weights each weighing less than 100 kg. The clerk weighs the boxes in pairs. The weights obtained are 110, 112, 113, 114, 115, 116, 117, 118, 120 and 121 kg. What is the weight of the heaviest box? (CAT 2000) (a) 60 kg (b) 62 kg (c) 64 kg (d) Cannot be determined

    27. Consider the set S = {2, 3, 4, , 2n + 1}, where n is a positive integer larger than 2007. Define X as the average of the odd integers in S and Y as the average of the even integers in S. What is the value of X Y? (CAT 2007)

    (a) 1 (b) 1

    2n (c)

    n+1

    2n (d) (n + 1)

    Directions for Questions 28 30: Answer the questions based on the following information. (CAT 1997) There are 60 students in a class. These students are divided into three groups A, B and C of 15, 20 and 25 students each. The groups A and C are combined to form group D. 28. What is the average weight of the students in group D?

    (a) More than the average weight of A (b) More than the average weight of C (c) Less than the average weight of C (d) Cannot be determined

    29. If one student from group A is shifted to group B, which of the following will be true? (a) The average weight of both the groups increases (b) The average weight of both the groups decreases (c) The average weight of the class remains the same (d) Cannot be determined

    30. If all the students of the class have the same weight, then which of the following is false? (a) The average weight of all the four groups is the same (b) The total weight of A and C is twice the total weight of B (c) The average weight of D is greater than the average weight of A (d) The average weight of all the groups remains the same even if a number of students are shifted from one group

    to another.

    AVERAGES:

  • 7 PRATHAM: BMS Special Booklet

    QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

    31. A person closes his account in an investment scheme by withdrawing Rs 10000. One year ago, he had withdrawn

    Rs 6000. Two years ago he had withdrawn Rs 5000. Three years ago he had not withdrawn any money. How much money had he deposited approximately at the time of opening the account 4 years ago, if the annual simple interest is 10 %? (a) Rs 15600 (b) Rs 16500 (c) Rs 17280 (d) None of these

    32. Vikram borrowed Rs 6450 at 5 percent simple interest repayable in 4 equal installments. What will be the annual instalment payable by him ? (a) Rs 1710 (b) Rs 1810 (c) Rs 1910 (d) Rs 1860

    33. Subbarao was approached by two neighbours for loan. He had Rs 2540, a part of which he lent to one person at 12% interest per annum, and the other part was lent to the second person at 12.5 %. At the end of a year, Subbarao received Rs 311.60 as interest on the total loan. Calculate the amount of money lent by him at 12% interest. (a) Rs 1360 (b) Rs 1340 (c) Rs 1240 (d) Rs 1180

    34. A sum of money doubles itself in 12 years if invested at simple interest. What is the rate of interest allowed on the investment ? (a) 9.5% (b) 8.25% (c) 8.5% (d) 8.33%

    35. Ram purchased a flat at Rs. 1 lakh and Prem purchased a plot of land worth Rs. 1.1 lakh. The respective annual rates at which the prices of the flat and the plot increased were 10% and 5%. After two years, they exchanged their belongings and one paid the other the difference. Then: (CAT 1995) (a) Ram paid Rs. 275 to Prem (b) Ram paid Rs. 476 to Prem (c) Ram paid Rs. 375 to Prem (d) Prem paid Rs. 475 to ram

    36. A bank offers 10 % interest rate compounded annually. A person deposits Rs. 10,000 every year in his account. If he

    does not withdraw any amount, then how much balance will his account show after four years ? (a) Rs. 51051 (b) Rs. 45095 (c) Rs. 36410 (d) Rs. 51000

    37. A sum is invested for 3 years compounded at 5%, 10% and 20 % respectively. In three years if the sum amounts to Rs. 16,632, then find the sum. (a) Rs. 11000 (b) Rs. 12000 (c) Rs. 13000 (d) Rs. 14000

    38. The value of a fixed asset depreciates at the rate of 10 % on the value at the beginning of each year. If the value of the asset two years ago, was Rs 12,000 more than the value of the asset one year ago, then find the present value of the asset, given that the asset was bought two years ago. (a) Rs. 14520 (b) Rs. 96,000 (c) Rs. 97,200 (d) Rs. 17,520

    39. Anuj has deposited certain amount in the bank to earn compound interest at 10 % p.a. The difference in the interest on the amount between the 3rd and 2nd years is Rs. 1,100. What amount has Anuj deposited? (a) Rs. 10000 (b) Rs. 11000 (c) Data inadequate (d) None of these

    40. Divide Rs. 1301 between A and B, so that the amount of A after 7 years is equal to the amount of B after 9 years, the interest being compounded at 4% per annum. (a) Rs. 676 and Rs. 625 (b) Rs. 650 and Rs. 651 (c) Rs. 670 and Rs. 631 (d) Rs. 660 and Rs. 630

    Directions for Questions 41 42: Answer the questions based on the following information. (CAT 2001) The petrol consumption rate of a new model car Palto depends on its speed and may be described by the adjoining graph:

    SIMPLE INTEREST:

    COMPOUND INTEREST:

    TIME, SPEED & DISTANCE:

  • 8 PRATHAM: BMS Special Booklet

    41. Manasa makes the 200 km trip from Mumbai to Pune at a steady speed of 60 km/h. What is the amount of petrol

    consumed for the journey? (a) 12.5 L (b) 13.33 L (c) 16 L (d) 19.75 L

    42. Manasa would like to minimize the fuel consumption for the trip by driving at the appropriate speed. How should she change the speed? (a) Increase the speed (b) Decrease the speed (c) Maintain the speed at 60 km/h (d) Cannot be determined

    43. Three runners A, B and C run a race, with runner A finishing 12 m ahead of runner B and 18 m ahead of runner C, while runner B finishes 8 m ahead of runner C. Each runner travels the entire distance at a constant speed. What was the length of the race? (CAT 2001) (a) 36 m (b) 48 m (c) 60 m (d) 72 m

    44. A train approaches a tunnel AB. Inside the tunnel a cat is located at a point that is 3

    8 of the distance AB measured from

    the entrance A. When the train whistles, the cat runs. If the cat moves to the entrance of the tunnel A, the train catches the cat exactly at the entrance. If cat moves to the exit B, the train catches the cat at exactly the exit. The speed of the train is greater than the speed of the cat by what order? (CAT 2002) (a) 3 : 1 (b) 4 : 1 (c) 5 : 1 (d) None of these

    45. At a bookstore, MODERN BOOK STORE is flashed using neon lights. The words are individually flashed at

    intervals of 21

    2, 4

    1

    4, 5

    1

    8 seconds respectively, and each word is put off after a second. The least time after which the

    full name of the bookstore can be read again, is- (CAT 2002) (a) 49.5 s (b) 73.5 s (c) 1744.5 s (d) 855 s

    46. Three small pumps and a large pump are filling a tank. Each small pump works at (2/3)rd the rate of the large pump. If

    all four work at the same time, they should fill the tank in what fraction of the time it would have taken the large pump alone? (a) 4/7 (b) 1/3 (c) 2/3 (d) 3/4

    47. Six technicians working at the same rate complete work of one server in 10 h. If they start at 11:00 am and one additional technician per hour is being added beginning at 5:00 pm, at what time the server will be complete?

    (CAT 2002) (a) 6:40 pm (b) 7 pm (c) 7:20 pm (d) 8:00 pm

    48. A can complete a piece of work in 4 days. B takes double the time taken by A, C takes double that of B, and D takes double that of C to complete the same task. They are paired in groups of two each. One pair takes two-third the time needed by the second pair to complete the work. Which is the first pair? (CAT 2001) (a) A, B (b) A, C (c) B, C (d) A, D

    49. Shyama and Vyom walk up an escalator (moving stairway). The escalator moves at a constant speed. Shyama takes three steps for every two of Vyoms steps. Shyama gets to the top of the escalator after having taken 25 steps, while Vyom (because his slower pace lets the escalator do a little more of the work) takes only 20 steps to reach the top. If the escalator was turned off, how many steps would they have to take to walk up? (CAT 2001) (a) 40 (b) 50 (c) 60 (d) 80

    TIME AND WORK:

  • 9 PRATHAM: BMS Special Booklet

    QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

    50. At his usual rowing rate, Rahul can travel 12 miles downstream in a certain river in six hours less than it takes him to

    travel the same distance upstream. But if he could double his usual rowing rate for this 24 mile round trip, the downstream 12 miles would then take only one hour less than the upstream 12 miles. What is the speed of the current in miles per hour? (CAT 2001) (a) 7/3 (b) 4/3 (c) 5/3 (d) 8/3

    51. At what time between 5 and 6 O'clock are the hands of a clock 3 minutes apart ? (a) 24 minutes past 5 (b) 22 minutes past 3 (c) 26 minutes past 4 (d) None of these

