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1. This Booklet contains four tests as follows :Test I -
English Language
Q.Nos. 1–50Test II -
General AwarenessQ.Nos. 51–100
Test III -Data Inter. & Data Anal.
Q.Nos. 101–150Test IV -
Reasoning
Q.Nos. 151–2002. You will be given an aggregate time of 2:00 hours to
answer all the four tests. The tests are not separatelytimed. You may distribute the time as you please butremember that to qualify in the written test as a wholeyou have to qualify on each of the four tests separately.
3. Tests of Reasoning, Quantitative Aptitude and GeneralAwareness are printed in English. The English version on the right hand side page.
4. There will be penalty for wrong answers marked by you.For each question for which a wrong answer has beengiven by you, one-fourth or 0.25 of the marks assignedto that question will be deducted as penalty.
5. Rough work, if you want to do any, is to be done in thisbooklet itself and not on the answersheet. For thispurpose use the empty space in the margin or anywhereelse you find in this booklet. Do not use any other paper.
6. Indicate your answers on the separate answersheet(given along with the booklet), using HB Pencil. Followthe instructions given on the answersheet for indicatingyour answers.
7. Your answersheet contains answer-spaces for answering200 questions. Use 200 answer spaces for answering the200 questions given in this booklet.
8. Do not open the booklet Until you are told to do so.When the instruction for opening the booklet is given,do not try to remove the wire staples at the left. Insertthe blunt end of your pencil under the sticker and tear itto open the booklet.
9. Immediately after opening the booklet, verify that all thepages containing questions from 1 to 200 are properlyprinted in your booklet and then begin answering thetest. In case the booklet is defective get it replaced byanother test booklet.
No. of Questions : 200 Time : 2:00 hrs
Name of Student : ____________________________
Read the directions (given below) carefully.
BASHA SIRSTUDY CIRCLEA HOUSE OF SHORTCUTS9177291664 / 8019970837SBI - P.O : MOCK TEST - III
A HOUSE OF SHORTCUTS
BASHA SIRSTUDY CIRCLE
9177291664 / 8019970837 www.bashasirstudycircle.org
H.T.No : ____________________________
BBBBBASHA SIR - STUDASHA SIR - STUDASHA SIR - STUDASHA SIR - STUDASHA SIR - STUDY CIRY CIRY CIRY CIRY CIRCLECLECLECLECLE
offers excellent coaching for
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Test-I: Reasoning Ability 1. How many such digits are there in the number 3246759,
each of which will occupy the same position when rearranged in ascending order as in the number? l)None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three
2. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word RECRUIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet series? l)None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three
3. The positions of the first and the sixth letters in the word CONTAGIOUS are interchanged. Similarly, the positions of the second and the seventh letters are interchanged, and so on. Which letter will be the second to the right of the fifth letter from the right end? 1)0 2)N 3)1 4)T 5) None of these
4. What will be next term in the following series? A B B D C F D H E J 1)N 2 ) 0 3)K 4)F 5) None of these
5. Shyam walked 6 m facing towards East, then took a right turn and walked a distance of 9 m. He then took a left turn and walked a distance of 6 m. How far is he from the starting point? l )15m 2)21 m 3) 18 m 4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these
6. D said, "A's father is the only brother of my sister's son." How is A's father related to D? 1) Cousin 2) Nephew 3) Aunt 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these
9. Which of the following pairs of words have the same relationship as FAN : HEAT? 1) Water: Drink 2) Light: Night 3) Teach : Student 4) Air: Breathe 5) Food: Hunger
10. I f 'A ' is coded as 1, ' B ' a s 3 , 'C as 5, and so on, which of the following is the numerical value of the word FAZED if the numerical value of each letter is to be added to obtain the value of the word? 1)81 2)79 3)77 4)80 5) None of these Directions (Q. 11-15): Study the following information
carefully and answer the questions given below: M, N, P, Q, R, S and T are sitting around a circle facing
the centre. P is second to the left of S and third to the right of M. T is third to the left of S. Q is not an immediate neighbour of S. N is not an immediate neighbour of M. 11. Who is third to the right of N?
1)Q 2)T 3)P 4)R 5) None of these
12. Who is second to the left of M? 1)N 2)R 3) S 4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these
13. Who is sitting between P and S? 1)R 2 ) R a n d N 3)N 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these
14. How many persons are sitting between Q and S? l ) two 2) three 3) four 4) two or three 5) None of these
15. Who is sitting between T and M? 1)R 2)N 3) Q and P 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these Directions (Q. 16-20): In the following questions, the
symbols @, ©, #, $ and % are used with the following meanings:
'P © Q' means 'P is either smaller than or equal to Q'. 'P % Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'. 'P @ Q' means 'P is either greater than or equal to Q'. 'P $ Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'. ' P # Q ' means 'PisneithergreaterthannorsmallerthanQ'. Now in each of the following questions, assuming the
given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true.
BASHA SIR - STUDY CIRCLEA HOUSE OF SHORTCUTS9177291664 / 8019970837
Give answer 1) if only conclusion I is true. Give answer 2) if only conclusion II is true. Give answer 3) if either conclusion I or II is true. Give answer 4) if neither conclusion I nor II is true. Give answer 5) if both conclusions I and II are true.
