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http://www.huaxun-hk.com/ATPL.txt CAAC ATPL Test Questionnaire ATPL-60 1. what we wither is predicted by the term VCTS in A TAF A. TS are expected in the vicinity B. TS may occur over the station and within 50 km of the station C. Thunderstorms are expected between 5-25 km of the R/Y complex a 2. What conditions are indicated on a weather depiction chart A. Forecast ceiling & visibilities over a geographic area B. actual en route …… C. actual sky cover…… c 3Dew point temperature is: A. the ……dry……wet bulb B. wet and dry bulb C. wet bulb…… b 3. a common symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning is A. impairment of VIS B. tingling hands and arms C. decreased body temperature a 4. what action should be taken when cleared for approach while…… A. descend to min vector alt B. remain at last assigned altitude until establish on published route segment C. descend to initial approach fix altitude b 5. what is the safest and most efficient take off and initial climb procedure in a light twin-engine airplane? Accelerate to A. Vmc, then…… B. An airspeed slightly above Vmc, the lift off and climb at the best rate of climb airspeed C. Best engine-out, rate of climb while the ground b 6. what is corrected altitude approximate true altitude? A. density altitude corrected for temperature variation form standard B. pressure altitude corrected for instrument error C. indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard http://www.huaxun-hk.com/ATPL.txt (1 of 1564)19-Apr-2006 10:38:56 AM

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    CAAC ATPL Test QuestionnaireATPL-60

    1. what we wither is predicted by the term VCTS in A TAFA. TS are expected in the vicinityB. TS may occur over the station and within 50 km of the stationC. Thunderstorms are expected between 5-25 km of the R/Y complexa

    2. What conditions are indicated on a weather depiction chartA. Forecast ceiling & visibilities over a geographic areaB. actual en route C. actual sky coverc

    3 Dew point temperature is:A. the drywet bulbB. wet and dry bulbC. wet bulbb3. a common symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning is A. impairment of VISB. tingling hands and armsC. decreased body temperaturea

    4. what action should be taken when cleared for approach whileA. descend to min vector altB. remain at last assigned altitude until establish on published route segmentC. descend to initial approach fix altitudeb5. what is the safest and most efficient take off and initial climb procedure in a light twin-engine airplane? Accelerate toA. Vmc, thenB. An airspeed slightly above Vmc, the lift off and climb at the best rate of climb airspeedC. Best engine-out, rate of climb while the groundb6. what is corrected altitude approximate true altitude?A. density altitude corrected for temperature variation form standardB. pressure altitude corrected for instrument errorC. indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard

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    c

    7. 9600A 9600B a

    8. a mismatch between the real world and the mental model is termedA. an illusionB. an hallucinationC. a dreama

    9. 121A 90 3B 100 3C 120 3a

    11 A B C b12 A 18B 20C 21 c

    1310800M A impossible to determine without information on possible inversion layers at lower altitudeB lower than C higher than c

    14. what procedure is recommended for an engine-out approach and landingA. the altitude and should be considerably higher than normal throughout the approachB. a except to not extend the landing gear or flaps until over the runway thresholdC. the flight path and procedures should be almost identical to a normal approach and landingc

    15. by changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control

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    the airplaneA. lift, gross weight and dragB. lift, airspeed and dragC. lift and airspeed but on dragb16. leading-edge flaps A decrease rate of sink B increase profile dragC prevent flow separationc

    17. downdrafts and precipitation18. which type storms are most likely to found clouds or tormals cold front or squall line thunderstorms19. 204TKM2122Wind strength in upper air riffle are stormy and serious turbulence will occur23.generator voltageA. is controlled by the voltage regulatorB. is controlled by the PRM of the engineC. is controlled by number of magnetic poles(a)24.in relation to accelerate stop distance certification rules allow a period of time for engine failure recognition and pilot reaction, how long is this periodA. V1 plus 2 secondB. 2 secondC. Vef until V1 plus 2 Sc

    25. an ATC instructionA. is a directive issued by ATC for the purpose of requiring a pilot to take a specific action providing the safety of the aircraft in not jeoparalizedB. is the same as an ATC clearanceC. must be read back in full to the controller and confirmed before becoming effectivea

    26. how does aroused affect performanceA. affected in overload but not underloadB. affected in underload but not overloadC. both affected(c)

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    27. the surface air temperature of a running will depend on all of the followingA. airfield elevation, runway length and slope, airfield latitude and windB. airfield elevation and latitude time of the year, time of day, runway surface prevailing wind and cloud coverC. airfield elevation runway length, prevailing wind and the time of day(b)28.the dew point temperature is higher when A. air is very warm and dryB. air is very cold and moistC. air is very moist(c)30What altitude is a pilot authorized to fly when cleared for an ZLS approachA. must maintain the last assigned altitude established on a published route or segment of the approach with published altitudesB. ma descend from the assigned altitude only when established on the final approach courseC. may begin a descend to the procedure turn altitude (a) 31 provisional or modified route are displayed as A, a solid white line B, a dashed white line C, a dashed magenta line B

    32.when making a landing over darkened or featureless terrain such as water or snow, a pilot be aware of the possibility of illusion the approach may appear to be tooA. shallowB. highC. lowb34.when must the pilot initiate a missed approach procedure from an ILS approachA. when the time has expired after reaching the DH and the runway environment is not clearly visibleB. at the DH, if the visual for the intended runway are not destinaty visible or anytime thereafter that visual reference is lostC. at the DH when the runway is not clearly visible(b)

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    35. when thrust reversers are not available ASDA must be increase byA. a distance equal to half of the clearwayB. 10%C. 200 metersb36. assuring that all ILS components are operating and the required visual reference are not acquired the missed approach should be initiated uponA. expiration of the time listed on the approach chart for missed approachB. arrival at the DH on the glide slopeC. arrival at the visual descent pointb37.which statement is correct regarding holding pattern and procedure turns that are displayed on the EHSI screenA. active holding patterns and procedure turn are shown in magenta inactive in blue and modified in whiteB. active holding patterns and procedure turn are displayed in white in magenta and modified in blueC. active holding patterns and procedure turn are turn in blue inactive in magenta and modified in whitea

    38 where is the normal location of the jet stream relative to surface lows and front?A. the jetstream is located over the low and crosses both the warm front and the cold frontB. the jet stream is located north of the surface systemC. the jetstream is located south of the low and warm frontb39.summer thunderstorm in the arctic region will generally moveA. southwest to northeast with the jetstream flowB. directly north to south with the low level polar airflowC. northeast to southwest in polar easterliesc

    40.dew pointA. the temperature to which dry air must be cooled in order to just reach saturationB. the temperature at which a parcel at air reach super satruature point, irrespective of pressureC. the temperature to which saturated air must be cooled to produce condensationa

    41APROB4PROB abilityHHhh group in an IAF indicates the

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    probability ofa. precipitation or low visibilityb. Ts or high windc. Ts or other precipitationc

    42. when simultaneous ILS approach are in progress which of the following should approach control be advised of immediatelyA. if radar monitoring be desired to confirm lateral separationB. any inoperative of malfunction aircraft receivers C. if a simultaneous ILS approach is desiredb43. with increase altitude at a constant IAS, TEM and thrust respectivelyA. decrease and decreaseB. increase and decreaseC. decrease and increasea

    44.121A 2B 1C 45 3 NO. 1 NAV. Would center the CDI and change the to A. 16SB. 17SC. 34S46. 11 A. an ILS critical area holding position signB. a runway boundary signC. an ILS critical area boundary sign c

    47. engine bleed air is supplied to the air gap above the fuel in the tanks primarily toA. warm the fuelB. ensure an adequate supply of fuel pressure is maintained to the APUC. prevent cavitationc

    48. which type clouds maybe associated with the jetstreamA. cirrus clouds on the equatorial side of the jet streamB. cumulonimbus cloud line where the jetstream crosses the cold frontC. ciro stratus cloud bland on the polar side and under the jet streamc