    52. My watch which gains 5 seconds in 3 minutes was set right at 7 a.m. In the afternoon of the same day, when the watch indicated quarter past 4 O 'clock, the true time is: (a) 59 min. past 3 (b) 12 min. past 3 (c) 4 p.m. (d) 7 min. past 4

    53. At what time between 4 : 30 and 5 will the hands of a clock be in a straight line ? (a) 50 mins. past 4 (b) 42 mins. past 4 (c) 54 mins. past 4 (d) 46 mins. past 4

    54. 7 January 1992 was Tuesday. Find the day of the week on the same date after 5 years, i.e. on 7 January 1997 ? (a) Tuesday (b) Wednesday (c) Saturday (d) Friday

    55. The first Republic Day of India was celebrated on 26 January 1950. What was the day of the week on that date ? (a) Monday (b) Wednesday (c) Saturday (d) Thursday

    56. A man purchased 47 stamps of 20-paise and 15 paise. The total amount he spent was Rs. 8.80. The number of

    20-paise and 15- paise stamps purchased by him - (a) was 12 and 35 respectively (b) was 10 and 37 respectively (c) was 35 and 12 respectively (d) None of these

    57. For the given pair (x, y) of positive integers, such that 4x - I7y = 1 and x 1,000, how many integer values of y satisfy the given conditions : (CAT 1999) (a) 55 (b) 56 (c) 57 (d) 58

    58. If x2 + 5y2 + z2 = 2y (2x + z) then which of the following statements are necessarily true? (CAT 2002) A. x = 2y B. x = 2z C. 2x = z (a) Only A (b) Only B and C (c) Only A and B (d) None of these

    59. If n is such that 36 n 72, then x = 2+ 2 +4 + 16

    +4 + 4 satisfies- (CAT 2003)

    (a) 20 < x < 54 (b) 23 < x < 58 (c) 25 < x < 64 (d) 28 < x < 60 60. The total number of integer pairs (x, y) satisfying the equation x + y = xy is : (CAT 2004)

    (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) None of these 61. Which of the following expressions cannot be equal to zero, when x2 - 2x = 3 ?

    (a) x2 - 7 x + 6 (b) x2 - 9 (c) x2 - 4x + 3 (d) x2 -6x + 9

    62. If 2 + i 3 is a root of the equation x2 + px + q =0, where p and q are real, then (p, q) is (a) (2, 3) (b) (-2, 3) (c) (4, 7) (d) (- 4, 7)

    63. The number of quadratic equations which are unchanged by squaring their roots is : (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6

    CLOCKS AND CALENDARS:

    LINEAR EQUATIONS:

    QUADRATIC EQUATIONS:

  • 10 PRATHAM: BMS Special Booklet

    64. One of the roots of the equation x2 - x + 3m = 0 is double of one of the roots of the equation x2 - x + m = 0. If m 0, then find its value, (a) 1 (b) -1 (c) 2 (d) -2

    65. Let p and q be the roots of the quadratic equation x2 - ( - 2) x - - 1 = 0. What is the minimum possible value of p2 + q2 ? (CAT 2003) (a) 0 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

    66. If logxa, ax/2 and logb x are in GP, then x is

    (a) loga(logb a) (b) loga(loge a) + loga (loge b) (c) -loga(loga b) (d) loga (loge b) - loga(loge a) 67. f(a, b) is a series, of which the first three terms are (a + b)2, (a2 + b2) and (a - b)2. We add the first n terms of the

    series f(a, b) and call it S(a, b). If a = 7, b = 3, then find S(7, 3) for n = 20. (a) 5980 (b) 6000 (c) 6960 (d) None of these

    68. How many three digit numbers are divisible by 6 ? (a) 102 (b) 150 (c) 151 (d) 966

    69. Three distinct numbers x, y, z form a geometric progression in that order and x + y, y + z, z + x form an arithmetic progression in that order. Find the common ratio of the geometric progression. (a) -2 (b) 2 (c) 0.5 (d) -0.5

    70. Find the sum of all natural numbers not exceeding 1000, which are divisible by 4 but not by 8. (a) 62500 (b) 62800 (c) 64000 (d) 65600

    71. If the probability of rain on any given day in Pune city is 50 %, then what is the probability that it rains on exactly 3 days in a 5 - day period ?

    (a) 8

    125 (b)

    5

    16 (c)

    8

    25 (d)

    2

    25

    72. The probability that an event happens in one trial of an experiment is 0.4. Three independent trials of the experiment are performed. The probability that the event happens at least once is- (a) 0.934 (b) 0.784 (c) 0.548 (d) 0.343

    73. What is the possibility of getting at least 6 heads if eight coins are tossed simultaneously ?

    (a) 1

    15 (b)

    25

    57 (c)

    1

    13 (d) None of these

    74. In a bag containing three balls, a white ball was placed, and then one ball was taken out at random. What is the probability that the extracted ball would turn out to be white, if all possible hypothesis concerning the colour of the balls that were initially in the bag were equally possible?

    (a) 5

    8 (b)

    3

    4 (c)

    1

    2 (d)

    3

    8

    75. From a box containing 60 standard and 40 substandard articles, two articles are chosen at random. What is the probability that one of them is standard and the other is substandard?

    (a) 60

    100

    40

    100 (b)

    60

    100

    39

    100 (c)

    16

    33 (d) 24%

    76. Boxes numbered 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 are kept in a row and they are to be filled with either a red or a blue ball, such that

    no two adjacent boxes can be filled with blue balls. Then how many different arrangements are possible, given that all balls of a given colour are exactly identical in all respects? (CAT 1995) (a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 15 (d) 22

    PROGRESSION:

    PROBABILITY:

    PERMUTATION AND COMBINATION:

  • 11 PRATHAM: BMS Special Booklet

    QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

    77. In how many ways is it possible to choose a white square and a black square on a chess-board so that the squares

    must not lie in the same row or column? (CAT 2002) (a) 56 (b) 896 (c) 60 (d) 768

    78. A 4 digit number is formed with digits 1, 2, 3 and 5. What is the probability that the number is divisible by 25, if repetition of digits is not allowed? (CAT 1995) (a) 1/12 (b) 1/4 (c) 1/6 (d) None of these

    79. In how many ways can eight Directors, Vice-chairman and Chairman of a firm be seated at a round table, if the chairman has to sit between the Vice-chairman and a Director? (CAT 1997) (a) 9! 2 (b) 2 8! (c) 2 7! (d) None of these

    80. For a scholarship, at the most n candidates out of 2n + 1 can be selected. If the number of different ways of selection of at least one candidate is 63, the maximum number of candidates that can be selected for the scholarship is:

    (CAT 1999) (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 5

    81. In the given diagram, ABCD is a rectangle with AE = EF =

    FB. What is the ratio of the area of the triangle CEF and that of the rectangle? (CAT 2000) (a) 1 : 4 (b) 1 : 6 (c) 2 : 5 (d) 2 : 3

    82. In the given figure, AB is diameter of the circle and points C and D are on the circumference such that CAD = 30o and CBA = 70o. What is the measure of ACD? (CAT 1995)

    (a) 40o (b) 50o (c) 30o (d) 90o

    83. The length of the common chord of two circles of radii 15 cm and 20 cm respectively whose centers are 25 cm apart,

    is (in cm): (CAT 2002)

    (a) 24 (b) 25 (c) 15 (d) 20 84. A circle with radius 2 is placed against a right angle. Another

    smaller circle is also placed as shown in the adjoining figure. What is the radius of the smaller circle? (CAT 2004)

    (a) 3 - 2 2 (b) 4 - 2 2

    (c) 7 4 2 (d) 6 4 2 Directions for Question 85: Answer the question based on the following information. (CAT 2004) In the adjoining figure, I and II are circles with centers P and Q respectively. The two circles touch each other and have a common tangent that touches them at points R and S

    R

    P Q

    S

    O

    GEOMETRY:

  • 12 PRATHAM: BMS Special Booklet

    respectively. This common tangent meets the line joining P and Q at O. The diameters of I and II are in the ratio 4 : 3. It is also known that the length of PO is 28 cm. 85. What is the ratio of the length of PQ to that of QO?