16. Statements: M © D , D # F , F @ B Conclusions: L B O D
IL F # M 17. Statements: W$K, K©H, H@R
Conclusions: L R$K IL H%W
18. Statements: K @ R , R % T , T # J Conclusions: L J $ R
EL T$K 19. Statements: H $ T, T%W, W@K
Conclusions: L W $ H IL W@H
20. Statements: B % E , E @ F , F O M Conclusions: L M % E
E B@F Directions (Q. 21-25): Each of the questions below
consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and
Give answer 1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer 2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answerthe question, while the data in statement I alone are hot sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer 3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer 4) if the data even in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer 5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question. 21. How many students are there between Suresh and
Mohan in a row of 50 students ? L Suresh is twelfth from the left end and Mohan is
seventeenth from the right end. EL Suresh is six places away from Jayesh, who is
twentieth from the left end. 22. What does ' $ ' mean in a code language?
L ' 5 $ # 3' means ' flowers are really good'. II. '7 # 3 5' means 'good flowers are available'.
23. How is P related to J? I M is the brother of P and T is the sister of P. II P's mother is married to J's husband, who has one
son and two daughters. 24. How is 'never' written in a code language ?
I 'never ever go there' is written as 'na ja ni ho ' in that code language.
II 'go there and come back' is written as 'ma ho sa ni da' in that code language.
25. Among M, P, K, J, T and W, who is lighter than only the heaviest ? L P is heavier than M and T. EL W is heavier than P but lighter than J, who is not the
heaviest. Directions (Q. 26-30): Study the following information
carefully and answer the given questions. (i) Five topics, A, B, C, D and E are to be discussed,
one topic on each day, from Monday to Saturday. (ii) Topic A will be discussed before E and topic B will
be discussed before D. (iii) Topics B and D will not be discussed on the first day. (iv) There will be one rest day denoted by F. (v) There will be a gap of two days between the days
on which topics D and B will be discussed. (vi) Topic C will be discussed immediately before the
rest day. The rest day will not be the second or the fourth day.
26. Which of the following is the correct sequence of the discussion on the topics including the rest day 'F '? 1)AEBFCD 2)ABECFD 3)AEBCFD 4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these
27. Which of the following is a correct statement? 1) Topic A will be discussed on Tuesday. 2) Discussion on topic C will be immediately preceded
by discussion on topic B. 3) Discussion on topic B will take place before that on A. 4) Thursday is the rest day. 5) None of these
28. On which of the following days will the topic C be discussed? 1) Tuesday 2) Wednesday 3) Friday 4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these
29. How many days' gap will be there between the days on which topic E and B will be discussed? l)Nil 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) None of these
30. With reference to A, the discussion on topic E will take place . 1) immediately on the next day 2) after a day's gap 3) after three days 4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these Directions (Q. 31-35): Study the following information
carefully and answer the given questions. A word and number arrangement machine when given
an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input: say dry 42 96 get 3 9 kite 67 Step I: 96 say dry 42 get 3 9 kite 67 Step II: 96 dry say 42 get 39 kite 67
Step HI: 96 dry 39 say 42 get kite 67 Step IV: 96 dry 39 say 67 42 get kite StepV: 96 dry 39 say 67 get 42 kite Step V is the last step of the rearrangement. You have to answer the questions by following the same
rules as illustrated above. 31. If the second step of an input is "76 from 48 super itself
56 18 went", how many more steps will be required to complete the arrangement? l)Five 2) Six 3) Four 4) Three 5) None of these
32. Which step will be the last step of an input for which the third step is "91 go 28 mock pet 43 lead 37" ? 1) Eighth 2) Seventh 3) Sixth 4) Fifth 5) None of these
33. What will be the third step if the input is "thirty days from now 32 56 87 24"? 1) 87 thirty days from now 32 56 24 2) 87 days thirty from now 32 56 24 3) 87 days 24 thirty from now 32 56 4) 87 thirty 24 days 32 from now 56 5) None of these
34. If the third step of an input is "65 daily 12 tie 42 23 foreign urgent", what will definitely be the input? 1) foreign 65 tie urgent 12 42 23 daily 2) foreign 65 urgent tie 42 daily 23 12 3) foreign 65 12 urgent tie 42 daily 23 4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these
35. If the second step of an input is "52 at deep follow 4116 road 32", what will be the fifth step? 1) 52 at 16 road 32 deep follow41 2) 52 at 16 road 41 deep follow 32 3) 52 at 16 road 32 follow 41 deep 4) There will be no such step. 5) None of these Directions (Q. 36-40): Below in each question are given
two statements (A) and (B). These statements may be either independent causes or may be the effects of some independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be
the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choices correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements.
M a r k answer 1) if statement (A) is the cause and statement (B) is its effect.
M a r k answer 2) if statement (B) is the cause and statement (A) is effect.
M a r k answer 3) if both the statements (A) and (B) are independent causes.
M a r k answer 4) if both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of independent causes.
M a r k answer 5) if both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of some common cause. 36. (A) The government of India has allowed the private
air l ine compan ie s to opera te on specified international routes.
(B) There has been a considerable increase in the flow of foreign tourists to India.
