ATCO Reviewer

Air TrafficControl

Test Preparation

ATC_2008b:Layout 1 11/24/08 1:14 PM Page i

ATC_2008b:Layout 1 11/24/08 1:14 PM Page ii

Air TrafficControlTestPreparation

N E W Y O R K

®

ATC_2008b:Layout 1 11/24/08 1:14 PM Page iii

Copyright © 2009 LearningExpress, LLC

All rights reserved under International and Pan-American copyright conventions.

Published in the United States by LearningExpress, LLC, New York.

Library of Congress Control Number: 2008941611

A copy of this title is on file with the Library of Congress.

Printed in the United States of America

9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1

First Edition

ISBN: 978-1-57685-665-9

Regarding the Information in This Book

We attempt to verify the information presented in our books prior to publication. It is always a good idea,

however, to double-check such important information as qualifications, pre-employment testing, and

applications procedures with the Federal Aviation Administration, as such information can change from time

to time.

For more information or to place an order, contact LearningExpress at:

2 Rector Street

26th Floor

New York, NY 10006

Or visit us at:

www.learnatest.com

ATC_2008b:Layout 1 11/24/08 1:14 PM Page iv

v

List of Contributors vii

How to Use This Book xi

CHAPTER 1 Overview of Air Traffic Control 1

CHAPTER 2 The Air Traffic Control System 17

CHAPTER 3 Weather and Air Traffic Control 37

CHAPTER 4 Charting and Air Traffic Control 59

CHAPTER 5 Analogies 67

Practice Test 1—Analogy Test 75

CHAPTER 6 Angles and Applied Math 93

Practice Test 2—Angles Test 105

Practice Test 3—Applied Math Test 137

CHAPTER 7 Scan and Dial Reading 159

Practice Test 4—Scan Test 169

Practice Test 5—Dial Reading Test 195

CHAPTER 8 Letter Factory and Traffic Scenarios 219

Practice Test 6—Letter Factory Test 229

Practice Test 7—Air Traffic Scenarios Test (ATST) 255

Practice Test 8—Experience Questionnaire 285

Appendix 287

Glossary 305

Contents

ATC_2008b:Layout 1 11/24/08 1:14 PM Page v

ATC_2008b:Layout 1 11/24/08 1:14 PM Page vi

vii

List of Contributors

LindaM.Bracewell is an air traffic control instructor at Minneapolis College, Eden Prairie, Minneapolis, where

she has taught the basics of air traffic control to over 1,200 students, 90 percent of whom gained employment as

FAA en route controllers or are in successful training status. Bracewell previously taught air traffic control at Acad-

emy College in Bloomington,Minnesota, and worked for eight years as an en route controller at Minneapolis En

Route Center in Farmington,Minnesota.Her education includes a bachelor’s degree in psychology from St.Cloud

University, St. Cloud,Minnesota, and amaster’s degree in rehabilitation counseling and psychology from theUni-

versity of Minnesota,Minneapolis,Minnesota. She is currently pursuing a doctorate degree in education with an

emphasis on technology at St. Mary’s University, Minneapolis, Minnesota. She is a member of Women in Avia-

tion International and a private pilot. She resides in Apple Valley, Minnesota.

Greg Michael Thibeault is an assistant professor of air traffic control at Daniel Webster College, Nashua, New

Hampshire, and has over 19 years of experience as an air traffic control specialist (ATCS) for the FAA in Denver,

Colorado. He also serves as an air traffic control consultant for UFA, Inc., an industry leader in air traffic control

simulation and voice recognition and response (VRR). Thibeault is FAA certified as both an air traffic control

instructor and evaluator in a Level 11 TRACON. His education includes an MBA in aviation professionals from

Daniel Webster College, Nashua, New Hampshire, and a bachelor’s degree in business management from Park

University, Parkville, Missouri. Thibeault resides in Fitchburg, Massachusetts.

Mark J.Lewis is a freelance science writer and editor and a former algebra, physics, and biology teacher for Char-

lottesville City Schools in Virginia. Lewis holds a bachelor’s degree in biology and environmental studies from

Gettysburg College, Gettysburg, Pennsylvania, and amaster’s degree in applied ecology and conservative biology

from Frostburg State University, Frostburg,Maryland.He resides in Charlottesville,Virginia, and is a member of

the National Association of Science Writers.

ATC_2008b:Layout 1 11/24/08 1:14 PM Page vii

–CHAPTER TITLE–

viii

Timothy K. Trowbridge is a freelance mathematics writer and a software testing specialist and learning advisor

for MindLeaders, Columbus, Ohio. He holds a bachelor’s degree in mathematics from Hawaii Loa College,

Kaneohe, Hawaii. He resides in Gahanna, Ohio.

Northeast Editing, Inc., a full-service development house in Jenkins Township, Pennsylvania, has been creating

educational content for publishers since 1992. The company’s experienced authors, instructors, editors, and

designers produce print and online test-preparation products for students of all ages. Northeast Editing, Inc. is

a member of the American Book Producers’ Association (ABPA) and the Association of Educational Publishers

(AEP).

–LIST OF CONTRIBUTORS–

ATC_2008b:Layout 1 11/24/08 1:14 PM Page viii

Air TrafficControl

Test Preparation

ATC_2008b:Layout 1 11/24/08 1:14 PM Page ix

ATC_2008b:Layout 1 11/24/08 1:14 PM Page x

xi

Congratulations on deciding to become an air traffic controller! Air traffic control is a challenging,

exciting career with great pay and benefits.Most controllers work for the Federal AviationAdmin-

istration (FAA). To become a controller for the FAA, you must graduate from a college or univer-

sity offering the Air Traffic Collegiate Training Initiative (AT-CTI) program. This program is designed to provide

qualified applicants with the knowledge they need to begin working as air traffic controllers. A number of schools

across the country offer this program.Prior to graduation, youwill be required to take a pre-employment test called

the Air Traffic Selection and Training (AT-SAT). This is an eight-hour, computerized exam that tests your aptitude

to become a successful air traffic controller.Youmust score 70 percent or higher on theAT-SAT to be considered for

employment. This book will give you the knowledge and practice you need to score well on this test.

� Chapter 1—Overview of Air Traff ic Control

In this chapter, you will learn what it is like to be an air traffic controller and the types of air traffic control jobs.

You will learn the qualifications needed to become a controller and the parts of the AT-SAT.

� Chapter 2—The Air Traff ic Control System

The air traffic control system is a vast network of people and equipment working together to ensure the safety of

aircraft. In this chapter, you will learn the essentials of this system, including navigation, airways, and

communication.

How to Use This Book

ATC_2008b:Layout 1 11/24/08 1:14 PM Page xi

–CHAPTER TITLE–

xii

� Chapter 3—Weather and Air Traff ic Control

Weather conditions significantly impact the aviation industry. This chapter teaches you how to access weather

forecasts and how to read weather reports such as the Meteorological Aviation Report (METAR).

� Chapter 4—Chart ing and Air Traff ic Control

Both controllers and pilots use aeronautical charts for navigation.Aeronautical charts illustrate topography, such

as landmarks, and the location of navigational aids for pilots and controllers. In this chapter, you will learn how

airspace, navigation aids, airways, and airports appear on charts.You will learn about common visual flight rules

(VFR) and instrument flight rules (IFR) charts.

� Chapter 5—Analogies

The Analogy Test is a cognitive test on the AT-SAT. On this test, you will answer questions about word and visual

analogies. Each question has three boxes. The first box contains a complete analogy. The second box contains part

of an analogy and a question mark, and the third box contains four answer options. This chapter will teach you

how to determine the relationship expressed in an analogy. Following the chapter is Practice Test 1, in which you

will answer 100 analogy questions.

� Chapter 6—Angles and Appl ied Math

Controllers must be able to perform mathematical calculations, so two of the cognitive tests on the AT-SAT are

about math: the Angles Test and the Applied Math Test. On the Angles Test, you will have to estimate the meas-

urement of angles.On theAppliedMath Test, you will have to calculate distance problems. This chapter will show

you how to do this. Following the chapter are Practice Test 2, which has 100 practice questions for theAngles Test,

and Practice Test 3, which has 100 practice questions for the Applied Math Test.

� Chapter 7—Scan and Dial Reading

Controllers must correctly interpret visual information tomaintain separation between aircraft.On the Scan Test,

you will have to quickly view a computer screen and enter an identification number for each data block containing

a number outside a given range. On the Dial Reading Test, you will have to correctly read the kind of dials you

–HOW TO USE THIS BOOK–

ATC_2008b:Layout 1 11/24/08 1:14 PM Page xii

–CHAPTER TITLE–

xiii

might see on an aircraft’s instrument panel. Following the chapter are Practice Test 4,which has 100 practice ques-

tions for the Scan Test, and Practice Test 5, which has 100 practice questions for the Dial Reading Test.

� Chapter 8—Letter Factory and Air Traff ic Scenarios

The Letter Factory Test and the Air Traffic Scenario Test are cognitive tests on the AT-SAT. On the Letter Factory

Test, you will view four factory assembly lines, each with a conveyor belt and a loading area. You will use a com-

puter mouse to drag the letters that appear on the belt into the appropriate box in the loading area. On the Air

Traffic Scenario Test, you will view data blocks on a computer screen that represent aircraft. You will use a com-

puter mouse to issue commands to maintain separation between aircraft. Following the chapter are Practice Test

6, which has 100 practice questions for the Letter Factory Test, and Practice Test 7, which has 100 practice ques-

tions for the Air Traffic Scenario Test. Also following this chapter is Practice Test 8, an experience questionnaire.

This questionnaire is the only non-cognitive test on the AT-SAT.

–HOW TO USE THIS BOOK–

ATC_2008b:Layout 1 11/24/08 1:14 PM Page xiii

ATC_2008b:Layout 1 11/24/08 1:14 PM Page xiv

1CHAPTER SUMMARYMost air traffic controllers work for the Federal Aviation Administration

(FAA). Controllers must be good at multitasking and able to work in

stressful situations. Most graduate from an Air Traffic College Training

Initiative (AT-CTI) program at an FAA-approved college with a two- or

four-year degree. Candidates in this program must take and pass an

Air Traffic Selection and Training Test (AT-SAT) before graduating.

Overview of AirTraffic Control

C H A P T E R

Years ago, only a few planes flew across America’s skies, so air traffic controllers, people in towers

and on the ground who monitor and control the flow of aircraft into and out of airports, were

unnecessary. Times soon changed, however.Asmore andmore planes transported people and goods

from state to state and from country to country, it became apparent that rules were needed to avoid collisions.

On May 20, 1926, the United States passed the Air Commerce Act, which called upon the aviation indus-

try to improve and maintain safety standards. The act also put the secretary of commerce in charge of creating

and enforcing air traffic rules, licensing pilots, inspecting and certifying aircraft, and creating new navigation aids.

The first rules regarding aviation were extremely simplistic—perhaps even humorous—compared to today’s stan-

dards. One rule asked pilots to look around before taking off to avoid hitting other planes.

As air traffic increased, airport operators realized that they could not rely solely on pilots’ eyes to avoid col-

lisions. Using visual signals, they created an early form of air traffic control (ATC). They hired flagmen,men who

stood on the field waving flags, to communicate with pilots.

When aircraft began using radio communication, radio-equipped ATC towers replaced flagmen. In 1930,

the first radio-equipped control tower in the United States began operating at the Cleveland Municipal Airport.