    (a) 1 : 4 (b) 1 : 3 (c) 3 : 8 (d) 3 : 4

    86. In the adjoining figure, AC + AB = 5 AD and AC AD = 8. Then, the area of the rectangle ABCD is (CAT 1995) (a) 36 (b) 50 (c) 60 (d) Cannot be answered

    87. PQRS is a square. SR is a tangent (at point S) to the circle with centre O and TR = OS. Then, the ratio of area of the circle to area of the square is (CAT 1995) (a) / 3 (b) 11/7 (c) 3 / (d) 7/11

    88. The adjoining figures shows a set of concentric squares. If the diagonal of the innermost square is 2 unit and if the distance between the corresponding corners of any two successive squares is 1 unit, find the difference between the areas of the eighth and the seventh squares, counting from the innermost square. (CAT 1997)

    (a) 10 2 sq unit (b) 30 sq unit

    (c) 35 2 sq unit (d) None of these 89. AB is the diameter of the given circle, while points C and D

    lie on the circumference as shown. If AB is 15 cm, AC is 12 cm and BD is 9 cm, find the area of quadrilateral ABCD. (CAT 1997) (a) 54p cm2 (b) 216p cm2 (c) 162p cm2 (d) None of these

    90. Consider a right circular cone of base radius 4 cm and height 10 cm. A cylinder is to be placed inside the cone with one of the flat surfaces resting on the base of the cone. Find the largest possible total surface area (in sq cm) of the cylinder. (CAT 2008)

    (a) 100

    3 (b)

    80

    3 (c)

    120

    7 (d)

    130

    9

    MENSURATION:

  • 13 PRATHAM: BMS Special Booklet

    QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

    91. A ladder is inclined to a wall making an angle of 30 with it. A man is ascending the ladder at the rate of 2

    metres/second. How fast is he approaching the wall ? (a) 2 m/s (b) 1.5 m/s (c) 1 m/s (d) None of these

    92. Mr. Gidwant's Padyatra Party wanted to go from Gwalior to Bhubaneswar. The walkers travelled 150 km straight and then took a 45 turn towards Varanasi and walked straight for another 120 km. Approximately, how far the party is from the starting point ? (a) 250 km (b) 90 km (c) 81km (d) 30 km

    93. A vertical pole PO is standing at the centre O of a square ABCD. If AC subtends an angle of 90 at the point P of the pole, then the angle subtended by a side of the square at the point P is - (a) 35 (b) 45 (c) 30 (d) 60

    94. What is the height of tower if the angles of elevation of its top from two points X and Y at distances of a and b respectively from the base and on the same straight line with the tower, are complementary ?

    (a) b

    a (b)

    a

    b (c) ab (d) None of these

    95. A window on one side of a road is 12 m above ground. A ladder is placed on the road to reach the window. If the ladder is turned to the other side of the road, keeping its feet at the same point, it can reach a window which is at a height of 9 m from the ground. Supposing the length of the ladder to be 15 m, what is the width of the road ? (a) 9 m (b) 12 m (c) 21 m (d) None of these

    96. The points 0,8

    3 , (1, 3) and (82, 30) are the vertices of

    (a) An obtuse-angled triangle (b) A right-angled triangle (c) An isosceles triangle (d) None of these

    97. The x axis is shifted to a new position such that the points H,J,K assume new coordinates as follows: Point Original Coordinates New Coordinates H (3, 5) (3, 2) J (4, 2) (4, -1) K (2, 6) (2, 3)

    If the original coordinates of P were (5, 1), then which of the following are the new coordinates of P? (a) (2, -2) (b) (5, 4) (c) (5, -2) (d) (8, 1)

    98. The course of an enemy submarine as plotted on a set of rectangular axes gives the equation 2x + 3y = 5. On the same axes, the course of destroyer is indicated by the equation x y = 10. The point (x, y) at which the submarine can be destroyed is: (a) (7, -3) (b) (-3, 7) (c) (-7, 3) (d) (3, -7)

    99. A line is of length 10 and one end is (2, -3). If the abscissa of the other end is 10 then its ordinate is (a) 3 or 9 (b) -3 or 9 (c) 3 or 9 (d) -3 or 9

    100. If the points (t, 2t), (-2, 6) and (3, 1) are collinear, then t =

    (a) 3

    4 (b)

    4

    3 (c) 3 (d) 4

    101. A function f(x) satisfies f(1) = 3600 and f(1) + f(2) + + f(n) = n2f(n), for all positive integers n > 1. What is the value of f(9)? (CAT 2007) (a) 240 (b) 200 (c) 100 (d) 80

    HEIGHTS AND DISTANCE:

    COORDINATE GEOMETRY:

    FUNCTION:

  • 14 PRATHAM: BMS Special Booklet

    102. If f(x) = log 1+x

    1x , then f(x) + f(y) is (CAT 2002)

    (a) f(x + y) (b) x +y

    1+xy (c) (x + y)

    1

    1+xy (d)

    f x + f(y)

    1+xy

    Direction for Questions 103 104: Answer the questions independent of each other. (CAT 2000) X 1 2 3 4 5 6 Y 4 8 14 22 32 44

    103. Which of the following equation will be best for above data? (a) y = ax + b (b) y = a+ bx +cx2 (c) y = eax + b (d) None of these

    104. If f(0, y) = y + 1 and f(x + 1,y) = f(x, f (x, y)). Then, what is the value of f(1, 2)? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

    Direction for Question 105: Answer the questions based on the following information - (CAT 1994)

    If f(x) = 2x + 3 and g(x) = x3

    2 , then

    105. fog(x) is equal to

    (a) 1 (b) gof (x) (c) 15x+9

    16x5 (d)

    1

    x

    106. In a class of 80 children, 35 % children can play only cricket, 45% children can play only table-tennis and the remaining children can play both the games. In all, how many children can play cricket ? (a) 55 (b) 44 (c) 36 (d) 28

    107. While preparing the progress reports of the students, the class teacher found that 70% of the students passed in Hindi, 80% passed in English and only 65% passed in both the subjects. Find out the percentage of students who failed in both the subjects? (a) 15% (b) 20% (c) 30% (d) 35%

    108. In a party, 70 guests were to be served tea or coffee after dinner. There were 52 guests who preferred tea while 37 preferred coffee. Each of the guests liked one or the other beverage. How many guests liked both tea and coffee ? (a) 15 (b) 18 (c) 19 (d) 33

    109. In a certain group of 36 people, only 18 are wearing hats and only 24 are wearing sweater. If 6 are not wearing any of the 2, then how many people are wearing both a hat and a sweater ? (a) 30 (b) 22 (c) 12 (d) 8

    110. Consider the set Tn: {n, n + 1, n + 2, n +3, n + 4}, where n = 1, 2, 3 , 96. How many of these sets contain 6 or any integral multiple thereof (i.e., any one of the number 6, 12, 18, ....) ? (a) 80 (b) 81 (c) 82 (d) 83

    111. If sin + cos = a and sec + cosec = b, then the value of b (a2 1) is equal to (a) 2a (b) 3a (c) 0 (d) 2ab

    112. If sin A : cos A = 4 : 7, then the value of 7 sin 3 cos

    7 sin +2 cos is

    (a) 3

    14 (b)

    3

    2 (c)

    1

    3 (d)

    1

    6

    113. A, B and C are three angles such that tan A + tan B + tan C = tan A tan B tan C. Which of the following statements is always correct? (a) ABC is a triangle, i.e., A + B + C = (b) A = B = C, i.e. ABC is an equilateral triangle (c) A + B = C, i.e. ABC is a right angled triangle (d) None of these

    114. If the sine of an angle= 2

    3 , then cosine of that angle is

    (a) Equal to 2

    3 (b) Greater than

    2

    3 (c) Less than

    2

    3 (d) Infinite

    SET THEORY:

    TRIGONOMETRY RATIO:

  • 15 PRATHAM: BMS Special Booklet

    QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

    115. Simplify:

    cos 600+sin 600

    cos 600sin 600

    (a) 3 2 (b) 3 + 2 (c) ( 3 + 2) (d) 1

    116. If y =sin 2 , = 2, = , the value of

    is equal to

    (a)

    (b)

    2

    cos(2) (c)

    (cos (2)

    (d)

    cos 2

    117. What is the derivative of sec +tan

    sec tan ?

    (a) 2 sec x (sec x + tan x) (b) 2 sec2 (sec + tan )2 (c) 2 sec x (sec x + tan x)2 (d) sec x (sec x + tan x)2

    118. What is the differential coefficient of (log ), where () = log x?

    (a)

    (log ) (b) ( log )1 (c)

    (log )

    (d)

    1

    119. If y = 3x cos

    2,

    2

    2 is

    (a) 2 cos

    (6+sin )2 (b)

    4 cos

    (6+sin )2 (c)

    4 cos

    6+ 3 (d)

    4 sin

    6+ 3

    120. If y = a cos (log x)- b sin (log x), then the value of 22

    2+

    + is

    (a) 4 (b) 0 (c) 2 (d) 3

    121. What is the value of dx

    22 ?

    (a) 1

    sin1

    1

    + (b) sin1

    +

    (c) log + 2 2 + (d) 1

    log + 2 2 +

    122. If (x) dx = ()/2, then which one of the following is correct? (a) = 2 + constant (b) = + constant (c) () = constant (d) = 2

    123. If () dx = g(x) and also = , then which one of the following is correct? (a) g(x) = h(x) (b) g(x) + h(x) = constant (c) g(x) h(x) = constant (d) g(x) h(x) = constant

    124. What is the value of the integral e

    x2+ 1

    dx

    e

    x2+ 1

    2 dx?