37. (A) Many seats in the private engineering colleges in the state have remained vacant this year.
(B) The government engineering colleges in the state could not accommodate all the students who sought admission this year.
38. (A) The banks have decided to give advances to the priority sector at the rate of interest at par with the corporate sector.
(B) The percentage of bad loans given by the banks to the priority sector is very low as compared to the corporate sector.
39. (A) The state government has now decided to increase the stamp duty on house purchases with immediate effect.
(B) The real estate prices have decreased considerably during the last few months.
40. (A) Most of the steel manufacturing companies in the country have made considerable profit during the last fiscal year.
(B) Many Asian countries have been importing huge quantities of steel from India.
Directions (Q. 41-50): In each of the questions given below, which one of the five Answer Figures on the right should come after the Problem Figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
Problem figures Answer figures
BBBBBASHA SIR - STUDASHA SIR - STUDASHA SIR - STUDASHA SIR - STUDASHA SIR - STUDY CIRY CIRY CIRY CIRY CIRCLECLECLECLECLE
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Discipline →
Colleges ↓ Arts Commerce Science
Total number
of students
A 25 35 40 17500
B 15 45 40 25000
C 15 30 55 35300
D 28 48 24 23000
E 29 30 41 32400
51. What is the average number of students from the
discipline of Commerce from all the colleges together?
1)9745 2)9735 3)9720
4)9750 5) None of these
52. Which college has the least number of students from
the discipline of Science ?
1)A 2)C 3)E
4) D 5) None of these
53. What is the difference between the total number of
students from the discipline of Arts from all the colleges
together and the total number of students from the
discipline of Science from all the colleges together?
1)22874 2)23863 3)22963
4)23874 5) None of these
54. What is the ratio of the number of students from the
disciplines of Arts and Commerce together from college
A to the number of students from the same disciplines
from college B?
1)6:11 2 ) 7 : 9 3)2:3
4)7:10 5) None of these
55. The number of students from the discipline of Arts from
college D is approximately what percentage of the
number of students from the discipline of Commerce from
the same college?
1)61 2)58 3)53
4)63 5)49
Directions (Q. 56-60) Study the graph carefully to answer the following questions.
Number of people contributing towards helping Tsunami victims from different cities
56.
57.
58.
59.
The number of people contributing from cities Q and U together forms what per cent of the total number of people contributing from all the given cities? 1)30 2)36 3)32 4)38 5) None of these Approximately by what per cent the number of people contributing from City T is more in comparision to the number of people contributing from City S? 1)38 2)18 3)22 4)29 5)34
What is the ratio of the number of people contributing from City P to that from City R? 1)5:4 2)4:7 3)7:4 4)5:9 5) None of these The number of people contributing from how many cities forms less than 18% of the total number of people contributing from all the cities together? 1)3 2)4 3)2 4) 1 5) None of these
60. How many more people from City S would have made the ratio 11 : 9 for the number of people contributing from City S to that from City T? 1)1500 2)2000 3)5500 4)3500 5) None of these Directions (Q. 61-65): Study the following pie-chart
carefully and answer the questions given below. Cost estimated by a family in renovation of their house
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
Total estimated cost is ?1,20,000. What is the difference in the amount estimated by the family on interior decoration and that on architect's fees? 1)` 10,000 2)`9,500 3)`7,200 4) ` 9,000 5) None of these During the process of renovation, the family actually incurred miscellaneous expenditure of ?10,200. The miscellaneous expenditure incurred by the family is what percentage of the total estimated cost? 1)9.5% 2 ) 9 % 3)8.5% 4)10.5% 5) None of these Other than getting the discount of 12% on the estimated cost of furniture and the actual miscellaneous expenditure being `10,200 instead of the estimated one, the family's estimated cost is correct. What is the total amount spent by the family in renovating its house? 1)` 1,16,728 2)` 1,15,926 3)` 1,19,500 4)`1,16,500 5) None of these What is the cost estimated by the family on painting and flooring together? 1)`36,500 2)`34,800 3)`36,000 4)`34,500 5) None of these The family gets a discount on furniture and pays 12% less than the estimated cost on furniture. What is the amount spent on furniture? 1)`13,200 2)`14,526 3)`13,526 4)`13,728 5) None of these
51 55
Number of soldiers recruited in three different forces in six
different years
66. What was the difference between the total number of soldiers recruited in all the forces together in the year 2007 and the total number of soldiers recruited in Army over all the years together? (1)3400 (2)3100 (3)3200 (4)3600 (5) None of these
67. What was percentage decrease in the number of soldiers recruited in Army in the year 2010 as compared to the previous year 7 (1)60 (2)30 (3)50 (4)20 (5) None of these
68. Total number of soldiers recruited in Airforce in the year 2006 and 2008 together was what percentage of total number of soldiers recruited in Navy in the year 2005, 2007 and 2008 together ? (1)40 (2)60 (3)70 (4)50 (5)80
69. What was the approximate average number of soldiers recruited in Airforce over all the years together ? (1)780 (2)796 (3) 760 (4) 830 (5)816
70. What was the respective ratio between the number of soldiers recruited in Navy in the year 2008 and the number of soldiers recruited in Airforce in the year 2009 ? (1 )3 :2 ( 2 ) 3 : 1 (3) 1 : 3 (4) 4 : 3 (5) None of these
Directions (71-75): Study the following pie-chart and answer the following questions.