1

ATC_2008b:Layout 1 11/24/08 1:14 PM Page 1

Soonmanymore airports across the country had built

control towers.

Today, the Federal Aviation Administration

(FAA) employs approximately 14,000 air traffic con-

trollers who are responsible for directing the flow of air

traffic and ensuring that aircraft fly at a safe distance

from one another.

� Nature of the Work

Being an air traffic controller is not easy, and the job is

not for everyone. Controllers are part of an air traffic

control system, a vast network of people and equip-

ment whose purpose is to ensure the safety of aircraft

and passengers. Controllers must work quickly and

efficiently—there is little or no margin for error. They

must concentrate fully on several planes simultane-

ously to ensure that pilots receive the correct instruc-

tions. During arrival and departure “rushes,” the job

can be stressful and exhausting.During nonpeak peri-

ods, however, controllers enjoy a relatively calm work

environment.

Controllers use radar, but they sometimes rely on

their own observations to guide pilots safely to and

from airports. For example, a controller in a control

tower might visually observe air traffic coming into

and going out of an airport.

Controllers work very hard, but they are well paid

and receive excellent benefits. Many control towers

operate 24–7, 365 days a year, so controllers have

opportunities to earn additional compensation. They

typically earn an additional 10 percent of their rate for

working evening shifts and 25 percent of their rate for

working on Sundays. Controllers who work on federal

holidays receive double-time pay, and those who work

overtime receive time-and-a-half.

The FAA employsmost controllers.Most work at

airports, but somework at air route traffic control cen-

ters (ARTCCs), which are located in various places.

Some controllers conduct research at the William J.

Hughes Technical Center (WJHTC) near Atlantic City,

New Jersey.A small number of controllers work for the

Department of Defense (DoD) and private ATC

companies.

–OVERVIEW OF AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL–

2

Fig. 1.1. Archie W. League, shown here in this photographtaken in 1926, is considered the first air traffic controller.League worked in St. Louis, where he worked to keep aircraftfrom colliding. His method was simple: a raised red flagmeant “hold” and a raised checkered flag meant “go.” (Cour-tesy of the FAA)

Fig. 1.2. In this 1936 photograph, controller Bill Darby isshown in a radio-equipped control tower at the ClevelandMunicipal Airport. (Courtesy of the FAA)


� Work Environments

Air traffic controllers work primarily in three different

environments:

1. air traffic control towers (ATCTs)

2. terminal radar approach control facilities

(TRACONs)

3. air route traffic control centers (ARTCCs)

If you have been to an airport, you have proba-

bly seen an air traffic control tower (ATCT), which is

a tall, windowed structure. Controllers working in the

tower have a clear view of all aircraft flying into, out of,

and near the airport. They oversee airspace around air-

ports, usually four nautical miles (NM)wide and up to

but not including 2,500 feet.

A terminal radar approach control facility

(TRACON)may be located within an airport, or it may

be located miles away from the airport. A stand-alone

TRACON facility may guide aircraft from several local

airports. Controllers working in TRACONs use radar

and occasionally non-radar procedures to help aircraft

safely arrive and depart from the airport. TRACON

controllers are required to safely separate aircraft from

each other, terrain, and any adjacent airspace assigned

to another controller or facility. TRACON airspace

varies and is determined by whatmakes themost sense

for a particular area. For example, Boston TRACON

airspace extends from the surface of the ground to

14,000 feet mean sea level (MSL), while Denver TRA-

CON airspace extends from the surface of the ground

to 23,000 feet MSL.

Only 21 air route traffic control centers

(ARTCCs) exist in the United States. These stations

observe air traffic as it travels in the airspace between

airports. ARTCCs are located near major U.S. cities.

� Types of Air Traff icControl lers

You learned earlier that air traffic controllers direct

traffic so that it flows smoothly into, out of, and above

airports. A controller may be one of two types:

1. terminal controller

2. en route center controller

Terminal Controllers

Terminal controllers who work in ATCTs are called

ATCTcontrollers. Those whowork in TRACON facil-

ities are calledTRACONcontrollers.ATCT controllers

separate departures and arrivals at the airport. TRA-

CON controllers separate aircraft when they leave

ATCT airspace, prior to enteringATCT airspace, and in

the remaining TRACON airspace.

3

The United States maintains the National Airspace System (NAS), the most complex aviation system in the

world. This system is an enormous network of people, facilities, and technology. Included in NAS are controllers,

airport personnel, airports, air navigation facilities, and equipment. The goal of NAS is to ensure safe air travel

over the United States and over oceans throughout the world. It is estimated that about 50,000 flights utilize

NAS each day.

The National Airspace System (NAS)


When determining separation, terminal con-

trollers use their own observations, but they also use

information from tools, such as a radar display, a Stan-

dard Terminal Automation Replacement System

(STARS) display, a Tower DisplayWorkstation (TDW),

and a Systems Atlanta Information Display System

(SAIDS). Terminal controllers also receive information

from the NationalWeather Service (NWS), pilots, con-

trollers fromARTCCs, and flight service stations (FSSs).

ATCT controllers may work in these positions:

1. local control (LC)—ATCT controllers spe-

cializing in local control perform the follow-

ing duties:

� issue landing and takeoff clearance� issue landing information (runway, wind,

altimeter, etc.)

� sequence landing traffic� coordinate with other positions of opera-

tion (GC, FD/CD)� issue weather and NOTAM (notice to air-

men) information as necessary� operate runway and approach lights� receive and relay pilot reports (PIREPs)

2. ground control (GC)—ATCT controllers can

specialize in ground control. Ground control

is mainly responsible for separating aircraft

and vehicles on inactive runways and taxi-

ways and in areas classified as “movement

areas.” They also perform these duties:

� control taxiway lighting� issue clearances to departures (Note that

at busier facilities, a separate position

4

Fig. 1.3. Location of ARTCCs in the United States



known as clearance delivery issues IFR

clearances in order to reduce congestion

on the GC frequency.)� coordinate traffic movements affecting

LC� issue weather and NOTAM information

as appropriate� control vehicles on the airport movement

area (other than runways)� direct emergency equipment to necessary

locations� relay runway and taxiway condition

information to airport management

3. flight data (FD)—ATCT controllers special-

izing in flight data (FD) perform these

duties:

� receive and relay departures clearances

to GC� relay weather and NOTAM information

to other positions of operation� forward departure times to the ARTCC� aid control positions (LC and GC) by

relaying information as needed� collect, tabulate, and store daily records

TRACON controllers are responsible for a block

of airspace called a sector. TRACON controllers work

in teams to guide aircraft into and out of an area about

50 miles outside the airport and often up to about

10,000 feet. TRACON controllers can be divided into

two basic types:

1. departure controllers

2. arrival controllers

Departure ControllersTRACON departure controllerswork in a series using

radar tomonitor an aircraft as it ascends through their

sector. Once the aircraft leaves TRACON airspace, a

departure controller passes off responsibility for the

aircraft to a controller in the ARTCC. This is called a

hand-off.

Arrival ControllersArrival controllers monitor aircraft transitioning

from the en route phase to the approach phase. Once

the aircraft is within the airport’s airspace, a local con-

troller in the ATCT takes over, and TRACON con-

trollers no longer monitor the aircraft.

En Route Center Controllers

En route center controllers, often called center con-

trollers, monitor aircraft while they are in their

ARTCC’s airspace.At least two center controllersmon-

itor each aircraft: the radar associate controller and the

radar controller. The radar associate controller

receives flight-plan information before the aircraft

enters the airspace and assists the radar controller,

who is in charge of air-to-ground communication and

aircraft separation. A third controller, called the radar

hand-off controller, will assist the other two when

traffic is heavy. The radar hand-off controller closely

watches the radar screen. These controllers inform

pilots of speed and altitude and give them directions to

maintain safe separation.

� Qual i t ies of an Air Traff icControl ler

According to the FAA, air traffic controllers must be

motivated, decisive, committed, and self-confident.

Theymust be able to remain calmwhile working under

stressful conditions. Controllers must be experts at


5


multitasking, so they can clearly communicate the cor-

rect instructions to several pilots who are navigating

different routes. A controller may be helping a pilot

land a plane, helping another pilot take off, and

informing yet another of a changing weather pattern

monitored on the computer screen. Controllers must

be able to speak clearly and have a good command of

the English language. They are typically individuals

who enjoy the excitement of working in a fast-paced

environment.

� How to Become an Air Traff icControl ler

The steps to becoming an air traffic controller are very

specific. Most individuals the FAA considers hiring as

air traffic controllers have graduated from an approved

Air Traffic College Training Initiative (AT-CTI) pro-

gram with a two- or four-year degree.While complet-

ing the program, these individuals must take and pass

the Air Traffic Selection and Training Test (AT-SAT).

They must also receive a school recommendation and

pass a medical examination, drug screening, and secu-

rity clearance. Once they are selected for employment

as air traffic controllers, theymust attend the FAAAcad-

emy inOklahomaCity for training. Exceptions include

� controllers with former military controlling

experience� former controllers who were disqualified

(i.e., medical disqualification)� members of the general public who have

responded to an FAA advertisement

Qualifications

To become an air traffic controller, you must

� be a U.S. citizen� speak English clearly� complete an interview� have the proper training or experience� achieve a score of at least 70 on the AT-SAT� be hired by your 31st birthday� pass a medical examination� pass a security investigation

AT-CTI Programs

The FAA partners with several colleges to offer two-

and four-year degrees in basic ATC. This partnership,

called theAir Traffic Collegiate Training Initiative (AT-

CTI) program, helps candidates qualify to become air

traffic controllers.Graduates of the program bypass the

first five weeks of qualification training at the FAA

Academy in Oklahoma City. The first five weeks of

training are referred to as the Air Traffic Basics

6

To maintain safe separation, aircraft flying at altitudes below 29,000 feet must be separated by 1,000 feet, and

aircraft flying at altitudes higher than this must be separated by 2,000 feet.

Reduced vertical separation minimum (RVSM) is a procedure that will reduce the vertical space sep-

aration from 2,000 feet to 1,000 feet for aircraft flying at altitudes between 29,000 and 41,000 feet. This reduc-

tion will allow more planes to fly preferred routes. Having routes gives controllers greater flexibility, since this

makes it easier to route aircraft around storms.

Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM)


Course. Candidates who participate in theAT-CTI still

need to meet all other requirements of being an air

traffic controller. Participants in the AT-CTI take the

ATC pre-employment test, the AT-SAT.

Acceptance into an AT-CTI program is compet-

itive, but graduates from large, high-quality schools are

virtually guaranteed a job. The following schools cur-

rently offer AT-CTI programs:

Arizona State University

College of Technology and Innovation

Department of Aeronautical Management

Technology

7442 E. Tillman Ave.

Mesa, AZ 85212

POC: Verne Latham, lecturer

(480) 727-1652 (office)

(480) 727-1021 (department office)

The Community College of Baltimore County

Aviation Department AF-313

800 S. Rolling Rd.

Baltimore, MD 21228

POC: Douglas Williams, aviation program director

(410) 455-4157

Community College of Beaver County

Aviation Sciences Center

125 Cessna Dr.

Beaver Falls, PA 15010-1060

POC: James E. Scott

(724) 847-7000, ext. 209

DanielWebster College

20 University Dr.

Nashua, NH 03063-1300

POC: Peter Wyman, assistant professor (ATC)

(603) 577-6204

Dowling College

Dowling College–Brookhaven Campus

1300William Floyd Pkwy.