    (a) + (b) e

    x2+ 1

    + C (c) e

    x2+ 1

    + C (d) +1

    +

    125. What is the value of sin x

    sin 2 sin 2 dx?

    (a) sin1(sec a cos x) + C (b) cos1(sec a cos x) + C (c) sinh1(sec a cos x) + C (d) cosh1(sec a cos x) + C

    126. The function is increasing, when

    (a) x > 1

    (b) x <

    1

    (c) x < 0 (d) for all real x

    DIFFERENTIATION:

    INTEGRATION:

    APPLICATION OF DERIVATIVE:

    INTEGRATION :

  • 16 PRATHAM: BMS Special Booklet

    127. How many tangents are parallel to x-axis for the curve y = 2 4 + 3 ? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) No tangent is parallel to x-axis

    128. What is the maximum value of the function log x x? (a) -1 (b) 0 (c) 1 (d)

    129. The second derivative of () with respect to x, where is a polynomial, is: (a) + (b) 2 + (c) (d) 2 +

    130. Which one of the following statements is correct? (a) The derivative of a function () at a point will exist, if there is one tangent to the curve y = () at that point

    and the tangent is parallel to y-axis. (b) The derivative of a function () at a point will exist, if there is one tangent to the curve y = () at that point

    and the tangent must be parallel to x-axis. (c) The derivative of a function ()at a point will exist, if there is one and only one tangent to the curve y = () at

    that point and the tangent is not parallel to y-axis. (d) None of the above.

    131. An integrating factor of the differential equation (1 x2)dy

    dx xy = 1 is:

    (a) x (b) - x

    (1x2) (c) (1 x2) (d)

    1

    2log(1 x2)

    132. The second order differential equation of a parabola with its principal axis along the x-axis is: (a) y + 2(y)2 = 0 (b) 3yy + 2(y)3 = 0 (c) yy + (y)2 = 0 (d) y+ 2(y)4 = 0

    133. The solution of dy

    dx= 2yx is:

    (a) 2x + 2y = C (b) 2x 2y = C (c) 1

    2x

    1

    2y= C (d)

    1

    2x+

    1

    2y= C

    134. The integrating factor of the differential equation cos x dy

    dx + y sin x = 1 is:

    (a) sec x (b) tan x (c) sin x (d) cos x

    135. If d2y

    dx 2+ sin x = 0, then the solution of differential equation is:

    (a) y = sin x + Cx + D (b) y = cos x + Cx2 + D (c) y = tan x + C (d) y = log sin x + Cx

    136. If D, E, F are respectively the mid points of AB, AC and BC in ABC, then BE + AF is equal to:

    (a) DC (b) 1

    2 (c) 2BF (d)

    3

    2

    137. If three points A, B and C have position vectors (1, x, 3), (3, 4, 7) and (y, -2, -5) respectively and if they are collinear, then (x, y) is equal to: (a) (2, -3) (b) (-2, 3) (c) (2, 3) (d) (-2, -3)

    138. If a = i + 2j 3k and b = 3i j + k and (a + b) is perpendicular to (a b), what is the value of ? (a) -2 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 3

    139. If vectors, a, b and c are mutually perpendicular vectors such that a = b = 10, c = 1, then the length of vector 2a + 2b + 40c is:

    (a) 20 (b) 20 6 (c) 40 6 (d) None of these

    140. If a and b are two unit vectors inclined at an angle

    3, then the value of a + b is:

    (a) greater than 1 (b) less than 1 (c) equal to 1 (d) equal to 0

    DIFFERENTIAL EQUATION:

    VECTORS:

  • 17 PRATHAM: BMS Special Booklet

    QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

    141. The intercepts of the plane 5x 3y + 6z = 60 on the coordinate axes are (a) (10, 20, -10) (b) (10, -20, 12) (c) (12, -20, 10) (d) (12, 20, -10)

    142. The direction cosines of the line joining the points (4, 3, -5) and (-2, 1, -8) are

    (a) 6

    7,

    2

    7,

    3

    7 (b)

    2

    7,

    3

    7,

    6

    7 (c)

    6

    7,

    3

    7,

    2

    7 (d) None of these

    143. The foot of the perpendicular drawn from the origin to a plane is the point (1, -3, 1). What is the intercept cut on the x-axis by the plane?

    (a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 11 (d) 11 144. A straight line with direction cosines (0, 1, 0) is

    (a) Parallel to the x-axis (b) Parallel to the y-axis (c) Parallel to the z-axis (d) Equally inclined to all the axes

    145. ABC is a triangle and AD is the median. The coordinates of A are (4, 7, -8) and the coordinates of centroid of the ABC are (1, 1, 1). What are the coordinates of D?

    (a) 1

    2, 2, 11 (b)

    1

    2, 2,

    11

    2 (c) (-1, 2, 11) (d) (-5, -11, 19)

    146. If loga() = , then logb() is:

    (a) 1

    (b)

    +1 (c)

    1 (d)

    1

    147. Simplify: 1

    2log10 25 2 log10 3 + log10 18

    (a) 18 (b) 1 (c) log103 (d) None of these

    148. If log7 log5( + 5 + ) = 0, find the value of x. (CAT 1994) (a) 1 (b) 0 (c) 2 (d) None of these

    149. log2[log7(2 + 37)] = 1. Then, what could be the value of x? (CAT 1997)

    (a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) None of these

    150. What is the sum of n terms in the series: log m + log 2

    + log

    3

    2 + log

    4

    3 + . . (CAT 2003)

    (a) log 1

    +1 /2

    (b) log

    /2

    (c) log 1

    /2

    (d) log 1+

    (1) /2

    Directions for Questions 151 - 155: Answer the questions based on the following information. In a Class X Board examination, ten papers are distributed over five GroupsPCB, Mathematics, Social Science, Vernacular and English. Each of the ten papers is evaluated out of 100. The final score of a student is calculated in the following manner. First, the Group Scores are obtained by averaging marks in the papers within the Group. The final score is the simple average of the Group Scores. The data for the top ten students are presented below. (Dipan's score in English Paper II has been intentionally removed in the table.)

    Name of the student

    PCB Group Mathematics

    Group

    Social Science Group

    Vernacular Group

    English Group Final Score

    Phy. Chem. Bio. Hist. Geo. Paper I Paper II Paper

    I Paper

    II

    Ayesha (G) 98 96 97 98 95 93 94 96 96 98 96.2 Ram (B) 97 99 95 97 95 96 94 94 96 98 96.1 Dipan (B) 98 98 98 95 96 95 96 94 96 ? 96.0

    3D:

    LOGARITHMS:

    DATA INTERPRETATION:

  • 18 PRATHAM: BMS Special Booklet

    Sagnik (B) 97 98 99 96 96 98 94 97 92 94 95.9 Sanjiv (B) 95 96 97 98 97 96 92 93 95 96 95.7 Shreya (G) 96 89 85 100 97 98 94 95 96 95 95.5 Joseph (B) 90 94 98 100 94 97 90 92 94 95 95.0 Agni (B) 96 99 96 99 95 96 82 93 92 93 94.3 Pritam (B) 98 98 95 98 83 95 90 93 94 94 93.9 Tirna (G) 96 98 97 99 85 94 92 91 87 96 93.7

    151. How much did Dipan get in English Paper II ?

    (a) 94 (b) 96.5 (c) 97 (d) 98 152. Students who obtained Group Scores of at least 95 in every group are eligible to apply for a prize. Among those who

    are eligible, the student obtaining the highest Group Score in Social Science Group is awarded this prize. The prize was awarded to (a) Shreya (b) Ram (c) Ayesha (d) Dipan

    153. Each of the ten students was allowed to improve his/her score in exactly one paper of choice with the objective of maximizing his/her final score. Everyone scored 100 in the paper in which he or she chose to improve. After that, the topper among the ten students was (a) Ram (b) Agni (c) Pritam (d) Ayesha

    154. Among the top ten students, how many boys scored at least 95 in at least one paper from each of the groups ? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

    155. Had Joseph, Agni, Pritam and Tirna each obtained Group Score of 100 in the Social Science Group, then their standing in decreasing order of final score would be (a) Pritam, Joseph, Tirna, Agni (b) Joseph, Tirna, Agni, Pritam (c) Pritam, Agni, Tirna, Joseph (d) Joseph, Tirna, Pritam, Agni

    Directions for Questions 156 - 159: Refer to the following graphs and answer the questions based on them:

    Foreign investment approvals and inflows (US $ Mn.) Country wise foreign investment approved for 1996

    156. What is the contribution of EU in the foreign investment inflows for the year 1996?

    (a) 1840 (b) 2000 (c) 460 (d) Data insufficient 157. The foreign investment approvals for the year 1996 in case of SAARC, ASEAN and EU would be :

    (a) 2240 (b) 5000 (c) 3500 (d) 2600

    Note: B or G against the name of a student respectively indicates whether the student is a boy or a girl.