Percentagewise Distribution of Selected Candidates From eight
Different States Total Number of Selected
Candidates = 8900 Percentagewise Distribution of
Selected Candidates
71. What is the difference between " the' number of selected candi
dates from Jharkhand and the total number of selected candidates from Rajasthan and Bihar together ? (1)356 (2)342 (3)623 (4)712 (5) None of these
72. What is the average number of selected candidates from Bihar, Orissa, Assam and Kerala together ? (1) 1335 (2) 1345 (3) 1435 (4) 1453 (5) None of these
73. What is the respective ratio between the number of the selected candidates from UP. and the number of selected candidates from Jharkhand ? ( 1 )6 :7 (2 )3 :4 (3) 1 : 2 (4) 4 : 5 (5) None of these
74. Number of selected candidates from UP is approximately what percentage of the number of selected candidates from Kerala ? (1)63 (2)67 (3)53 (4)57 (5)71 • ,
75. Twenty percent of the number of selected candidates from Gujarat is female. What is the number of male candidates selected from Gujarat ? (1) 1078 (2) 1086 (3) 1076 (4)1088 (5) None of these
Directions (76-80) : Study the following table carefully to answer the questions that follow.
Distribution of Funds (in Rs. thousands) in five different departments in six different years
76. What was the 40 percent of the total fund given to all the departments together in the year 2007 ? (1) ` 22,840 (2) ` 20,268 (3) ` 57,200 (4) ` 54,720 (5) None of these
77. What was the approximate percent increase in funds given
to Education department in the; year 2009 as compared to thef previous year ? (1)133 (2)37 (3)24 (4)29 (5)33
78. Funds given to Medical depart] ment in the year 2006 was what percentage of the fund given to Sports department in the yeart 2010 ? '
Directions (66-70): Study the following graph carefully to answer the questions that follow :
Directions (Q. 86-90): Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions given below:
Number of students appearing for Aptitude test from various towns (in thousands)
87.
89.
86. What is the ratio of the number of students appearing for the Aptitude test from Town B to that from Town A? 1)3:4 2)13:16 3)11:16 4) 2:3 5) None of these What is the average number of students appearing for Aptitude test from all the Towns together? 1)33500 2)3350 3)17500 4)33.5 5) None of these The number of students appearing for the aptitude test from Town E is approximately what per cent of the total number of students appearing for the Aptitude test from all the towns together? 1)15 2)17 3)19 4)21 5)23 What is the ratio of the number of students appearing for the Aptitude test from Town C and D together to the number of students appearing for the Aptitude test from Town A, D and E together? y/ 1)11:13 2)20:43 3)20 :47 4)37:20 5) None of these The number of students appearing for the Aptitude test from Town D is approximately what percentage of the number of students appearing for the Aptitude test from TownC? 1)243 2)413 3)134 4)341 5)143
90.
Directions (Q. 116-120): Study the following Pie-chart carefully to answer these questions.
TotalStudents = 6500 Percentage distribution of Students in different courses
116. What is the value of half of the difference between the number of students in MBA and that in MBBS? 1)800 2)1600 3)1300 4)650 5) None of these
117. What percentage (approximately) of students is in MBA as compared to students in BEd? 1)49 2)53 3)59 4)41 5)44
118. What is the total number of students in BEd, Pharmacy and MBBS together? 1)2465 . 2)2565 3)2405 4)2504 5)Noneof these
119. What is the ratio of the number of students in Pharmacy to the number of students in BTech? 1)11:13 2) 13:6 3)13:7 4 ) 6 : 1 3 5) None of these
120. The number of students in BSc is approximatbly what percentage of the number of students in BEd? 1)167 2)162 3)157 4)153 5)150
Directions (Q. 121-125): Study the following table carefully to answer the questions that follow:
A niou 111 earned (in lacs) by five persons in six different years
Year Person
Year A B C D E
2005 2.24 4.33 5.64 3.73 1.69 2006 1.44 3.34 6.93 5.52 5,52 2007 4.63 2.79 7.52 5.68 4.28 2008 6.65 6.63 5.83 6.74 6.83 2009 5.34 4.50 5.94 8.42 5.53 2010 7.38 5.36 7.84 9.45 9.94
121. What was the average of the earnirig of Person B in the year 2006, that of Person C in the year 2008 and that of E in the year 2005 together? l)`3.621ac 2)`2.641ac 3)`3,641ac 4)` 10.86 lac 5) None of these
122. What was the ratio of the amount earned by Person B in the year 2007 to that by Person D in the year 2010? 1)32:107 2)31:105 3)29:107 4)32:105 5) None of these
123. What is the approximate percentage increase in the amount earned by Person D in the year 2010 as compared to the previous year? 1)7 2)21 3)18 4)15 5)12
124. Whose earning increased consistently from the year 2005 tothe year201(/? 1)A 2)B 3)C 4)D 5)E
125. Total amount earned by Person A in the year 2006 and Person C in the year 2010 together was approximately what per cent of the amount eanied by Person E in the year2009? 1)151 2)155 3)168 4)174 5)162
106. In the current budget for super seniors (above the age of 80), the IT exemption (in ?lakhs) has been raised to the level of 1)2.5 2)3.0 3)3.5 4)5.0 5) None of these
107. Which of the following countries is a member of South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC)? 1) Indonesia 2) China 3) Sri Lanka 4) South Korea 5) Taiwan