Shirley, NY 11967

POC: JohnWensveen, dean

(631) 244-1303

Embry-Riddle Aeronautical University–

Daytona Beach

Embry-Riddle Aeronautical University

600 S. Clyde Morris Blvd.

Daytona Beach, FL 32114-3900

POC: Sid McGuirk, associate professor and program

coordinator

(386) 226-7125

7

Flight service specialists use innovative technology to provide pilots with a range of services including the

interpretation of aeronautical, meteorological, and aviation information and emergency services. Flight service

specialists communicate with pilots who cannot communicate with a control tower. They can advise flying air-

craft when there is no active control tower, but they do not actively manage air traffic. In 2005, the FAA con-

tracted the management of flight service stations (FSSs) to the Lockheed-Martin Corporation, a technology

company.

Flight Service Specialists


Florida Community College–Jacksonville

13450 Lake Fretwell St.

Jacksonville, FL 32221

POC: James B. Renninger, director of the Aviation

Center of Excellence

(904) 317-3801

Green River Community College–Main Campus

12401 SE 320th St.

Auburn,WA 98092-3622

POC: Curtis E. (Curt) Scott, aviation and

ATC instructor

(253) 833-9111, ext. 4335

Hampton University

Department of Aviation

Science & Technology Bldg., Rm. 269

Hampton, VA 23668

POC: Carey Freeman

(757) 727-5418

InterAmerican University of Puerto Rico–

Bayamon Campus

School of Aeronautics

PO Box 9066623

San Juan, PR 00906

POC: Mario Signoret, dean of the School of

Aeronautics

(787) 725-2062

Kent State University

PO Box 5190

Kent, OH 44242

POC: Isaac Richmond Nettey, associate dean of the

College of Technology and senior academic program

director of aeronautics

(330) 672-9476

Lewis University

One University Pkwy., Unit 282

Romeoville, IL 60446-2200

POC: Michael K. Streit, professor and assistant chair

(815) 836-5431

Metropolitan State College of Denver

Department of Aviation and Aerospace Science

Campus Box 30

PO Box 173362

Denver, CO 80217-3362

POC: James L. Simmons, PhD, JD, associate

professor of aviation and aerospace science

(303) 556-4452

Miami Dade College

500 College Terr.

Homestead, FL 33030

POC: Dionne Henry, program coordinator

(305) 237-5952

Middle Georgia College

Aviation Management

1100 Second St. SE

Cochran, GA 31014

POC: John Hunt, assistant professor of air traffic

control

(478) 448-4703

Middle Tennessee State University

1500 Greenland Dr., BAS S211

Murfreesboro, TN 37132

POC: Gail M. Zlotky, associate professor

(615) 898-2290

Minneapolis Community and Technical College

Air Traffic Control Training Program

10100 Flying Cloud Dr.

Eden Prairie, MN 55347

8



POC: Thomas Buzzard, manager

(952) 826-2406

(800) 475-2828

Mount San Antonio College

1100 N. Grand Ave.

Walnut, CA 91789-1399

POC: Robert Rogus, CTI coordinator

(909) 594-5611, ext. 3098

Purdue University

Department of Aviation Technology

Aviation Technology Bldg.

1401 Aviation Dr.

West Lafayette, IN 47907-2015

POC: Michael S. Nolan, professor of aviation

technology

(765) 494-9962

University of Alaska–Anchorage

Division of Aviation Technology

2811 Merrill Field Dr.

Anchorage, AK 99501

POC: Bill Butler

(907) 786-7212

University of North Dakota

3980 Campus Rd., Stop 9007

Grand Forks, ND 58202-9007

POC: Paul Drechsel, assistant professor and

codirector of ATC

(701) 777-4923

University of Oklahoma

1700 Lexington, Rm. 210

Norman, OK 73069

POC: Jim Hamm, director of the AT-CTI training

program

(405) 325-3586

Vaughn College of Aeronautics and Technology

86-01 Twenty-third Ave.

Flushing, NY 11369

POC: Domenic Proscia, associate professor and chair

(718) 429-6600, ext. 139

Formal Aviation Experience in

Place of Education

In some cases, those with significant aviation experi-

ence do not need formal education through anAT-CTI

program. This is often the case for veterans who had

military ATC experience, retired military controllers,

and current civilian air traffic controllers who have

been working in the field before the education require-

ment came into existence.

Controllers whowish to substitute experience for

education must have 52 consecutive weeks of ATC

experience and a working knowledge of the laws, rules,

and regulations applying to ATC.

Veterans with military ATC experience can be

hired through a Veteran’s Recruitment Appointment

(VRA). To be considered for a VRA, veterans must be

discharged from active duty or on terminal leave. They

may be

� disabled veterans� veterans separated from active duty within

three years� veterans who served on active duty in the

armed forces during a war� veterans who have received an armed forces

service medal

Open Advertisements

Occasionally, the FAA may advertise on its Web site

that it is taking applications for air traffic controllers

from the general public. The FAA reviews the applica-

tions it receives and chooses applicants to continue the

employment process.

9



The Air Traffic Selection and

Training Test (AT-SAT)

All applicants from AT-CTI programs and the general

public must take and pass the AT-SAT, a computerized

test consisting of eight sections and lasting about eight

hours. The sections of theAT-SAT are often referred to

as tests. The AT-SAT consists of seven cognitive tests

and one non-cognitive test. The non-cognitive test, the

Experience Questionnaire, is part of the AT-SAT but is

not counted as part of the total score. The following are

the eight sections, or tests, on the AT-SAT:

� Analogies� Angles� Applied Math� Scan� Dial Reading� Letter Factory� Air Traffic Scenarios� Experience Questionnaire

Analogies

The Analogy Test measures your ability to reason well,

an important trait for an air traffic controller.An anal-

ogy is a comparison of two things that are related in

some way. On the test, you will be shown an analogy,

such as hot :: cold. Then youwill be given part of a sec-

ond analogy, such as short :: ___. You will have to

choose the answer option that has the same relation-

ship as the words in the first analogy. In this case, you

would choose the answer option that means the oppo-

site of short—tall. About half the test contains visual

analogies, in which pictures are used instead of words.

You will learn about the Analogy Test in detail in

Chapter 5 of this book.

Angles

The Angles Test assesses your ability to recognize the

measurement of angles. Air traffic controllers need to

be able to do this to perform calculations on angles.

Two types of angle questions are on the AT-SAT. The

first type of question will show you an angle and ask

you to choose the answer option that best estimates its

measurement. The second type of question will give a

measurement and ask you to choose the angle that rep-

resents this measurement.

You will learn about the Angles Test in detail in


Applied Math

The Applied Math Test contains problems in which

youwill have to calculate time, distance, or speed based

on the information given in the problem.All questions

on this test will be about the movement of aircraft.

You will learn about the Applied Math Test in

detail in Chapter 6 of this book.

Scan

For the Scan Test, you will read a range of numbers

such as 102–560 that appear at the bottom of the

screen. Then youwill watch as blocks of data appear on

the screen,move in a straight line for a while, and then

disappear. These numbers will look like fractions:

above the line will be a letter and two numbers, as in

V36.Underneath the line will be a three-digit number,

such as 101. To pass the test, you will have to quickly

identify bottom numbers that fall outside the range

and type the top letter-number combination. You will

have 18 minutes to identify as many out-of-range

numbers as possible.

You will learn about the Scan Test in detail in


Dial Reading

TheDial Reading Test assesses your ability to read dials

quickly and correctly. You will be shown a panel of

seven dials in two rows and asked questions about


10


them. Typical dials might show air speed, altitude, or

fuel-air ratio.

You will learn about the Dial Reading Test in


Letter Factory

The Letter Factory Test simulates four factory assem-

bly lines. The test measures your ability to (1) preplan

andmake decisions, (2) think ahead, and (3)maintain

situational awareness. Letters move down each con-

veyor belt, and youmust place the correctly colored let-

ter in the corresponding colored box at the bottom of

the screen using a computermouse. For example, a yel-

low letter must go into a yellow box. You will be asked

to perform other tasks as well, such as moving empty

boxes from the storage area to the loading area and

calling quality control if defective letters appear.

You will learn about the Letter Factory Test in


Air Traffic Scenarios

The Air Traffic Scenarios Test simulates a radar screen

showing air traffic scenarios and tests your ability to

multitask.On this test, you will be asked to safely guide

aircraft on the screen to their destinations. You will be

scored on how quickly and accurately you do this. The

goal is to effectively move andmaintain space between

the aircraft, which are represented by data blocks. The

test rules are simple, however, and you do not need

knowledge of ATC to pass. The test stops periodically

to ask questions.

You will learn about theAir Traffic Scenarios Test

in detail in Chapter 8 of this book.

Experience Questionnaire

This part of the test simply asks you to respond to a

number of questions. Its goal is to assess your personal

attributes to see if you are well suited to work as an air

traffic controller.As you learned earlier in this section,

the results are not factored into your total AT-SAT

score. The test is similar to a psychological examination

and your results will be kept confidential.

You will be asked to respond to statements about

yourself using the following scale:

A. Definitely True

B. Somewhat True

C. Neither True nor False

D. Somewhat False

E. Definitely False

Sample statements:

1. pay attention to details

2. am friendly and easy to get to know

3. often get irritated and angry

4. forget things

5. leave a mess in my house

A School Recommendation

Before you can be awarded a job as an air traffic con-

troller, you need a school recommendation if you

attended a CTI school. An official school recom-

mendation shows that you have completed all aca-

demic requirements and should be considered for

employment.

Medical Exam

You must pass a medical examination before becom-

ing an air traffic controller.Most controllers must con-

tinue to take a medical exam every year. This medical

exam considers these aspects of a candidate’s physical

condition:

� vision, including color vision� hearing� cardiovascular fitness� neurological standards

11



� psychiatric standards� diabetes risk� substance abuse or dependency� psychological exams� general medical health

Drug Screening

You must also submit to a drug and alcohol screening

before becoming a controller. Most controllers must

continue to participate in drug screenings while they

are employed.

Security Clearance

Because air traffic controllers are responsible for the

lives of pilots and passengers, theymust obtain a secu-

rity clearance before obtaining employment. This

includes a background investigation. This investigation

looks into these issues:

� military discharge� statutory debarment� government loyalty� employment terminations� felony offenses� dishonesty in the application process� drug- or alcohol-related incidents� disregard of financial obligations� offenses involving firearms or explosives

The FAA Academy

After you meet all requirements and pass the AT-SAT,

you are eligible to work as an air traffic controller.Once

you reach this point in the process, your next step is to

attend the FAA Academy in Oklahoma City, Okla-

homa, for a 12- or 15-week training session, depend-

ing on whether you are hired for a terminal or an en

route position.

The session teaches future employees the funda-

mentals of the ATC system, FAA regulations, how to

use controller equipment, aircraft performance char-

acteristics, and specialized tasks. You will have to take

a qualifying test at the FAA Academy called the ATB

(Air Traffic Basic), which consists of questions relating

to ATC.

Graduates of the FAA Academy become devel-

opmental controllers and are assigned to an ATC

facility. Each ATC facility has its own requirements of

its employees, as does each ATC position. New con-

trollers usually take between two to four years to

become certified professional controllers. Controllers

with experience generally take less time to fulfill the

requirements of their position.