  • 19 PRATHAM: BMS Special Booklet

    QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

    158. Which of the following can be concluded from the graphs?

    I. Foreign investment flows have been steadily increasing II. Foreign investment approvals have been steadily declining III. Others contribute to the largest chunk of the foreign investment inflows in 1996. (a) I only (b) I and II only (c) I and III only (d) None of these

    159. If the net foreign investment inflows for the year 1997 were to grow by 20% and if the proportion of inflows were to remain the same as in case of approvals for the year 1996, what would be foreign investment inflows from NAFTA?

    (a) 800 (b) 500 (c) 840 (d) 920 Directions for Questions 160 162: Answer the questions on the basis of the data presented in the figure below.

    160. During 1996-2002, the number of commodities that exhibited a net overall increase and a net overall decrease, respectively, were (a) 3 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 4 and 2 (d) 5 and 1

    161. The number of commodities that experienced a price decline for two or more consecutive years is (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

    162. For which commodities did a price increase immediately follow a price decline only once in this period ? (a) Rice, Edible oil and Dal (b) Egg and Dal (c) Onion only (d) Egg and Onion

    Directions for Questions 163 166: Answer the questions based on the following pie charts.

    163. What fraction of Sandeep's weight consists of muscular and skin protein ?

    (a) 1

    50 (b)

    2

    25 (c)

    3

    50 (d) Cannot be determined

    164. Ratio of distribution of protein in muscles to the distribution of protein in eyes is:

    (a) 2:5 (b) 12:50 (c) 13:11 (d) 51

    2: 25

  • 20 PRATHAM: BMS Special Booklet

    165. What percentage of Ghosh Babu's body weight is made up of bones ? (a) 0.15% (b) 10% (c) 1.2% (d) Cannot be determined

    166. In terms of total body weight, the portion of material other than water and protein is closest to:

    (a) 1

    5 (b)

    1

    15 (c)

    85

    100 (d)

    1

    20

    Directions for Questions 167 - 168: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below: Each point in the graph below shows the profit and turnover data for a company. Each company belongs to one of the three industries: textile, cement and steel.

    167. For how many companies does the profit exceed 10% of turnover? (a) 8 (b) 7 (c) 6 (d) 5

    168. For how many steel companies with a turnover of more than 2000 is the profit less than 300? (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 7

  • 21 PRATHAM: BMS Special Booklet

    LOGICAL REASONING

    LOGICAL REASONING

    2

  • 22 PRATHAM: BMS Special Booklet

    Directions for Question 1: In the question a group of letters is followed by four combinations of number/symbol lettered (a), (b), (c) & (d). Letters are to be coded as per the scheme and conditions given below. You have to find out the serial letter of the combination, which represents the letter group. Serial letter of that combination is your answer. Letters Q M S I N G D K A L P R B J E Number/Symbol 7 @ 4 # % $ 6 1 2 5 * 9 8 3 Conditions: (i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last a vowel, both are to be coded as the code of the vowel. (ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last a consonant, the codes for the first and the last are to be interchanged. (iii) If no vowel is present in the group of letters, the second and the fifth letters are to be coded as .

    1. BKGQJN

    (a) 9$7% (b) 9$7% (c) 91$78% (d) %1$789 Directions for Question 2: If + means , x means -, means x, - means + then what will come in place of question mark(?). 2. 36 + 18 12 44 30 = ?

    (a) 4 (b) 20 (c) 38 (d) 23.75 Directions for Question 3: In a certain code MANISH is written as NCOKTI, MRADULA is written as NSCEWMC, PINKI is written as QKOLK. 3. What will be the code for ANUP.

    (a) COWQ (b) TQOCM (c) CEKUZ (d) BOVQ Directions for Question 4: In a language truck is train, train is tractor, tractor is ship, ship is aeroplane, aeroplane is bulldozer, bulldozer is scooter, then in that language- 4. Which of the following can fly

    (a) aeroplane (b) ship (c) bulldozer (d) train Directions for Question 5: In a certain code language, hope to see you is coded as re so na di, please come to see the party is coded as fi ge na di ke zo, hope to come is coded as di so ge and see you the party is coded as re fi zo na. 5. How is party coded in the given code language?

    (a) Either re or fi (b) Either zo or na (c) Either zo or fi (d) Either zo or ge

    6. Pointing out to a lady, a girl said, She is the daughter-in-law of the grandmother of my fathers only son. How is the

    lady related to the girl? (a) Sister-in-law (b) Mother (c) Aunt (d) Cannot be determined

    Directions for Questions 7 8: Read the following information and answer the question given below it: A is the father of C. But C is not his son. E is the daughter of C. F is the spouse of A. B is the brother of C. D is the son of B. G is the spouse of B. H is the father of G. 7. Who is the grandmother of D?

    (a) A (b) C (c) F (d) H

    FAMILY TREE:

    CODING AND DECODING:

  • 23 PRATHAM: BMS Special Booklet

    LOGICAL REASONING

    8. Who is the son of F? (a) B (b) C (c) D (d) E

    Directions for Questions 9 - 10: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it: P # Q means P is the father of Q; P + Q means P is the mother of Q; P Q means P is the brother of Q: P * Q means P is the sister of Q. 9. If A + B # C D, then A is Ds

    (a) Father (b) Grandmother (c) Sister (d) Grandfather 10. Which of the following shows that A is the aunt of E?

    (a) A + B C * D # E (b) A # B * C + D E (c) A * B # C * D E (d) A B + C # D * E

    Directions for Questions 11 15: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: There is a five storey building including the ground floor and each floor has only one flat. All these flats have been occupied by the five Bank Probationary Officers. Each officer owns a different car. The cars are : Indica, Ikon, Indigo, Elentra and Santro. The five officers A, B, X, Y and Z are employed in the different banks, viz., State Bank of India (SBI), Punjab National Bank (PNB), UCO Bank, ICICI Bank and HDFC Bank but not necessarily in the same order. Mr. X works in HDFC Bank and lives on the ground floor. The officer who lives on fourth (top) floor does not own Elentra or Santro. Mr. B works in PNB and owns Elentra car. The officer who works in UCO Bank and lives on second floor owns Indica car. Mr. Y lives on third floor and owns Indigo. Mr. Z works in ICICI bank and Mr. Y works in State Bank of India. 11. Who among the following does own Santro car ?

    (a) A (b) B (c) X (d) Cannot be determined 12. Who lives on the second floor ?

    (a) X (b) Y (c) Z (d) A 13. On which floor does B live ?

    (a) First (b) Second (c) Fourth (d) Cannot be determined 14. Who among the following owns Indica car ?

    (a) X (b) A (c) Y (d) B 15. Which of the following combinations of the officer and car is correct ?

    (a) Mr. X: Elentra (b) Mr. Y: Ikon (c) Mr. A: Santro (d) Mr. Z: Ikon

    Direction for Questions 16 - 20: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions: Seven friends Kamla, Manish, Rohit, Amit, Gaurav, Pritam and Priya are sitting in a circle. Kamla, Manish, Rohit, Amit, Pritam and Priya are sitting at equal distances from each other. Rohit is sitting three places right of Pritam, who is sitting to the right of Amit. Kamla forms an angle of 90 degrees from Gaurav and angle of 120 degrees from Manish. Manish is just opposite Priya and is sitting on the left of Gaurav. 16. Who is the only person sitting between Rohit and Manish?

    (a) Pritam (b) Amit (c) Gaurav (d) kamla 17. Gaurav is not sitting at equal distance from

    (a) Rohit and Pritam (b) Amit and kamla (c) Manish and Pritam (d) All of the above 18. Gaurav is sitting . of Priya.

    (a) to the left (b) to the right (c) two places right (d) None of them 19. The angle between Gaurav and Manish in the clockwise direction is

    (a) 1500 (b) 180 (c) 210 (d) None of these

    ARRANGEMENTS AND PUZZLES:

  • 24 PRATHAM: BMS Special Booklet

    20. Which of the following statements is not correct? (a) Pritam is between exactly Manish and Kamla (b) Manish is two places away from Priya (c) Gaurav is sitting opposite Pritam (d) All of the above

    Directions for Questions 21 - 24: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: In a building, there are thirteen flats on three floors - II, III and IV. Five flats are unoccupied. Three managers, two teachers, two lawyers and one doctor occupy the remaining flats. There are at least three flats on any floor and not more than six flats on any floor. No two persons of the same profession stay on any floor. On the II floor, out of four flats, one occupant is the lawyer and he has only one neighbour. One lawyer live one floor below the other. The doctor is not the neighbour of any of the lawyers. No flat is unoccupied on the III floor. 21. How many flats are occupied on the IV floor?