108. Which of the following is the association of the countries producing and exporting petroleum and oil? 1) Shanghai Corporation Organisation 2)G-8 3)ASEAN 4)BRIG 5) OPEC
109. Which of the following countries is facing a severe problem of radiation exposure in its nuclear power plants caused by a recent severe natural calamity? 1) South Korea 2) USA 3) North Korea 4) China 5) None of these
110. What is the full form ofNSQ which we see in international news, frequently? 1) National Supporters 2) Nuclear Suppliers' Group 3) North Atlantic Supporters Group 4) Nuclear Submarine Guns 5) None of these
111. The "123 Agreement" between India and USA which was in news for various reasons, is an agreement related to which of the following fields? 1) Agriculture 2) Medical Research 3) Oil Import 4) Jobs to Indians in USA 5) Nuclear Power
112. The G-20 Economic Summit was held in November 2010 in which of the following nations? 1) China 2) USA 3) Japan 4) France 5) South Korea
113. India and China decided to increase their bilateral trade to the level of US $ 100 billion by the year 1)2011 2)2012 3)2015 4)2020 5)2022
114. The name of Lakshmi Narayan Mittal is associated with manufacturing of 1) Cement 2) White goods 3) Computers 4) Steel 5) Pharma products
115. The Uranium enrichment programme of which of the following countries has been in news in recent past as USA and some other countries have shown their concern over it? l)Iran 2) France 3) China 4) Russia 5) India
116. Who amongst the following was the Head of the committee which gave its recommendations on the modalities for Capital Account Convertibility?
2) Dr C Rangarajan 4)KJUdeshi
1) Dr Rakesh Mohan 3) SS Tarapore 5) None of these
117. Who amongst the following is the author of the book Blood Brothers? 1) MJ Akbar 2) Jan.ardan Thakur 3) Rajmohan Gandhi 4) Suketu Mehta 5)Shobhaa De
118. The base year for Consumer Index has now been revised from 1982 to 1)1990 2)1991 3)1996 4)1998 5)2001
119. 'Won' is the currency of which of the following countries? l)Myanmar 2) China 3) South Korea 4) Indonesia 5) Japan
120. Which of the following is an organisation of non-aligned developing countries including India ? l)G-8 2) SAARC 3) ASEAN 4)OPEC 5) None of these
121. The contribution of Rural Non-Farmi Sector to Agri-GDP has been estimated at which of the following levels ? 1) 25 per cent 2) 15 per cent 3) 20 per cent 4) 10 per cent 5) Less than 8 per cent
122. Deflation refers to . 1) general decline in prices of various commodities and
services 2) price decline in specific sectors 3) price decline in specific commodities 4) sharp and sudden decline in foreign exchange
reserves 5) None of these
123. In the computation of Wholesale Price Index inflation, food articles, both primary and processed, have a weight of 1) one-third 2) one-fourth 3) half 4) three-fourth 5) None of these
L24. Which of the following countries is neither a member of the Shanghai Cooperation on Organisation (SCO) nor associated with it as observer/party? 1) Russia 2) China 3) India 4) Iran 5) Myanmar
125. Which of the following agencies in India is responsible for computation of national income? 1)NCAER 2)CSO 3)NSS 4) RBI 5)SBI
126. How much foreign investment is allowed in insurance sector? 1)50% 2)30% 3)35% 4) 40% 5) None of these
127. The Agriculture Insurance Company was launched with the help of 1)RBI 2)SIDBI 3)NABARD 4)ECGC 5)IDBI
128. Which of the following is the full form of KCC as used in the agriculture sector?
l)Kisan Credit Card 2) Kisan Credit Company 3) Knowledge Credit Corporation 4) Konkan Credit Corporation 5) None of these
129. Where is the head office of the International Monetary Fund (IMF)? 1) Paris 2) New York 3) Washington DC 4) Dhaka 5) Beirut
130. In respect of which one of the following areas, YH Malegam Committee has submitted its recommendations? 1) Interest on Micro Finance Loans 2) Teaser loans 3) Rural developmenit 4) Advances to agriculture 5) None of these
131. What step (s) has the Govt of India taken to successfully avert the negative fall out of the global slowdown on the Indian economy? (A) It has provided focused fiscal stimulus in the form of
relief packages to various sectors. (B) It has increased expenditure on public projects. (C) It has created new employment opportunities and
public assets. 1) Only (A) 2) Only (B) 3) OnN (C) 4) Only (A) & (C) 5) None of these
. 132. According to the 8th Annual Global Retail Development Index (GRDI), which o f the following countries has been 'most attractive' retail market in the world ? 1) China 2) Pakistan 3) India 4) South Korea 5) In donesia
133. Which of the following organisations/agencies is actively involved in dra fting the Union Budget of India? 1) The Planning Comm ission 2) The Comptroller and Auditor General 3) Administrative staff of the Lok Sabha 4) Ministry of Finance 5) Ministry of Rural Development
134. Between 2004 and 2009, the Government has paid ^700 crores as penalty to World Bank and other international agencies. For which of the following reasons has this penalty been paid? 1) For prepayment of loans 2) For delay in executio n of projects 3) For delay in payment of international debts 4) For not using the loans approved by these agencies 5) None of these
135. Which of the following is an economic empowerment scheme/policy incentive launched by the Govt of India for the benefit of various sections of society? 1) Look East Policy 2) Swayamsidha 3) Kalpana-1 4) Jago Grahak Jago 5) All of these
