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1. Consider the following statements about the

Money Bills:

1. A money bill can only be introduced in

the Lok Sabha and that too on the

recommendation of the president.

2. Every Money bill is considered to be a

government bill and can be introduced

only by a minister.

3. The Rajya Sabha cannot reject or

amend a money bill, t can only make

the recommendations.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

2. Which of the following Committee had

published a draft bill for a new, comprehensive

data protection law, the Personal Data

Protection Bill 2018 (PDPB)?

(a) Justice Shri krishna Committee

(b) A.K Mathur Committee

(c) Ravi Kumar Committee

(d) Shreenivad Iyer Committee

3. Recently, the Prime Minister Narendra Modi,

chaired his thirtieth interaction through

PRAGATI platform. With reference to this

identify which of the following statement(s)

is/are correct about PRAGATI?

1. Launched in 2015, the Pragati platform

is aimed at starting a culture of Pro-

Active Governance and Timely

Implementation.

2. It is a multi-modal platform that is

aimed at addressing common man’s

grievances, and simultaneously

monitoring and reviewing important

programmes and projects of the

Government of India as well as projects

flagged by State Governments.

Select the correct answer using the codes given

below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

4. Which of the following statement(s) is/are

correct about the Lok Adalat?

1. Lok Adalat is one of the alternative

dispute redressal mechanisms

where disputes/cases pending in

the court of law or at pre-litigation

stage are settled/ compromised

amicably.

2. Lok Adalat functions as a voluntary

and conciliatory agency without any

statutory backing for its decisions.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

5. Consider the following statements about

Finance Commission:




1. Finance Commission is constituted by

the president of India every fifth year or

at such earlier time as he considers

necessary.

2. The Chairman of the finance

commission should be a retired chief

justice of India.

3. The recommendations made by the

Finance Commission are binding on the

government.


(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) None of the above

6. Consider the following statements about the

Banning of Unregulated Deposit Schemes Bill,

2019:

1. The Bill provides for a mechanism to

ban unregulated deposit schemes such

as Ponzi schemes and protect the

interests of depositors.

2. A Ponzi scheme is a type of investment

fraud wherein one party promises high

returns on an investment with little to

no risk.

3. It also seeks to amend three laws,

including the Reserve Bank of India Act,

1934 and the Securities and Exchange

Board of India Act, 1992.


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


correct about the Writ Jurisdiction of High

court?

1. The Article 226 of the Constitution

empowers a high court to issue writs.

2. The High Court can issue writs only for

the enforcement of fundamental rights

and not for any other purpose.

3. The High Court cannot issue the writ of

Habeas Corpus which refers to an order

issued by the court to a person who has

detained another person, to produce

the body of the latter before it.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3



correct about the Inter-State River Water

Disputes (Amendment) Bill, 2019?

1. The bill empowers the central

government to set up a Disputes

Resolution Committee (DRC) which will

seek to resolve the dispute through

negotiations, within one year.

2. The Bill also provides for a transparent

data collection system at the national

level for each river basin.


below:




(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


correct about Register of Indigenous

Inhabitants of Nagaland (RIIN)?

1. RIIN aims to prepare a master list of all

indigenous peoples and check the

issuance of fake indigenous inhabitant

certificate.

2. The RIIN will also be integrated with the

online system for Inner-Line Permit,

which is already in force in Nagaland.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


correct about the Right to Information

(Amendment) Bill, 2019?

1. The RTI Amendment Bill fixes the term

of Chief Information

Commissioners(CICs) to Six years from

the date on which he enters upon his

office.

2. The amendment also proposed that

salaries, allowances and other terms of

service CIC and ICs “shall be such as

may be prescribed by the Central

Government”.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2


the Election Commission of India:

1. It is a permanent and an independent

body established by the Constitution of

India directly to ensure free and fair

elections in the country.

2. Since its inception in 1950 and till 15

October 1989, the election commission

functioned as a single member body

consisting of the Chief Election

Commissioner.

3. The election commissioners hold the

office for a term of six years or until

they attain the age of 65 years,

whichever is earlier.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

12. The preamble of the Indian Constitution was

amended in 1976, the amendment added which

of the following words to the preamble?

1. Socialist

2. Secular

3. Integrity

4. Fraternity

5. Republic





below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only


National Medical Commission Bill, 2019:

1. The Bill repeals the Indian Medical

Council Act, 1956 and dissolves the

current Medical Council of India.

2. The Bill sets up the National Medical

Commission (NMC) as an umbrella

regulatory body with certain other

bodies under it.

3. The Bill proposes a common final year

undergraduate examination called the

National Exit Test for the students

graduating from medical institutions to

obtain the license for practice.


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

14. In which of the following matters, the

powers and status of the Rajya Sabha are equal

to that of the Lok Sabha?

A. In introduction and passage of

Constitutional amendment bills.

B. In passage of financial bills involving

expenditure from the Consolidated

Fund of India.

C. In authorising the Parliament to create

new All-India Services common to both

the Centre and states.

D. Both A and B


correct?

1. Land and its management fall under the

exclusive legislative and administrative

jurisdiction of States as provided under

the Constitution of India.

2. At the Centre, in so far as land related

issues are concerned, the Ministry of

Rural Development, Department of

Land Resources (DoLR), is the nodal

Ministry.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


the Electronically Transmitted Postal Ballot

System (ETPBS):

1. ETPBS is a type of Postal voting

whereby Ballot Papers are distributed

electronically to voters and returned by

them in post

2. It is also known as e-postal ballots and

the registered people are known as

Service Voters.

3. The ETPBS is less secured compared to

regular voting as the votes can be easily

manipulated and secrecy of votes

cannot be maintained.





(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


correct about "WHIP" in political Parlance?

1. A Whip is a ‘written order’ which

demands party members to be present

in Parliament or a state assembly if an

important vote is scheduled.

2. Whips can only be issued by the ruling

party or an opposition party with single

largest strength in the Parliament.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


the Joint sitting of two houses of the

Parliament:

1. Joint sitting is an extraordinary

machinery provided by the Constitution

to resolve a deadlock between the two

Houses over the passage of a bill.

2. The President presides over a joint

sitting of the two Houses.

3. The quorum to constitute a joint sitting

is one-tenth of the total number of

members of the two Houses.


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


correct about the Central Apprenticeship

Council (CAC)?

1. It is an apex statutory body under the

Apprentices Act, 1961.

2. Its function is to assist and advice the

Central Government for the

implementation of Apprentice Act.

3. Central Government can establish the

CAC by notification in the official

Gazette under Section 24(1) of the

Apprentices Act, 1961.


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

20. Central Apprenticeship Council (CAC)

It is an apex statutory body under the

Apprentices Act, 1961. Which of the following

statement(s) is/are correct about Fundamental

Duties in the Indian Constitution?

1. The fundamental duties in the

Indian Constitution were added

based on the recommendations of

the Sardar Swaran Singh

Committee.

2. The duty of providing children

opportunities for education




between the age of six and

fourteen years was added by the

86th Constitutional Amendment

Act, 2002.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


correct about the Indian State of Sikkim?

1. Before Sikkim became an Indian State,

it was ruled by the Chogyals (or kings)

of the Namgyal dynasty of Tibetan

descent.

2. After India became independent in

1947, a treaty was signed between

Maharaja Tashi Namgyal and India

which made Sikkim a full-fledged State

of India.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

22. Recently, the Madhya Pradesh government

indicated that it plans to initiate steps towards

creation of a Legislative Council. With reference

to this identify which of the following Indian

states have a Legislative Council as a Second

House?

1. Maharashtra

2. Karnataka

3. Tamil Nadu

4. Jammu & Kashmir


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4


correct about the Central Water Commission

(CWC)?

1. It is a premier Technical

Organization of India in the field of

Water Resources and is presently

functioning as an attached office of

the Ministry of Jal Shakti.

2. The CWC is headed by a Chairman,

with the status of Ex-Officio

Secretary to the Government of

India.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


correct about the Section 144 of the Code of

Criminal Procedure (CrPC)?




1. It is issued in severe situations, under

this people are instructed to stay

indoors for a specific time or period.

2. No order under this section can remain

in force for more than two months.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

25. The President of India is elected indirectly

by the members of electoral college consisting

of which of the following members?

1. The elected members of both the

Houses of Parliament

2. The elected members of the legislative

assemblies of the states

3. the elected members of the legislative

assemblies of the Union Territories of

Delhi and Puducherry.


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


correct about the Fast Track Courts?

1. These are special kind of courts which

have exclusive jurisdiction over a

particular category of law

2. Fast track courts are generally

established to reduce the burden of

cases from high courts and district

courts and also to provide speedy

justice.

3. The Fast Track Courts are established

directly by a Presidential Order.


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


correct?

1. Originally, the Constitution had

fixed the strength of the

Supreme Court judges at thirty-

one judges (one chief justice

and thirty other judges).

2. Recently, President signed into

law a Bill which seeks to

increase the sanctioned

strength of judges in the

Supreme Court from 30 to 33

besides the Chief Justice of

India

3. The judges of the Supreme

Court are appointed by the

president.


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only




(d) 1, 2 and 3


correct about the Motor Vehicles (Amendment)

Bill, 2019?

1. The Bill allows the central government

to order for recall of motor vehicles if a

defect in the vehicle may cause damage

to the environment, or the driver, or

other road users.

2. The Bill provides for a National Road

Safety Board, to be created by the

central government through a

notification.

3. To help road accident victims, Good

Samaritan guidelines have been

incorporated in the Bill.

4. The Bill has withdrawn the earlier

provisions of automated fitness testing

for vehicles.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

29. The Article 371 of the Constitution, contains

“special provisions” for 11 states, including 6

states of the Northeast. With reference to this

identify Article 371B deals with special provision

with respect to which of the following State?

(a) Assam

(b) Nagaland

(c) Tripura

(d) Mizoram


correct about the National Crisis Management

Committee (NCMC) which was in news

recently?

1. It is a permanent crisis management

committee of the Government in the

wake of a natural calamity headed by

the Home Minister of India.

2. It aims for effective coordination and

implementation of relief measures and

operations and to oversee the

command, control and coordination of

the disaster response.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


correct about the Article 35A of the Indian

Constitution?

1. The Article 35A was incorporated in the

Constitution of India during the signing

of Instrument of Accession on 26

October 1947.

2. It gives the J&K legislature full

discretionary powers to decide who

'permanent residents' of the state are.

3. The Article gives the residents of J&K

special rights and privileges in

employment with the state

government, acquisition of property in

the state, settling in the state.





below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


correct about the recent

observations/guidelines of the Karnataka High

Court on erection temporary structures on

roads and footpaths?

1. The court observed that denial of

permission to erect temporary

structures on roads and footpaths for

religious festivals infringe upon the

right of freedom to free profession,

practice and propagation of religion

under Article 25 of the Constitution.

2. The Court also said that before granting

permission for temporary structures

municipal corporations should do spot

inspections and also get the traffic

police’s opinion.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


Incorrect about The Association of World

Election Bodies (A-WEB) which was in news

recently?

(a) A-WEB was established in the year

1985 as UN affiliated body, with its

permanent secretariat at, Hague,

Netherlands.

(b) A-WEB is the largest association of

Election Management Bodies

(EMBs) worldwide.

(c) A-WEB's vision is to foster efficiency

and effectiveness in conducting

free, fair, transparent and

participative elections worldwide

(d) The Election Commission of India

recently hosted the 4th General

Assembly of Association of World

Election Bodies (A-WEB) in

Bengaluru.

34. Which of the following feature of

the Indian Constitution is borrowed

from the Irish Constitution?

(a) Nomination of members to Rajya

Sabha

(b) Suspension of Fundamental Rights

during Emergency

(c) Removal of Supreme Court and high

court judges

(d) Procedure for amendment of the

Constitution and election of

members of Rajya Sabha.


correct about the Appointment of Governors of

the States in India?

1. The governor indirectly elected by a

specially constituted electoral

college as is the case with the

president.




2. As per the Constitution of India, the

Appointed governor should not be a

person who has taken too great a

part in politics generally, and

particularly in the recent past.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


correct about the Citizenship (Amendment) Bill?

1. The Citizenship (Amendment) Bill, 2016,

amends the Citizenship Act, 1955.

2. It seeks to provide citizenship to illegal

migrants, from Afghanistan, Bangladesh

and Pakistan, who are of Hindu, Sikh,

Buddhist, Jain, Parsi or Christian

extraction.