� Job Outlook, Salary, andBenef i ts

The U.S. Department of Labor projects the employ-

ment of air traffic controllers to grow by 10 percent

from 2006 to 2016. Most job opportunities are

expected to be the result of the retirement of existing

air traffic controllers, many of whom are expected to

retire over the next decade. Despite the increasing

number of job openings, however, the competition is

To become an air traffic controller, you must be 30 years old or younger. While this may seem unfair, most con-

trollers must retire by age 56. This is a short working career even for a young person. The age requirement helps

limit the pool of candidates to those who want to make air traffic control a career.

Air Traffic Controller Age Limitation

12


still fierce. There may be more applicants for the AT-

CTI programs than there are job openings.

According to the U.S. Department of Labor, in

2006, the average annual salary of an air traffic con-

troller was $117,240. The middle 50 percent earned

between $86,860 and $142,210. The lowest 10 percent

earned less than $59,410, and the highest 10 percent

earned more than $145,600.Where you work and the

position you hold will determine your salary. An ATC

pay system classifies air traffic facilities into eight lev-

els with corresponding pay bands.

Controllers’ salaries are determined by the rating

of their facility. Higher ratings for a facility mean

higher salaries for its controllers.Air traffic controllers

get 13 to 26 days of paid vacation and 13 days of paid

sick time each year. They also receive medical benefits,

health insurance, and 401K retirement plans.

� Advancement

New controllers usually begin with basic tasks such as

gathering flight data and airport information. Hard-

working and talented individuals havemuch room for

advancement in the ATC system.

Fig. 1.4. The Projected Number of Controller Jobs Through 2017 (Courtesy of the FAA)

13


Starting Pay for Air Traffic Controller Recruits

General Public $17,046*

AT-CTI Graduates $17,046*

Veterans Recruitment Appointment $33,100

Retired Military Controllers $33,100

Current or Former Federal

Controllers$33,100

*Represents pay while completing entry-level training at theFAA Academy. The pay increases to $33,100 once employedat an assigned facility and continues to increase as eachrequired developmental training phase is completed. (TheFederal Aviation Administration)



Chapter 1 Review Quiz

1–10: Circle the correct answer.

1. What act required the aviation industry toimprove and maintain safety standards for

aircraft?

a. Federal Aviation Act

b. Air Commerce Act

c. Air Traffic Control Act

d. National Airspace System Act

2. The United States maintains the most complexaviation system in the world, which includes an

enormous network of people, facilities, and tech-

nology, known as the

a. Air Traffic Collegiate Training Initiative (AT-

CTI).

b. William J. Hughes Technical Center

(WJHTC).

c. Federal Aviation Administration (FAA).

d. National Airspace System (NAS).

3. Which of the following represents one of the pri-mary work environments of air traffic

controllers?

a. air traffic control tower (ATCT)

b. air route traffic control center (ARTCC)

c. terminal radar approach control facility

(TRACON)

d. all of the above

4. When a TRACON departure controller passesthe responsibility of monitoring an aircraft to a

controller in an ARTCC, it is known as

a. a hand-off.

b. en route control.

c. a sector.

d. local control.

5. Which of the following is a responsibility of acontroller specializing in local control (LC)?

a. collecting, tabulating, and storing daily

records

b. controlling vehicles on the airport movement

area

c. receiving and relaying pilot reports (PIREPs)

d. forwarding departure times to air route traffic

control centers (ARTCCs)

6. Which part of the Air Traffic Selection andTraining Test (AT-SAT) assesses the personal

attributes of applicants?

a. Scan Test

b. Experience Questionnaire

c. Analogy Test

d. Medical Exam

7. Which part of the Air Traffic Selection andTraining Test (AT-SAT) simulates a radar screen

and tests an applicant’s ability to multitask?

a. Air Traffic Scenarios Test

b. Dial Reading Test

c. Letter Factory Test

d. Experience Questionnaire

8. Air traffic controllers who monitor aircraft in theairspace around an air route traffic control cen-

ter (ARTCC) are called

a. terminal controllers.

b. arrival controllers.

c. en route center controllers.

d. flight service specialists.

14


9. The partnership between the Federal AviationAdministration (FAA) and colleges or universi-

ties that offer two- or four-year air traffic control

(ATC) programs is called the

a. Air Traffic Control Collegiate Training

Initiative (AT-CTI).

b. Air Traffic Selection and Training Test (AT-

SAT).

c. Air Traffic Basics (ATB) Course.

d. Federal Aviation Administration (FAA)

Academy.

10. At what age do most air traffic controllers facemandatory retirement?

a. 31

b. 40

c. 56

d. 65

Check your answers on page 287.

15




You learned in Chapter 1 that controllers are part of an air traffic control (ATC) system, which is a

vast network of people and equipment whose purpose is to ensure the safety of aircraft and pas-

sengers. Airports and airspace are also part of this ATC system, and successful navigation and com-

munication are essential to its operation.

� Navigat ion

In the early days of flying, before navigation technologies were developed, pilots could only fly during the day

and in good weather. These pilots had to rely solely on their vision and constantly adjust their controls to ensure

a straight, safe flight.

Innovations in modern navigation have enabled many more planes to fly safely in the skies, even in low-

visibility conditions. Many navigation systems are available today to assist pilots. Controllers also use these sys-

tems to help pilots safely navigate their way to and from airports.

The Air TrafficControl System

CHAPTER SUMMARYPilots and controllers use modern navigational aids to maintain safe

separation between aircraft and to ensure that aircraft fly safely in and

out of airports. It is essential that pilots and controllers communicate

clearly to prevent misunderstandings that might lead to disaster.

2C H A P T E R

17


Visual Flight Rules (VFR)

The phrase visual flight rules (VFR) refers to the reg-

ulations that tell pilots when they can conduct flights

using visual navigation (as opposed to using instru-

ments to navigate). An aircraft conducting flight

according to these rules is called aVFRaircraft. Recre-

ational pilots often flyVFR aircraft, as do pilots whose

electronic instruments have failed.VFR rules are based

on minimum cloud clearance and visibility require-

ments, since themain visual references forVFR are the

ground and the horizon. When pilots are following

VFR, they must use a combination of two navigation

techniques called “pilotage” and “dead reckoning.”

PilotageIn the early days of aviation, pilots used a visual navi-

gation technique called pilotage. They looked at amap

and then drew a line on themap from departure point

to destination point to chart their course, noting any

major landmarks along the way. If the pilot passed

these landmarks while flying, then he or she was on

course. If the pilot failed to pass these landmarks or

passed landmarks that were not factored into the orig-

inal plan, he or she was off course and possibly lost.

These early maps were very basic and did not

provide pilots with enough information to make

pilotage an effective type of navigation. To remedy this

shortcoming, the U.S. government devised aeronauti-

calmaps called sectional charts.A sectional chart, com-

monly called “a sectional,” was extremely helpful and

is still used bymany pilots today. (See Figure 2.1 for an

example of a sectional chart.) Sectional charts provide

pilots with detailed land and airspace information,

including the locations of the following features:

� cities/populated places (Each map is named

for a major city, but includes surrounding

areas as well.)� roadways

� railroads� airports� topographical features� distinct landmarks� ATC facilities� controlled airspace and restricted areas� checkpoints (used under VFR rules)� obstructions (generally, manmade struc-

tures more than 200 feet above ground level

[AGL] and hazardous obstructions less than

200 feet AGL, such as lookout towers and

antennas)� other visual and radio navigation aids

Each chart is accompanied by a key that explains

the symbols used in the chart, such as the one seen in

Figure 2.2.

Fig 2.1. A Sectional Chart

Dead ReckoningPilots have also used a system called dead reckoning, in

combination with pilotage, to help them find their way

through the skies. Dead reckoning, also known as

–THE AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL SYSTEM–

18


“deduced reckoning,” is a navigation technique requir-

ing the pilot to compute airspeed, course, heading,

wind direction, speed, ground speed, and elapsed time

as a navigational aid.

Using these two techniques together allows the

pilot to determine a proper course and time while

checking the flight’s course against the en route check-

points marked on the pilot’s sectional chart.

Instrument Flight Rules (IFR)

Today, all pilots use electronic instruments that allow

them tofly in otherwise impossible conditions.Pilots fly-

ing in meteorological conditions that warrant instru-

ment flight rules must follow instrument flight rules

(IFR).Aircraft following IFR rules are called IFRaircraft.

Some of themajor instruments used in a cockpit

for navigation are

� artificial horizon (or“attitude indicator”).

This instrument shows pilots the pitch of

the plane (the forward to backward tilt of

the plane, meaning whether the plane’s nose

is up, level, or down) and lets pilots know if

the aircraft is banked (tilted to one side).

Pilots can use the artificial horizon to adjust

the wings up or down, but they should do

so when on the ground.� heading indicator (or“directional gyro”

[DG]). This instrument informs the pilot of

heading, or the direction toward which the

plane is oriented. It is slightly more reliable

than a compass.� turn coordinator. The turn coordinator

indicates the direction and rate of a turn.� altimeter. The altimeter is an instrument

used to measure the altitude of an object

above a fixed level.� airspeed indicator. This instrument lets the

pilot know how fast he or she is flying. It is

most often measured in knots, but is some-

times also measured in MPH.

Airport Lighting

Making the transition from instrument flight to visual

flight is complicated, especially at night and in low-

visibility conditions such as fog and rain. Airports are

equipped with lighting systems to help guide pilots to

Fig. 2.2. An Example of VFR Aeronautical Symbols

Fig. 2.3. In this example of dead reckoning, the navigator plotshis or her 9 A.M. position, indicated by the triangle, and usingcourse and speed, estimates his or her position at 9:30 A.M.and 10:00 A.M.


19


the runway, so they can safely land their aircraft. The

type of lighting system used depends on the opera-

tional requirements of the airport and runway.

Rotating BeaconsMost airports and heliports (small airports used only

by helicopters) have high-intensity lights called rotat-

ing beacons that appear as flashes of light when viewed

from above,which allow pilots to view the airport from

the air. Pilots can also identify what type of airport they

are flying over by the color of the lenses in the rotating

beacons. Rotating beacons in civilian land airports are

always equipped with white and green lenses. They

must flash 24 to 30 times per minute when marking

airports, landmarks, and points on federal airways.

Theymust flash 30 to 45 times perminute whenmark-

ing heliports.

Approach Lighting Systems (ALS)Approach lighting systems (ALS) are a configuration

of signal lights placed along the extended centerline of

a runway that extend from the runway to the point

where pilots most likely make the transition from

instrument to visual flight. Most ALS have a high-

intensity strobe light on each end of a light bar. These

strobe lights, called sequenced flashing lights (SFL),

Types of Approach Lighting Systems (ALS)

ALSF-1 (approach lighting systemwith sequenced flashing lights in ILS CAT1 configuration). an older light-

ing system consisting of a series of high-intensity white lamps placed five feet apart and extending from the run-

way threshold to 2,400–3,000 feet. Light bars are spaced 100 feet apart with a triple set of light bars at a point

1,000 feet from the end of the runway. An ALSF-1 system contains sequenced flashing lights (SFL), which

are strobe lights that flash in sequence. To the pilot, these flashing strobe lights look like a ball that is moving

quickly toward the runway. The system can be set to one of five intensity steps, depending on the visibility.

ALSF-2 (approach lighting system with sequence flashers in ILS CAT2 configuration). a system very sim-

ilar to ALSF-1 but with supplemental lighting that can be switched on in times of very low visibility.

simplified short approach lighting system. a less-expensive alternative to ALSF-1 and ALSF-2 with most of

the same benefits; also known as runway-alignment indicator lights (RAILs).

medium-intensity approach lighting system (MALSR). a system similar to ALSF-2 but only operating with

three steps of intensity; uses medium-intensity white lamps. There are two types: medium-intensity approach

light system with runway alignment lights, and medium-intensity approach lighting system with sequenced

flashing lights.