    (a) Two (b) Three (c) Four (d) Data inadequate 22. How many flats are there on the III floor?

    (a) Three (b) Four (c) Five (d) Three or four 23. What is the combination of occupants in the II floor?

    (a) Lawyer, Teacher (b) Manager, Teacher (c) Manager, Doctor (d) Lawyer, Manager 24. Who among the following is the neighbour of the other lawyer?

    (a) Teacher (b) Manager (c) Both Manager and Teacher (d) Data inadequate

    Directions for Questions 25 - 29: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: A, B, C, D, E, F and G are travelling in three different vehicles. There are at least two passengers in each vehicle - I, II and III and each vehicle has passengers of both the sexes. There are two engineers, two doctors and three teachers among them. C is a lady doctor and she does not travel with the pair of sisters A and F. B, a male engineer, travels with only G, a teacher in vehicle I. D is a male doctor. Two persons belonging to same profession do not travel in the same vehicle. A is not an engineer and travels in vehicle II.

    25. In which vehicle does C travel? (a) I (b) II (c) III (d) II or III

    26. How many lady members are there among them? (a) Three (b) Four (c) Three or Four (d) Data inadequate

    27. What is F's profession? (a) Doctor (b) Engineer (c) Teacher (d) Data inadequate

    28. Which of the following is not correct? (a) A - Female - Teacher (b) B - Male - Engineer (c) E - Male - Teacher (d) F - Female - Teacher

    29. Which of the following represents the three teachers? (a) A E G (b) E F G (c) A E G or E F G (d) Data inadequate

    Directions for Questions 30 33: Read the following information given below and answer the questions that follow: In an engineering college, there are three departments- civil, mechanical and electrical. There are, in all, 20 faculties. Of them, five are male professors (A, H, I, O and P), seven are male lecturers (B, C, D, J, K, Q and R), three are female professors (E, L and S), and five are female lecturers (F, G, M, N and T). Civil department has the staff members from A to G. Mechanical department has staff members from H to N and electrical department has staff members from O to T. Different teams are to be formed out of these staff members as per the following conditions: I. No male lecturer in civil department can be grouped with any female lecturer in electrical department.

    GROUPS & CONDITIONALITIES:

  • 25 PRATHAM: BMS Special Booklet

    LOGICAL REASONING

    II. No female professor can be grouped with any male lecturer.

    30. A committee of six members is to be formed with one professor and one lecturer each from each department. There must be a minimum of two female members in this committee. Which of the following combinations is possible? (a) A, I, P, B, L, N (b) H, I, P, E, L, T (c) A, H, O, F, S, T (d) A, F, H, M, S, T

    31. A delegation of ladies is to be sent abroad to attend a seminar. Any professor in mechanical department is not ready to join with any lecturer in civil department. The delegation should have minimum three professors. Further, every department must be represented in the delegation. Which of the following combinations would be possible? (a) E, L, S, F, G, N (b) A, H, D, E, L, S (c) F, L, N, T, S, M (d) E, L, S, M, N, T

    32. A joint committee of five members is to be formed from the faculties of civil and electrical department only. The committee must have minimum two professors and two lecturers. There should be at least two female members in the committee. Which of the following combinations is not possible? (a) S, T, D, O, R (b) A, B, O, R, T (c) A, O, R, G, T (d) A, O, B, G, T

    33. A department committee is to be formed in mechanical department only. There should be 4 members in the committee and one of them must be a lady. The committee must include the head of department, Professor I. However, he cannot work with either L or N. Further, M cannot work with either N or J. Which of the following combinations is possible? (a) I, M, L, N (b) I, M, H, K (c) I, H, J, K (d) H, J, M, N

    Directions for Questions 34 38: Read the information given in the following paragraphs and then answer the questions based on them: There are 6 soccer teams A, B, C, D, E and F in the soccer league game. All the 6 teams play each Saturday during the season. Each team must play against each of the other teams once and only once during the seasons. (I) Team A plays against team D first and team F second. (II) Team B plays against team E first and team C third. (III) Team C plays against team F first.

    34. On the first Saturday, which of the following pairs of teams play against each other? (a) A and B, C and F, D and E (b) A and B, C and E, D and F (c) A and C, B and E, D and F (d) None of these

    35. Which of the following team must B play second with ? (a) A (b) C (c) D (d) Either E or A

    36. What is the total number of games that each team must play during the season ? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 5

    37. If D wins 5 games, which of the following must be true ? (a) A loses 5 games (b) A wins 4 games (c) A wins its first game (d) B loses at least 1 game

    38. The last set of games could be between : (a) A and B, C and F, D and E (b) A and C, B and F, D and E (c) A and D, B and C, E and F (d) Cannot be determined

    Directions for Questions 39 42: Study the following information to answer the given questions: There are five identically looking boxes having different objects in it and every box has a label indicating their contents. The following is the description of the contents and the label of each box: Contents Label Two pins PP Two balls BB Two clips CC One pin and One clip PC One ball and One clip BC

  • 26 PRATHAM: BMS Special Booklet

    Somebody has mischievously interchanged these labels in such a way that no box contains the label correctly explaining its content. 39. If the first box opened contained label PP and second box opened contained label PC and out of the combined four

    items, one item was a ball, which of the following will be definitely true? (a) Other three items will not contain any clip (b) Other three items will contain atleast one clip (c) Other three items will not contain two pins (d) None of the above

    40. If the first box, containing the label BC, was opened and it was found that one item is a ball, which of the following would definitely be true? (a) The other item will not be a ball (b) The other item will also be a ball (c) The other box with BB label will contain a ball and a clip (d) The other item may either be a ball or a clip

    41. If the information is available that box PC does not contain either any pin or any clip and box PP does not contain any pin and box CC contains one clip and one ball, which of the following will definitely be true if only one of the remaining boxes is opened? (a) It will have atleast one clip (b) It will have atleast one pin (c) It will have two pin (d) It will have one pin and one clip

    42. If the box PP contained two clips, the box CC contained two pins and the box BB contained atleast one ball, which of the following will definitely be not true? (a) The box PC contains two balls (b) The box BB contains one clip (c) The box BC contains two balls (d) The box BC contains one pin and one clip

    43. Radha moves towards South-east a distance of 7 m, then she moves towards West and travels a distance of 14 m.

    From here, she moves towards North-west a distance of 7 m and finally she moves a distance of 4 m towards East and stood at the point. How far is the starting point from where she stood? (a) 3 m (b) 4 m (c) 10 m (d) 11 m

    44. A man is facing south. He turns 135o in the anti clockwise direction and then 180o in the clockwise direction. Which direction is he facing now? (a) North-east (b) North-west (c) South-east (d) South west

    45. A villager went to meet his uncle in another village situated 5 km away in the North-east direction of his own village. From there he came to meet his father-in-law living in a village situated 4 km in the south of his uncles village. How far away and in what direction is he now? (a) 3 km in the North (b) 3 km in the East (c) 4 km in the East (d) 4 km in the West

    46. A man leaves for his office from his house. He walks towards East. After moving a distance of 20 m, he turns South and walks 10 m. Then he walks 35 m towards the West and further 5 m towards the North. He then turns towards East and walks 15 m. What is the straight distance between his initial and final positions? (a) 0 (b) 5 (c) 10 (d) Cannot be determined

    DIRECTIONS:

  • 27 PRATHAM: BMS Special Booklet

    LOGICAL REASONING

    47. A river flows west to east and on the way turns left and goes in a semi-circle round a hillock, and then turns left at right angles. In which direction is the river finally flowing? (a) West (b) East (c) North (d) South

    48. How many triangles are there in the given figure?

    (a) 18 (b) 28 (c) 20 (d) 24

    49. Find the minimum number of straight lines required to make the given figure. (a) 16 (b) 17 (c) 18 (d) 19

    50. In the Venn diagram given below, circle represents sportspersons, square represents unmarried person, triangle

    represents women and rectangle represents educated person. Each section is numbered. Study this diagram to answer the following question. Which sections is/are represented by the region numbered 10? (a) Married educated sportswomen (b) Unmarried uneducated women sportspersons (c) Married educated sportsmen (d) Unmarried educated sportswomen

    51. Which one will replace the question mark? (a) 0 (b) 26 (c) 11 (d) 12

    52. Which one will replace the question mark? (a) 262 (b) 622 (c) 631 (d) 824

    VENN DIAGRAM:

  • 28 PRATHAM: BMS Special Booklet

    53. Statements:

    Some pianos are violins. Some violins are drums. All drums are guitars. No guitar is a flute. Conclusions: I. At least Some guitar are pianos. II. All drums are flutes is a possibility III. Some pianos are both violins and drums. IV. At least some flute is a drum. (a) Only IV follows (b) Only either I or II follow (c) Only III follows (d) None Follows

    54. Statements: All chairs are tables. All tables are telephones. All telephones are cell phones. No cell phone is computer Conclusions: I. All cell phones are tables. II. Some chairs are computers III. No chair is computer. (a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows (c) Only III follows (d) Only either II or III follows

    Directions for Questions 55 to 57: Each question contains six statements, followed by four options of combinations of any three of the given sentences. Choose the option in which the combinations are logically related. 55. A. No tingo is a bingo.