3. The Bill also seeks to reduce the

requirement of 11 years of continuous

stay in the country to six years to obtain

citizenship by naturalisation.


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


correct about the Right to Internet?

1. The right to Internet access is the view

that all people must be able to access

the Internet in order to exercise and

enjoy their rights to freedom of

expression and opinion and other

fundamental human rights.

2. Recently, government of India

introduced a bill in the Parliament

making right to access internet is part of

the fundamental right to education as

well as the right to privacy under the

Article 21 of the Indian Constitution.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


correct about the Right to Equality under Article

14 of the Indian Constitution?

1. The Right to Equality under article 14

provides Equality of opportunity in

matters of public employment

2. The Right to Equality under article 14 is

available to both citizens and foreigners


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

39. Recently, September 2, 1946, marked the

formation of the interim government of India




led by Jawaharlal Nehru. With reference to this

identify, in the interim government formed in

1946 the Vice-President of the Executive

Council was;

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru

(b) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan

(c) C. Rajagopalachari

(d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

40. Recently, the National Commission for

Scheduled Tribes (NCST) recommended the

inclusion of Ladakh in the 6th schedule. With

reference to this identify the Sixth Schedule

includes which of the following?

(a) Provisions relating to the administration

and control of scheduled areas and

scheduled tribes.

(b) Provisions relating to the administration

of tribal areas

(c) Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to

the states and the union territories.

(d) Specifies the powers, authority and

responsibilities of Panchayats.

41. Under which of the following circumstances

a member of parliament or legislative assembly

incurs disqualification as per the Anti-Defection

law?

1. If he voluntary gives up the

membership of the political party on

whose ticket he is elected to the House

2. if he votes or abstains from voting in

the House contrary to any direction

given by his political party

3. If any independently elected member

joins any political party

4. If any nominated member joins any

political party after the expiry of six

months.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

42. Recently, US House of Representatives

Speaker Nancy Pelosi announced that the

House would launch an impeachment inquiry

against President Donald Trump. With

reference to this identify which of the following

statement(s) is/are correct about the

impeachment of US President?

1. The US President can be removed from

office for “treason, bribery, or other

high crimes and misdemeanours”.

2. The Chief Justice of the US Supreme

Court has the sole power of

impeachment of US president.

3. Bill Clinton is the only American

president to be impeached so far.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


correct about the appointment of Judges?




1. The judges of the Supreme Court are

appointed by the president.

2. Currently, the appointment of judges of

SC are recommended by the National

Judicial Appointments Commission.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


National Population Register which was in news

recently:

1. The NPR is being prepared under

provisions of the Citizenship Act 1955

and the Citizenship (Registration of

Citizens and issue of National Identity

Cards) Rules, 2003.

2. The NPR is a citizenship enumeration

drive which intends to drive out a

foreigners staying in an Indian locality

for more than six months.

3. It is mandatory for every “usual

resident of India” to register in the NPR.


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


correct about Centralized Technology Vertical

(CTV) which was in news recently?

1. It is a proposed planned unit which will

be established under the Central

Bureau of Investigation (CBI) which

would be functional by next year.

2. It aims to facilitate real-time

information sharing with investigators

across the country.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

46. Who among the following chairs the

meetings of Zonal councils?

(a) Union Home Minister

(b) Prime Minister

(c) One of the Chief Ministers of the

States participating

(d) Union finance Minister

47. The right to express dissent finds mention in

which of the following Supreme Court’s

Judgement?

(a) Berubari Union case

(b) Kesavananda Bharati case

(c) Golaknath case

(d) Kedar Nath Singh v State of Bihar

48. Which of the following statements is/are

correct about the Assam Accord of 1985 which

was in news recently?

1. The Assam Accord was a Memorandum

of understanding between Assam and

the north eastern states bordering it.




2. The accord brought an end to the

Assam Movement and paved the way

for the leaders of the agitation to form

a political party and form a government

in the state of Assam soon after.

3. As per the accord, all people who came

to Assam prior to January 1, 1966,

would be given citizenship.


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

49. Recently, Shillong Declaration on e-

governance adopted at the 22nd National

Conference on e-Governance (NCeG) talked

about India Enterprise Architecture (IndEA).

With reference to this identify which of the

following statement(s) is/are correct about

IndEA?

1. The primary purpose of IndEA is to help

state governments, ministries and

departments in the governments at

various levels to adopt a structured

approach for developing their

enterprise architecture.

2. India Enterprise Architecture (IndEA) is

a way to establish Unity in Diversity in

the domain of e-Governance.

3. It is designated as a National nodal

agency to coordinate matters related to

cyber security incidents in India.


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

50. According to the National Commission for

Scheduled Tribes (NCST), the total tribal

population in Ladakh region is more than 97

percent. With reference to this identify, which

of the following Scheduled Tribes can be found

in the Ladakh region?

1. Changpa

2. Purigpa

3. Drokpa

4. Bodo


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

51. The Citizenship Act of 1955 prescribes which

of the following ways of acquiring Indian

citizenship?

1. By Descent

2. By Registration

3. By Naturalization

4. By Incorporation of Territory


below:




(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

52. A bill is deemed to be a money bill if it

contains ‘only’ provisions dealing with all or any

of which of the following matters?

1. The imposition, abolition, remission,

alteration or regulation of any tax

2. The regulation of the borrowing of

money by the Union government

3. The imposition of fines or other

pecuniary penalties

4. The demand or payment of fees for

licenses or fees for services rendered


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4


correct about Krishna river dispute?

1. The dispute began with the erstwhile

Hyderabad and Mysore states, and later

continuing between successors

Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra

Pradesh

2. The First Krishna Water Disputes

Tribunal (KWDT) was set up under the

Inter-State River Water Dispute Act,

1956, in 1969.

3. The KWDT is yet to present a report due

to frequent relook applications from

the party states.


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


correct about the National Green Tribunal

(NGT)?

1. It is a specialized body equipped with

the necessary expertise to handle

environmental disputes involving multi-

disciplinary issues.

2. The Tribunal is mandated to make and

endeavor for disposal of applications or

appeals finally within 6 months of filing

of the same.

3. The Tribunal is bounded by the

procedure laid down under the Code of

Civil Procedure, 1908.


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

55 Which of the following statements is/are

correct about the Right to Dissent?




1. Dissent is a sentiment or philosophy of

non-agreement or opposition to a

prevailing idea of a government's

policies or an entity (e.g., an individual

or political party which supports such

policies).

2. The right to freedom of speech which

has been enshrined as a fundamental

right under Article 19 (1)(a) in the

Constitution of India includes the right

to dissent.

3. The Section 124 A of IPC, 1860 deals

with Sedition, which is punishable with

life imprisonment and also an

additional fine if the ruling dispensation

thinks a person is inciting hatred against

the establishment or government


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


correct about Unlawful Activities (Prevention)

Amendment Bill, 2019?

1. The Bill amends the Unlawful Activities

(Prevention) Act, 1967.

2. The Bill removes the earlier provision

which empowered the government to

designate individuals as terrorists on

the same grounds.

3. The Bill a empowers the officers of the

NIA, of the rank of Inspector or above,

to investigate cases.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


correct about the National Commission for

Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR)?

1. It was set up in March 2007 under the

Commission for Protection of Child

Rights Act, 2005.

2. It works under the administrative

control of the Ministry of Women &

Child Development.

3. The Act defines the Child as a person in

the 0 to 18 years’ age group.


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


correct about the Ordinance Making Power of

the President?

1. Article 123 of the Constitution

empowers the President to promulgate




ordinances during the recess of

Parliament.

2. These ordinances do not have the same

force and effect as an act of Parliament

and they cease to exist once the

Parliament meet in a session.

3. An ordinance can only be promulgated

when both the houses are not in

session.

4. An ordinance can be issued only on

those subjects on which the Parliament

can make laws.


below:

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

59. Which of the following Indian States were

formerly union territories and later elevated to

statehood?

1. Arunachal Pradesh

2. Manipur

3. Himachal Pradesh

4. Sikkim


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4


correct about Supreme Court of India?

(a) Its original jurisdiction covers not

only federal cases but also cases

relating to naval forces, maritime

activities, ambassadors, etc

(b) It has no advisory jurisdiction

(c) It defends rights of the citizen

according to the ‘due process of

law’.



correct about the National Commission for STs?

1. It is a statutory established in 1993

under a legislation enacted by the

Parliament.

2. The Commission, while investigating

any matter or inquiring into any

complaint, has all the powers of a civil

court.

3. The commission is also the watchdog of

human rights in the country, that is, the

rights relating to life, liberty, equality

and dignity of the individual guaranteed

by the Constitution

4. The Commission presents an annual

report to the President.


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 4 only


correct about the Special Officer for Linguistic

Minorities?




1. Originally, the Constitution of India did

not make any provision with respect to

the Special Officer for Linguistic

Minorities.

2. It is duty of the Special Officer to

investigate all matters relating to the

safeguards provided for linguistic

minorities under the Constitution.

3. The Special Officer for Linguistic

Minorities hold the office for a term of

six years or until they attain the age of

65 years, whichever is earlier.


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


correct about Union Territories?

1. The UTs are the members of the federal

system in India and share a distribution

of power with the Centre.

2. The UTs comes under the direct control

and administration of the Central

government.

3. Every union territory is administered by

the President acting through an

administrator appointed by him.


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

64. Which of the following Schedule deals with

the Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the

states and the union territories?

(a) Fourth Schedule

(b) Fifth Schedule

(c) Sixth Schedule

(d) Seventh Schedule


correct about a Financial Bill?

1. A financial bill contains provisions

involving expenditure from the

Consolidated Fund of India and includes

any of the matters mentioned in Article

110.

2. It is treated as an ordinary bill and in all

respects, it is governed by the same

legislative procedure which is applicable

to an ordinary bill

3. The Finance Bill cannot be passed by

either House of Parliament unless the

President has recommended to that

House the consideration of the bill.


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


correct about Public Accounts Committee?

1. The members to the PAC are elected by

the Parliament every year from

amongst its members according to the

principle of proportional representation




by means of the single transferable

vote.

2. At present, it consists of 30 members

and all the members of the PAC are

drawn from Lok Sabha only.

3. The function of the committee is to

examine the annual audit reports of the

Comptroller and Auditor General of

India (CAG), which are laid before the

Parliament by the President.


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

67. Which of the following conditions are laid

down by the constitution for the governor’s

office?

1. He should not be a member of either

House of Parliament or a House of the

state legislature.

2. He should not hold any other office of

profit

3. His emoluments and allowances cannot

be diminished during his term of office


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


correct about Proxy Voting in India?

1. Proxy voting allows a registered elector

to delegate his voting rights to a

representative he nominates.

2. The provision of Proxy Voting has been

prescribed in the constitution of India.

3. Only “classified service voter” serving in

the armed forces or paramilitary forces

is allowed to avail of these benefits


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


correct about Article 21 A?

1. Article 21 A declares that the State shall

provide free and compulsory education

to all children of the age of six to

fourteen years.

2. This provision makes only elementary

education a Fundamental Right and not

higher or professional education.

3. This provision was added by the 86th

Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002.


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


correct about Central Bureau of Investigation

(CBI)?




1. The CBI is the main investigating agency

of the Central Government and plays an

important role in the prevention of

corruption and maintaining integrity in

administration.

2. The establishment of the CBI was

recommended by the Santhanam

Committee on Prevention of Corruption

3. The CBI is statutory body and works

under the Ministry of Home Affairs.


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


correct about North Eastern Council?

1. A North-Eastern Council was created by

a separate Act of Parliament—the

North-Eastern Council Act of 1971.

2. Its functions are similar to those of the

zonal councils, but with few additions.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

72. Which of the following statement is correct

about the National Human Rights

Commission(NHRC)?

(a) The commission is a multi-member

body consisting of a chairman and

two members and the chairman

should only be a chief justice of

India.

(b) The chairman and members are

appointed by the president on the

recommendations of Council of

Ministers headed by PM

(c) The chairman and members hold

office for a term of six years or until

they attain the age of 65 years,

whichever is earlier.

(d) The commission has its own nucleus

of investigating staff for

investigation into complaints of

human rights violations.

73. Recently, Articles 15(6) and 16(6) have been

inserted in the Constitution, vide the

Constitution (One Hundred and Third

Amendment) Act, 2019. With reference to this


is/are correct?