20

Color Combinations of Rotating Beacons

white and green lighted land airport

only green lighted land airport

white and yellow lighted water airport

only yellow lighted water airport

green, yellow,and white

lighted heliport

white, white,and green

military airport

white, green,and red

hospital and/or emergencyservices heliport


flash in sequence and, when viewed from the sky,

appear like a ball of light moving quickly toward the

runway.

Runway Edge LightingRunway edge lighting, evenly spaced lights that outline

the border of the runway, lights most runways. These

lights are usually white (though some have split lenses

thatmay appear yellow from above) until the last 2,000

feet of the runway, when they turn yellow to caution a

pilot that the end of the runway is near. The lights turn

yellow on instrument runways, runways that have

instrument approaches aligned to them. Red lights

mark the end of the runway. Runway edge lighting can

be low- (LIRL), medium- (MIRL), or high-intensity

runway lighting (HIRL). As a controller, you will be

able to adjust the intensity of MIRLs and HIRLs from

the control tower.

In-Runway LightingMany runways are also equipped with extra lighting in

the center or on each side of the runway to help pilots

land when visibility conditions make it difficult to see

the runway. In-runway lighting is actually embedded

into the runway, so pilots know exactly when and

where they will make contact with the runway. There

are five main types of in-runway lighting:

1. touchdown zone lighting (TDZL)—Touch-

down zone lights mark the end of the run-

way from 100 feet before the landing

threshold to 3,000 feet beyond it (or to the

middle of the runway, depending on which

distance is shorter). They are bright white

lights that run down each side of the run-

way centerline—usually spaced at 75-foot

intervals—to help pilots land.

2. runway centerline lighting system

(RCLS)—These lights are also designed to

help pilots land when conditions are poor.

The system consists of a row of lights along

each side of the runway centerline, spaced at

50-foot intervals. Similar to TDZL, runway

centerline lights are white from the landing

threshold to 3,000 feet beyond it. Then the

white lights begin to alternate with red ones

for 2,000 feet. The lights are all red for the

last 1,000 feet of the runway.

3. taxiway centerline lead-off lights—Taxi-

ways are areas pilots use to get to and from


21

Fig 2.4. A Typical ALS


the runway. Lead-off lights help pilots see as

they leave the runway. They are usually

alternating green and yellow lights that let

pilots know when they are close to the run-

way or are approaching the components of

the instrument landing system/microwave

landing system (the ground-based radio sys-

tem involving the use of radio beams or

microwave beams to help guide pilots in for

landing during the final approach) critical

area.

4. taxiway centerline lead-on lights—These

lights guide pilots onto the runway. They are

also yellow and green to let pilots know that

they are close to the runway or are

approaching the components of the instru-

ment landing system/microwave landing

system critical area. They are actually the

same lights that are used as lead-off lights.

Each light is two-sided (“bidirectional”) and

emits a color in each direction.

5. land and hold short lights—Sometimes

when airports and runways are crowded,

pilots will not be able to taxi to their

intended destination right away.When

pilots must land and wait (“hold short”)

before entering an intersecting runway,

ATCs turn on the land and hold short lights,

which are a row of bright, pulsing, white

lights. Hold short lights, combined with

hold short instructions from a controller, let

the pilot know he or she will have to wait.

� Navigat ion Systems andFaci l i t ies

The Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) owns and

operates many navigation facilities, and it has the

authority to control how other navigation facilities are

established, operated, andmaintained.Non-FAA facil-

ities are owned by private organizations, the military,

state governments, and foreign governments. All nav-

igation facilities—as well as airports, heliports,weather

data sources, and other flying-related information—

are listed in the U.S.Airport/Facility Directory (A/FD).

Though the A/FD was traditionally only available in a

seven-volume book set, you can now find some of the

information online at the FAA Aviation System Stan-

dards (AVN)Web site (www.avn.faa.gov).

When low-visibility factors prevent a pilot from

seeing clearly, the potential for danger always exists.

Electronic navigation methods have been created to

help pilots find their way through unfriendly skies.

Four-Course Radio Range

The four-course radio range, which came into use in

1929, was the earliest navigation aid. It consisted of a

set of towers that transmitted a radio frequency along

federal airways. These signals guided pilots through

bad weather and to their destination by constantly

transmitting the Morse Code signals for the letters A

and N. The two looped transmissions overlapped at

certain points, which produced a clear signal. The sig-

nal, in turn, produced an on-course leg for pilots to fol-

low. The four-course radio system has some problems,

however. Radio transmissions sometimes bounced off

mountainsides, tricking pilots into thinking that they

were on course when they were not.

Marker Beacons

Marker beacons are low-powered radio beacons. Each

marker beacon has its own distinctive tone that a pilot

flying directly overhead can receive. By identifying the

beacon’s tone, the pilot can tell which beacon he or she

has just flown over, and then use this information to

determine the aircraft’s position. Marker beacons do


22


not help pilots who have flown off course, however.

They are still in use in some locations.

Nondirectional Radio Beacon

(NDB)

A nondirectional radio beacon (NDB) is an older,

basic communication and navigation technology

that allows pilots to determine their position in rela-

tion to the “home” position of the NDB. It transmits

a low-frequency signal (190 to 1750 kHz) in every

direction, and the signal is picked up by the airplane’s

direction finder (DF). In the past, pilots had to rotate

the antenna by hand to pick up the signal. The pilot

would then use a magnetic compass and the NDB

receiver to figure out the plane’s bearing (the line of

direction along which the aircraft is traveling) from

the NDB. If the pilot could figure out the bearing

from two NDBs, then the pilot could plot the plane’s

precise location. Then, if the pilot wanted to head

toward the NDB, he or she could turn the aircraft so

that it directly faced the NDB, readjusting the head-

ing as necessary so that the NDB stayed right in front

of the aircraft (a technique called homing). While

NDBs are still in use, they are being phased out.

Automatic Direction Finders

(ADFs)

Automatic direction finders (ADFs) are also an older

type of navigation aid that is used today as a backup

system in VFR aircraft. ADFs automatically calculate

the aircraft’s bearing to the NDB. ADFs can produce

false information during storms or if there is static,

however, which is why it is important for pilots to con-

tinually monitor the NDB’s identification. A system

that combines a radio beacon and instrument landing

system (ILS) markers is called a compass locator.

VHF Omnidirectional Range (VOR)

The VHF omnidirectional range (VOR) is a great

improvement over previous systems. VORs are the

main components of the national airways structure

that exists today.VORs are ground-based systems that

operate in the 108.0 to 117.95 MHz frequency and are

omnidirectional, which means they transmit many

signals in all directions.VORs give pilotsmany courses,

called radials, from which to choose between ground

stations. VORs provide only bearing (or azimuth)

information, however, and do not provide distance

information.

Distance Measuring Equipment

(DME)

Distance measurement equipment (DME) measures

an aircraft’s location by measuring its distance to the

closest ground-based station. The aircraft sends out a

signal that is received by the nearest ground-based sta-

tion, which then returns the signal to the aircraft. The

time that it takes for the signal to return to the aircraft

is used to calculate the aircraft’s distance from the sta-

tion, and therefore, its location.

Tactical Air Navigation (TACAN)

TheDepartment of Defense considered theVOR/DME

(distance measuring equipment) systems unsuitable

for military and naval forces, so it created the tactical

air navigation (TACAN).A TACAN is smaller and eas-

ier to install than a VOR. During operation, the

TACAN equipment on the aircraft, called the inter-

rogator, transmits a coded signal to a TACAN station

on the ground, called the transponder. The transpon-

der replies in code and the interrogator decodes the

message. A TACAN can display bearing and distance

information to the pilot.


23


VORTAC

Members of Congress, however, felt that it was unnec-

essary and expensive to maintain two separate naviga-

tion systems—VOR/DME for civilian aircraft and

TACAN for military aircraft. VORTAC, which stands

forVHF omnidirectional range/tactical air navigation,

is a combination of VOR/DME and TACAN with one

transmitting station that both civilian andmilitary air-

craft can use. Each VORTAC facility has two compo-

nents—VOR and TACAN—which provide these

services:� VOR azimuth� TACAN azimuth� TACAN distance (DME)

� Area Navigat ion

The FAA has established airways—which are very sim-

ilar to roadways—designed to help pilots get from

place to place. The FAA created airways to help pilots

and controllers navigate. The United States has two

types of airways:

1. Victor airways—These are low-altitude air-

ways that extend from ground level to

18,000 feet.

2. jet routes—These airways are at or above

18,000 feet.

Because the VORTAC system is primarily

ground-based, pilots must fly airways leading from

NAVAID toNAVAID until they reach their destination.

This means that they can rarely fly in a straight line

from takeoff to landing, so they often have to fly longer

distances than necessary. Airways between NAVAIDs

can also become congested, which makes the job of

controllers especially difficult.

To alleviate these problems, a number of naviga-

tion systems other thanVORTAChave been developed.

These systems are collectively referred to as area

navigation (RNAV).

Doppler Radar

Doppler radarwas one of the first area navigation sys-

tems. The systemwas installed inside the aircraft, so the

aircraft was not dependent upon any equipment on the

ground and could fly in a straight, or nearly straight,

line toward its destination. An aircraft with a Doppler

radar system had an internal board containing a radar

transmitter, a receiver, a signal processor, and a display

unit. The system transmitted a radar signal straight

down from the aircraft. This signal reflected off the

ground back to the receiver inside the aircraft. The


24

Fig. 2.5. A TACAN Antenna


signal processor then compared the frequency of the

transmitted signal with the one returned to the aircraft.

This process repeated continually as long as the aircraft

remained in the air.

Pilots could use the information—the change in

signal—to guide them toward their destination.

Because the earth’s surface varies from place to place,

the frequency of the signal changed depending on the

earth under the aircraft. While Doppler radar helped

pilots determine their location, it did not give the exact

location. For this reason, it has been replaced by more

accurate types of area navigation.

Long-Range Navigation

(LORAN-C)

Long-range navigation (LORAN) was first developed

for maritime use. Because of this, its stations are

located primarily around the Great Lakes and along

U.S. coastlines and are controlled by the U.S. Coast

Guard. LORAN is a hyperbolic navigation system,

which differs from VORTAC (a rho-theta navigation

system). A hyperbolic navigation system produces

hyperbolic lines of position by measuring the differ-

ence in the reception time of radio signals emitted

from the aircraft. In a rho-theta navigation system, the

signals are emitted from a facility.

The current version of LORAN in use is LORAN-

C. With LORAN-C, a computer quickly plots the

hyperbolic lines to help pilots determine the position

of their aircraft. While LORAN-C is a fairly accurate

area navigation system, it often has technical problems,

which is one reason why it is quickly being replaced by

the global navigation satellite system (GNSS). LORAN-

C, however, is still used in many aircraft as a backup.

Global Navigation Satellite

System (GNSS)

Satellite-based navigation used throughout the world

is referred to as the global navigation satellite system

(GNSS). In the United States, this system is called the

global positioning system (GPS), and in Russia it is

called the Global Navigation Satellite System

(GLONASS).

GNSS is the newest and most accurate type of

area navigation. Like LORAN, it is a hyperbolic navi-

gation system that transmits hyperbolic lines.However,

GNSS uses transmitters that are on satellites, as

opposed to ground transmitters.