136. Which of the following is an employment-creating programme of the Govt of India?
1)MNREGA 2)BharatNirman 3) Kalpana-1 4)ASHA 5) Swajaldhara
137. Which of the following is NOT a programme/agency of the Union Ministry of Finance? 1) Investor Education and Protection Fund (IEPF) 2) National Foundation for Corporate Governance
(NFCG) 3) Serious Frauds Investigation Office (SFIO) 4) Investment Commission 5) Central Rural Sanitation programme
138. Cheap imports from which of the following countries is giving a tough competition to Small and Medium Enterprises in India, epecially when the global economic slowdown and weak domestic demand have already affected companies across sectors? 1) China 2) South Korea 3) Japan 4) Russia 5) None of these
139. Which of the following statements about the reforms introduced in the Pension sector in the recent past is/ are correct? (A)Govt has a l lowed only 2 0 % Foreign Direct
Investment (FDI) in the pension sector. (B) A new regulatory and development authority to
monitor pension sector has been set up. (Q Only three banks HSBC, Vysya Bank and Yes Bank
have been appointed as fund managers of the pension funds.
1) Only (A) 2) Only (B) 3)A11(A),(B)&(C) 4)Only(B)&(C) 5) Only (A) & B )
140. Which of the following is/are the Non-Tax Revenue components of the Union Budget of India? (A) Custom Duties (B) Interest Receipts (C) Dividend and Profits 1) Only (A) and (B) 2) Only (B) 3) Only (B) and (C) 4) Only (C) 5) All (A), (B) and (C)
141. The investments done by "Those financial entities which were launched or incorporated in a foreign country but
are investing in an Indian venture in India" are generally known as 1) Patent Money 2) Private Equity 3) Foreign Institutional Investment 4) Current Account Money 5) None of these
142. Which of the following is NOT a component of India's Securities Market? 1) Commodity Futures 2) Small Savings in National Saving Certificates 3) Government Bonds 4) Corporate Equity 5) Derivatives on currency
143. Which of the following is/was NOT included in the agenda set for the Banking Reforms in India? 1) Dismantling of administered interest rates 2) Measures to strengthen risk management 3) Promulgation of SARFAESI Act 4) Promotion of the concept of easy credit to all with a
guaranteed subsidy from the Govt 5) Granting of operational autonomy to public sector
banks and allowing them to raise capital from the open market
144. Which of the following countries is NOT a member of OPEC? 1) China 2)UAE 3) Iran 4) Saudi Arabia 5) Kuwait
145. Specially developed economic regions in India where same of the economic laws and restrictions of the land are relaxed with the purpose of giving incentives to investors, are commonly known as 1) Preferential zones 2) Economic Corridors 3) Industrial parks 4) Special Economic Zones 5) None of these
146. In which of the following fora has it been decided that all countries will try to reduce emission to prevent further increase in global temperature?
' 1) Major Economics Forum 2) World Trade Organisation 3) SAARC Summit 4) BRIC Summit 5) None of these
147. China proposes to lay an 1100 km long gas and oil pipeline to link it with which of the following nations? 1) Myanmar 2) Pakistan 3) Thailand 4) Russia 5) None of these
148. From which one of the following states has the annual Indo-China border trade restarted after a long gap of several years? 1) HP 2) Arunachal Pradesh 3) Uttarakhand 4) Jammu and Kashmir 5) Assam
149. The World Health Organisation (WHO) has declared which of the following diseases as a 'Global Pandemic'?
1) Swine Flu 2) AIDS 3) Cancer 4) Malaria 5) All of these;
150. Which of the following was/we re the objectives of th Competition Act 2002? (A) To keep a check on unfair trade practices (B) To promote Govt-supported products/services ii
competition with those launched by private partie: (Q To control the activities of the stock markets in Indi;
which are considered highly volatile l )Only(A)and(B) 2) Only (B) 3)All(A)and(B) 4) All (A), (B) and (C) 5) None of these
Test-IV: General English Directions (Q. 151-160): Rea d the following passage
carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed iin bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Right of entry to education, an ample teaching-learning environment, a suitable curriculum and an empowered and all-encompassing faculty are four essential prerequisites of an educat ion system that s e e k s to enable social transformation. While educational reform since the 1980s was strongly focused on the first two elements, the late 1990s brought the role of the curriculum into national focus. The critical link that binds these four c ritical elements together-the activity of the faculty-continues to be cast aside by political ideologies of most hues, contemporary curriculum reform efforts and the professional 1 practices of the faculty.