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    49. a rheostat is a. a temperature indicatorb. a remote automatic manual switchc. a temperature control device B

    50.when the forecast weather condition for destination and alternate airport are considered marginal for a domestic air carriers operation, what specific action should the dispatcher or pilot in command takeA. list at least are additional alternate airportB. list an airport where the forecast weather is not marginal as the alternateC. add additional hour of fuel based on cruise power settings for the airplane is useA51.CAT can occur in widely different circumstances, but there are some features which generally hold true, which of the following is generally trueA. if CAT is encountered a 1000 altitude change is likely to be sufficient to leave the CAT areaB. there will be probably be a jet stream in the vicinity if CAT is encounteredC. CAT occurs more frequently over weather than land(b)52. TMPO53Which of the following statements correctly describes the effect resulting from exposure over many years to aircraft engine noiseA. some loss of heaving may occur but total recovery will eventually take placeB. a permanent loss heaving may occurC. some loss of heaving may occur but it will last for only a few minutes after each exposureb

    55. when does min temperature normally occur during a 24 hours periodA. about 1 hour before sunriseB. at midnightC. after sunriseC56.the purpose of diluting ethylene glycol deicing fluid with weather in non-precipitation conditions is toA. increase the mn freezing point conset of crystallization

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    B. decrease the freeze point C. raise the eutectic pointB58. what is the propose of the term hold for release when included in an IFR clearanceA. when an IFR clearance is received by telephone the pilot will have time to precpave for take off prior to being releaseB. a procedure for delaying departure for traffic volume weather or need to issue further instructionsC. gate hold procedure are in effect and the pilot receives an estimate of the time the flight will be releasedB59. what is max allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimension of 148*125.2 inch es? Condition: floor load limit: 209 pound/sqft, pallet weight:197 pounds, tiedown device: 66poundsA. 25, 984.9 poundB. 25, 987.9C. 25, 721.9c

    60 ..how often must a crewmember actually operate the airplane emergency equipment after initial trainingA. 6 calendar monthsB. 12C. 24b

    ATPL 01

    1. Which is a definition of the term "crewmember"?A.Only a pilot, flight engineer, or flight navigator assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight time. B.A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time. C.Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight engineer. B X 2.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of

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    115,000 pounds? A.500 feet. B.800 feet. C.2,700 feet. B X 3.. What terms could a ATC furnishes pilots' braking action reports using?A. "good", "fair", "poor" and "nil" or a combination of these terms. B. the percentage of the proximate braking action. C. only use "good", "fair", "poor" and "nil" with no combination of these terms. A X 4.What is load factor?A.Lift multiplied by the total weight. B.Lift subtracted from the total weight. C.Lift divided by the total weight. C X 5. (Refer to Figure 2-11) What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a daytime takeoff in runway 9?A.1,000 feet B.1,500 feet C.2,000 feet A X 6.Which of the following is considered an auxiliary flight control?A. Ruddervator B. Upper rudder C. Leading-edge flaps C X 7.. A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced two-way radio communications failure. When should that pilot begin descent for the instrument approach?A. At the EFC time, if this is within plus or minus 3 minutes of the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. B. At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. C. At the EFC time as amended by ATC. C X 8.What facilities may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during a Category I ILS approach?A.ASR and PAR. B.The middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums. C.Compass locator, PAR, and ASR. B X 9.. What characterizes a ground-based inversion?

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    A. Convection currents at the surface. B. Cold temperatures. C. Poor visibility. C X 10.Which of the following are considered primary flight controls?A.Tabs. B.Flaps. C.Outboard ailerons. C X 11.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu, which weather system we would encounter A. A cold front and a upper jet B. A worm front and a upper jet C. Mountain waves and severe turbulence A X 12.. With regard to flight crewmembers duties, which of the following operations are considered to be in the "critical phases of flight"?A. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters MSL, including cruise flight. B. descent, approach, landing, and taxi operations, irrespective of altitudes MSL. C. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters, excluding cruise flight. C X 13.Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a Category I ILS approach?A.VOR/DME FIX B.Surveillance radar C.Compass locator C X 14. A Category II ILS pilot authorization, when originally issued, is normally limited toA.Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH. B.pilots who have completed an FAA-approved Category II training program. C.Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH. A X 15.Which of the following would most likely lead to carbon monoxide contamination of the cockpit atmosphere?A.excessive use of carburetor heat B.fly low in a very thick smoke haze C.a leak in the engine exhaust system C X

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    16.What are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit?A.Lowest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability B.Highest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability. C.Lowest stall speed, lowest cruise speed, and highest stability. A X 17.Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) include landing and holding short:A.Of an intersecting taxiway only. B.Of some designated point on the runway. C.Only of an intersecting runway or taxiway. B X 18.. Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft isA. Developing lift. B. Operating at high airspeeds. C. Using high power settings. A X 19. .The propose of the speed adjustment issued by ATC to the radar-controlled aircraft are?A. to achieve the desired separation. B. to maintain enough separation; C. both a and b C X 20.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 6,000-foot dry runway with reversers inoperative at 120,000 pounds gross weight? A.3,500 feet. B.2,750 feet. C.2,150 feet. A X 21.What is the primary function of the leading edge flaps in landing configuration during the flare before touchdown?A.prevent flow separation. B.decrease rate of sink. C.increase profile drag. A X 22.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Determine the VHF NAV frequency for the YV 14D after takeoff from Rwy 36R at CAPITAL onA.113.6KHz. B.113.6MHz. C.114.7MHz. B X

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    23.. [Refer to Figure 4-30.] What is the maximum charted indicated airspeed while maintaining a 3o glide slope at a weight of 110,000 pounds? A.136 knots. B.132 knots. C.139 knots. A X 24.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The true direction of Rwy 35 at PUDONG isA.342o. B.347o. C.352o. A X 25.. [Refer to Figures 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the total fuel required at .78 Mach? A.22,140 pounds. B.22,556 pounds. C.22,972 pounds. B X 26.Hypoxia is always accompanied byA. dizziness B.a degradation in the performance of a pilot C.vomiting B X 27.Within what frequency range dies the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate?A.108.10 to 118.10 MHZ B.108.10 to 111.95 MHZ C.108.10 to 117.95 MHZ. B X 28.. Which altitude is appropriate for the ceiling of Class C airspace?A.FL 6,000m. B.FL 6,300m. C.FL 6,600m. A X 29.As a general rule, supplement oxygen should be provided and used by the pilot in the day if the flight is aboveA.15000 feet B.10000 feet C.8000 feet B X 30.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 30,000,

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    WEIGHT (*1000): 92.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10A.732 pounds. B.1,023 pounds. C.1,440 pounds. A X 31.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, 4-23 and 4-24.] What is the maneuvering speed for Operating Conditions L-5? A.124 knots. B.137 knots. C.130 knots. C X 32.For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system.A.A minimum of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data must be erased to get a valid test B.A total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased C.A total of no more than 1 hour of recorded data may be erased B X 33.If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked by ice, what airspeed indication can be expected?A.No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight if large power changes are made B.Decrease of indicated airspeed during a climb C.Constant indicated airspeed during a descent A X 34.. Minimum specific fuel consumption of the turboprop engine is normally available in which altitude range? A.10,000 feet to 25,000 feet. B.25,000 feet to the tropopause. C.The tropopause to 45,000 feet B X 35..What type turbulence should be reported when it momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude, one-third to two-thirds of the time?A. occasional light chop. B. Moderate chop. C. Intermittent light turbulence. A X 36.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reduce fuel load to 18,000 pounds? Initial weight: 162,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 120,500 lbA.10 minutes. B.9 minutes.