1. This enables the State to provide the

benefits of reservation on preferential

basis to the EWSs in civil posts and

services in the Government of India and

admission in Educational Institutions.

2. The 10% reservation under EWS

category is applicable to those persons

who are not covered under the existing

scheme of reservations for the

Scheduled Castes, the Scheduled Tribes

and the Socially and Educationally

Backward Classes.

3. The Amendment also make such

reservations mandatory in State




Government-run educational

institutions or State Government jobs.


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


correct about State Legislative Councils(SLC)?

1. Article 71 of the Constitution provides

for the option of a state to have a

Legislative Council in addition to its

Legislative Assembly.

2. The Constitution empowers the

Parliament to create or abolish a

legislative council with or without the

approval of concerned State.

3. The Act of Parliament concerning SLCs

is deemed as an amendment of the

Constitution for the purposes of Article

368.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


correct about the Central Information

Commission(CIC)?

1. The Central Information Commission is

a constitutional body.

2. CIC is a high-powered independent

body which inter alia looks into the

complaints made to it and decide the

appeals.

3. Chief Information Commissioner and an

Information Commissioner are not

eligible for reappointment


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

76. Which of the following articles of the Indian

Constitution explicitly confer the power of the

judicial review on the Supreme Court and the

High Courts?

1. Article 13

2. Article 32

3. Article 226

4. Article 372


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4


correct about the seat of the Supreme Court?

1. The Constitution declares Delhi as the

seat of the Supreme Court.

2. The Constitution authorises the chief

justice of India to appoint other place or

places as seat of the Supreme Court.




3. The Constitution authorizes to High

Courts and Supreme Court to give

direction either to the President or to

the Chief Justice to appoint any other

place as a seat of the Supreme Court.


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


correct about Development of Particularly

Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) Scheme?

1. The Scheme aims at skill development

of vulnerable tribal groups of North East

Indian States.

2. Projects under the scheme are entirely

by the Central government.

3. Under this scheme, financial assistance

is provided to the State/UT

Governments based on their proposals

for development of tribal people


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


correct about Judicial activism?

1. Judicial activism denotes the proactive

role played by the judiciary in the

protection of the rights of citizens and

in the promotion of justice in the

society.

2. It implies the assertive role played by

the judiciary to force the other two

organs of the government (legislature

and executive) to discharge their

constitutional duties.

3. The concept of judicial activism is

closely related to the concept of Public

Interest Litigation (PIL)


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


correct about the newly created ‘Jal Shakti’

Ministry?

1. It has been created by merger of

Ministries of Water Resources, River

Development & Ganga Rejuvenation

along with Drinking Water and

Sanitation.

2. The Ministry will also address

international and inter-states water

disputes.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2





the composition of the 17th Lok Sabha

members who will sit in the Lower House of

Parliament for the next five-year term:

1. The 17th Lok Sabha has the highest

representation of women the Lower

House has ever seen.

2. More than 75% of the total members of

Lok Sabha are at least graduates.

3. Chandrani Murmu, a tribal woman is

the youngest MP to be elected in the

17th Lok Sabha.


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

82. Recently, Ajit Doval was reappointed as

National Security Advisor (NSA) of India for

another five-year tenure. With reference to this


is/are Incorrect?

1. Along with the reappointment he has

also been elevated to rank of Cabinet

Minister for this term.

2. NSA is the chief adviser to the prime

minister of India on national and

international security policy matters

and also serves at the discretion of

Prime Minister of India.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


Incorrect?

1. National Investigation Agency (NIA) is

governed by its own NIA Act and has

jurisdiction across the country.

2. The CBI is governed by the Delhi Special

Police Establishment Act that makes

consent of a state government

mandatory for conducting investigation

in that state.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT):

1. It is a constitutional body for

adjudication of disputes with respect to

recruitment and conditions of service of

persons appointed to public services.

2. The members of the defence forces are

not covered under the jurisdiction of

CAT.

3. The appeal against the orders of a

tribunal could be made in High Court

and not directly in Supreme Court.


(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 2 only




(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


correct?

1. If a sitting Rajya Sabha member

contests and wins a Lok Sabha election,

his seat in the Upper House becomes

automatically vacant on the date he is

declared elected to Lok Sabha.

2. An individual can contest from two

parliamentary constituencies but, if

elected from both, he has to resign one

seat within 14 days of the declaration of

the result, failing which both his seats

shall fall vacant.

3. If a member of the State Legislature is

elected to the Lok Sabha, his seat in the

state legislature automatically becomes

vacant.


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


Cabinet Committees:

1. Cabinet Committees are Constitutional

bodies which are instrumental in

reducing the workload of the Cabinet.

2. Members of the Cabinet Committees

can be from both the Lok Sabha and the

Rajya Sabha.

3. Ministers who are not the part of the

Cabinet can be added to a Cabinet

Committee.


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

87. The Rule 49MA which was in news recently

is related to which of the following?

(a) Reporting of malfunctioning of

Electronic Voting Machines and

Voter Verified Paper Audit Trails.

(b) Rule which makes sexual activities

"against the order of nature" illegal.

(c) Rule which criminalizes attempted

Suicides.



the Attorney General of India:

1. He is the highest law officer in the

country.

2. He must be a person who is qualified to

be appointed a judge of the Supreme

Court.

3. He holds the office during the pleasure

of the president as the constitution

does not contain the procedure and

grounds for his removal.


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only




(d) 1, 2 and 3

89. The Election Commission of India recently

declared the National People’s Party as a

national party. With reference to this identify

which of the following is/are among the

benefits of being a National Party?

1. If a party is recognised as a `National

Party’ it is entitled for exclusive

allotment of its reserved symbol to the

candidates set up by it throughout

India.

2. Recognised `National’ parties need only

one proposer for filing the nomination.

3. They also get broadcast/telecast

facilities over

Akashvani/Doordarshan during general

elections.

Select the Correct answer using the codes given

below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and

the Rajya Sabha:

1. The leader of the largest Opposition

party having not less than one-tenth

seats of the total strength of the House

is recognised as the leader of the

Opposition in that House.

2. The Position of the Leader of opposition

is conventional in nature and doesn't

enjoy any statutory recognition.

3. They are also entitled to the salary,

allowances and other facilities

equivalent to that of a cabinet minister.


(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) All the above

91. Recently, the cabinet secretary Pradeep

Kumar Sinha was given a three-month

extension, making him the longest-serving

bureaucrat in the post in the last seven

decades. With reference to this identify which

of the following statement(s) is/are correct

about the Cabinet Secretary?

1. The cabinet secretary is appointed by

the President of India by warrant under

his hand and seal.

2. Cabinet secretary is the administrative

head of the secretariat and is also the

ex-officio chairman of the civil services

board.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

92. The Election Commission of India is

responsible for the conduct of elections to

which of the following?

1. Parliament

2. State Legislatures




3. The Office of President of India

4. The Office of Vice-President of India


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

93. Recently, Virendra Kumar a BJP MP from

Madhya Pradesh was chosen to be the Pro-tem

Speaker of the 17th Lok Sabha. With reference

to this consider the following statements about

the Pro Term Speaker:

1. The Pro Term is appointed by the

president when the Speaker of the last

Lok Sabha vacates his office

immediately before the first meeting of

the newly-elected Lok Sabha.

2. It is a temporary office as the new

Speaker is elected by the House, the

office of the Speaker Pro Tem ceases to

exist.

3. The Speaker Pro Tem has all the powers

of the Speaker.


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

94. Which of following Writs and their

explanation is/are correctly matched?

1. Habeas Corpus: It is an order issued by

the court to a person who has detained

another person, to produce the body of

the latter before it.

2. Mandamus: It is issued by the court to

enquire into the legality of claim of a

person to a public office.

3. Prohibition: It is issued by a higher court

to a lower court or tribunal to prevent

the latter from exceeding its jurisdiction

or usurping a jurisdiction that it does

not possess.


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


the President Rule in J&K:

1. Since J&K has a separate Constitution,

Governor’s rule is first imposed for six

months after an approval by the

President.

2. At the expiry of six months of

Governor's Rule and if suspension of

assembly has not been revoked, Jammu

and Kashmir comes under the

President's Rule as per Article 356 of

the constitution.

3. Governor’s rule is mentioned under

Article 370 section 92 – ‘Provisions in

case of failure of constitutional

machinery in the State.’





below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

96. The Article 15 of the Constitution provides

that the State shall not discriminate against any

citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste,

sex or place of birth. With reference to this

identify which of the following is/are exceptions

to this general rule of non-discrimination?

1. The state is permitted to make any

special provision for women and

children.

2. The state is permitted to make any

special provision for the advancement

of any socially and educationally

backward classes of citizens or for the

scheduled castes and scheduled tribes.

3. The state is empowered to make any

special provision for the advancement

of any socially and educationally

backward classes of citizens.


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

97. Consider the following statements and

identify, the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by

the Constitution are characterized by which of

the following?

1. The fundamental rights provided by the

constitution are absolute in nature and

the State cannot impose restrictions on

them.

2. They are justiciable, allowing persons to

move the courts for their enforcement,

if and when they are violated.

3. They can be suspended during the

operation of a National Emergency

except the rights guaranteed by Articles

20 and 21.


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


Incorrect about Pocket Veto of President?

(a) Pocket Veto refers to the power of

the president where he neither

ratifies nor rejects nor returns the

bill, but simply keeps the bill

pending for an indefinite period.

(b) Despite the President of India

enjoys the power of pocket veto, it

has never been exercised in India.

(c) The President has no veto power in

respect of a constitutional

amendment bill


99. The power of adjournment sine die of Lok

Sabha lies with which of the following

dignitaries?

(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha




(b) President of India

(c) Prime Minister of India

(d) Minister of Parliamentary Affairs.

100. Recently, Prime Minister called for all-

party meet on ‘one nation, one election’ i.e

holding elections to Lok Sabha and State

Legislative Assemblies simultaneously, once in

five years. With reference to this identify which

of the following articles needs to be amended in

order to implement the concept of

simultaneous elections?

1. Article 83

2. Article 85

3. Article 172

4. Article 174

5. Article 356


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) All the above


Incorrect about the Comptroller and Auditor

General of India (CAG)?

1. He is the head of the Indian Audit and

Accounts Department appointed by the

President of India

2. He holds office for a period of five years

or up to the age of 60 years, whichever

is earlier.

3. He can be removed by the president on

same grounds and in the same manner

as a judge of the Supreme Court.


below:

(a) 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only


102. The Article 3 of the constitution authorizes

the parliament to:

1. Form a new state by separation of

territory from any state or by uniting

two or more states or parts of states.

2. Increase or decrease the area of any

State.

3. To cede Indian territory to a foreign

country.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

103. Which of the following can be considered

as the important elements of the concept of

‘Rule of Law'?

1. Absence of arbitrary power

2. Equality before the law.

3. The primacy of the rights of the

individual.


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only




(d) 1, 2 and 3


correct about the Zonal Councils?

1. The Zonal Councils are constitutional

Bodies aimed at promoting cooperation

and coordination between states, union

territories and the Centre.

2. The Prime Minister of India is the

common chairman of all the zonal

councils.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


the Zero Hour of the parliamentary Session in

India:

1. Zero Hour refers to the first hour of

every parliamentary sitting.

2. It is an informal device and not

mentioned in the in the Rules of

Procedure of the house.

3. The Zero Hour allows members of the

Parliament to raise matters without any

prior notice.


(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

106. Consider the following statement(s) about

the Removal of High Courts Judges:

1. A judge of a high court can be removed

in the same manner and on the same

grounds as a judge of the Supreme

Court.

2. The Motion to remove a judge of a high

court cannot be rejected by the

Speaker/Chairman.

3. If motion is admitted the house

immediately starts voting on the

motion.

4. If the motion is passed by each House

of Parliament by special majority, the

judge stands impeached from

immediate effect.


(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

107. Which of the following Indian

territories/territory was/were acquired by the

means of police action by India in 1961 from

Portuguese?

(a) Dadra and Nagar Haveli

(b) Goa, Daman and Diu

(c) Puducherry

(d) Sikkim

108. Under the Constitution, the Parliament of

India consists of which the following parts?

1. Lok Sabha

2. Rajya Sabha

3. The president of India




4. The Attorney General of India


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) All the above


correct about the Motion of thanks to

President’s Address?

1. Motion of thanks is moved after the

President makes an address to a joint

sitting of Parliament at the start of the

Budget session, which is prepared by

the government and lists its

achievements.