    B. All jingoes are bingoes. C. No jingo is a tingo. D. Some tingoes are jingoes. E. Some tingoes are jingoes. F. Some bingoes are not tingoes. (a) ABC (b) ACB (c) DFA (d) BDA

    56. A. Smoking causes pollution. B. Smoking creates ill-will. C. Smoking sometimes causes fire. D. Ill-will causes pollution. E. Smoking causes fire and pollution. F. All smokers cause fire and pollution. (a) ABE (b) FEC (c) DBF (d) BDA

    57. A. Lakme is a nail polish. B. Some nail polishes contain oil. C. All nail polishes do not contain oil. D. All nail polishes contain chemicals. E. Lakme has oil. F. Lakme contain chemicals. (a) BCE (b) AEB (c) FDA (d) AEF

    SYLLOGISM:

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    LOGICAL REASONING

    58. In a row of boys, Aditya was shifted 10 places to the right of Rohan and Kewal was shifted 10 places to the left of

    Vilas. If Vilas was twenty-sixth from the left and there were three boys between Kewal and Aditya after shifting, what was the position of Rohan in the row? (a) 10th from the right end (b) 10th from the left end (c) 39th from the right end (d) Data inadequate

    59. In a class, among the passed students, Amisha is twenty-second from the top and Anuja, who is 5 ranks below Amisha, is thirty-fourth from the bottom. All the students from the class have appeared for the exam. If the ratio of the students who passed in the exam to those who failed is 4:1 in the class, how many students are there in the class? (a) 60 (b) 75 (c) 90 (d) Data inadequate

    60. In a row of girls, there are 16 girls between Priya and Natasha. Priya is thirty-second from the left end of the row. If Priya is nearer than Natasha to the right end of the row, then how far away is Natasha from the left end of the row? (a) 16th (b) 14th (c) 15th (d) Data inadequate

    Direction for Questions 61 - 62: Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the question given below. 3 4 2 6 8 7 5 4 * 3 2 9 $ 1 6 5 3 7 # 9 8 6 @ 2 1 4 3 9 8 7 2 4 3 61. How many 2s are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a perfect square?

    (1 is also a perfect square) (a) None (b) One (c) Two (d) Three

    62. If all the digits that are perfect square are dropped from the above arrangement which of the following will be 13th (digit/symbol) from the left end of the above arrangement. (a) $ (b) 2 (c) # (d) 5

    Directions for Questions 63 - 64: The following questions are based on five words given below:

    AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words) 63. If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of

    the following will form a meaningful English word? (a) SUM (b) BIG (c) Both BIG and THE (d) FOR

    64. How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words? (a) Two (b) Five (c) Six (d) Nine

    65. Radha remembers that her fathers birthday is after 16th but before 21st of March, while her brother Mahesh remembers that his fathers birthday is before 22nd but after 19th of March. On which date is the birthday of their father? (a) 19th March (b) 20th March (c) 21th March (d) Cannot be determined

    66. Nikhil remembers that his sister Kranti had certainly been to Pune for one day after 16th February, but before 21st February, while his mother remembers that Kranti had certainly visited Pune, before 20th February but after 17th February. If both of the them are correct, then on which day in February had Kranti visited Pune? (a) Either 18th or 19th (b) 19th (c) 18th (d) Data inadequate

    RANKING & SERIES:

  • 30 PRATHAM: BMS Special Booklet

    67. If it is possible to make a perfect odd square from 3rd, 5th and 10th digit of the number 2569187943, the unit digit of the square root would be your answer. If more than one such square can be formed your answer would be @and if no such number formed your answer is . (a) 1 (b) (c) 9 (d) @

    Directions for Questions 68-69: Each of the following questions consists of a question followed by three statements labeled I, II and III. You have to decide whether the data given in the statement(s) is/are sufficient for answering the question. Read all the questions. A single combination of statements with least number of statements which could be sufficient for answering the question would be your answer. 68. How is Aditya related to Mayank?

    I. Pinki is the mother-in-law of Rashmi, the wife of Aditya. II. Pinkis brother is Adityas maternal uncle. III. Pinkis husband is the only son of Mayank. (a) Only I and II (b) Only I and III (c) Only I and either II or III (d) Any two of the three

    69. Who among A, B, C, D, E, F, and G each having a different height, is the second tallest? I. B is taller than A but shorter than E. II. Only two of them are shorter than G. III. D is taller than only F. (a) Only I and II (b) Only II and III (c) Only I and III (d) All I, II and III are not sufficient to answer the question.

    Directions for Questions 70 - 72: Each of the following questions below consists of a question and two statements numbed I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer. (a) If data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient

    to answer the question. (b) If data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient

    to answer the question. (c) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. (d) If the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question. (e) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

    70. On which day is Vickys birthday?

    I. As per Vickys friend Rahul, his birthday is on either 12th, 13th or 14th Jan. II. As per Vickys mother Babli, his birthday is on either 14th or 15th Jan.

    71. Is T grandmother of Q? I. P is the mother of Q. Q is the son of R. R is the son of T. II. L is father of N and N is daughter of T.

    72. Is it 9 oclock now? I. After half an hour, the minute and the hour hands of the clock will make an angle of exactly 90o with each

    other. II. Exactly 15 minutes ago, the hour and the minute hands of the clock coincided with each other.

    DATA SUFFICIENCY:

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    LOGICAL REASONING

    Directions for Questions 73 and 74: In each question below a statement is given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the statements to be true. Read both the conclusions and decide which of the two or both follow from the given statement. Give Answer

    (a) If only conclusion I follows. (b) If only conclusion II follows. (c) If either I or II follows. (d) If neither I nor II follows. (e) If both conclusions I and II follow.

    73. Statement: Global ecological issues have eclipsed local environmental problems, which are being faced by the poor societies. Conclusions: I. Poor societies always have to suffer because of their poverty. II. Global ecological issues are not so important. Rich societies can bear with it.

    74. Statements: 70% of the worlds data is processed on XYZ companys platforms An advertisement of XYZ a computer manufacturing company. Conclusions: I. There is no other company in the world which produces platforms of data processing. II. Company XYZ has to make more efforts to market its platforms.

    Directions for Questions 75 and 76: In each question below are given certain statements followed by some conclusions. Choose the conclusion which follows from the given statement. 75. Statements:

    A forest has as many Sandal trees as it has Ashoka trees. Three-fourths of the trees are old and half of the trees are at the flowering state. Conclusions: (a) All ashoka trees are at the flowering stage. (b) All Sandal trees are at the flowering stage. (c) At least one-half of the Ashoka trees are old. (d) One half of the Sandal trees are at the flowering stage. (e) None of these.

    76. Statements: 1. Only students can participate in the race. 2. Some participants in the race are females. 3. All female participants in the race are invited for coaching. Conclusions: (a) All participants in the race are invited for coaching. (b) Al participants in the race are males. (c) All students are invited for coaching. (d) All the participants in the race are students.

    STATEMENT AND CONCLUSION:

  • 32 PRATHAM: BMS Special Booklet

    Directions for Question 77: In each question below a statement is given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the statement to be true. Read both the conclusions and decide which of the two or both follow from the given statement. Give Answer

    (a) If only conclusion I follows. (b) If only conclusion II follows. (c) If either I or II follows. (d) If neither I nor II follows. (e) If both conclusions I and II follow.

    77. Statement: The top management has asked the four managers either to resign by tomorrow or face the order of service termination. Three of them have resigned till this very evening. Conclusions: I. The manager who did not resign yesterday will resign tomorrow. II. The management will terminate the service of one manager.

    Directions for Questions 78 to 82: In each of the following questions, there is a set of five figures labelled A, B, C, D and E called the Problem Set followed by a set of five other figures labelled (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) called the Answer Set. Fig. (C) or (D) contains a question mark. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Set which will substitute this question mark so that a series is formed by the figure A, B, C, D and E taken in order. The option of the selected figure is the answer.

    Problem figure Answer figure 78.

    79.

    80.

    81.

    VISUAL REASONING:

  • 33 PRATHAM: BMS Special Booklet

    LOGICAL REASONING

    82.