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    C.8 minutes. A X 37.. (Refer to Figure 3) In the AIRMET information, the expected changes in intensity of the icing is.A. Intensify B. Weaken C. No change B X 38.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 140,000 pounds, with gear up, flaps 25o, and an airspeed of 172 knots? A.13,700 pounds. B.18,600 pounds. C.22,000 pounds. B X 39.. Which altitude is appropriate for the floor of Class A airspace?A.FL 6,000m. B.FL 6,300m. C.The first holding pattern altitude. B X 40.. You can't enter tower controlled airspace under IFR weather conditions unless you have filed an IFR flight plan andA.slowed down to the final approach IAS. B.received an ATC clearance. C.climbed to the appropriate altitude. B X 41.. Which term describes the hydroplaning, which occurs when an airplane's tire is effectively held off a smooth runway surface by steam generated by friction? A.Reverted rubber hydroplaning. B.Dynamic hydroplaning. C.Viscous hydroplaning. A X 42. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "D" correspond?A.4 B.15 C.17 C X 43.. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 420 nautical miles, pilot should fill in the CRUISING SPEED block withA.420N. B.N420.

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    C.N0420. C X 44.. The property change of the airmass is chiefly due to.A.the change of sun radiation B.the property change of the underlying cushion C.the movement of the weather system B X 45.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip time for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75A.5 hours 15 minutes. B.5 hours 40 minutes. C.5 hours 55 minutes. B X 46.An air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane, in any calendar month, for no more than A.80hours B.90 hours C.100hours B X 47.What will be the ratio between airspeed and lift if the angle of attack and other factors remain constant and airspeed is doubled? lift will beA.The same. B.Two times greater. C.Four times greater. C X 48. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "E "or respond?A.5 B.5 C.15 B X 49. When the pilot in command is responsible for a deviation during an emergency, the pilot should submit a written report A. within 10 days after the deviation. B. after returning home. C. after the flight is completed. C X 50.. A plane, MH 240, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD WESTT OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

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    A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only A X 51.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7,200-foot dry runway with spoilers inoperative at 118,000 pounds gross weight? A.4,200 feet. B.4,500 feet. C.4,750 feet. B X 52.An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-top conditions. What radio navigation equipment is required to be a dual installation?A.VOR B.VOR and ILS C.VOR and DME A X 53. When an ATC controller assigns a too low speed for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance, what should the pilot do?A. reduce speed to the assigned speed. B. reduce speed to the minimum speed at that circumstance. C. advise ATC of the speed that will be used. C X 54. During a supplemental air carrier flight, who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions?A.Aircraft dispatcher. B.Pilot in command. C.Director of operations or flight follower. B X 55.. When can a pilot expect landing priority?A. on a first-come, first serve basis, because the Air Traffic Control towers handle all aircraft regardless of the type of flight plan. B. during emergency C. both a and b C X 56. A turbojet-powered flag air carrier airplane is released to an airport which has no available alternate. What is the required fuel reserve?A. 2 hours at normal cruise speed in a no wind condition fuel consumption. B. 2 hours at normal cruise fuel consumption.

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    C. 30 minutes, plus 10 percent of the total flight time. B X 57.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] How much longer is the wet runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes, spoilers and reversers at 130,000 pounds gross weight? A.1,000 feet. B.500 feet. C.300 feet. A X 58. The minimum amount (planned) of fuel to be aboard a flag carrier turbojet airplane on a flight within the contiguous China , after reaching the most distant alternate airport, should be A. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. enough fuel to return to the destination airport or to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption, whichever is less. A X 59.Which would most likely result in hyperventilation?A.A stressful situation causing anxiety. B.The excessive consumption of alcohol. C.An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen. A X 60.. The flight crew learn that there is a stationary front over their destination airport. Therefore, they can conceive the present weather at the destination as.A.cumulus, shower, thunderstorm , good visibility B.stratus, light rain, poor visibility cause by low clouds or fog C.cirrus, radiation fogs or strong turbulence. B X 61.Describe dynamic longitudinal stabilityA.Motion about the longitudinal. B.Motion about the lateral axis. C.Motion about the vertical axis. B X 62.If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is not available when setting up for GPS approach , the pilot should A. Continue to the MAP and hold until the satellites are recaptured . B. Proceed as to cleared to the IAF and hold until satellite reception is satisfactory , C. Select another type of navigation aid. C X 63.. Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine is a measure of

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    A.turbine inlet temperature. B.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. C.propeller thrust only. B X 64.. The abbreviated plain language " WS WRNG " expressing A. Wind shear warning B. Aerodrome warning C. Hazardous weather warning A X 65.. The cruising speed of an aircraft is 800 kilometers, what should be entered in the CRUISING SPEED section of the flight plan?A.850. B.K0850. C.0850K. B X 66.. If an aircraft is operating within Class B airspace at an indicated airspeed greater than 250 knots, the elevation of the highest mountain from left 25 kilometers to right 25 kilometers along the route is 2,650 meters, the minimum safe altitude isA.3,250m. B.3,050m. C.2,950m. A X 67.. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine? A.The computed takeoff distance to reach V1 must not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway length. B.The initial climb cannot be over thickly-populated areas. C.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. B X 68. A domestic air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1815Z. The latest time it may depart without a specific authorization from an aircraft dispatcher isA.1945Z. B.1915Z. C.1845Z. B X 69.Why do some airplanes equipped with inboard/outboard ailerons use the outboards for slow flight only?A.-Increased surface area provides greater controllability with flap

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    extension. B.-Aerodynamic loads on the outboard ailerons tend to twist the wingtips at high speeds. C.-Locking out the outboard ailerons in high-speed flight provides variable flight control feel. B X 70. The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the A. pilot in command. B. air carrier's chief pilot. C. certificate holder. C X 71. If a flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1845Z, and experiences a delay, what is the latest time it may depart for the next airport without a redispatch release?A.1945Z. B.2015Z. C.0045Z. C X 72.A pilot who was worried about the condition of the left engine in a twin-engine airplane experienced an engine failure on take -off and feathered the left engine, only to find that it was the right A.(To be continuedengine which failed. This pilot has been a victim of)expectancy producing a false hypothesis B.expectancy producing a mental block C.a motor program producing a false hypothesis A X 73.What characteristic should exist if an airplane is loaded to the rear of its CG range?A.Sluggish in aileron control. B.Sluggish in rudder control C.Unstable about the lateral axis C X 74.. What effective runway length is required for a turbojet-powered airplane at the destination airport if the runways are forecast to be wet or slippery at the ETA? A.70 percent of the actual runway available, from a height of 50 feet over the threshold. B.115 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway. C.115 percent of the runway length required for a wet runway. B X 75. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) While being turning from D34.0 HUR to D16.0 PEK for the VOR/DME Rwy 36R, Beijing Approach control tells

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    pilot to contact the Tower, what frequency should be tuned?A.118.1KHz. B.118.5KHz. C.118.1MHz. C X 76.What is the purpose of a control tab?A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. B.Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. C.Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. A X 77.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ,ALTITUDE: 30,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 92.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10A.221 knots and 1.83 EPR. B.210 knots and 1.69 EPR. C.217 knots and 1.81 EPR. B X 78.What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight?A.Look only at far away, dim lights. B.Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing. C.Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds. B X 79.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What is the change of total drag for a 140,000-pound airplane when configuration is changed from flaps 30o, gear down, to flaps 0o, gear up, at a constant airspeed of 160 knots? A.13,500 pounds. B.13,300 pounds. C.15,300 pounds. A X 80.What is movement of the center pressure when the wingtips of a swept wing airplane are stalled first?A.inward and aft B.inward and forward C.outward and forward B X 81.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 35,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 100,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 30A.221 knots and 1.83 EPR.