2. A failure to get motion of thanks passed

amounts to defeat of government and

leads to collapse of government.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

110. The President is an integral part of the

Parliament of India, and enjoys certain

legislative powers. With reference to this

identify which of the following forms part of

legislative powers of the president?

1. He can summon or prorogue the

Parliament and dissolve the Lok Sabha.

2. He directly administers the union

territories through administrators

appointed by him.

3. He can nominate two members to the

Lok Sabha from the Anglo-Indian

Community.

4. He decides on questions as to

disqualifications of members of the

Parliament, in consultation with the

Election Commission.


below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

111. Recently, the Ministry of Law and Justice

issued an Extraordinary Gazette Notification,

declaring the United Arab Emirates to be a

“reciprocating territory”. With reference to this

identify which of the following statements

is/are correct?

1. The UAE became the first country to be

declared as ‘reciprocating territory’

2. Orders passed by certain designated

courts from a ‘reciprocating territory’

can be implemented in India, by filing a

copy of the decree concerned in a

District Court here.

3. Now, the Indian expatriates in the UAE

would no longer be able to seek safe




haven in India if they are convicted in a

civil case in the UAE.


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


Incorrect about the Committee on Public

Undertakings?

(a) The origin of this committee can be

traced to the standing financial

committee set up in 1921.

(b) The members of this committee are

elected by the Parliament every year

from amongst its own members

according to the principle of

proportional representation by means

of a single transferable vote.

(c) A minister cannot be elected as a

member of the committee.

(d) The chairman of the committee is

appointed by the Speaker from

amongst its members who are drawn

from the Lok Sabha only.


correct about the Preamble of the Constitution?

1. The term ‘preamble’ refers to the

introduction or preface to the

Constitution and contains the summary

or essence of the Constitution.

2. The Original constitution did not

contain the preamble and it was added

by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment

Act (1976).

3. The Preamble is a source of power to

legislature and also acts as a prohibition

upon the powers of legislature.

4. The Preamble is -justiciable in nature,

that is, its provisions are enforceable in

courts of law.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

114. Recently, the Supreme Court asked

Parliament to amend the Constitution to strip

Legislative Assembly Speakers of their exclusive

power to decide whether legislators should be

disqualified or not under the anti-defection law.


following statements is/are correct?

1. Provisions relating to disqualification of

the members of Parliament and State

Legislatures on the ground of defection

is included in the Seventh Schedule of

the Constitution.

2. The schedule relating to disqualification

of the members of Parliament and State

Legislatures was added by the 52nd

Amendment Act of 1985, also known as

Anti-Defection Law.





below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

115. The Andhra Pradesh Assembly recently

passed the Andhra Pradesh Decentralization

and Equal Development of All Regions Bill, 2020

which paved the way for creation of three

capital cities to usher in decentralization of

development. With reference to this identify

which of the following is the only country in the

world to have such model of three capitals?

(a) Philippines

(b) Chile

(c) Brazil

(d) South Africa

116. The Citizenship Act, 1955, prescribes three

ways of losing citizenship whether acquired

under the Act or prior to it under the

Constitution, viz, renunciation, termination and

deprivation. With reference to this identify

which of the following pair(s) is/are correctly

matched?

(a) By Renunciation: Any citizen of India of

full age and capacity can make a

declaration renouncing his Indian

citizenship and Upon the registration of

that declaration, that person ceases to

be a citizen of India.

(b) By Termination: When an Indian citizen

voluntarily acquires the citizenship of

another country, his Indian citizenship

automatically terminates.

(c) By Deprivation: the citizen has shown

disloyalty to the Constitution of India.

(d) All the above


the Assam Accord:

1. It was a Memorandum of Settlement

(MoS) signed between representatives

of the various minority tribal of North

eastern states and the leaders of the

Assam Movement.

2. The Accord created a framework-

graded citizenship, depending on a

person’s parentage and when he/she

had migrated to India.

3. The Assam Accord laid the grounds for

the Supreme Court-directed National

Register of Citizens (NRC).


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

118. In the context of the recently formed

National Startup Advisory Council, consider the

following statements:

1. The council has been established to

advise the Government on measures

needed to build a strong ecosystem for

nurturing innovation and startups in the

country.




2. The Council will be chaired by Minster

of Finance

3. The Council will consist of the non-

official members, to be nominated by

Central Government.


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

119. The Parliamentary privileges are special

rights, immunities and exemptions enjoyed by

the two Houses of Parliament. With reference

to this identify the privileges are extended to

which of the following entities?

1. Members of the Parliament

2. Committees of the parliament and their

members.

3. Those persons who are entitled to

speak and take part in the proceedings

of a House of Parliament.

4. The President of India who is also an

integral part of the Parliament.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

120. With reference to the "Black Warrant"

which often appears in Indian media, which of

the following statements is/are correct?

1. A black warrant is a kind of notice

issued by a court of law announcing the

time and the place of the execution for

a convict, who has been condemned to

death.

2. The proceedings for the black warrant

are initiated after all the options of

mercy petitions are exhausted by a

death row convict.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

121. With reference to the One Hundred and

Third Amendment of the Constitution of India,

consider the following statements:

1. The Act newly inserts Articles 15(6) and

16(6) in the constitution of India which

provide 10% economic reservation in

government jobs and admission to

education institutions.

2. The Amendment makes such

reservations mandatory in State

Government-run educational

institutions or State Government jobs.


(a) 1 only




(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

122. With reference to the Protection of Life

and Personal Liberty under article 21, consider

the following statements:

1. It means that no person shall be

deprived of his life or personal liberty

except according to procedure

established by law.

2. This right is available to both citizens

and non-citizens.

3. The protection under article 21 is

available only against arbitrary

executive action and not from arbitrary

legislative action.


(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


correct about the Zonal Councils?

1. The Zonal Councils are constitutional

bodies which are aimed at promoting

cooperation and coordination between

states, union territories and the Centre.

2. They are only deliberative and advisory

bodies.

3. The home minister of Central

government is the common chairman of

the five zonal councils


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

124. In the context of the Constitution of India,

which of the following statements is/are

Incorrect?

1. No religious instruction shall be

provided in any educational institution

wholly maintained out of State funds.

2. No person shall be compelled to pay

any taxes for the promotion or

maintenance of any particular religion

or religious denomination.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

125. Which of the following was not among the

bill passed in the Winter Session, 2019 of

Parliament which was concluded recently?

(a) The Citizenship (Amendment) Bill, 2019

(b) Transgender Persons (Protection of

Rights) Bill, 2019

(c) Prohibition of Electronic Cigarettes Bill

2019




(d) The Muslim Women (Protection of

Rights on Marriage) Bill, 2019

126. With reference to the writ jurisdiction of

the high court, consider the following

statements:


empowers a high court to issue writs

for the enforcement of the

fundamental rights of the citizens and

for any other purpose.

2. The high court can issue writs to any

person, authority and government only

within its territorial jurisdiction.

3. The writ jurisdiction of the high court is

wider than that of the Supreme Court.


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

127. With reference to the recent Supreme

Court ruling on Land Grabbing by state,


1. The SC held that a citizen’s right to own

private property is a human right.

2. The SC in its judgement pronounced

that a state can trespass into the

private property of a citizen and claim

the ownership of the land under the

doctrine of adverse possession, if fair

compensation is paid to the owner.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

128. With reference to the Right to Strike in

India, consider the following statements:

1. The right to strike is a fundamental right

under Article 19 of the Constitution of

India

2. The Constitution of India has conferred

the unions that they guaranteed right

to effective bargaining or right to strike

in India.

Which of the above statements is/are

Incorrect?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

129. Consider the following statements about a

Curative Petition:

1. A curative petition is the final and last

option for the people to acquire justice

as mentioned and promised by the

Constitution of India.

2. A curative petition is a way to ask the

court to review and revise their own

decision even after a review petition is

dismissed or used.




3. The concept of Curative Petition in India

originated from the Golakhnath

judgement of the Supreme Court of

India.


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

130. Recently, the Supreme Court ordered the

Jammu and Kashmir administration to review all

the restrictions pertaining to Internet services in

the region. With reference to this identify which

of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The Supreme Court observed that the

temporary suspension of Internet and

curtailing basic freedoms of citizens

should not be arbitrary and is open to

judicial review.

2. The freedom to use Internet is a legal

right and not a fundamental right in

India.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

131. With reference to the Centre and State

relations, which of the following statements

is/are correct?

1. Article 256 of the Constitution obligates

the State government to ensure

implementation of the laws made by

Parliament.

2. The refusal to enforce the law even

after the Centre issues directions would

empower the President to impose

President’s Rule in those States under

Articles 356 and 365.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

132. The Uttar Pradesh Cabinet recently

approved the Commissionerate system of

policing in the state. With reference to this


is/are correct?

1. In the commissionerate system, the

Commissioner of Police (CP) is the head

of a unified police command structure,

is responsible for the force in the city,

and is accountable to the state

government.

2. The system gives more responsibilities,

including magisterial powers, to IPS

officers of Inspector General of Police

(IG) rank posted as commissioners

3. The office of CP also has magisterial

powers, including those related to

regulation, control, and licensing.





below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

133. With reference to the promulgation of the

Ordinance in India, consider the following

statements:

1. Ordinances are laws that are

promulgated by the President of India

on the recommendation of the Union

Cabinet.

2. The provision of the ordinance making

in the Indian Constitution has been

borrowed from the constitution of USA.



can make laws.

4. Every ordinance issued by the President

during the recess of parliament must be

laid before both the Houses of

Parliament when it reassembles.


(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

134. Which of the following writ can be issued

against both public authorities as well as private

individuals?

1. Habeas Corpus

2. Mandamus

3. Prohibition

4. Certiorari


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

135. Which of the following are among the

advantages, a language acquires if it is included

in the Eighth Schedule of the constitution of

India?

1. The Members of Parliament and MLAs

could speak in that language in

Parliament and State Assemblies

2. The Candidates could write all-India

competitive examinations like the Civil

Services exam in that language.

3. That language would get recognition

from the Sahitya Akademi.

4. The books of that language would be

translated into other recognised Indian

languages.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4




136. Recently, the Chhattisgarh government

moved the Supreme Court against the National

Investigation Act, 2008 stating it is violative of

the Constitution. With reference to this identify

which of the following statements is/are correct

about the NIA act?

1. The NIA Act makes the National

Investigation Agency the only truly

federal agency in the country.

2. It gives the NIA powers to take suo

motu cognizance of terror activities in

any part of India and register a case, to

enter any state without permission

from the state government.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


correct about the Comptroller and Auditor

General of India (CAG)?

1. The CAG is the Principal Accounting

Adviser to Government of India and is

responsible for establishing and

maintaining a technically sound

Management Accounting System.

2. He is the guardian of the public purse

and controls the entire financial system

of the country at both the levels—the

Centre and the state.

3. CAG is an agent of the Parliament and

conducts audit of expenditure on behalf

of the Parliament.


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

138. Which of the following is/are among the

rights of a death row convict in India?

1. In cases where the High Court has

awarded the death sentence, the

verdict has to be necessarily be

confirmed by the Supreme Court.

2. A death sentence awarded by a trial or

district court cannot be executed until

the High Court has confirmed the

verdict.

3. The President of India and Governors

have the power to “grant pardons,

reprieves, respites or remissions” of

punishment awarded by the courts.


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3




139. The Indra Sawhney versus Union of India

Case judgement is popularly known for

(a) The judgement of the Supreme Court

which ruled that the constituent power

of Parliament under Article 368 does

not enable it to alter the ‘basic

structure’ of the Constitution.

(b) The judgment that had upheld the

government’s move, based on the

Mandal Commission report, to give 27%

reservation to Other Backward Classes.

(c) The ‘means-test and creamy layer’ first

finds expression in the Indra Sawhney

versus Union of India judgment

delivered by a nine-judge Bench in

1992.

(d) All the above


correct about the Article 14 of the Indian

Constitution?

1. Article 14 says that the State shall not

deny to any person equality before the

law or the equal protection of the laws

within the territory of India.

2. The provision of Article 14 confers

rights only to Indian Citizens.

3. The Supreme Court in the past has held

that the ‘Rule of Law’ as embodied in

Article 14 is a ‘basic feature’ of the

constitution.