Global Positioning System (GPS)

The global positioning system (GPS) was created by

the U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) to provide

around-the-clock navigational services formilitary air,

ground, and sea forces. In the 1980s, however, the DoD

made the system available for civilian use. Since its

implementation, it has been widely used by civilian

aircraft.

GPS uses 24 satellites (21 active and 3 backups)

that circle the earth twice a day in a precise orbit and

transmit information to Earth. GPS receivers use this

information to determine an aircraft’s precise location.

Using GPS, controllers and pilots can also gather infor-

mation on an aircraft’s speed and course, the time it

will take for it to reach its destination, and how winds

are affecting the aircraft.

GPS has some drawbacks, however. It does not

provide guidance precise enough to replace ground-

based instrument landing systems (ILSs). In order to

remedy this, the FAA is experimenting with two sys-

tems to augment, or supplement,GPS, so that it can be

used as a primary means of navigation:

1. wide area augmentation system (WAAS)—

WAAS is an extremely accurate navigation

system that is able to offer vertically guided

landing approaches in all meteorological

conditions.


25


2. local area augmentation system (LAAS)—

While still under development, LAAS

focuses on the airport area, so it can offer

aircraft precise approach and departure

information.

� Airspace Classif icat ions

The FAA categorizes the airspace above the United

States into six classes. Different categories, or classes,

are subject to different requirements and rules of oper-

ation. Airspace is first classified into one of three broad

categories:

1. uncontrolled airspace

2. controlled airspace

3. special-use airspace

Uncontrolled Airspace

When the first planes flew in the skies, all airspace was

uncontrolled. It was up to pilots to maintain separa-

tion with other aircraft. Since early planes did not have

the navigational tools to fly in clouds, pilots also had

to navigate around them. At this time, however, there

were only a few small planes in the sky and these planes

flew slowly, so separation and navigation were not

major concerns. The situation changed as planes

became a principal means of transportation and the

skies grew more crowded.

Once ATC was needed to keep planes from col-

liding, controlled airspace was created. This airspace

was designed primarily for pilots flying IFR aircraft.

Today, nearly all airspace is controlled. The remaining

uncontrolled airspace in the United States is in unpop-

ulated areas. Pilots flying in these areas do not receive

ATC separation service even in badweather conditions.


26

Fig. 2.6. WAAS, used in addition to GPS, is an effective navigational system.


Controlled Airspace

Controlled airspace was created for pilots flying IFR

aircraft, but both pilots flying IFR and VFR aircraft in

controlled airspace receive ATC services. The level of

service, however, depends on the airspace classification.

In controlled airspace, pilots are subject to certain

qualifications, equipment requirements, and operating

procedures. Controlled airspace is divided into these

classes:

Class AClass A airspace is from FL (flight level) 180 (18,000

feet MSL) up to FL 600 (600,000 feet MSL). Pilots fly-

ing in Class A airspace must file an IFR flight plan and

receive ATC clearance prior to entering, and they

receive separation services once they enter the airspace.

VFR aircraft are not allowed to operate in this airspace.

Class BClass B airspace exists at the busiest airports to ensure

safety between VFR and IFR aircraft. The volume of

IFR aircraft at these airports is high. Therefore, VFR

aircraft must receive approval fromATCprior to enter-

ing Class B airspace.While in this airspace, all aircraft

receive separation services from ATC.

Class CClass C airspace is reserved for smaller airports. Inmost

cases, it begins at ground level and extends 4,000 feet

above the airport elevation (charted inMSL). This type

of airspace is found only at airports with an operational

control tower. Pilots must establish contact with the

ATC facility before entering the airspace.VFR pilots are

separated from IFR pilots within this airspace.

Class DClass D airspace extends from ground level to 2,500

feet above the airport elevation (charted inMSL). Like

Class C airspace, Class D airspace is reserved for air-

ports with an operational control tower and is tailored

to meet the needs of the airport. Pilots must establish

contact with ATC before entering this airspace. Pilots

operating underVFR do not receive separation services

in Class D airspace.

Fig. 2.7. Classes of Controlled Airspace


27


Class EControlled airspace that is not Class A, B, C, or D, is

Class E. This airspace extends upward, usually from

ground level to an adjacent controlled airspace.All air-

ways use this airspace. This is also the airspace used by

aircraft flying into and out of the terminal normally

beginning at 14,500 feet to 18,000 feet.

Other Airspace Classifications

Prohibited AreasCivilian aircraft are not allowed to fly over prohibited

areas, which are marked off in blue on navigation

charts. These areas are usually off-limits for national

security. For example, the area around the nation’s cap-

ital is a prohibited area. Other areas are prohibited for

environmental reasons. Prohibited areas are usually

very small.

Restricted AreasAir travel over restricted areasmay be possible at cer-

tain times, such as when an area used for artillery or

missile firing is not in use. When a restricted area is

inactive, a controlling agency, which is usually a mili-

tary agency, may grant permission for travel.

Military Operations AreasMilitary operations areas (MOAs) are areas desig-

nated for military flight training activities. Some of

these activities require acrobatic maneuvers, which

makes the area dangerous for civilian aircraft.Military

flight training activities are conducted underVFR con-

ditions, and some activities make it difficult for a mil-

itary pilot to see a nearby civilian aircraft.When one of

these areas is active, the MOA will contact the FAA,

which will inform its controllers to route IFR aircraft

around the MOA. Pilots flying VFR aircraft may enter

these areas at any time, but at their own risk.MOAs are

labeled on navigation charts using the name of the

MOA followed by “MOA” (see Figure 2.8).

Temporary Flight Restrictions (TFR)If the FAA expects a large number of people or aircraft

in an area, such as in the case of a flood, an earthquake,

a fire, or an aircraft accident, it will issue a temporary

flight restriction (TFR). The FAA notifies pilots and

controllers of a TFR by issuing a NOTAM (notice to

airmen). Controllers will reroute IFR aircraft around

such areas until the restriction is lifted.

Fig. 2.8. A Military Operations Area (MOA) on a Navigation Chart


28


Warning AreaA warning area is similar to a restricted area except it

encompasses airspace over domestic or international

waters as opposed to land. A warning area extends

from 3 NM (nautical miles) beyond shore. Warning

areas are advisory areas—pilots do not have to stay out

of these areas but are alerted of possible danger. Both

IFR and VFR aircraft may fly into these areas at their

own risk. Warning areas are marked on navigational

charts with the word “WARNING.”

Alert AreasAlert areas are areas in which unusual activity, such as

pilot training, may be taking place. Both IFR andVFR

aircraft may fly into these areas without following any

special rules, but they should be alert to possible haz-

ards. Alert areas are marked on navigational charts

with the letter “A.”

� Radio Communicat ions

Controllers must communicate clearly with pilots so

that pilots have the information they need tomaintain

separation and safely operate aircraft. Any misunder-

standing between controller and pilot could result in

disaster. Controllers and pilots most often communi-

cate via two-way radio.

Frequencies

The FAA operates over 5,000 frequencies to avoid

potential conflicts and interference within radio bands.

Controllers normally use simplex communication,

which means they use a single frequency to transmit

and receive messages. This frequency might be in one

of three bands:

1. high frequency (HF)

2. very high frequency (VHF)

3. ultra-high frequency (UHF)

ATC centers most often use VHF and UHF for

routine communications with pilots of civilian aircraft.

Controllers most often useVHF to communicate with

civilian aircraft and UHF to communicate with mili-

tary aircraft. The Federal Communications Commis-

sion (FCC) carefully assigns frequencies to avoid

potential interference problems. Since there are not

enough frequencies available to give each ATC center

its own frequency, the FCC usually assigns the same

frequency to two or more ATC centers.

Operation

Within an ATC facility, each controller is assigned one

or more frequencies for communication with pilots.

Most controllers wear an assembly consisting of a

boom mike, a headset, and a push-to-talk amplifier

attached to a cord. This allows them to move around

while communicating with pilots. Controllers use the

telephone to communicate with other controllers.

They alternate between radio and telephone commu-

nication using a voice switching system.

Phraseology

Because controllers and pilots must be clear and con-

cise in their communication, they use phraseology, a

kind of jargon used by those in the aviation industry.

Controllers should use this format when communi-

cating with other controllers:

Fig. 2.9. A TFR NOTAM


29


1. Identify the aircraft or controller being con-

tacted. (This lets the receiver know that he

or she is about to receive a message.)

2. Identify the controller who is calling. (This

lets the receiver know who is sending the

message.)

3. Relay the message.

4. End the message. (The message is concluded

with the controller’s assigned operating ini-

tials, which he or she is assigned.)

Some letters and numbers sound alike when spo-

ken over radio communications or the telephone. To

make sure each letter and number has a different

sound, the International Civil Aviation Organization

(ICAO) has approved a standard pronunciation,which

the FAA has put into use in ATC. Controllers should

use these pronunciations when communicating with

pilots as well as with other controllers.

NumbersWhen pronouncing small numbers, controllers should

enunciate each number separately or state it in group

form, which is the way we pronounce numbers in

everyday speech. For example,

Larger numbers, such as those used to describe

altitude and wind levels, are usually pronounced like

this:

NumberSeparate

PronunciationGroup FormPronunciation

10 one zero 10

110 one one zero 110

Number Pronunciation

1,500 one thousand five hundred

2,000 two thousand


30

PHONETIC NUMBERS AND PHONETIC ALPHABET

Character Word Pronunciation

0 Zero ZEE-RO

1 One WUN

2 Two TOO

3 Three TREE

4 Four FOW-ER

5 Five FIFE

6 Six SIX

7 Seven SEV-EN

8 Eight AIT

9 Nine NIN-ER

A Alfa AL-FAH

B Bravo BRAH-VOH

C Charlie CHAR-LEE

D Delta DELL-TAH

E Echo ECK-OH

F Foxtrot FOKS-TROT

G Golf GOLF

H Hotel HOH-TELL

I India IN-DEE-AH

J Juliet JEW-LEE-ETT

K Kilo KEY-LOH

L Lima LEE-MAH

M Mike MIKE

N November NO-VEM-BER

O Oscar OSS-CAR

P Papa PAH-PAH

Q Quebec KEH-BECK

R Romeo ROW-ME-OH

S Sierra SEE-AIR-AH

T Tango TANG-GO

U Uniform YOU-NEE-FORM

V Victor VIK-TAH

W Whiskey WISS-KEY

X X-ray ECKS-RAY

Y Yankee YANG-KEY

Z Zulu ZOO-LOO


When pronouncing numbers that are an even

10,000 or an even 100, separate the digits before you

would say the word “thousand”:

When pronouncing large series numbers, enun-

ciate the digits separately:

TimeControllers frequently reference time when commu-

nicating. To avoid having to determine time zones,

ATC facilities around the world use coordinated uni-

versal time (UTC). UTC is the international time stan-

dard, which was formerly referred to as Greenwich

Mean Time (GMT). UTC is based on the idea that

midnight in Greenwich, England, which lies on the

longitudinal meridian, is zero. UTC is based on a 24-

hour clock, so an afternoon hour such as 3:00 P.M. is

15:00 UTC. Pronounce UTC like this:

Follow these guidelines to convert from Standard

Time to UTC:

AltitudesIn ATC, altitudes are measured above mean sea level

(MSL). Cloud ceilings, however, are measured above

ground level (AGL). Separate altitudes into thousands

and hundreds, and pronounce the thousands sepa-

rately from the hundreds. Enunciate each digit of the

thousands individually, but pronounce the hundreds in

group form:

Flight LevelsWhen the flight level is at or above 18,000 feetMSL (FL

180), state the words “flight level” before the level:

MDA/DH AltitudeMinimum descent altitudes (MDAs) and decision

height (DH) altitudes are published on instrument

procedure charts. When pronouncing these altitudes,

say the words“minimumdescent altitude”or“decision

height altitude” followed by the individual numbers:

SpeedsWhen pronouncing speeds, enunciate the digits sepa-

rately followed by the word “knots.” (Do not use the


190 Flight level one niner zero

379 Flight level three seven niner

Time Pronunciation

0115 (UTC) zero one one five

1500 (UTC) one five zero zero

Eastern Standard Time Add 5 hours

Central Standard Time Add 6 hours

Mountain Standard Time Add 7 hours

Pacific Standard Time Add 8 hours

Alaska Standard Time Add 9 hours

Hawaii Standard Time Add 10 hours

* For Daylight Savings Time, subtract 1 hour.