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    B.223 knots and 2.01 EPR. C.217 knots and 1.95 EPR. C X 82.. [Refer to Figure 4-39.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below? WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 80,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: ON,WING ANTI-ICE: OFF,ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA,AIR CONDITIONING: OFFA.24,600 feet. B.23,400 feet. C.20,000 feet. A X 83.Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings?A.-Decrease lift at relative slow speeds. B.-Improve aileron control during low angles of attack. C.-Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing. C X 84.. In flight, pilots find forane clouds consisting of cloud bar and cloud band with flat floor and piled clouds on the top of some clouds. The descriptive cloud should be.A. cumulus congestus B. cumulostratus C. towering clouds C X 85.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 35 at PUDONG?A.10 feet. B.8 feet. C.12 feet. A X 86.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to return to its original after the controls have been neutralized.A.Positive dynamic stability. B.Positive static stability. C.Neutral dynamic stability. B X 87.The component of blood which is most directly involved in the transport of oxygen throughout the body isA.the red blood cells B.the plasma C.hemoglobin C X 88.. If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC, what action should be taken?

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    A. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight. B. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top. C. Fly direct to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance. C X 89.. Where does a restricted airspace be set up?A.Over open sea. B.Over domestic only. C.Over domestic and open sea. B X 90.If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single ADF navigation receiver and the ADF equipment fails, the flight must be able to A.Proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR aids and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane system. B.Continue to the destination airport by means of dead reckoning navigation C.Proceed to a suitable airport using VOR aids complete an instrument approach and land. A X 91. A passenger briefing by a crewmember shall be given, instructing passengers on the necessity of using oxygen in the event of cabin depressurization, prior to flight conducted aboveA. FL200 B. FL240 C. FL250 C X 92.. (Refer to Figure 6) At point A, the wind direction, wind speed and temperatures is A. West wind at 60 KT, temperatures is -48 B. Northwest wind at 60 KT, temperatures is 48 C. West wind at 24 KT, temperatures is -48 A X 93.. In northern hemisphere, if fly from high pressure area to low pressure area at 6000 meters, the wind on the course is _____.A.right crosswind B.tailwind C. left crosswind C X 94.. What condition is necessary for the formation of structural icing in flight?A. flying in any clouds.

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    B. Flying in rain. C. the temperature of the aircraft surface is 0oC or colder and supercooled water drops. C X 95.. If the airplane flies through a high pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes.A. from headwind to tailwind. B. from left crosswind to right crosswind. C. from right crosswind to left crosswind C X 96.While flying IFR in controlled airspace, if one of the two VOR receivers fails, which course of action should the pilot-in-command follow?A. No call is required if one of the two VOR receivers is operating properly. B. Advise ATC immediately. C. Notify the dispatcher via company frequency. B X 97.What performance should a pilot of a light, twin-engine airplane be able to maintain at Vmc ?A.Heading. B.Heading and altitude. C.Heading, altitude, and ability to climb 50 ft/min. A X 98."Authority gradient" is an important factor that can have an effect on communication in a multi-crew environment. In a flight crew, an apt arranging isA.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are higher much more than the other members of the flight crew. B.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are equal to the other members of the flight crew. C.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status is higher than the other members of the flight crew in some short. C X 99. If a flight crewmember completes a required annual flight check in December 1987 and the required annual recurrent flight check in January 1989, the latter check is considered to have been taken inA.November 1988. B.December 1988. C.January 1989. B X 100. An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate, in an approved flight simulator,

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    isA.required to have at least a current third-class medical certificate. B.not required to have a medical certificate. C.required to have a first-class medical certificate. B X

    1. (Refer to Figure 1-2) The PIC of PTL 55 has 75 hours and 30 landings as PIC in the B-747, while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 759 hours and 312 landings, as PIC, in the B-777 while operating under Part 121.A.( What are the minimums for the ILS RWY 02 approach at ZUCK, for the PIC?)_DH95mVIS1600 B.DH65mRVR600 C.DH65mRVR550 B X 2.An aircraft dispatcher shall receive at least 24 consecutive hours of rest duringA.every 7 consecutive days B.any 7 consecutive days or the equivalent thereof within any calendar month C.each calendar week B X 3. Which document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area? A.Operations Specifications. B.Operating Certificate. C.Dispatch Release. A X 4.. (According to figure 4) at Shanghai, which description is correct A. The visibility is 800 meters, the sea level pressure is 996 hPa, B. The visibility is 8 kilometers, the QNH is 999.6 hPa, C. The visibility is 8 kilometers, the sea level pressure is 999.6 hPa, C X 5. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop aircraft departing an airport?A. 200 knots B. 170 knots

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    C. 150 knots C X 6. When an ATC controller assigns a too low speed for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance, what should the pilot do?A. reduce speed to the assigned speed. B. reduce speed to the minimum speed at that circumstance. C. advise ATC of the speed that will be used. C X 7..In the AIRMET 6 of the Figure 3, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described.A. Lines of thunderstorms, fog and rain B. Nimbostratus, obscured thunderstorms C. Low ceiling cloud and moderate icing C X 8.. What effect would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A.As air density decreases, thrust increases. B.As temperature increases, thrust increases. C.As temperature increases, thrust decreases. C X 9.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) At the bottom of this enroute chart excerpt, ZHENGZHOU ACC's information is enclosed in a rectangle, what is the meaning of the asterisk symbol preceding 122.20?A.It means frequency 122.20 is very important. B.It means VHF communication is available on a part-time basis. C.It means 122.20 MHz is the major communication frequency. B X 10. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "A" respond?A.1 B.8 C.11 A X 11.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,900 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A.Use of three reversers at 131,000 pounds gross weight. B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. C.Use of three reversers at 133,000 pounds gross weight. C X 12. (1-1) The PIC of PIL 10 has 87.5 hours and 26 landings as PIC in the B-767, while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 1,876 hours

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    and 298 landings, as PIC in the L-1011 under Part 121.A.(What are the minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport for the PIC?)__MDH150m,VIS2400m. B.MDH120m,VIS1600m. C.MDH100m,VIS1600m. B X 13.. Which condition will for the formation of radiation fog? A. Moist, stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind B. A clear sky, little or no wind, and high relative humidity. C. Moist air moves over colder ground or water. B X 14.(1-1) Determine the CCAR Part 121 landing minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport.PIC time 94 hours. A.(Airplane Vso maximum certificated weight 105 knots,VREF approach speed 140 knots )__MDH150m,VIS2400m. B.MDH120m,VIS1600m. C.MDH100m,VIS1600m. A X 15.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 140 knots, what was the appropriate rate of descent?A.632 feet per minute. B.843 feet per minute. C.737 feet per minute. C X 16.If the ambient temperature is warmer than standard at FL350, what is the density altitude compared to pressure altitude?A.Lower than pressure altitude. B.Higher than pressure altitude. C.Impossible to determine without information on possible inversion layers at lower altitudes. B X 17.The blind spot isA.the area of the lens which is screened by the iris. B.at the junction of the optic nerve and the retina C.an area on the cornea which does not respond to light. B X 18. Group II aircraft are A.Propeller driven aircraft B.Turbojet aircraft C.3/4 engine aircraft B X

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    19.Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) include landing and holding short:A.Of an intersecting taxiway only. B.Of some designated point on the runway. C.Only of an intersecting runway or taxiway. B X 20.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) For an aircraft of Category D with 4 turbo-powered engines, what is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG with HIRL and CL operating?A.RVR 300m. B.RVR 400m. C.RVR 250m. C X 21..(according to figure 2), the forcasting visibility at ZSSS is____ A. 5000 m between 00Z-05Z, and 3000 m at other time B. 5000 m between 00Z-09Z C. 5000 m between 00Z-05Z, 5000 m above at other time A X 22.Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed by using vortex generators.A.Directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. B.Directing a suction over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. C. Making the wing surface rough and/or directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots. C X 23. A commercial pilot has a type rating in a B-727 and B-737. A flight test is completed in a B-747 for the Airline Transport Pilot Certificate. What pilot privileges may be exercised regarding these airplanes?A.Commercial - B-737; ATP - B-727 and B-747. B.ATP - B-747; Commercial - B-727 and B-737. C.ATP - B-747, B-727, and B-737. C X 24.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group?A.Inner marker. B.Middle compass locator. C.Outer compass locator. C X 25.Why do some airplanes equipped with inboard/outboard ailerons use the outboards for slow flight only?