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

141. In the context of the Citizenship

(Amendment) Bill, 2019, consider the following

statements:

1. The Bill seeks to amend the Citizenship

Act, 1955, by wanting to grant

citizenship to illegal non-Muslims from

Bangladesh, Pakistan and Afghanistan,

who came to India on or before

December 31, 2014.

2. If the Bill is passed, it will be the first

time that citizenship will be provided on

the basis of religion.

3. The Bill exempts certain areas in the

North-East from its amendment

provisions.

4. The bill increases the period through

which one can acquire Indian

Citizenship by Naturalization from 5 to

11 years.


(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) All the above




142 The Central information commissioners are

appointed by the President on the

recommendation of a committee consisting of:

1. Prime Minister as Chairperson

2. The Leader of Opposition in the Lok

Sabha

3. Union Cabinet Minister nominated by

the Prime Minister

4. Chief Justice of India


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

143 With reference to the imposition of Section

144, identify which of the following statements

is/are correct?

1. It authorises the Executive Magistrate

of any state or territory to issue an

order to prohibit the assembly of four

or more people in an area.

2. It can only be used to restrict group of

people and not an individual in

particular.

3. Order passed under Section 144 can

remain for an indefinite time from the

date of the order, unless the state

government considers it necessary to

terminate it.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

144 With reference to the Freedom of

Assembly in the Indian Constitution, which of

the following statement is Incorrect?

(a) Every citizen in India has the right to

assemble peaceably and without arms

under Article 19 of the Constitution.

(b) It includes the right to hold public

meetings, demonstrations and take out

processions.

(c) This freedom can be exercised only on

public land and the assembly must be

peaceful and unarmed.

(d) Freedom of Assembly includes the right

to strike.


correct about the Departmentally-Related

Standing Committees (DRSCs)?

1. The main objective of the standing

committees is to secure more

accountability of the Executive to the

Parliament, particularly financial

accountability.

2. They also assist the Parliament in

debating the budget more effectively




3. A minister of the respective ministries

and departments acts as ex officio

chairman of the DRSCs


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


correct about the Central Administrative

Tribunal (CAT)?

(a) The Central Administrative Tribunal

(CAT) is a constitutional body

established under Article 312-A of the

Constitution.

(b) The CAT exercises original jurisdiction in

relation to recruitment and all service

matters of public servants covered by it.

(c) The appointment of Members in CAT is

made on the basis of recommendations

of a committee consisting of Prime

Minister and Leader of Opposition of

the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.

(d) All the above


correct about Section 309 of the IPC which was

in news recently?

(a) It lays down the punishment for

attempted suicide.

(b) It criminalises consensual sexual

conduct between adults of the same

sex.

(c) It confers individuals the Right of

private defence of the body and of

property.

(d) it lays down the punishment for

Intentional insult with intent to provoke

breach of the peace.

148. With reference to the recently launched

India's Good Governance Index, consider the


1. Good Governance index is a ranking

system established by NITI Ayog in

collaboration with the World Bank

Group.

2. It is a uniform tool across States to

assess the Status of Governance and

impact of various interventions taken

up by the State Government and UTs.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

149. In the context of the concept of ‘equality

before law', consider the following statements:

1. The concept of ‘equality before law’ in

the Indian constitution has been taken

from American Constitution.




2. In the Indian constitution, the Article 14

says that the State shall not deny to any

person equality before the law and

equal protection of the laws within the

territory of India

3. The rule of equality before law is not

absolute and there are constitutional

and other exceptions to it.


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

150. With reference to the Right to Information

(Amendment) Bill, 2019, which of the following

statements is/are correct?

(a) The Bill changes the terms and

conditions of service of the CIC and

Information Commissioners at the

centre and in states.

(b) The Bill changes removes the three tier

structure established by the RTI act of

2005 for enforcing the right to

information guaranteed under the Act.

(c) The Bill removes public sector

undertakings from the list of the Public

Authorities which are required to make

disclosures on various aspects of their

structure and functioning.

(d) All the above

151. With reference to the Short Duration

Discussions in Rajya Sabha, which of the


1. The short duration discussion is a

procedural device to enable members

to raise discussion on matters of urgent

public importance without a formal

motion on a matter of urgent public

importance.

2. The Chairman cannot reject the

admissibility of the notice on Short

duration discussions.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


correct about Curfew in India?

1. The notification for the Curfew is issued

by the District Magistrate under section

144 CrPC and it prohibits the assembly

of five or more people in an area.

2. Under Curfew, establishments such as

markets, schools, colleges, etc. are

ordered to remain shut, and only

essential services are allowed to run on

prior notice.


below:




(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

153. Which of the following devices of

parliamentary proceedings requires an oral

answer and hence supplementary questions can

follow?

(a) Starred Question

(b) Unstarred Question

(c) Short Notice Question

(d) All the above

154. With reference to the No Confidence

Motion, which of the following statement is

Incorrect?

(a) It should state the reasons for its

adoption in the Lok Sabha.

(b) It can be moved against the entire

council of ministers only.

(c) It is moved for ascertaining the

confidence of Lok Sabha in the council

of ministers.

(d) If it is passed in the Lok Sabha, the

council of ministers must resign from

office.

155. With reference to a District Judge, which

of the following statements is/are correct?

(a) The district judge is the highest judicial

authority in the district.

(b) When a district judge hears the criminal

cases, he is called as the sessions judge.

(c) The district judge exercises both judicial

and administrative powers and also has

supervisory powers over all the

subordinate courts in the district.

(d) All the above statements


the National Human Rights Commission

(NHRC)?

1. The National Human Rights Commission

is a statutory (and not a constitutional)

body.

2. The commission is a multi-member

body consisting of a chairman and four

members appointed by the president

based on the recommendations of a

committee of Council of Ministers.

3. The commission doesn’t have any of its

own investigating staff for investigation

into complaints of human rights

violations and takes helps of private

investigators or state police personnel.


(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3


157. Recently, some of the major findings of a

study conducted by the Central Water

Commission (CWC) from May 2014 to April

2018 revealed the Heavy metals contaminating

India’s rivers. With reference to this identify




which of the following statement(s) is/are

correct?

1. Chromium was the largest contaminant

found in al almost all the major rivers of

India.

2. The study found that mining, milling,

plating and surface finishing industries

that discharge a variety of toxic metals

into the environment as the main

sources of heavy metal pollution.

3. Long-term exposure to the heavy

metals may result in slowly progressing

degenerative processes that mimic

many diseases such as Alzheimer’s

disease and Parkinson’s disease


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

158. Which of the following powers/rights is

conferred to the Supreme Court by the Article

142 of the Constitution?

(a) It allows the Supreme Court to pass any

order necessary for doing complete

justice in any cause or matter pending

before it.

(b) It confers Supreme Court the rights to

issue writs making it as the guarantor

and defender of the fundamental rights

of the citizens.

(c) It allows Supreme Court to settle

dispute arising out of any pre-

Constitution treaty, agreement,

covenant, engagement, sanad or other

similar instrument.

(d) It authorises the president to seek the

opinion of the Supreme Court in the

matter of public importance.

159. With reference to the Protection of

Interests of Minorities under Article 29 of the

Constitution, consider the following

statements:

1. Article 29 grants protection to both

religious minorities as well as linguistic

minorities

2. Under Article 29, no citizen shall be

denied admission into any educational

institution maintained by the State or

receiving aid out of State funds on

grounds only of religion, race, caste, or

language.

3. The scope of this article 29 is restricted

to minorities only.


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3




160. With reference to the Attorney General

(AG) of India, consider the following

statements:

1. The Attorney General (AG) is appointed

by the president.

2. He must be a person who is qualified to

be appointed a judge of the Supreme

Court.

3. He is appointed for a period of five

years and can only be removed on the

grounds prescribed in the constitution.

Which of the following statements is/are

correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

161. Which of the following statement is/are

correct about the Overseas Citizenship of India

(OCI)?

1. It is an immigration status permitting a

foreign citizen of Indian origin to live

and work in India indefinitely.

2. It was introduced by the Citizenship

(Amendment) Act, 2005 and was

launched during the Pravasi Bharatiya

Divas convention held in Hyderabad in

late 2005.

3. The OCI status also provides the OCI

holder right to vote, right to hold

constitutional offices, and right to buy

agricultural properties.


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

162. Which of the following fundamental rights

enshrined in the Indian constitution are

available to both Indian citizens and to

foreigners?

1. Equality before law and equal

protection of laws (Article 14)

2. Right to elementary education (Article

21A).

3. Right to freedom of speech and

expression (Article 19)

4. Protection of language, script and

culture of minorities (Article 29).


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4




163. The feature of Single Citizenship in the

Indian Constitution is borrowed from the

Constitution of which of the following country?

(a) Irish Constitution

(b) Canadian Constitution

(c) Australian Constitution

(d) British Constitution

164. Under the RTI Act, 2005, Public Authorities

are required to make disclosures on various

aspects of their structure and functioning. With

reference to this identify under the act who

among the following is included in the ambit of

‘Public Authorities’?

1. ‘Public Authorities’ include bodies of

self-government established under the

Constitution, or under any law or

government notification.

2. It also includes any entities owned,

controlled or substantially financed and

non-government organizations

substantially financed directly or

indirectly by funds provided by the

government.

3. The Office of the Chief Justice of India

(CJI) is also a ‘public authority’ under

the Right to Information (RTI) Act.


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


correct about the Administrative Tribunals?

1. Article 323 A enables the Parliament to

take out the adjudication of disputes

relating to service matters from the civil

courts and the high courts and place it

before the administrative tribunals.

2. The original Constitution did not

contain provisions with respect to

tribunals and the 42nd Amendment Act

of 1976 added a new Part XIV-A to the

Constitution which deal with the

tribunals.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


correct about secularism in India?

1. The term ‘secular’ was added by the

42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of

1976.

2. Secularism is one of the ‘basic features’

of the Constitution.

3. Indian Constitution embodies the

concept of secularism which connotes a




complete separation between the

religion and the state.


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


correct about Special Provisions for Some States

under Articles 371 to 371-J in Part XXI of the

constitution of India?

1. Articles 371 to 371-J contains Special

Provisions for 7 North Eastern States.

2. The intention behind them is to meet

the aspirations of the people of

backward regions of the states or to

protect the cultural and economic

interests of the tribal people of the

states

3. Originally, the constitution did not

make any special provisions for these

states and have been incorporated by

the various subsequent amendments.


below:

(a) 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

168. The Election Commission grants

recognition to political parties as national or

state parties on the basis of their poll

performance. With reference to this identify, at

present, a party is recognised as a national

party if which of the following conditions is

fulfilled?

1. If it secures six per cent of valid votes

polled in any four or more states at a

general election to the Lok Sabha or to

the legislative assembly.

2. If it wins two per cent of seats in the

Lok Sabha at a general election and

these candidates are elected from three

states.

3. If it is recognised as a state party in any

one Indian State.


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

169. The successful functioning of the Indian

federal system depends not only on the

harmonious relations between the Centre and

the states but also between the states inter se.

With reference to this identify, the

Constitution of India makes which of the

following provisions with regard to inter-state

comity?




1. Adjudication of inter-state water

disputes.

2. Coordination through inter-state

councils.

3. Mutual recognition of public acts,

records and judicial proceedings.

4. Freedom of inter-state trade,

commerce and intercourse


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4


correct about powers and functions of the Chief

Minister in relation to the Council of Ministers?

(a) The governor appoints only those

persons as ministers who are

recommended by the Chief Minister

(b) He can ask a minister to resign or advise

the governor to dismiss him in case of

difference of opinion

(c) Chief Minister is the head of the council

of ministers, his resignation or death

automatically dissolves the council of

ministers.

(d) All the above


correct about the National Green Tribunal?

(a) The National Green Tribunal was

established in 2010 under the National

Green Tribunal Act 2010.

(b) The Tribunal shall not be bound by the

procedure laid down under the Code of

Civil Procedure, 1908 but shall be

guided by principles of natural justice.

(c) The Tribunal is mandated to make and

endeavour for disposal of applications

or appeals finally within 6 months of

filing of the same.

(d) All the above

172. Recently, the Union government

introduced the Labour Code on Industrial

Relations, 2019 bill in the Lok Sabha. With


statement(s) is/are correct?

1. The bill aims to streamline industrial

relations and help India improve on the

ease of doing business index.

2. The Bill consolidates essential elements

of three laws—the Trade Unions Act,

1926, the Industrial Employment

(Standing Orders) Act, 1946, and the

Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.