Far-reaching educational initiatives of both the Left and the Right have recognised the potential power of the faculty. In multiple experiments, they have; used this dormant force to build committed institutions and cadres of facilities dedicated to their particular causes. In many instances, this has led to extreme politicisation of the college faculty. In others, it has led to the education of a generation of students in half-truths underpinned by the personal beliefs, sectarian concerns and folk pedagogy of faculties who have had little access themselves to education and training in related areas.
Over the last decade or so , educational reform has included, apart from access., a focus on developing alternative text materials and the (training of faculty to handle these materials, without directly engaging with the issue of curriculum revamp. At the turn of the 20th century, a major national curriculum redesign was initiated following the change of political regime at the centre. The subsequent development of college program, me came under wide public scrutiny and debate . Issues of equity, inclusion and exclusion, learner medley, religious identity and communalism gained considerable importance in the curriculum debates that followed. For instance, scholars argued that "... the curriculum, while loud on rhetoric, fails to address the quality of educa t ion that s tudents of underpr iv i leged and marginalised groups experience." Several other critics described the revised curriculum as a retrogressive step in
education that sought to impose the religious agenda in the garb of national identity.
The subsequent change of national government in 2004 led to the curriculum review in 2005, underlining a new political interest in the role of education in national development, its role in social mobilisation and transformation directed specifically at questions of caste and gender asymmetry and minority empowerment. Deeper than these politically driven initiatives, however, the professional need for curriculum review emerges from the long ossification of a national education system that cont inues to view faculty as "dispensers of information" and students as "passive recipients" of an "education" sought to be "delivered" in four-walled classrooms with little scope to develop critical thinking and understanding. 151. Prior to 1990, what was N O T the agenda of the
educational reforms? (A) An appropriate curriculum (B) Well-managed admission process 1) Only (A) 2) Only (B) 3) Both (A) and (B) 4) Either (A) or (B) 5) None of these
152. Which of the following best describes the phrase "passive recipients" as used in the passage? 1) The users of the educational system 2) The political ideology of right and left parties 3) Well-framed curriculum guiding the teaching/learning
process 4) Free access to education system 5) The faculty
153. To facilitate social t ransformation, which of the following has been identified by the author as one of the factors? 1) A committed political ideology 2) Support of a well-framed curriculum 3) A strong administration system 4) Carefully planned education delivery 5) None of these
154. What hampers the critical thinking ability of college-going students? 1) The emphasis on rote memorisation and recalling the
facts of education based on real experience 2) Lack of political will to develop these abilities 3) Absence of focus while designing curriculum
framework 4) Ignoring the active role of faculty and the student 5) Lack of proper tests of critical thinking ability
155. Which of the following best describes the meaning of the word underpinned as used in the passage? 1) Advocated 2) Supported 3) Prepared 4) Bolstered 5) Boosted
156. Which of the following best describes the word ossification as used in the passage? 1) Hardening 2) Plasticity 3) Imbibition 4) Incorporation 5) Coalescing
157. Development of text books generated public debate on many issues except (A) making the curriculum student-centred (B) using teaching community as an agency to bring
change 1) Only (A) 2) Only (B) 3) Both (A) and (B) 4) Either (A) or (B) 5) None of these
158. How did personal beliefs and folk pedagogy enter into educational system? 1) The college acted as an agent of local communities. 2) The faculties were not properly trained. 3) College faculties started acting as passive listeners. 4) The loopholes in the educational system allowed it
to happen. 5) It was by design.
159. Which of the following is most opposite in meaning of the word medley as used in the passage? 1) Amalgamate 2) United 3) Unity 4) Diffuse 5) Focusing
160. Revamping of the text material was the main focus in 1) early eighties 2) late nineties 3) 21st century 4) evolving curriculum framework 5) training faculty Directions (Q. 161-165): In each of the following
sentences there are five pairs of words denoted by numbers 1), 2), 3), 4) and 5). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningfully complete. 161. to the popular belief that every astrologer
nurtures blind faith in fate, our astrologer believes in
1) Contrary, action 2) According, thoughts 3) Bowing, present 4) Proving, forecasting 5) Pointing, devotion
162. His has yielded him the fruit. 1) fate, undesirable 2) efforts, unwanted 3) action, viable 4) perseverance, desired 5) emphasis, expected
163. Liberalisation has removed all the legal and the floodgates to multinational companies.
1) hurdles, award 2) barriers, opened 3) obstacles, guarded 4) manipulation, closed 5) battles, threw
164. His contribution to the Tsunami relief fund was by his staff members. 1) meagre, admired 2) spontaneous, nullified 4) negligible, sanctioned 4) noteworthy, improved 5) generous, appreciated
165. The on some of the towns has created among the residents of the other parts of the country. 1) attack, ambition 2) raid, awareness 3) bombardment, panic 4) spelt, satisfaction 5) shower, dampness Directions (Q. 166-170) In each question below, a
sentence with four words printed in bold is given. These are numbered as 1), 2), 3), and 4). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropr ia te in the context of the sentence, mark 5), i e ' All correct ' , as your answer. 166. The file contents a revised estimate of the banking
1) 2) 3) industry's manpower requirements for the next year.
4) All correct
5) 167. Your marketing strategy should be devised dependent
1) 2) 3) on the kind of business you own. All correct
4) 5) 168. Since our financial resources are limitless we cannot
1) 2) afford this alternative. All correct
3) 4) 5) 169. His main reasoning for applying for this promotion is
1) 2) the possibility of an overseas posting. All correct.