12,000 one two thousand

12,500 one two thousand five hundred


11,495 one one four niner five

10,072 one zero zero seven two

Altitude Pronunciation

14,000 one four thousand

15,500 one five thousand five hundred

Altitude Pronunciation

480 descent height, four eight zero

1,220 minumum descent altitude, one two two zero


31


word “knots,” however, when pronouncing speed

adjustment procedures.)

FrequenciesWhen pronouncing frequencies, state the separate dig-

its in the frequency and insert the word “point”where

the decimal occurs. The first number after a decimal is

always pronounced, even if it is a zero. The second

number is pronounced, but not if it is a zero.

ATC FacilitiesATC facilities are identified by the name of the city

where the facility is located, followed by the type of

facility, as in “Barksdale Tower” or “Columbus Tower.”

If two ormore airports are located in the same city, the

airport name is used instead of the city name. Follow

these guidelines when pronouncing the type of facility:

Facility Type Pronunciation

Air route traffic control center Center

Approach control Approach

Clearance delivery Clearance

Departure control Departure

Flight service station Radio

Flight watch Flight watch

Ground control Ground

Local control Tower


Speed Pronunciation

220 knots two two zero knots

130 knots one three zero knots

STANDARD TIME ZONE CONVERSIONS

Conversions from UTC to Some U.S. Time Zones

* = previous day

UTC Pacific Standard Mountain Standard Central Standard Eastern Standard

00 4 P.M.* 5 P.M.* 6 P.M.* 7 P.M.*

01 5 P.M.* 6 P.M.* 7 P.M.* 8 P.M.*

02 6 P.M.* 7 P.M.* 8 P.M.* 9 P.M.*

03 7 P.M.* 8 P.M.* 9 P.M.* 10 P.M.*

04 8 P.M.* 9 P.M.* 10 P.M.* 11 P.M.*

05 9 P.M.* 10 P.M.* 11 P.M.* 12 mid

06 10 P.M.* 11 P.M.* 12 mid 1 A.M.

07 11 P.M.* 12 mid 1 A.M. 2 A.M.

08 12 mid 1 A.M. 2 A.M. 3 A.M.

09 1 A.M. 2 A.M. 3 A.M. 4 A.M.

10 2 A.M. 3 A.M. 4 A.M. 5 A.M.

11 3 A.M. 4 A.M. 5 A.M. 6 A.M.

Frequency Pronunciation

5631 kHz five six three one

126.55 kHz one two six point five five

32


Aircraft IdentificationIt is extremely important that controllers relay infor-

mation to the correct pilot. To prevent errors, pilots of

civilian aircraft use serial numbers assigned by the

FAA.Military pilots use a serial number and their serv-

ice name.

Every air carrier uses its own three-letter abbre-

viation to identify its aircraft followed by the flight

number.When you identify an air carrier verbally, state

the call sign followed by the flight number in group

form, as in“American Five Twenty-One”or“Delta One

Hundred.”

Airways and Routes

To identify a VOR/VORTAC/TACAN airway or jet

route, state the word “Victor” followed by the number

of the airway or route, as in “Victor Twelve.”


Airline Aircraft ID Call Sign

Air Canada ACA Air Canada

Alaska ASA Alaska

American Airlines AAL American

American West AWE Cactus

Continental COA Continental

Delta DAL Delta

Federal Express FDX Fedex

Northwest NWA Northwest

Southwest SWA Southwest

United UAL United

UPS UPS UPS

U.S. Airways USA USA

33



1–15: Write your answers on the lines below.

1. How should a controller pronounce the number12?

a. twelve

b. one two

c. one ten two

d. two one

2. If it is 5:00 P.M. Pacific Standard Time, what isthe UTC?

a. 00:00

b. 01:00

c. 02:00

d. 03:00

3. Which frequency do controllers use for routinecommunication with civilian aircraft?

a. UHF

b. LF

c. VHF

d. HF

4. What is the call sign for AmericanWest Airlines?a. AW

b. American

c. West

d. Cactus

5. What type of airport lighting usually has a high-intensity strobe light on a bar?

a. in-runway lighting

b. rotating beacons

c. approach lighting

d. runway edge lighting

6. Which airspace is reserved for smaller airports?a. Class C

b. Class D

c. Class E

d. Class G

7. How should a controller identify an ATC groundcontrol facility?

a. ground

b. control

c. GC

d. ground control

8. Airways above 18,000 feet are calleda. Victor airways.

b. long-range routes.

c. jet routes.

d. VORTAC airways.

9. How should a controller pronounce the number19,213?

a. one niner two one three

b. nineteen thousand two one three

c. nineteen thousand two hundred one three

d. nine thousand two hundred thirteen

10.Which airspace exists at the busiest airports?a. Class A

b. Class B

c. Class C

d. Class G

11. How should a controller pronounce a speed of230?

a. two three zero

b. two three zero knots

c. two three zero kilohertz

d. two thirty


34


12. A pilot using electronic instruments must followa. VFR.

b. IFR.

c. pilotage.

d. dead reckoning.

13. A new civilian aircraft most likely has which nav-igation system?

a. ADF

b. TACAN

c. VOR

d. RNAV

14. A warning area is different from a restricted areabecause a warning area

a. allows air travel at certain times.

b. does not allow civilian aircraft.

c. is over water.

d. is for the military.

15. How should a controller pronounce flight level185?

a. Victor one eight five

b. flight level one eight five

c. one eight five

d. flight level one hundred eight five



35



While controllers do not forecast the weather, weather conditions significantly affect aviation.

Controllers need to understand how theNationalWeather Service (NWS) communicates with

the FAA, and they need to knowwhat offices to contact and what services to access when they

need more information. Controllers must also be able to read weather reports, so they can successfully navigate

aircraft around areas with low visibility.

� Weather Forecast ing Services

The FAA and the NWS work together to detect and predict weather conditions that may interfere with avi-

ation. This partnership is necessary and important, since the FAA’s job is tomaintain safe skies and theNWS owns

most forecasting equipment, employs most meteorologists, and thus prepares the majority of official forecasts.

The NWS works with the FAA to disseminate this information to flight professionals.

Weather and AirTraffic Control

CHAPTER SUMMARYThe Storm Prediction Center (SPC), the Aviation Weather Center

(AWC), and Weather Forecasts Offices (WFOs) provide weather fore-

casts to the FAA. Controllers and pilots access these forecasts using

a Direct User Access Service (DUATS) and by contacting Flight Serv-

ice Stations (FSSs). Weather reports such as the Meteorological Avi-

ation Report (METAR) are used to create weather forecasts.

3C H A P T E R

37


Three parts of the NWS work directly with

the FAA:

1. Storm Prediction Center (SPC)

2. AviationWeather Center (AWC)

3. Weather Forecast Offices (WFOs)

Storm Prediction Center (SPC)

Located in Norman, Oklahoma, the Storm Prediction

Center (SPC) is the part of the NWS that watches for

severe weather for the safety of the public. The SPC

does not target its forecasts toward aviation.

SPC forecasters are divided into three types: (1)

lead forecasters, who coordinate all efforts and issue

Tornado and Severe Thunderstorm Watches, (2)

mesoscale forecasters, who examine dangerous

weather that may occur within the next six hours over

an area of about 35,000 square miles (roughly half the

size of the state of Iowa), and (3) outlook forecasters,

who prepare forecasts of severe thunderstorm activity

that may occur within the next two days. Together

these forecasters issue storm watches, but not storm

warnings. They also issue the convective outlook, a

nationwide forecast of all convective activity and thun-

derstorms over a 24-hour period.

Aviation Weather Center (AWC)

Located in Kansas City, Missouri, Aviation Weather

Center (AWC) also issues severe weather warnings, but

unlike SPC, it focuses specifically on the interests of

aviation. In particular,AWC issues warnings, forecasts,

and analyses of hazardous weather thatmay occur over

the next two days. AWC warns in-flight aircraft and

controllers of severe weather conditions. AWC also

maintains the significant wind prognostic chart and

the tropopause wind and wind-shear charts, as well as

the volcanic ash transport and dispersion charts,which

portray the movement of volcanic ash through the

atmosphere as predicted by computer models.

Weather Forecast Offices (WFOs)

Weather Forecast Offices (WFOs) are separated into

six geographic regions: Eastern, Southern, Central,

Western, Alaskan, and Pacific. Within each region are

a number of offices located in major cities. EachWFO

office issues meteorological forecasts for the area for

Dangerous Volcanic Ash Clouds

Over the past 15 years, more than 80 aircraft have reported dangerous encounters with volcanic ash clouds,

which may cover more than 100,000 square miles downwind from an erupting volcano.

In seven of these encounters, the aircraft suffered severe power loss and nearly crashed. Volcanic ash

coats fuel nozzles, which creates sparks and causes a sudden loss of power. Sharp fragments within the clouds

also scratch forward-facing aircraft surfaces, such as the radar cone, and can even scratch the cockpit win-

dows badly enough to impair visibility. KLM Flight 867 encountered a cloud from the Redoubt Volcano in Alaska.

The aircraft lost power in all four engines and fell for five minutes—descending more than two miles—before

pilots were able to restart the engines and land safely. The plane required $80 million in repairs, including the

replacement of all four engines.

Volcanic ash transport and dispersion charts help pilots stay away from these harmful clouds, which are

difficult to distinguish from weather-related clouds.

38


which it is responsible. These forecasts go to those in

aviation and the public. TheWFO issues terminal aero-

drome forecasts (TAFs) for large airports in its regions.

You will learn more about TAFs later in this chapter.

� FAA Faci l i t ies forDisseminat ing WeatherReports

Once forecasts are created, they must be disseminated

to controllers and pilots—both when they are on the

groundmaking their flight plans and when they are in

flight. These products and services fulfill this need:

1. Direct User Access Terminal Service

(DUATS)

2. Flight Service Stations (FSSs)

Direct User Access Terminal

Service (DUATS)

Direct User Access Terminal Service (DUATS) is an

FAA weather and flight plan filing service. Pilots can

access DUATS online and independently interpret

weather briefings. They can then use this online serv-

ice to file or alter flight plans or to cancel flights. Be

aware, however, that some debate exists as to whether

this service is useful, because it yields voluminous

weather reports for even short flights.