3. The Code also proposes setting up of a

“re-skilling fund” for training of

retrenched employees.


below:




(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


correct about Question Hour in the Indian

Parliament?

1. The first hour of every parliamentary

sitting is slotted for this

2. It is a device through which the

Parliament exercises control over the

ministers or the government.

3. During question hour, the members of

the parliament can only put forward a

starred question which requires an oral

answer.


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


major provisions of the Jammu and Kashmir

Reorganisation Bill, 2019 which was in news

recently?

1. The Bill reorganises the state of Jammu

and Kashmir as the Union Territory of

Jammu and Kashmir without a

legislature.

2. The Union Territory of Jammu and

Kashmir will be administered by the

President, through an administrator

appointed by him known as the

Lieutenant Governor.

3. The High Court of Jammu and Kashmir

will be the common High Court for the

Union Territories of Ladakh, and Jammu

and Kashmir.


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

175. Article 110 of the Constitution deals with

the definition of money bills. With reference to

this identify, a bill is deemed to be a money bill

if it contains provisions dealing with which of

the following matters?

1. The regulation of the borrowing of

money by the Union government

2. The appropriation of money out of the

Consolidated Fund of India

3. If the bill provides for the imposition of

fines or other pecuniary penalties.

4. If the bill consists of payment of fees for

licenses or fees for services rendered.





below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4


judicial powers and functions of the Parliament

of India?

(a) It can impeach the President for the

violation of the Constitution.

(b) It can remove the Vice-President from

his office.

(c) It can punish its members or outsiders

for the breach of its privileges or its

contempt.

(d) All the above

177. The government recently celebrated the

‘Constitution Day’ or ‘Samvidhan Diwas’ in the

Central Hall of Parliament to mark the 70th

anniversary of adoption of the Constitution by

the Constituent Assembly. With reference to

this identify which of the following statement(s)

is/are correct?

1. The Constitution Day is celebrated on

26th November every year as it was on

this day in 1949 that the Constitution

came into force.

2. On the Constitution day, Dr Rajendra

Prasad was also elected as the first

President of India.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


correct about Article 19 of the Indian

Constitution?

1. Article 19 contains six rights that

guarantees Right to Freedom of an

Individual.

2. These six rights are protected against

only state action and not private

individuals

3. The State can impose ‘reasonable’

restrictions on the enjoyment of these

six rights only on the grounds

mentioned in the Article 19 itself and

not on any other grounds.

4. These rights are available not only to

the citizens but also to foreigners or

legal persons like companies or

corporations, etc.


below:

(a) 1 only




(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

179. President Ram Nath Kovind recently

approved a proclamation imposing President’s

Rule in Maharashtra, with reference to this


is/are correct about President's Rule under

Article 356 of the constitution?

1. A proclamation imposing President’s

Rule must be approved by both the

Houses of Parliament within two

months from the date of its issue.

2. During its operation, the state executive

and legislature continue to function and

exercise the powers assigned to them

under the Constitution.

3. Under this, the Parliament can make

laws on the subjects enumerated in the

State List only by itself, that is, it cannot

delegate the same to any other body or

authority


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3


180. A number of recent Supreme Court

decisions have given impetus to the expression

“review petition”. With reference to this

identify, which of the following statement(s)

is/are correct about Review Petition?

1. The Constitution itself gives, under

Article 137, the Supreme Court the

power to review any of its judgments or

orders.

2. The court has the power to review its

rulings to correct a “patent error” and

not “minor mistakes of inconsequential

import”.

3. Only parties to a case can seek a review

of the judgment on it.


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


correct about Private Members Bill (PMB)?

1. A Member of Parliament (MP) who is

not a Minister in the Union Cabinet is

called a Private Member and bills

introduced by such members are called

Private Member's Bills.

2. A PMB can only be introduced in Lok

Sabha.

3. The admissibility of the PMB is decided

by the presiding officer of the house.





below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

182. Article 280 provides for a Finance

Commission constituted by the President every

fifth year or even earlier. It is required to make

recommendations to the President on which of

the following matters?

1. The distribution of the net proceeds of

taxes to be shared between the Centre

and the states, and the allocation

between the states, the respective

shares of such proceeds

2. The principles which should govern the

grants-in-aid to the states by the

Centre.

3. The measures needed to augment the

Consolidated fund of a state to

supplement the resources of the

panchayats and the municipalities in

the state on the basis of the

recommendations made by the State

Finance Commission.


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

183. Recently, the Water Quality India

Association moved to the Supreme Court

against a ban imposed by the National Green

Tribunal (NGT) on use of RO filters in Delhi.


following statement(s) is/are correct?

1. According to NGT, RO purifiers lead to

the wastage of almost 70-80 percent

water during the purification process.

2. The NGT order had come after an

expert committee set up by the tribunal

recommended a bar on use of RO

technology, especially in municipal

areas where piped water is supplied.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

184. Recently, the Union Cabinet decided to

extend the term of 15th Finance Commission.

With reference to this identify the 15th Finance

Commission is headed by who among the

following dignitary?

(a) Dr. Y. V Reddy

(b) N. K. Singh

(c) Dr. Vijay L. Kelkar

(d) C. Rangarajan





correct about the Ordinance making power of

the president?


empowers the President to promulgate

ordinances and have the same force

and effect as an act of Parliament, but

are in the nature of temporary laws.

2. President can promulgate an ordinance

even when both the Houses of

Parliament are in session.



can make laws.


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

186. Which of the following statements is

Incorrect about the Public Accounts

Committee?

(a) This committee was set up first in 1921

under the provisions of the

Government of India Act of 1919 and

has since been in existence.

(b) The term of office of the members is

one year and a minister cannot be

elected as a member of the committee.

(c) The function of the committee is to

examine the estimates included in the

budget and suggest ‘economies’ in

public expenditure.

(d) All parties get due representation in it

and the chairman of the committee is

appointed from amongst its members

by the Speaker


correct about the Sessions of Parliament?

1. A ‘session’ of Parliament is the period

spanning between the prorogation of a

House and its reassembly in a new

session.

2. The president from time to time

summons each House of Parliament to

meet.

3. The maximum gap between two

sessions of Parliament cannot be more

than six months.


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

188. The Union Cabinet recently approved the

proposal for adoption of Patent Prosecution

Highway (PPH) programme by the Indian Patent

Office (IPO). With reference to this identify





correct?

1. Under this Pilot programme, IPO will

fast track patent applications in certain

specified technical fields.

2. The IPO will initiate a PPH with its

Japanese counterpart - the Japan

Patent Office (JPO) - on a pilot basis for

a period of three years.

3. The key to the programme is that some

of investigations ascertaining whether

the application qualifies for a patent or

not can be done away with by relying

on the findings of an another patent

office, which saw merit.


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


correct about the representation of states in

Rajya Sabha?

1. The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution

deals with the allocation of seats in the

Rajya Sabha.

2. The representatives of states in the

Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected

members of state legislative assemblies

3. The seats are allotted to the states in

the Rajya Sabha on the basis of

population.

4. At present, the Rajya Sabha has 250

members and all of them represents

the states


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 4 only


correct about the Appointment of the chief

justice of India?

1. The chief justice is appointed by the

president after consultation with such

judges of the Supreme Court and high

courts as he deems necessary.

2. Since 1950, it has been a convention to

appoint the senior most judge of the

Supreme Court as the chief justice of

India and the convention has never

been violated till now.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2




(d) Neither 1 nor 2

191. Which of the following statement is/are

correct about the Contempt of Court?

1. The expression ‘contempt of court’

has been defined by the

constitution of India

2. The Supreme Court has power to

punish for contempt not only of

itself but also of high courts,

subordinate courts.

3. Publication of any matter or doing

an act which scandalises or lowers

the authority of a court is

considered as Criminal contempt of

Court.


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


correct about Fast Track courts?

1. These are special kind of courts which

have exclusive jurisdiction over a

particular category of law.

2. The original Constitution did not

contain provisions with respect to Fast

Track courts and they were added by

the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

193. The President of India can grant pardon

the sentence of any person convicted of any

offence in which of the following cases?

1. In all cases where the punishment or

sentence is for an offence against a

Union law.

2. In all cases where the punishment or

sentence is by a court martial.

3. In all cases where the sentence is a

sentence of death.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

194. Recently, Chief Justice of India Ranjan

Gogoi recommended Justice Sharad Arvind

Bobde as his successor and the 47th Chief

Justice of India. With reference to this identify

which of the following statement(s) is/are

correct about Justice Sharad Arvind Bobde?




1. Justice Bobde was appointed as a judge

of the Bombay High Court in 2000 and

went on to become Chief Justice of the

Madhya Pradesh High Court.

2. Justice Arvind Bobde was appointed as

the Chief Justice of India by superseding

three senior judges of Supreme Court.

3. Justice Bobde is part of the Ayodhya

Bench and is also hearing the BCCI

dispute.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


correct about the Section 124A of the Indian

Penal Code which was in news recently?

1. Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code

lays down the punishment for sedition

which is a non-bailable offence.

2. A person charged under section 124A is

barred from a government job and have

to live without their passport and must

produce themselves in the court at all

times as and when required.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


correct about Electoral Bonds Scheme?

1. According to provisions of the scheme,

electoral bonds may be purchased by a

person, who is a citizen of India or

entities incorporated or established in

India.

2. Registered political parties that have

secured not less than 1 per cent of the

votes polled in the last election of the

Lok Sabha or Legislative Assembly are

eligible to receive electoral bonds.

3. All Scheduled Commercial banks(SCB)

authorized by the Reserve Bank of India

can issue Electoral Bonds.


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

197. The Article 22 of the constitution of India

confers which of the following rights on a

person who is arrested or detained under an

ordinary law?

1. Right to be informed of the grounds of

arrest

2. Right to consult and be defended by a

legal practitioner




3. Right to be produced before a

magistrate within 24 hours, excluding

the journey time.

4. Right to be released after 24 hours

unless the magistrate authorises further

detention.


below:

(e) 1 only

(f) 1 and 2 only

(g) 1, 2 and 3 only

(h) 1, 2, 3 and 4


correct about the Central Information

Commission(CIC)?

1. The Commission consists of a Chief

Information Commissioner and not

more than ten Information

Commissioners appointed by the

President of India.

2. It entertains complaints and appeals

pertaining to offices, financial

institutions, public sector undertakings,

etc., under the Central Government and

the Union Territories

3. The Central Information Commission is

a constitutional body.


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


correct about Parole in India?

1. Parole is a system of releasing a

prisoner with suspension of the

sentence.

2. The release is conditional, usually

subject to behavior, and requires

periodic reporting to the authorities for

a set period of time.

3. Parole is seen as a matter of right for a

prisoner, to be granted periodically

irrespective of any reason, and merely

to enable the prisoner to counter the ill-

effects of prolonged time spent in

prison.

4. Since prisons is a State subject in the

Constitution, the Prisons Act of each

state government defines the rules

under which parole is granted in that

state.


below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4 only


correct about Election manifestos?




1. According to the Election Commission

of India, election manifestos are legally

enforceable documents.

2. The election manifesto shall not contain

anything repugnant to the ideals and

principles enshrined in the Constitution.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


correct about Prime Minister's Economic

Advisory Council(PMEAC)?

1. It is a non-constitutional, non-

permanent and independent body

constituted to give economic advice to

the Government of India, specifically

the Prime Minister.

2. It is part of Cabinet Committee on

Economic Affairs and consists of

nominated members of the Cabinet

including Minister of finance

3. The Council is Chaired by the Prime

Minister of India and the Minister of

Finance acts as a de-facto vice

chairman.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only



correct about the Central Administrative

Tribunal (CAT)?

1. It was set up in 1985 with the principal

bench at Delhi and additional benches

in different states.

2. The CAT exercises original jurisdiction in

relation to recruitment and all service

matters of public servants covered by it

3. The CAT is bounded by the procedure

laid down in the Civil Procedure Code of

1908.

4. Appeals against the orders of the CAT

could be made only in the Supreme

Court and not in the high courts.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4


correct about the National Critical Information

Infrastructure Protection Centre (NCIIPC)?

1. It is an organization of the Government

of India created under Sec 70A of the




Information Technology Act, 2000 in

2014.

2. NCIIPC is designated as the National

Nodal Agency in respect of Critical

Information Infrastructure Protection.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

204. Consider the following Rights:

1. Right to freedom of speech and

expression.

2. Right to assemble peaceably and

without arms.