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    A.-Increased surface area provides greater controllability with flap extension. B.-Aerodynamic loads on the outboard ailerons tend to twist the wingtips at high speeds. C.-Locking out the outboard ailerons in high-speed flight provides variable flight control feel. B X 26.. (Refer to Figure 1) According to the aeronautical weather report on figure 1, the QNH for ZUUU is A.998 hPa B.1099.8 hPa C.999.8 hPa A X 27.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What is the change of total drag for a 140,000-pound airplane when configuration is changed from flaps 25o, gear down, to flaps 0o, gear up, at a constant airspeed of 165 knots? A.9,500 pounds. B.10,400 pounds. C.11,300 pounds. B X 28.. When takeoff or landing at the airport on the edge of thunderstorm region, which of the following descriptive weather should be watchouted particularly?A. visibility and low clouds B. windshear at low altitude C. hail and rainstorm B X 29.The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase theA.-L/Dmax. B.-Lift at low speeds. C.-Drag and reduce airspeed. B X 30.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ,ALTITUDE: 30,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 92.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10A.221 knots and 1.83 EPR. B.210 knots and 1.69 EPR. C.217 knots and 1.81 EPR. B X 31.Which is a purpose of the leading-edge flaps?A.Increase the camber of the wing. B.Reduce lift without increasing airspeed.

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    C.Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. A X 32.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 30,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 92.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10A.732 pounds. B.1,023 pounds. C.1,440 pounds. A X 33.What is the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body?A.Alcohol has an adverse effect, especially as altitude increases. B.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decision-making abilities. C.Alcohol has little effect if followed by equal quantities of black coffee. A X 34..Turbulence encountered above 15,000 feet AGL, not associated with cloud formations, should be reported as A. convective turbulence. B. High altitude turbulence. C. Clear air turbulence. C X 35.By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane'sA.lift, gross weight, and drag. B.lift, airspeed, and drag. C.lift and airspeed, but not drag. B X 36. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "E" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?A.1,500 feet B.2,000 feet C.2,500 feet B X 37.If the ambient temperature is colder than standard at FL310, what is the relationship between true altitude and pressure altitude?A.They are both the same 31,000feet. B.True altitude is lower than 31,000feet. C.Pressure altitude is lower than true altitude. B X 38.. Where will the highest temperature in a turbojet engine occur? A.Turbine inlet.

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    B.Compressor discharge. C.Fuel spray nozzles. A X 39. (Refer to Figure 2-10) This is an example of A.An ILS Critical Area Holding Position Sign B.A runway Boundary Sign C.An ILS Critical Area Boundary Sign C X 40.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is 1,496 feet MSL, what is the height above the airport of this obstruction then?A.1,398 feet. B.1,026 feet. C.1,381 feet. C X 41.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1,500 feet short of the end of a 4,950-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.119,000 pounds. B.136,000 pounds. C.139,000 pounds. C X 42.What is the purpose of Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL)?A.Identification of a runway surrounded by a preponderance of other lighting. B.Identification of the touchdown zone to prevent landing short. C.Establish visual descent guidance information during an approach. A X 43. A pilot in command must complete a proficiency check or simulator training within the preceding A.6 calendar months. B.12 calendar months. C.24 calendar months. A X 44.. What is the resulting performance loss when one engine on a twin-engine airplane fails? A.Reduction of cruise airspeed by 50 percent. B.Reduction of climb by 50 percent or more. C.Reduction of all performance by 50 percent. B X 45.Which of the following is the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flightA.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything

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    else. B.Adhere to standard operating procedures. C.Meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA, fuel burn, etCas far as possible. A X 46. A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings. A flight test is completed for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727. What pilot privileges may be exercised?A.ATP - B-727 and DC-3; Commercial - DC-9. B.ATP - B-727 only; Commercial - DC-9 and DC 3. C.ATP - B-727, DC-3, and DC-9. C X 47.What can a pilot expect if the pitot system ram air input and drain hole are blocked by ice?A.The airspeed indicator may act as an altimeter. B.The airspeed indicator will show a decrease with an increase in altitude C.No airspeed indicator change will occur during climbs or descents A X 48.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) What are the landing minimums for B737 with ALS out?A.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1,600m. B.MDA 470 feet and VIS 1,500m. C.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1,500m. C X 49.. Where does a prohibited airspace be set up?A.Over domestic only. B.Over open sea. C.Over domestic or open sea. A X 50.The maximum flight time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period isA.8 hours B.10 hours C.12 hours A X 51. If an engine's rotation is stopped in flight, the pilot in command must report it, as soon as practicable, to the A. ATC and dispatcher. B. nearest CAAC district office. C. operations manager (or director of operations). A X 52.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How many feet will remain after landing

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    on a 7,200-foot dry runway with spoilers inoperative at 118,000 pounds gross weight? A.4,200 feet. B.4,500 feet. C.4,750 feet. B X 53.. If the airplane flies through a high pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes.A. from headwind to tailwind. B. from left crosswind to right crosswind. C. from right crosswind to left crosswind C X 54. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "C" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9?A.1,000 feet B.1,500 feet C.1,800 feet. A X 55.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a wet runway? A.Brakes and spoilers at 120,500 pounds gross weight. B.Brakes and reversers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 135,000 pounds gross weight. C X 56.. The heat of the stratophere air is chiefly from .A.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C.the absorption of ground radiation by the air. B X 57.Heavy coffee or tea, can stimulate the central nervous system and produce an increase in alertness and activity, produce anxiety and A.(To be continueddrastic mood swings at one time.. The statement is)right B.wrong A X 58.. [Refer to Figures 4-22 and 4-24.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-2? A.2.115 EPR. B.2.10 EPR. C.2.06 EPR. C X

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    59.. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 40 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst ofA. 40 knots B. 80 knots C. 90 knots B X 60.What type navigation system is inertial Navigation System (INS)? A navigation computer which provides positionA.From information by compass, airspeed, and an input of wind and variation data. B.From radar-type sensors that measure ground speed and drift angles. C.By signals fro, self-contained gyros and accelerometers. C X 61.. Which term describes the hydroplaning, which occurs when an airplane's tire is effectively held off a smooth runway surface by steam generated by friction? A.Reverted rubber hydroplaning. B.Dynamic hydroplaning. C.Viscous hydroplaning. A X 62.Which of the following is considered an auxiliary flight control?A. Ruddervator B. Upper rudder C. Leading-edge flaps C X 63..Which types of weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMETA. Strong wind, volcanic ash B. Fog, embedded thunderstorms with hail C. Severe mountain wave, isolated cumulonimbus C X 64.Hypoxia is always accompanied byA. dizziness B.a degradation in the performance of a pilot C.vomiting B X 65.. To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet airplane during takeoff, the pilot shouldA. Lift off at a point well past the jet airplane's flight path. B. Climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplane's flight path. C. Remain below the flight path of the jet airplane. B X 66.When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top

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    on "victor airways," which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate?A.VOR B.ADF C.VOR and DME A X 67.. Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend toA. Sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence. B. Rise from the surface to traffic pattern altitude. C. Accumulate and remain for a period of time at the point where the takeoff roll began. A X 68.. The symbol for the speed at which the critical engine is assumed to fail during takeoff is A.V2. B.V1. C.VEF. C X 69.. If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC, what action should be taken?A. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight. B. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top. C. Fly direct to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance. C X 70.If no corrective action is taken by the pilot as angle of bank is increased, how is the vertical component of lift and sink rate affected?A.Lift increases and the sink rate increases B.Lift decreases and the sink rate decreases C.Lift decreases and the sink rate increases C X 71.What is the primary function of the leading edge flaps in landing configuration during the flare before touchdown?A.prevent flow separation. B.decrease rate of sink. C.increase profile drag. A X 72.. Which flight plan requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight?A.An alternate airport is required. B.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the