    83. Three views of the same cube are shown below -

    The figure on the face opposite to the triangle is: (a) Pentagon (b) Circle (c) Question mark (d) Rectangle

    Directions for Questions 84 to 86: Read the information given below to answer these questions. (A) A cube has six sides, each of which has a different colour black, blue, brown, green, red and white. (B) The red side is opposite to black. (C) The green side is between the red and the black. (D) The blue side is adjacent to the white. (E) The brown side is adjacent to the blue. (F) The red side is the bottom face. 84. The four colours adjacent to green are

    (a) black, blue, brown, red (b) black, blue, brown, white (c) black, blue, red, white (d) black, brown, red, white

    85. Which of the following can be deduced from the statements (A), (B) and (F)? (a) Black is on the top (b) Blue is on the top (c) Brown is on the top (d) Brown is opposite to black

    86. Which of the following statements given above adds no information that is not already given by the other statements? (a) (B) (b) (C) (c) (E) (d) (F)

    87. Four different positions of a dice are shown. Find the letter opposite to W. (a) Y (b) U (c) M (d) S

    CUBES & DICES:

  • 34 PRATHAM: BMS Special Booklet

    Directions for Questions 88 - 92: Read the following information carefully to answer these questions. A word number arrangement machine when given an input as set of words-numbers, rearranges them following a particular rule and generates stepwise output till the rearrangement is completed following that rule. Following is an illustration of input and steps of rearrangement till the last step.

    Input : pour ask 57 dear 39 fight 17 28 Step I : ask pour 57 dear 39 fight 17 28 Step II : ask 57 pour dear 39 fight 17 28 Step III : ask 57 dear pour 39 fight 17 28 Step IV : ask 57 dear 39 pour fight 17 28 Step V : ask 57 dear 39 fight pour 17 28 Step VI : ask 57 dear 39 fight 28 pour 17

    And step VI is the last output. As per the rule followed in the above steps, find out the answer to each of the following questions. 88. If step II of an input is cut 97 38 end for 29 46 down, which of the following will be the last step?

    (a) VI (b) IV (c) V (d) VII 89. If the Step I of an input is car 17 vas tiger 92 87 like 52, which of the following will be the Step IV?

    (a) car 92 like 87 tiger 17 vas 52 (b) car 92 like 87 17 vas tiger 52 (c) car 92 like 87 tiger 52 17 vas (d) car 92 like 17 vas tiger 87 52

    90. Input : zeal for 49 31 high 22 track 12. Which of the following will be the Step III? (a) for 49 high zeal 31 22 track 12 (b) for 49 high 31 zeal 22 track 12 (c) for 49 high 31 track 22 zeal 12 (d) for 49 high 31 track zeal 22 12

    91. Input : 19 feet 34 28 dog bag 43. Bag 43 dog 19 feet 34 28 would be the Step- (a) I (b) IV (c) II (d) None of these

    92. If the step III of an input is 21 let 86 bite 16 fit 72 happy, what would be the input? (a) 21 16 let bite happy fit 72 86 (b) happy 16 21 bite fit let 86 72 (c) fit bite happy 72 86 16 let 21 (d) cannot be determined

    Directions for Questions 93 - 97: In arrangement machine when given an input of words, rearrange them following a particular rule and solve. Input: This chapter would give you basic concepts. Step 1: basic this chapter would give you concepts. Step 2: basic chapter this would give you concepts. Step 3: basic chapter concepts this would give you. Step 4: basic chapter concepts give this would you. Study the logic and answer the questions that follow. 93. Input: Do not imitate others work. Which of the following will be Step 3 for the given input?

    (a) Do others not imitate work. (b) Do imitate not others work. (c) Work do others imitate. (d) Do not others work imitate. (e) There will be no 3rd step

    94. Input: "Adequate safety arrangements are must for kids". Which of the following will be 2nd last step for the given input? (a) Adequate are arrangements for kids safety must. (b) Adequate are arrangements for kids must safety, (c) Adequate are safety arrangements must for kids. (d) Adequate safety are arrangements must for kids. (e) None of these

    INPUT - OUTPUT:

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    LOGICAL REASONING

    95. Input: "Marcus Brauchli gives inaccurate information". How many steps are required to rearrange the above input properly. (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 2 (e) None of these

    96. Input: "Most Indian leaders cannot even visualise free India". Which of the following will be last step of above input? (a) Most Indian even leaders cannot visualise free India. (b) Cannot even free India Indian most leaders visualise. (c) Cannot even free India most Indian leaders visualise. (d) Cannot even free India Indian leaders most visualise. (e) None of these.

    97. Step IV: "It is figure anti-establishment from media". Which of the following is the input of the above mentioned step. (a) It is figure from anti-establishment media. (b) Media it is figure from anti-establishment. (c) It is anti-establishment media from. (d) Can't be determined. (e) None of these

    Directions for Questions 98 101: In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Give answer- (a) if only assumption I is implicit. (b) if only assumption II is implicit. (c) if either assumption I or II is implicit. (d) if neither assumption I nor II is implicit. (e) if both assumptions I and II are implicit. 98. Statement: Please check the availability of 2 tickets from Delhi to Lucknow.

    Assumptions: I. Person checking knows the desired mode of travel. II. Person checking knows the details of the person travelling.

    99. Statement: An advertisement: Our shoes are for the rich. Assumptions: I. Many people like to be labeled as rich.

    II. One cant become rich unless one has that brand of shoes. 100. Statement: Two months ago, it was announced that Central Government pensioners would get dearness relief

    with immediate effect but till date, banks have not credited the arrears. A statement from a Pensioners Forum. Assumptions: I. Most of the banks normally take care of the pensioners.

    II. Two months time is sufficient for the government machinery to move and give effect to pensioners.

    101. Statement: Believe me, I have read it in newspaper X. Assumptions: I. Newspaper X gives reliable information/news.

    II. I am reporting exactly as it is given in newspaper X 102. Statement: We deal in used cars. Contact us at phone no. XYZ, at the earliest possible. an advertisement.

    Assumptions: I. some people want to sell or purchase old cars. II. The advertisement will be read by the needy people. III. Used cars may not be totally useless.

    (a) Only I are implicit. (b) Only II and III are implicit. (c) Only I and III are implicit. (d) All I, II, III are implicit. (e) None of I, II, III are implicit.

    STATEMENT & ASSUMPTIONS:

  • 36 PRATHAM: BMS Special Booklet

    103. Statement: Number of dropouts from the municipal school has significantly increased after withdrawal of mid-day

    meal scheme. Course of Action: I. The government should reconsider its decision of withdrawal of midday meal scheme. II. The government should close down some of the municipal schools. III. The government should carry out a detailed study to find out the reasons for school dropouts. (a) None follows (b) Only I follows (c) Only I and III follow (d) Only III and III follow (e) All follow

    104. Statement: Some strains of mosquito have become resistant to chloroquine the widely used medicine for malaria patients. Course of Action: I. Selling of chloroquine should be stopped. II. Researchers should develop a new medicine for patients affected by such mosquitoes. III. All the patients suffering from malaria should be checked for identification of causal mosquito. (a) None follows (b) Only I and III follow (c) All follow (d) Only II and III follow (e) None of these

    105. Statement: A large number of students who have passed their XII Std. terminal examination in the country could not get admission to colleges as the number of seats available are grossly inadequate. Course of Action: I. The evaluation system of XII std. terminal examination should be made more tough so that fewer students pass

    the examination. II. The Government should encourage the private sector to open new colleges by providing them land at cheaper

    rate. III. The rich people should be asked to send their wards to foreign countries for higher studies enabling the needy

    students to get admission in colleges within the country. (a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows (c) Only I and II follow (d) Only II and III follow (e) None of these

    106. Statement: The Deputy Mayor of city Z has proposed to install a plant of mineral water and to supply citizens mineral water bottles at Rs. 6 per litre as against Rs. 10 per litre being sold by local private companies. Course of Action: I. The local private companies of city Z will have to close their operation. II. The Corporation of city Z will have to provide for losses in this project in its budget. III. The tap water schemes of city Z will have to be stopped. (a) Only I and II follow (b) Only II and III follow (c) Only I and III follow (d) All follow (e) None of these

    107. Statement: The vehicular traffic has increased so much in the recent past that it takes at least two hours to travel between the city and the airport during peak hours. Course of Action: I. Non-airport bound vehicles should not be allowed to ply on the road connecting the city and the airport. II. The load of vehicular traffic should be diverted through various link roads during peak hours. III. The departure and arrival of flights should be regulated so as to avoid congestion during peak hours. (a) Only I follow (b) Only II follows (c) Only I and II follow (d) All follow (e) none of these

    STATEMENT & COURSE OF ACTION:

  • 37 PRATHAM: BMS Special Booklet

    LOGICAL REASONING

    Directions for Questions 108 to 112: Each of the following questions consists of a statement followed by two Arguments I and II. Give answer: (a) If only argument I is strong (b) If only argument II is strong (c) If either I or II is strong (d) If neither I nor II is strong and (e) If both I and II are strong 108. Statement: Should religion be banned?

    Arguments: I. Yes. It develops fanaticism in people. II. No. Religion binds people together.

    109. Statement: Should children be legally made responsible to take care of their parents during their old age? Arguments: I. Yes. Such