3. Right to move freely throughout the

territory of India.

4. Right to reside and settle in any part of

the territory of India.

Which of the above rights are guaranteed by

the Constitution of India under Article 19?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

205. The Constitution of India has made many

provisions to safeguard and ensure the

independent and impartial functioning of the

Election Commission under Article 324. With


statement(s) is/are correct?

1. The service conditions of the chief

election commissioner cannot be varied

to his disadvantage after his

appointment

2. The Constitution has prescribed the

qualifications of the members of the

Election Commission.

3. The Constitution has specified the term

of the members of the Election

Commission.

4. The Constitution has debarred the

retiring election commissioners from

any further appointment by the

government.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

206. Recently, Jammu and Kashmir government

issued formal orders for the abolition of

legislative council of J&K under the Jammu and

Kashmir Reorganization Bill, which was passed

in August. With reference to this identify which

of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) The Parliament can abolish a legislative

council or create it, if the legislative




assembly of the concerned state passes

a resolution to that effect.

(b) The Act of Parliament to set up or to

abolish a council is deemed to be as an

amendment of the Constitution for the

purposes of Article 368 and require

special majority in the Parliament.

(c) The members of the legislative council

are directly elected and the maximum

strength of the council is fixed at 50%of

the total strength of the State

Legislative Assembly.

(d) All the above

207. When a bill, passed by a state legislature, is

presented to the governor for his assent, he has

which of the following alternatives as per the

Article 200 of the Indian Constitution?

1. He may give his assent to the bill.

2. He may withhold his assent to the bill

3. He may return the bill (if it is not a

money bill) for reconsideration of the

state legislature

4. He may reserve the bill for the

consideration of the President.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

208. The government recently notified rules for

the for fixing tenure, salaries and service

conditions of information commissioners in

Central Information Commission (CIC) and State

Information Commissions (SICs) as per the

recently passed Right to Information

(Amendment) Bill, 2019. With reference to this


is/are correct?

1. The tenure of central and state

information commissioners has now

been increased to five years from three

years.

2. The maximum age limit has been fixed

at 70 and the commissioners are not

eligible for reappointment as

Information Commissioner.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


correct about the Centralized Public Grievance

Redress and Monitoring System (CPGRAMS)?

(a) It is one of the flagship initiatives for

the reformation in governance started

by Central government through

addressing the grievances of general

public.

(b) It is a flagship scheme launched by the

Reserve Bank of India which provides a

resolution for general public on




concerns and complaints related to

banking services

(c) It is an initiative launched by the Central

Government to address the concerns

relating to pollution and the disposal of

the large amount of ash from coal

based power stations.



the fundamental duties of the citizens in India:

1. The original constitution did not provide

for the fundamental duties and these

were added by the 42nd Constitutional

Amendment Act of 1976.

2. The Fundamental Duties in the Indian

Constitution are inspired by the

Constitution of erstwhile USSR.

3. Duty to pay taxes is one among the

major fundamental duty of the citizens

of India as incorporated in the

constitution.


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


Incorrect about the ‘Leader of the Opposition’

in the Parliament of India?

(a) The leader of the largest Opposition

party having not less than one-tenth

seats of the total strength of the House

is recognised as the leader of the

Opposition in that House.

(b) His main functions are to provide a

constructive criticism of the policies of

the government and to provide an

alternative government.

(c) The provisions with respect to the

recognition of the position of LoP is

mentioned in the Constitution of India.

(d) They are also entitled to the salary,

allowances and other facilities

equivalent to that of a cabinet minister.


correct about the Territorial Extent of Central

Legislation?

1. The Parliament can make laws for the

whole or any part of the territory of

India.

2. The Parliament can make ‘extra-

territorial legislation’ i.e. the laws of the

Parliament are also applicable to the

Indian citizens and their property in any

part of the world.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2




(d) Neither 1 nor 2

213. Which of the following statement is

Incorrect about the Judicial Review?

(a) The doctrine of judicial review was

originated and developed in the Britain.

(b) In India, the Constitution itself confers

the power of judicial review to both the

Supreme Court and High Courts.

(c) Judicial review is a basic feature of the

Constitution and cannot be curtailed or

excluded even by a constitutional

amendment.


214. The state of Maharashtra is the latest

example which displayed the use discretionary

powers by the Governor in the formation of the

government in case of a hung assembly. With


Commissions in the past has recommended the

guidelines on government-formation in the case

of a hung assembly?

1. Sarkaria Commission

2. Punchhi Commission

3. Tendulkar Commission

4. Ashok Mehta Commission


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

215. In the context of Writ Jurisdiction of the

High Court, which of the following statements

is/are correct?


empowers a high court to issue writs.

2. The writ jurisdiction of the high court

(under Article 226) is not exclusive but

concurrent with the writ jurisdiction of

the Supreme Court.

3. The High Court can issue writs only for

the enforcement of fundamental rights.


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

216. In The context of The Tenth Schedule

which contains the provisions with respect to

the disqualification of members of Parliament

and the state legislatures on the ground of

defection, consider the following statements:

1. A member of a House belonging to any

political party becomes disqualified for

being a member of the House if he

votes or abstains from voting in such

House contrary to any direction issued

by his political party




2. An independent member of a house

becomes disqualified to remain a

member of the House if he joins any

political party after such election

3. A nominated member of a House

becomes disqualified for being a

member of the House if he joins any

political party during his term.


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

217. Recently, President Ram Nath Kovind

rejected a petition demanding disqualification

of 11 party MLAs for allegedly holding office of

profit. With reference to this identify which of

the following statements is/are correct about

the Office of Profit?

1. An office of profit has been interpreted

to be a position that brings to the

office-holder some financial gain, or

advantage, or benefit.

2. The laws related to the office of profit

have been clearly defined in the

constitution under Article 102.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

218. Which of the following act abolished the

right to property as a Fundamental Right by

repealing Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31 from

Part III?

(a) 40th Amendment Act

(b) 41st Amendment Act

(c) 42nd Amendment Act

(d) 44th Amendment Act


the Pardoning Powers of President:

(a) He can pardon or commute the

punishment or sentence of any person

convicted of any offence against a

Central law.

(b) He cannot pardon a death sentence.

(c) He cannot grant pardon or

commutation in respect to punishment

or sentence by a court-martial (military

court).

(d) All the above


the Collective Responsibility of Ministers:

1. The fundamental principle underlying

the working of parliamentary system of

government is the principle of collective

responsibility




2. The Constitution clearly states that the

council of ministers is collectively

responsible to the Lok Sabha.

3. The principle of collective responsibility

also means that the Cabinet decisions

bind all cabinet ministers even if they

differed in the cabinet meeting.


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


correct about the Indian Parliamentary Group

(IPG)?

1. It is an autonomous body which was

formed in the year 1949 in pursuance of

a motion adopted by the Constituent

Assembly.

2. The Vice president of India who also

acts as the chairman of Rajya Sabha is

the ex-officio president of the Indian

Parliamentary Group.

3. The former members of Parliament are

also members of the IPG


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only


222. The Citizenship Act, 1955, prescribes

various ways of losing citizenship whether

acquired under the Act or prior to it under the

Constitution. With reference to this identify,

when a citizen of India losses his citizenship if

he has obtained the citizenship by fraud, is

termed as:

(a) Loosing Citizenship by Renunciation

(b) Loosing Citizenship by Termination

(c) Loosing Citizenship by Deprivation


223. Which of the following Articles in the

Constitution of India are related to the Right to

Freedom of Religion?

1. Article 25

2. Article 26

3. Article 27

4. Article 28


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4





correct about the 'Directive Principles of State

Policy'?

1. The DPSP denotes the ideals that the

State should keep in mind while

formulating policies and enacting laws.

2. The DPSP resemble the ‘Instrument of

Instructions’ enumerated in the

Government of India Act of 1935.

3. These are justiciable, that is, they are

legally enforceable by the courts in case

of their violation.


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

225. the context of the procedure for the

amendment of the Constitution as laid down in

Article 368, consider the following statements:

1. An amendment of the Constitution can

be initiated only by the introduction of

a bill in the Lok Sabha.

2. The constitutional amendment bill can

only be introduced by a minister and

not by a private member

3. The introduction of a constitutional

amendment bill requires prior

permission of the president.

4. In case of a disagreement between the

two Houses on the amendment of the

constitution, there is no provision for

holding a joint sitting of the two Houses

for the purpose of deliberation and

passage of the bill.


(a) 4 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

226. Which of the following act means

terminating a sitting of Parliament for an

indefinite period?

(a) Adjournment

(b) Adjournment Sine Die

(c) Prorogation

(d) Dissolution


correct about the Cabinet Committees?

1. They are extra-constitutional in

emergence i.e. they are not mentioned

in the Constitution.

2. They are set up by the Prime Minister

according to the exigencies of the time

and requirements of the situation.

3. They usually include only Cabinet

Ministers and the non-cabinet Ministers

are debarred from their membership.





below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


correct about the Cabinet Committees?

4. They are extra-constitutional in

emergence i.e. they are not mentioned

in the Constitution.

5. They are set up by the Prime Minister

according to the exigencies of the time

and requirements of the situation.

6. They usually include only Cabinet

Ministers and the non-cabinet Ministers

are debarred from their membership.


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

229. Which of following are among the

propositions that have been laid down by the

Supreme Court on imposition of President’s

Rule in a state under Article 356?

1. The presidential proclamation imposing

President’s Rule is subject to judicial

review.

2. The state legislative assembly should be

dissolved only after the Parliament has

approved the presidential proclamation

3. The power under Article 356 is an

exceptional power and should be used

only occasionally to meet the

requirements of special situations.

4. A state government pursuing anti-

secular politics is liable to action under

Article 356.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

230. The SAANS campaign which was recently

launched by the Ministry of Health and Family

Welfare, is aimed at?

(a) Reducing child mortality due to

pneumonia

(b) Motivate all adults to get tested for HIV

(c) Immunizing every child under the age of

5 with oral polio vaccine.

(d) Vaccination campaign to save children

from diarrhoea.





Court ruling on Anticipatory Bail, consider the


1. Under anticipatory bail, a person is

directed to be released on bail even

before arrest made.

2. The court recently observed that an

anticipatory bail cannot be limited to a

fixed time period and can continue till

the end of the trial.


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

232. With reference to the Articles 16 (4) and

16 (4-A) of the Constitution, which of the


(a) It empowers the State to make a

reservation in matters of appointment

and promotion in favour of the

Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled

Tribes.

(b) It confers individuals with a

fundamental right to claim reservation

in promotion.

(c) Under the Articles, State governments

are bound to make a reservation and

have discretion in providing

reservations.


233. With reference to the ‘Gram Nyayalayas’,


1. Gram Nyayalayas or village courts are

established under the Gram Nyayalayas

Act, 2008 for speedy and easy access to

justice system in the rural areas of

India.

2. The Gram Nyayalayas are presided over

by a Nyayadhikari, who will have the

same power, enjoy same salary and

benefits of a Judicial Magistrate of First

Class.

3. The Nyayadhikari's are directly

appointed by the Supreme Court of

India


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

234. With reference to the Supreme Court of

India, which of the following statements is/are

correct?

(a) Its appellate jurisdiction is confined only

constitutional cases and not on civil and

criminal cases

(b) It defends rights of the citizen according

to the ‘due process of law’

(c) It has power of judicial superintendence

and control over state high courts due

to integrated judicial system.




(d) All the above

235. With reference to the Sedition in India,


1. It refers to any action that brings or

attempts to bring hatred or contempt

towards the government of India and

has been illegal in India since 1870.

2. Sedition in India falls under Section

124A of the Indian Penal Code

3. The validity of the provision itself was

upheld by a Constitution Bench in 1962,

in Kedarnath Singh vs State of Bihar.


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

236. With reference to the Impeachment of

President of India, which of the following


1. The President can be removed from

office by a process of impeachment for

‘violation of the Constitution’.

2. The Constitution does not define the

meaning of the phrase ‘violation of the

Constitution’

3. The impeachment charges can only be

initiated in Lok Sabha


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

237. With reference to the financial Powers of

the President of India, consider the following

statements:

1. Money bills can be introduced in the

Parliament only with his prior

recommendation

2. He causes to be laid before the

Parliament the annual financial

statement

3. He constitutes a finance commission

after every five years to recommend

the distribution of revenues between

the Centre and the states.

4. He can make advances out of the

consolidated fund of India to meet war

expenditure without parliamentary

approval.