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    destination airport is desired to be at least 4,800m. C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. A X 73.. With regard to flight crewmembers duties, which of the following operations are considered to be in the "critical phases of flight"?A. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters MSL, including cruise flight. B. descent, approach, landing, and taxi operations, irrespective of altitudes MSL. C. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters, excluding cruise flight. C X 74. (Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft to be flying outbound on the magnetic bearing of 235 FROM the station ?(wind050 at 20 knots)A.2 B.3 C.4 B X 75.Which of the following would be suitable treatment for a person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning?A.administer oxygen B.have them re-breathe their exhaled breath from a bag placed over the nose and mouth C.give plenty of water A X 76.. (Refer to Figure 6-3, 6-4) What distance is available for takeoff on Rwy 17 at PUDONG?A.12,093 feet. B.12,097 feet. C.13,123 feet. C X 77..Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear?A.the temperature differential between the cold and warm layers must be at least 10. B.a calm or light wind near the surface and a relatively strong wind just above the inversion. C.a wind direction difference of at least 30 between the wind near the surface and the wind just above the inversion. B X 78.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the approximate landing weight

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    for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 77,000,DISTANCE (NM): 70,WIND COMPONENT: 25TW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15A.74,000 pounds. B.74,180 pounds. C.73,400 pounds. A X 79.What is the reason for variations in geometric pitch along a propeller or rotor blade?A.It permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight. B.It prevents the portion of the blade near the hub or root from stalling during cruising flight. C.It permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruising flight. A X 80. If a flight crewmember completes a required annual flight check in December 1987 and the required annual recurrent flight check in January 1989, the latter check is considered to have been taken inA.November 1988. B.December 1988. C.January 1989. B X 81.. Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff? A.Higher-than-recommended airspeed before rotation. B.Lower-than-standard air density. C.Increased headwind component. C X 82..(according to figure 2), at ZBAA, the max predicting wind speed is___.A. 17 m/s B. 8 m/s C. 6 m/s A X 83.Which of the following organs mediates the sense of balance?A.Eustachian tube B.the cochlea C.the semicircular canals C X 84.. Which condition has the effect of reducing critical engine failure speed? A.Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid. B.Low gross weight. C.High density altitude.

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    A X 85.. The bottom of the Class B airspace is appropriate toA.FL 6,300m. B.FL 6,000m. C.FL 600m. C X 86.Identify runway remaining lighting on centerline lighting systemsA.Amber lights from 3000 feet to 1,000 feet, then alternate red and white lights to the end B.Alternate red and white lights from 3,000 feet to 1,000 feet, then red lights to the end C.Alternate red and white lights from3,000 feet to the end of the runway B X 87. An air carrier uses an airplane that is certified for operation with a flightcrew of two pilots and one flight engineer. In case the flight engineer becomes incapacitatedA.at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties. B.one crewmember must be qualified to perform the duties of the flight engineer. C.one pilot must be qualified and have a flight engineer certificate to perform the flight engineer duties. A X 88.. What taxi action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport?A. continue taxiing in the landing direction. B. exit the runway at the any suitable taxiway, or make a 180 degrees turn on the runway if overshot a expect taxiway. C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay. C X 89. What are the line check requirements for the pilot in command for a domestic air carrier?A.The line check is required every 12 calendar months in one of the types of airplanes to be flown. B.The line check is required only when the pilot is scheduled to fly into special areas and airports. C.The line check is required every 12 months in each type aircraft in which the pilot may fly. A X 90.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What is the change of total drag for a 140,000-pound airplane when configuration is changed from flaps 30o, gear down, to flaps 0o, gear up, at a constant airspeed of 160 knots?

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    A.13,500 pounds. B.13,300 pounds. C.15,300 pounds. A X 91.. How many days ago does a Class 1 NOTAM must be disseminated before it becomes effective?A.7 days ago. B.15 days ago. C.28 days ago. A X 92.. (According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Shanghai (ZSSS) A. Potential visibility is 3200 meters B. Visibility is 10 kilometers or the above C. Visibility is 5 kilometers or the above; B X 93.. [Refer to Figure 4-28 and 4-29.] What approach speed and landing distance will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds with 15o of flaps? A.123 knots and 3,050 feet. B.138 knots and 3,050 feet. C.153 knots and 2,050 feet. B X 94.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Kunming to Chengdu, which weather system we would encounter A. A worm front and mountain waves B. A cold front and moderate icing C. A stationary front and a upper jet C X 95.The symptoms of hyperventilation areA.quite different to those of hypoxia B.quite similar to those of hypoxia C.profuse sweating B X 96.. If the earliest takeoff time is 0800z, the first SNOWTAM must be sent out prior toA.0600z. B.0630z. C.0700z. B X 97.Sudden penetration of fog can create the illusion of A.pitching up. B.pitching down.

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    C.leveling off. A X 98. For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an island airport for which an alternate airport is not available, a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to flyA. at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. back to the departure airport. A X 99..What is the lowest cloud in the stationary group associated with a mountain wave?A. rotor cloud. B. Standing lenticular. C. Low stratus. B X 100. . (Refer to Figure 6-2) How can the FAF on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L of CAPITAL be identified?A.16.5KM from ILG. B.16.5NM from ILG. C.16.5SM from ILG. B X

    1. What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category II authorization?A.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown manually to the Category I DH. B.Within the previous 12 calendar months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I or Category II DH. C.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. C X 2.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) If the en route altitude of an aircraft is FL118, what is the altitude when the aircraft operates to DAWANGZHUANG along 007oA.FL118. B.FL128. C.FL138. A X 3.. An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch and flight

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    release for all international operation air carrier flights longer thanA.7 hours. B.8 hours. C.6 hours. C X 4.. When flying over the nimbostratus clouds, the pilot finds that there are uptowering clouds on the thick layer. Top of the towering clouds extends to 9000 meters high and are blown to one side by the strong wind like horse's mane.A.(to be continued Based on this situation, he predicts that there must be__in the sheet clouds.) cumulonimbus clouds B. altocumulus clouds C. false cirrus clouds A X 5.A good team member will not agree with a plan of action just to "keep the peace" if he/she is feeling uneasy about it. The statement isA.right B.wrong A X 6. For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an island airport for which an alternate airport is not available, a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to flyA. at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. back to the departure airport. A X 7.An air carrier that elects to use an inertial Navigational System (INS) must meet which equipment requirement prior to takeoff on a proposed flight?A.The INS system must consist of two operative INS units. B.Only one INS is required to be operative, if a Doppler Radar is substituted for other INS. C.A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS. B X 8.. Which altitude is appropriate for the floor of Class A airspace?A.FL 6,000m. B.FL 6,300m. C.The first holding pattern altitude. B X 9.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view

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    section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart isA.1,496 feet. B.900 feet. C.1,244 feet. A X 10.The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into six elements, using the acronym DECIDE. The first D isA.Detect the fact that a change has occurred B.Do the necessary action to adapt to the change C.Do what we must to do in the situation A X 11.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 140 knots, what was the appropriate rate of descent?A.632 feet per minute. B.843 feet per minute. C.737 feet per minute. C X 12.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters?A. Turbojet aircraft, a speed not less than 230 knots. Piton engine and turboprop aircraft, a speed not less than 150 knots. B. a speed not less than 210 knots; except 20 miles from threshold, not less than 170 knots. Piston and turboprop aircraft. not less than 200 knots; except 20 flying miles from threshold, not less than 150 knots. C. Not less than 250 knots B X 13.An air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane, in any calendar year, for no more than A.800hours B.900 hours C.1000hours C X 14.. [Refer to Figures 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the total fuel required at .78 Mach? A.22,140 pounds. B.22,556 pounds. C.22,972 pounds. B X 15. Which documents are required to be carried aboard each flag air carrier flight?