3) 4) 5) 170. To better understand the challenges of starting a new
1) venture he read up extensively. All correct
2) 3) 4 ) 5) Directions (Q. 171-180) Which of the phrases 1), 2), 3)
and 4) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold to make the sentence grammatically correct? If the sentence is already correct, mark 5), ie 'No correction required', as the answer.
171. His behaviour with all his employees is so pleasing that everyone come forward for helping him. 1) came towards him for help 2) comes towards him for help 3) comes forward to help him 4) comes forward for help him 5) No correction required
172. The police commissioner burst into rage and ordered immediately suspension of the inspector. 1) order immediately 2) order immediate 3) ordered immediate 4) ordering immediate 5) No correction required
173. She will not attend the meeting until she is asked to. 1) except 2) even with 3) even except 4) unless 5) No correction required
174. He would be like to have some ice-cream. 1) would like to 2) would be liked to 3) was to be liking to 4) would being liked to 5) No correction required
175. A master should never impose his servants to much work. 1) his servants with too much work 2) to much work with his servants 3) too much work on his servants 4) to much work for his servants 5) No correction required
176. Good life, according to many people, is to making more and more money. 1) is making 2) is made 3) are made 4) are making 5) No correction required
177. Lift the handset only after paid a one rupee coin. 1) paying a one-rupee coin 2) you pay one-rupee coin 3) pay one-rupee coin 4) you paid one-rupee coin 5) No correction required
178. W h a t ma t t e r does most is the quality and not the quantity. 1) What does matter 2) What does it matter 3) That matters 4) What matters 5) No correction required
179. Not knowing the language and had no friends in the country, he found it impossible to get a job. 1) has no 2) with having 3) with having not 4) having no 5) No correction required
180. With the introduction of the new system, the number of candidates who resort to unfair means is decreasing year after year. 1) resorting to 2) to resort to 3) resorted to 4) to resorting 5) No correction required
Directions (Q. 181-190): Read each sentence to And out whether there is any grammatical error in it The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 5), ie 'No error ' . (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.) 181. Our country can contribute / to the mitigation of global
1) 2) wanning / by protecting forests / and starting at
3) afforestation programme. No error
4) 5) 182. The task for ensuring employment / for the labour force
1) 2) has been /a persistent concern throughout / India's post-
3) independence development. No error
4) 5) 183. Psychologists have been documenting / the emotional
1) 2) and physical /effect of / negative political advertisments.
3 ) 4 ) No error
5) 184. India's efforts that are / aimed at controlling / infectious
1) 2 ) diseases is likely / to show only partial success.
3) 4 ) No error
5) 185. The magazine industry / in India / has been going from /
1) 2 ) 3 ) confusing times. No error
4 ) 5) 186. The fast pace of progress on / basic education and
1) 2) literacy / is consistent with an increase / in demand for
3) 4) education. No error
5) 187. Technology is / transforming the way / films are screen/
1) 2) 3) in the theatres. No error
4) 5) 188. One needs to set goals / at differing stages / of one's
1) 2 ) 3) career and / monitor achievements and accomplishments.
4) No error
5) 189. Non-communicable diseases / often require / long-term
1) 2) and expensive interventions which / poor people cannot
3) 4) afford. No error
190. A leader is a group member which / exerts profound 1) 2)
influence / on the behaviour and attitudes /of other 3)
members of the group. No error 4) 5)
Directions (Q. 191-200): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, Ave words a re suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
The growth story in any developing country cannot be (191) wi thout (192) its impact on the pover ty and employment situation. The Planning Commission has (193) that India should strive for 'more inclusive growth'. The number of people living below the poverty line has (194) from 36 per cent in 1993-94 to 22.0 per cent in 2004-05. Again, the issue is to bring more and more people out of poverty by (195) them productive employment opportunities. The Approach Paper to 11th Five Year Plan suggests that doubling the growth of agricultural GDP to 4 per cent per annum will (196) rural employment conditions, by raising real wages and reducing underemployment. However, even if this is attained, an overall growth of 9 per cent will further increase income (197) between agricultural and non-agricultural households, (198) around 10 million workers currently in agriculture find remunerative non-agricultural employment. This (199) a major challenge not only in terms of generating non-agricultural employment but also in (200) its required location and type.
191. 1) completed 2) retold 4) constructed
192. 1) generating 4) counting
193. 1) desired 4) verified
194. 1) uplifted 4) decreased
195. 1) absolving 4) ignoring
1%. 1) impact 4) aggravate
197. 1) opportunity 4) parity
198. 1) unless 4) despite
199. 1) addresses 4) recognises
200. 1) exploring 4) matching
5) narrated 2) assessing 5) finding 2) estimated 5) stressed 2) degraded 5)enhanced 2) providing 5) refusing 2) diversify 5) improve 2) assessment 5) tax 2) for 5) by 2) meets 5) solves 2) acquitting 5) solving
3) achieved
3) realising
3) focused
3) vanished
3) nurturing
3) lay
3) disparity
3) in spite of
3) poses
3) reciprocating
5)