(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4




238. With reference to the None of the Above"

(NOTA) system in India, consider the following

statements:

1. By expressing a preference for NOTA, a

citizen can choose not to vote for any

candidates who are contesting the

elections.

2. If a majority of votes were cast for

NOTA, then the elections will be held

invalid and there will be a need to held

fresh elections within 6 months

3. India is the only country in the world to

have the NOTA option for voters.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

239. In the Context of the Composition of Rajya

Sabha, which of the following statement is

Incorrect?

(a) At present, the Rajya Sabha has 250

members and of these, 238 members

represent the states and 12 members

are nominated by the president.

(b) The representatives of states in the

Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected

members of state legislative assemblies

(c) The election is held in accordance with

the system of proportional

representation by means of the single

transferable vote

(d) The seats are allotted to the states in

the Rajya Sabha on the basis of

population

240. With reference to the Appointment of

District Judge, which of the following


1. The district judge is the highest judicial

authority in the district.

2. A person to be appointed as district

judge should have been an advocate or

a pleader for seven years.

3. He should be recommended by the

Governor of the state for appointment.


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

241. Which of the following statements is

correct about the Central Vigilance Commission

(CVC)?

(a) The CVC is a constitutional body and

acts as a main agency for preventing

corruption in the Central government.

(b) It is a multi-member body consisting of

a Central Vigilance Commissioner

(chairperson) and not more than two

vigilance commissioners.

(c) They hold office for a term of Six years

or until they attain the age of seventy

years, whichever is earlier.

(d) After their tenure, they are eligible for

further employment under the Central

or a state government.




242. With respect to the exceptions to the rule

of equality before law in India, which of the


1. The President or the Governor is not

answerable to any court for the

exercise and performance of the

powers and duties of his office.

2. The foreign sovereigns (rulers),

ambassadors and diplomats enjoy

immunity from criminal and civil

proceedings.

3. The UNO and its agencies enjoy the

diplomatic immunity.

4. No Member of Parliament shall be

liable to any proceedings in any court in

respect of anything said by him in

Parliament.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

243. With reference to the judicial review,


correct?

1. Judicial review is the power of the

judiciary to examine the

constitutionality of legislative

enactments and executive orders of

both the Central and State

governments.

2. The phrase ‘Judicial Review’ has

nowhere been explicitly used in the

Constitution.

3. The power of judicial review is regarded

as a basic feature of the Constitution or

an element of the basic structure of the

Constitution.


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

244. With reference to the Uniform Civil Code,


correct?

1. It is a generic set of governing laws for

every citizen without taking into

consideration the religion.

2. Article 44 of the Constitution states that

there should be a Uniform Civil Code for

the citizens.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

245. With reference to the Doctrine of Eclipse in

the Indian Constitution, consider the following

statements:

1. This doctrine states that any law that

violates fundamental rights is not null

or void ab initio, but is only non-

enforceable, i.e., it is not dead but

inactive.




2. The doctrine of eclipse applies to both

pre-constitutional laws and post-

constitutional laws.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

246. In which of the following case the supreme

court of India had held that the Parliament can

amend any part of the Constitution including

fundamental rights?

(a) Sajjan Singh Case

(b) Kehsvananda Bharti Case

(c) Golakhnath Case

(d) Minerva Mills Case

247. Recently, the Constitution (Scheduled

Tribes) Order (Second Amendment) Bill, 2019

was introduced in Rajya Sabha which seeks to

include the Parivara, Taliwara in the Scheduled

Tribes (ST) category. With reference to this


is/are correct about Parivara and Taliwara

tribe?

(a) Most people from these communities

live in southern districts of Karnataka.

(b) Community is also known by different

synonyms such as Habshi and Badsha.

(c) It is believed that they are of African

origin because they clearly show the

Negroid racial strain in their physical

features.

(d) They are also included in the Centre’s

list of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal

Groups.

248. Recently, the Election Commission has

informed the Government that it is not in

favour of state funding of elections. With

reference to this identify, which of the following

government reports have looked at state

funding of elections in the past?

1. Indrajit Gupta Committee (1998)

2. Law Commission Report on Reform of

the Electoral Laws (1999)

3. National Commission to Review the

Working of the Constitution (2001)

4. Second Administrative Reforms

Commission (2008)


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

249. With reference to the Mineral Laws

(Amendment) Bill, 2020, which of the following


(a) The Bill amends the Mines and

Minerals (Development and

Regulation) Act, 1957 (MMDR Act)

and the Coal Mines (Special

Provisions) Act, 2015 (CMSP Act).

(b) The Bill restricts companies

acquiring Schedule II and Schedule

III coal mines through auctions to

use the coal produced only for




specified end-uses such as power

generation and steel production.

(c) The Bill clarifies that the companies

need to possess prior coal mining

experience in India in order to

participate in the auction of coal

and lignite blocks.

(d) All the above

250. Who among the following was recently

appointed by the government to head a

Delimitation Commission to redraw Lok Sabha

and assembly constituencies of the Union

Territory Jammu and Kashmir and the north

eastern states of Assam, Arunachal Pradesh,

Manipur and Nagaland?

(a) Ranjana Prakash Desai

(b) Rohinton Fali Nariman

(c) Arun Kumar Mishra

(d) Dipak Mishra

251. With reference to the constitutional

provisions regarding rights of an accused to be

defended, which of the following is correct?

(a) Article 22(1) gives the fundamental

right to every person not to be denied

the right to be defended by a legal

practitioner of his or her choice.

(b) Article 14 provides for equality before

the law and equal protection of the

laws within the territory of India.

(c) Article 39A, part of the Directive

Principles of state policy, states that

equal opportunity to secure justice

must not be denied to any citizen by

reason of economic or other disabilities,

and provides for free legal aid.

(d) All the above

252. With reference to the recent verdict of the

Allahabad High Court on ‘name and shame’

hoardings of those arrested during protests

against the Citizenship (Amendment) Act,


1. The action of the State is an

unwarranted interference in privacy of

people and is in violation of Article 21

of the Constitution of India.

2. No power is available in the Code of

Criminal Procedure, 1973 to police or

the Executive to display personal

records of a person to public at large.

3. The placement of personal data of

selected persons “reflects colourable

exercise of powers” by the government.

Which of the above is/are the observations

made by the Court in its verdict?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


Court verdict on the Forcible dispossession of a

person’s property, which of the following


1. The Supreme Court reiterated

that forcible dispossession of a

person of his private property

without due process of law is a

human right violation.

2. The right to property is both a

human right and a

constitutional right — the latter




under Article 300A of the

Constitution.

3. The verdict came on the

acquisition of a few acres in

Sikkim by the State’s

Agriculture department in 1980

for building the Progeny

Orchard Regional Centre.


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

254. With reference to the Major Port

Authorities Bill, 2020, consider the following

statements:

1. The bill will replace the Major Port

Trusts Act, 1963.

2. This will aim to privatize the Major

Ports in India with ownership and

management control to increase

efficiency of operations

3. The bill reorients the governance model

in central ports to landlord port model

in line with the successful global

practice


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

255. With reference to the State Election

Commission, consider the following statements:

1. It is a permanent and an independent body

established by the Constitution of India directly

to ensure free and fair elections to state

legislative assemblies and State Legislative

Councils.

2. The state legislature make provisions with

respect to all matters relating to elections to

the municipalities.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

256. With reference to the Article 142 of the

Indian Constitution, which of the following


(a) It confers powers on the Supreme Court

to declare that all laws that are

inconsistent with or in derogation of

any of the fundamental rights shall be

void.

(b) It empowers High Courts to issue writs

on any matter related to fundamental

rights.

(c) It gives the Governor a general

discretionary power to act against or

without the advice of his Council of

Ministers.

(d) It provides that “the Supreme Court in

the exercise of its jurisdiction may make

such order as is necessary for doing

complete justice in any cause or matter

pending before it




257. Which of the following act means

terminating a sitting of Parliament for an

indefinite period?

(a) Adjournment

(b) Adjournment Sine Die

(c) Prorogation

(d) Dissolution

258. Match the following:

1. 101st

Constitutional

Amendment Act

A.

Reservation

for

Economically

Weaker

Sections

(EWSs)

2. 102nd

Constitutional

Amendment Act

B. Constitutional

status to National

Commission for

Backward Classes

3. 103rd

Constitutional

Amendment Act

C. - Introduced the

GST

4. 104th

Constitutional

Amendment Act

D. provisions

related to

reservation of

seats for

Scheduled Castes

(SCs) and

Scheduled Tribes

(STs).


below:

(a) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D

(b) 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A

(c) 1- C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B

(d) 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D

259. The 9th Schedule of Indian Constitution

contains:

(a) Provisions related to the Allocation of

seats in the Council of States (Rajya

Sabha)

(b) A list of central and state laws which

cannot be challenged in courts.

(c) Provisions as related to disqualification

of on ground of defection

(d) Provisions as to the Administration and

Control of Scheduled Areas and

Scheduled Tribes

260. Consider the following statements:

1. Consent of the Government of India is

required to initiate a legal suit against

United Nations Organizations (UNO) in

India as it is considered as a foreign

state.

2. UNO and its officials enjoy immunity

under the United Nations (Privileges

and Immunities) Act, 1947 and also has

immunity from every form of legal

process except insofar as in any

particular case it has expressly waived

its immunity.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2





the Ethics Committee of the Parliament of India:

1. The provision to establish an Ethics

Committee was incorporated by the

constituent assembly in 1949.

2. It enforces the code of conduct of

members of Parliament and examines

the cases of misconduct and

recommends appropriate action.

3. Both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha has

common Ethics Committee.


(a) 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

262. Recently, President has rejected a petition

demanding disqualification of Delhi MLAs for

allegedly holding office of profit. With reference

to this identify which of the following

statements is/are correct about the office of

Profit?

1. Articles 102(1) and 191 (1) mention

disqualifications on the basis of Office

of Profit in the Parliament and state

legislature respectively.

2. The term is it is neither defined in the

constitution nor under Representation

of People’s Act.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

263. With reference to the Centrally Sponsored

Schemes (CSS), consider the following

statements:

1. CSS are plan transfers to States by the

Union Government, which are

implemented through the State

Governments.

2. CSS is the biggest component of Central

Assistance to state plans (CA).


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

264. Lokpal and Lokayukta Act, 2013

established Lokpal for the Union and Lokayukta

for States to inquire into allegations of

corruption against certain public functionaries.

With reference to this identify the jurisdiction

of Lokpal extends to:

1. Officials of the Union government

under Groups A, B, C and D

2. The chairpersons, members, officers

and directors of any board, corporation,

society, trust or autonomous body

either established by an Act of

Parliament.

3. Minister in the Union government and

Members of Parliament

4. Anyone who is or has been Prime

Minister





below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4


the Law Commission of India:

1. The Law Commission is a non-statutory

body constituted by the GoI, every ten

years.

2. Its major function is to work for legal

reform and works as an advisory body

to the Ministry of Law and Justice.

3. The first Law Commission of

Independent India was constituted in

1955 with Mr. M. C. Setalvad, as its

Chairman.


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3




ANSWERS

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

D A C A A D A C C B

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

D A D D C C A B D C

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

A B C B D A C C A B

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

C B A A D D A B A B

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

D A A B C A D B A C

51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

D B A A D B D A C D

61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70

C A C A C B D B D A

71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80

C D A A B D A B D C

81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90

B D D - A B A D D B

91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100

B D D B D D C B A D

101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110

A C D D C A B B C C

111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120

B A A B D D B C C C

121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130

A B B D D C A C A A

131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140

C D C A D C B B C C

141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150

A C A D A B A B B A

151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160

A B A A D A C A A A

161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170

A B A D C A B A D D




171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180

D D A B B D D C A A

181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190

C D C B C C B D B A

191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200

B A D C C A D A D B

201 202 203 204 205 206 207 208 209 210

A B C D A A D D A A

211 212 213 214 215 216 217 218 219 220

C C A B A A A C A D

221 222 223 224 225 226 227 228 229 230

A C D A A B A A D A

231 232 233 234 235 235 237 238 239 240

C A A C D B C A A A

241 242 243 244 245 246 247 248 249 250

B D D C A A A D A A

251 252 253 254 255 256 257 258 259 260

D D D B B D B D B B

261 262 263 264 265

A C C D B




Documents

B-7, Lower Ground floor, Apsara Arcade Near Karol Bagh