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    A.Dispatch release, flight plan, and weight and balance release. B.Load manifest, flight plan, and flight release. C.Dispatch release, load manifest, and flight plan. C X 16.. Which reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment?A. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. B. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, and a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots. C. Vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots, and leaving any assigned holding fix or point. C X 17.. Series A NOTAMs is mainly released to A.domestic airport flight information office. B.foreign international NOTAMs office. C.domestic area flight information center. B X 18.Identify REIL.A.Amber lights for the first 2,000 feet of runway. B.Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of runway. C.Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold. C X 19.. The leading edge of an advancing cold air mass is .A. warm front. B. stationary front. C. cold front. C X 20. Which document includes descriptions of the required crewmember functions to be performed in the event of an emergency?A. Airplane Flight Manual. B. Certificate holder's manual. C. Pilot's Emergency Procedures Handbook. B X 21.. For scheduled airline, pilots should fill in the box of TYPE OF FLIGHT with letterA.G.

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    B.S. C.R. B X 22.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters?A. 210 knots B. 200 knots C. 170 knots B X 23.. To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet airplane during takeoff, the pilot shouldA. Lift off at a point well past the jet airplane's flight path. B. Climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplane's flight path. C. Remain below the flight path of the jet airplane. B X 24.Empty Field Myopia is the tendency of the ciliary muscle to relax when there are no close objects in the field of view. A.(To be continuedThis causes the eye to take up a focal length of approximately)one to two meters. B.five meters. C.infinity. A X 25.For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system.A.A minimum of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data must be erased to get a valid test B.A total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased C.A total of no more than 1 hour of recorded data may be erased B X 26. Which is one of the requirements that must be met by a required pilot flight crewmember in re-establishing recency of experience?A.At least one landing must be made with a simulated failure of the most critical engine. B.At least one ILS approach to the lowest ILS minimums authorized for the certificate holder and a landing from that approach. C.At least three landings must be made to a complete stop. B X 27.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 850,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 65TW,A.97.2 minutes. B.99.8 minutes.

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    C.103.7 minutes. C X 28.. Which of following might not normally need be reported without ATC request?A. expected holding speed B. vacating a previously assigned altitude for a newly assigned one. C. when unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute. A X 29.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The magnetic direction of Rwy 17 at PUDONG isA.162o. B.172o. C.167o. C X 30.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 121 PSI? A.90 knots. B.96 knots. C.110 knots. B X 31..In the AIRMET 6 of the Figure 3, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described.A. Lines of thunderstorms, fog and rain B. Nimbostratus, obscured thunderstorms C. Low ceiling cloud and moderate icing C X 32.The illusion of being in a noseup attitude which may occur during a rapid acceleration take off is known asA.inversion illusion. B.autokinesis. C.somatogravic illusion. C X 33. If an ATC controller assigns a speed, which is too fast for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance, what should the pilot do?A. increase speed to the assigned speed. B. increase speed to the maximum speed at that circumstance. C. advise ATC of the speed that will be used and expect the controller issue new speed. C X 34.. [Refer to Figures 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the total fuel required at .80 Mach?

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    A.22,836 pounds. B.22,420 pounds. C.22,556 pounds. B X 35.The maximum number of hours a pilot may fly in 7 consecutive days without any rest isA.35 hours B.32 hours C.30 hours A X 36.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 6,000-foot dry runway with reversers inoperative at 120,000 pounds gross weight? A.3,500 feet. B.2,750 feet. C.2,150 feet. A X 37.Carbon monoxide is dangerous becauseA.it displace oxygen from the blood's red cells B.it is highly acidic and attacks the lining of the lungs C.it displaces oxygen from the lungs causing suffocation A X 38. During a supplemental air carrier flight, who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions?A.Aircraft dispatcher. B.Pilot in command. C.Director of operations or flight follower. B X 39.Why do some airplanes equipped with inboard/outboard ailerons use the outboards for slow flight only?A.-Increased surface area provides greater controllability with flap extension. B.-Aerodynamic loads on the outboard ailerons tend to twist the wingtips at high speeds. C.-Locking out the outboard ailerons in high-speed flight provides variable flight control feel. B X 40.. (Refer to Figure 5) What meaning is expressed on the area arrow K pointed A. The area arrow K pointed is a center of low pressure B. For past three hours, the air pressure have reduced 1.7hPa. C. For past three hours, the air pressure have reduced 17hPa. B X

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    41. (1-1) The PIC of PIL 10 has 87.5 hours and 26 landings as PIC in the B-767, while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 1,876 hours and 298 landings, as PIC in the L-1011 under Part 121.A.(What are the minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport for the PIC?)__MDH150m,VIS2400m. B.MDH120m,VIS1600m. C.MDH100m,VIS1600m. B X 42.. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 9,000 meters, pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A.M9000. B.S9000. C.M0900. C X 43.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 140,000 pounds, with gear up, flaps 25o, and an airspeed of 172 knots? A.13,700 pounds. B.18,600 pounds. C.22,000 pounds. B X 44.What functions are provided by ILS?A. Azimuth, distance, and vertical angle. B. Azimuth, range, and vertical angle. C. Guidance, range, and visual information. C X 45.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) If the pilot has identified PEK on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R straight-in land at CAPITAL, what height above the touchdown zone does a Category C aircraft descend to in IMC? A.372 feet. B.470 feet. C.525 feet. A X 46. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "E "or respond?A.5 B.5 C.15 B X 47.. What effect does landing at high elevation airports have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature, wind, and airplane weight? A.Higher than at low elevation.

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    B.Lower than at low elevation. C.The same as at low elevation. A X 48.What type service should normally be expected from an En Route Flight Advisory Service?A. Weather advisories pertinent to the type of flight, intended route of flight, and altitude B. Severe weather information ,changes in flight plans, and receipt of position reports. C. Radar vectors for traffic separation, route weather advisories, and altimeter settings. A X 49.. The ATS unit must ensure that pilots are kept informed of any change in the status of airport facilities_______________.A. at their destinations B. at their alternate aerodromes C. A and B C X 50. When a pilot plans a flight using NDB NAVAIDS. Which rule applies?A.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed. by means of VOR NAVIDS, to a suitable airport and land. B.The pilot must be able to return to the departure airport using other navigation radios. C.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of VOR NAVAIDS, to a suitable airport and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system. C X 51.By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane'sA.lift, gross weight, and drag. B.lift, airspeed, and drag. C.lift and airspeed, but not drag. B X 52.. How can the stability of the atmosphere be determined?A. Ambient temperature lapse rate. B. Atmospheric pressure at various levels. C. Surface temperature/dewpoint spread. A X 53.The maximum number of consecutive hours of duty that an aircraft dispatcher may be scheduled isA.12hours B.10hours C.8hours

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    B X 54.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) The initial point of VYK 2A is atA.D25 to PEK VOR/DME. B.DAWANGZHUANG. C.The point cleared by ATC. B X 55.. If the first portion of the flight is under VFR and the latter portion is under IFR, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letterA.Y. B.I. C.Z. A X 56.(Refer to Figure 1) What weather condition is reported at Guangzhou (ZGGG) A. Heavy thunderstorm with shower of rain and towering cumulus clouds B. Heavy thunderstorm with rain and cumulonimbus clouds C. Bad visibility and strong wind B X 57.Which of the following is not the tip for good SA management during the flightA.Resolve discrepancies- contradictory data or personal conflicts. B.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. C.Monitor and evaluate current status relative to our plan. B X 58.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group?A.Inner marker. B.Middle compass locator. C.Outer compass locator. C X 59.. If a B-747(400) airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums, what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport?A.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine inoperative. B.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine operating. C.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. C X 60.. What effect would a change in air density have on gas-turbine-

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    engine performance? A.As air density decreases, thrust increases. B.As air density increases, thrust increases. C.As air density increases, thrust decreases. B X 61.. When proceeding to the alternate airport, which minimums apply?A.The alternate minimums calculated from the IAP chart. B.The actual minimums shown on the IAP chart. C.visibility 1,600m and ceiling 120m. B X 62.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Kunming to Chengdu, which significant weather phenomenon may be encounterd A. Severe turbulence, moderate icing, rain shower, thunderstorms B. Moderate turbulence, severe icing, freezing precipitation, severe clear air turbulence C. Moderate turbulence, moderate icing, rain, severe clear air turbulence C X 63.Which direction from the primary control surface dose an elevator adjustable trim tab move when the control surface is moved?A.Same direction. B.Opposite direction. C.Remains fixed for all positions. C X 64.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a wet runway? A.Brakes and spoilers at 120,500 pounds gross weight. B.Brakes and reversers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 135,000 pounds gross weight. C X 65. Who is responsible, by regulation, for briefing a domestic or flag air carrier pilot in command on all available weather information?A.Company meteorologist. B.Aircraft dispatcher. C.Director of operations. B X 66.Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory is expected to notify ATC andA.Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATS has radar contact B.Request a new ATC clearance

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    C.Expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory , after the conflict is resolved C X 67.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 600,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 40HWA.9,926 pounds. B.9,680 pounds. C.9,504 pounds. C X 68.. What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large airplane that has just taken off?A. The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex. B. A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices. C. The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex. A X 69.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-4? A.1,490 pounds, 118 NAM. B.1,400 pounds, 110 NAM. C.1,430 pounds, 113 NAM. C X 70. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "A" respond?A.1 B.8 C.11 A X 71.Scanning procedures for effective collision avoidance should constituteA.looking outside for 15 seconds, then inside for 5 seconds, then repeat. B.1 minute inside scanning, then 1 minute outside scanning, then repeat. C.looking outside every 30 seconds except in radar contact when outside scanning is unnecessary. A X 72.. If severe turbulence is encountered, which procedure is recommended? A.Maintain a constant altitude. B.Maintain a constant attitude.

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    C.Maintain constant airspeed and altitude. B X 73. A domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on the ground, at an intermediate airport. How long before a redispatch release is required?A.Not more than 1 hour. B.Not more than 2 hours. C.More than 6 hours. A X 74. (Refer to Figure 2-3) What is the lateral displacement in degrees from the desired radial on the NO.2 NAV?A.1? B.-2? C.-4? C X 75.Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed by using vortex generators.A.Directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. B.Directing a suction over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. C. Making the wing surface rough and/or directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots. C X 76.. How should thrust reversers be applied to reduce landing distance for trubojet aircraft? A.Immediately after ground contact. B.Immediately prior to touchdown. C.After applying maximum wheel braking. A X 77.Which of the following is the right description about feedback in the communication process?A.Feedback is the check on how successful we have been in transferring our message as ordinary intended. B.We can use feedback to put the message back into the system as a check against misunderstanding. C.A and B C X 78.. It should be reported without ATC request thatA. When unable to climb at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute. B. When unable to descend at a rate of at least 1000 feet per minute. C. When unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 600 feet per minute.

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    A X 79.. What effect will an increase in altitude have upon the available equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine? A.Lower air density and engine mass flow will cause a decrease in power. B.Higher propeller efficiency will cause an increase in usable power (ESHP) and thrust. C.Power will remain the same but propeller efficiency will decrease. A X 80.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,000 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A.Use of three reversers at 113,000 pounds gross weight. B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 105,000 pounds gross weight. C.Use of three reversers at 115,000 pounds gross weight. A X 81.If an aircraft level turns at an angle of bank of 30 degree , the load factor is A.1Gs. B.2Gs. C.1.4Gs C X 82.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 750,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 30HWA.11,227 pounds. B.11,503 pounds. C.11,754 pounds. A X 83.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach at CAPITAL?A.308KHz. B.114.7MHz. C.240KHz. B X 84..Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in airspeed?A. Increase tailwind wind and decreasing headwind. B. Headwind or tailwind increase C. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind. C X 85.If a pilot suspects that he/she is suffering the effects of hypoxia, the most appropriate remedy would beA.use supplement oxygen or descend immediately to a low level

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    B.voluntarily increase the depth of breathing to induce more oxygen into the lungs C.voluntarily increase the breathing rate to increase the oxygen uptake A X 86.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What is the change of total drag for a 140,000-pound airplane when configuration is changed from flaps 30o, gear down, to flaps 0o, gear up, at a constant airspeed of 160 knots? A.13,500 pounds. B.13,300 pounds. C.15,300 pounds. A X 87. (Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is southwest of the station and moving closer TO the station?A.1 B.2 C.3 A X 88.. What is the correct symbol for the Minimum Control Speed, Ground? A.VMC. B.VMCG. C.VMCA. B X 89.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG?A.9,000m. B.12,000m. C.3,100m. A X 90..What is a likely location of clear air turbulences?A. in an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream. B. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow. C. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream. A X 91.How can a pilot identify a lighted heliport at night?A.Green yellow and white beacon light B.White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white C.Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white A X 92..Turbulence encountered above 15,000 feet AGL, not associated with cloud formations, should be reported as A. convective turbulence.

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    B. High altitude turbulence. C. Clear air turbulence. C X 93.An air carrier airplane's airborne radar must be in satisfactory operating condition prior to dispatch, if the flight will be A.Conducted under VFR conditions at night with scattered thunderstorms reported en route B.Carrying passengers, but not if it is "all cargo" C.Conducted IFR, and ATC is able to radar vector the flight around areas of weather A X 94. (Refer to Figure 1-2) The PIC of PTL 55 has 75 hours and 30 landings as PIC in the B-747, while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 759 hours and 312 landings, as PIC, in the B-777 while operating under Part 121.A.( What are the minimums for the ILS RWY 02 approach at ZUCK, for the PIC?)_DH95mVIS1600 B.DH65mRVR600 C.DH65mRVR550 B X 95.. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 25,600 feet, pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan withA.F256. B.F0256. C.M256. A X 96.. What effect, if any, does high ambient temperature have upon the thrust output of a turbine engine? A.Thrust will be reduced due to the decrease in air density. B.Thrust will remain the same, but turbine temperature will be higher. C.Thrust will be higher because more heat energy is extracted from the hotter air. A X 97.An authoritative leader A.tends to make final decisions in an emergency, but seldom in other situations B.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources C.may ultimately decide the team's actions, but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience, knowledge, and preferences. B X 98. The training required by flight crewmembers who have not

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    qualified and served in the same capacity on another airplane of the same group (e.g., turbojet powered) is A.upgrade training. B.transition training. C.initial training. C X 99.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) What is the identifier of TANGHEKOU NDB?A.YV. B.WF. C.DK. A X 100.. [Refer to Figures 4-28 and 4-29.] What approach speed and ground roll will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds if flaps are not used? A.138 knots and 3,900 feet. B.153 knots and 2,900 feet. C.183 knots and 2,900 feet. C X

    1.(1-1) At a waypoint , PTL 130 is notified that the Chongqing Airport is closed. PTL 130 is told to proceed to Chengdu Inti Airport.PTL 130 is operating under CCAR Part 121. The PIC on PTL 130 has less than 100 hours as PIC in the B-727. A.(To be continuedWhat are PICs minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach)__MDH150m,VIS2400m. B.MDH120m,VIS1600m. C.MDH100m,VIS1600m. B X 2.If the authority gradient is too steep, A.the first officer may be unlikely to contribute anything to the decision making processeven when he is sure that the captain has made a mistake! B.The first officer respects the captain's command status but feels free to contribute. C.the first officer may be likely to contribute anything to the decision makin