Flight Service Stations (FSSs)

After checking DUATS, pilots may contact flight serv-

ice stations (FSSs) to obtain additional weather details

or meteorological information better suited to their

specific needs. FSSs were once 58 loosely grouped

offices across the United States, but in 2005, Lockheed-

Martin received a contract from the FAA to downsize

and centralize the FSSs. It is now comprised of three

hub stations: one in Ashburn, Virginia; one in Fort

Worth, Texas; and one in PrescottValley,Arizona, along

with 15 outlying support stations.

FSSs are the main sources of regular weather

briefings for pre-flight and in-flight information. FSSs

are also in charge of filing, changing, and closing flight

plans, monitoring navigational aids (NAVAIDs), col-

lecting and disseminating pilot reports (PIREPs), and

providing assistance in emergencies. In addition, they

are the source of scheduled and unscheduled weather

updates and alerts to pilots, called notices to airmen

(NOTAMs). FSSs operate two in-flight advisories:

1. Hazardous In-Flight Weather Advisory

Services (HIWAS)

2. En Route Flight Advisory Services (EFAS)

Hazardous In-Flight Weather AdvisoryServices (HIWAS)Hazardous In-Flight Weather Advisory Services

(HIWAS), provided by the FAA, is a continuous radio

broadcast recording of weather advisories, severe

weather bulletins, and other weather reports. Through

HIWAS, both instrument flight rules (IFR) and visual

flight rules (VFR) aircraft may access weather infor-

mation and hear Significant Meteorological Informa-

tion (SIGMETs), convective SIGMETs,CenterWeather

Advisories (CWAs), Airmen’s Meteorological Infor-

mation (AIRMETs), Urgent Pilot Reports, and radar

reports. The announcement is typically a summary of

one or more of these advisories. The summary identi-

fies the advisory type, gives a description of the affected

location, and gives a brief description of the type of

weather. If there are no advisories,HIWASwill still give

brief descriptions of weather in the area.

En Route Flight Advisory Services (EFAS)Better known as FlightWatch, En Route Flight Advi-

sory Services (EFAS) are also provided by FSSs. Flight

Watch informs in-flight aircraft of the position and

–WEATHER AND AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL–

39


intensity of storms as well as airport weather condi-

tions. Pilots simply query FlightWatch via a common

frequency, and the closest Flight Watch system

responds. For example, a pilot who encounters tur-

bulence may contact Flight Watch to request help

finding a smooth altitude. Flight Watch is for aircraft

that are in flight between takeoff and final approach.

If a pilot who is not in flight makes a request, Flight

Watch refers him or her to the general FSSs. Pilots can

reach Flight Watch at a common frequency of 122.0

MHz below 18,000 feet and at various frequencies

above 18,000 feet.

Center Weather Service Units

(CWSUs)

At Center Weather Service Units (CWSUs), NWS

meteorologists and FAA traffic managers deliver

reports of weather that will directly affect the flow of

air traffic. Their main goal is to prevent delays.

CWSUs alert controllers and pilots of hazardous

weather via the Central Weather Advisory (CWA), a

short-term (two-hourmaximum)warning for both en

route and terminal situations.

� Weather Observat ions

A weather observation is an evaluation of meteoro-

logical elements. When someone records this evalua-

tion and disseminates it, this person has created a

weather report.

Sometimes meteorologists use tools, such as

radar, to help them make weather observations.

Airport Surveillance Radar

Observations

One of the most important weather observation tools

is radar, which uses very high-frequency sound

waves to detect objects in the distance. Airport sur-

veillance radar, the most common type of radar used

near airports, can detect only sizable particles, such as

precipitation.Airport surveillance radar displays pre-

cipitation in a pattern of small squares that vary in

shade; the darker the square, the heavier the precipi-

tation. Controllers place this pattern over their air-

craft display, so they can manually guide planes

around the heavy precipitation.

Fig. 3.1. Airport Surveillance Radar

Air Route Surveillance Radar

(ARSR-4) Observations

The aging FAA aircraft tracking radar is being replaced

with Air Route Surveillance Radar (ARSR-4). ARSR-

4 has a range of 200 to 250 nautical miles (NM) and is

able to “look down” from the towers on which it is

mounted, which allows it to detect aircraft attempting

to evade radar detection by flying low. This makes

ARSR-4 particularly valuable for national security.

ARSR-4 systems are in use along the borders of the

United States and near military bases and airports.


40


Next Generation Radar (NEXRAD)

Next Generation Radar (NEXRAD) works through a

network of 158 high-resolution Doppler radars spe-

cially designed to evaluate weather. Doppler radar

allows NEXRAD to detect very small particles in the

atmosphere and predict hail and tornadoes.NEXRAD

is of great use to controllers because it can provide

them with the following information:

� the highest altitude of a storm� the speed and direction of a storm� how much water is in a storm� the likelihood that a storm will form hail� whether a storm is rotating, which means it

is likely to create tornadoes

TheNWS and theDepartment of Defense (DoD)

operate a network of high-powered NEXRAD stations

that covers the U.S. skies. This network enhances the

observation of precipitation,wind, andweather within

250 miles of a NEXRAD station. NEXRAD measures

winds at a range of heights and is able to spot wind

shear, a change inwind direction or speed between alti-

tudes. This is important information for controllers,

because it allows them to warn pilots of wind shear in

the terminal area, which can be dangerous.

Terminal Doppler Weather Radar

(TDWR)

The FAA has a Terminal Doppler Weather Radar

(TDWR) system that detects and reports hazardous

weather in and around airport terminals. TDWR is

operational at 45 airports in the United States and

warns controllers of low-altitude wind-shear hazards

caused bymicrobursts (sudden downdrafts of air). It

also reports precipitation and offers advance warning

of shifting winds—see Figure 3.4.

Fig. 3.3. A TDWR Screen from the National Weather ServiceForecast Office in Greensville-Spartanburg, South Carolina

Fig. 3.2. A NEXRAD Radar Station


41


Weather Terminology

• downburst. small area of damaging winds caused by air flowing down from and out of a thunderstorm.

• gale. very strong wind with speeds of 32 to 63 mph.

• storm warning. a forecast to alert the public of a severe oncoming storm.

• turbulence. rough atmospheric conditions.

• wind shear. a rapid change in wind direction or velocity.

• dry microburst. sudden downdraft of air produced by a high-based thunderstorm that generates lit-

tle surface rain.

• wet microburst. sudden downdraft accompanied by significant precipitation at the surface, which is

warmer than the environment.

• gust front. a low-level wind shift created by downdrafts from thunderstorms and other convective

conditions.

• outflow boundary. a surface boundary left from the horizontal spreading of cooled air from a thun-

derstorm that can create a new thunderstorm.

Fig. 3.4. A Microburst

42


Upper-Air Observations

The atmosphere has layers, which means the weather

on the ground may not be the same as the weather at

a higher altitude. This makes it necessary for meteo-

rologists to make observations of the weather up high,

called upper-air observations. Meteorologists make

these observations in two ways: (1) with a weather bal-

loon, a method referred to as radiosonde observa-

tions; or (2) by listening to pilots’ reports on

conditions from their positions. In both types of

upper-air observations, temperature, pressure, humid-

ity, wind speed, and wind direction are recorded.

Satellite Observations

One of the most accurate sources of weather observa-

tion are weather satellites. These satellites orbit the

earth in either a stationary orbit,which enables them to

observe the same area 24 hours a day, or a low, north-

to-south orbit that takes them over the poles to gather

higher resolution data.TheNWSuses orbiting satellites

belonging to the United States and partner nations.

These global observations come in near-real time.

� Weather Reports andForecasts

Weather forecasts are reports of likely weather condi-

tions based upon analyses of trends and meteorologi-

cal data. In the last section, you learned the different

methods used to make weather observations. You also

learned that controllers use weather reports and fore-

casts to navigate aircraft into and out of terminals. Each

of the weather reports and forecasts controllers use has

its own focus and range, although some may overlap.

The METAR

The Meteorological Aviation Report (METAR) is a

coded format for describing weather conditions at a

specific time and place. The one- or two-line report is

standardized internationally, though individual

nations are allowed to make small adjustments. The

United States, for example, uses miles instead of the

standard kilometers. Controllers, pilots, and meteo-

rologists use the METAR to create forecasts.

The METAR has 12 elements:

1. type of report—The report may be one of

two types: the METAR, which is issued

hourly, or the SPECI, which may be issued

Dangerous Thunderstorms

Weather is a primary factor in more than 35 percent of commercial aviation fatal accidents with thunderstorms

playing a major role. Flashes of lightning can temporarily blind pilots and cause them to lose control of their

aircraft. In a few instances, lighting strikes have caused cabin fires and even fuel-tank explosions. Hail from

thunderstorms can also damage aircraft. Large hail may crack an aircraft’s windshield or damage flaps and sur-

faces. The most dangerous aspect of a thunderstorm, however, is the powerful convective motion of the air:

within a storm cell, powerful updrafts and downdrafts may cause sudden changes in altitude of several thou-

sand feet, which may damage the aircraft. Controllers rate thunderstorms from 1 (weak) to 6 (extreme) and use

NEXRAD, a radar that can identify precipitation, to direct aircraft around thunderstorms.

43


John Jeffries

On November 30, 1784, John Jeffries, along with balloonist John Pierre Blanchard, ascended to 9,309 feet over

London, England, and became the first scientist to use balloons to study the atmosphere. Jeffries took sam-

ples of the atmosphere’s temperature, pressure, and humidity from various altitudes. That flight brought the

reality of weather balloons to life. Measurements taken by Jeffries continue to hold up to modern scrutiny.

at any time if a change in conditions war-

rants it. Typically, a change fromVFR to IFR

will result in a SPECI issuance.

METAR KLAX 180752Z AUTO 27010KT 1SM

R35L/4500V6000FT –RA BR BKN030 10/80 A2990

RMK A02

2. International Civil Aviation Organization

(ICAO) station identifier—This is the four-

letter code that uses the three-letter terminal

stem preceded by the letter K. For example,

Los Angeles (LAX) has an ICAO of KLAX.

All Canadian ICAOs begin with CY fol-

lowed by a two-letter code identifying the

airport. For example, Toronto, has a ICAO

of CYYZ. Pacific U.S. locations prefix termi-

nal codes with P followed by A, H, or G,

depending on their location. For example,

Anchorage (ANC) becomes PANC and

Honolulu (HNL) becomes PHNL.


R35L/4500V6000FT –RA BR BKN030 10/80 A2990

RMK A02

3. date and time of report—The date and

time are reported as six digits: the first two

are the date, the next two are the hour, and

the final two are the minutes. Times are

given in coordinated universal time (UTC),

which is indicated with a Z at the end of the

date/time code. For example, the code

180752Z suggests that the report was issued

on the eighteenth day of the month at

7:52 UTC.


R35L/4500V6000FT –RA BR BKN030 10/80 A2990

RMK A02

4. modifier (if necessary)—The modifier dis-

closes whether the report was measured and

issued automatically or if it had human

input either in the observation or the inter-

pretation of the phenomena. If AUTO does

appear, the letters “A01” or “A02”will appear

in the remarks section at the end of the

report as an indication of the type of pre-

cipitation sensor used.


R35L/4500V6000FT –RA BR BKN030 10/80 A2990

RMK A02

5. wind speed—Wind speed is reported as a

five- or six-digit code. The first three digits

reflect the compass heading from which the

44


wind is coming (i.e., 270 degrees), and the

next two or three digits reflect the speed in

knots (i.e., 10 knots) with KT as an abbrevi-

ation for knots. A wind of zero is reported

as 00000KT. If the direction of the wind is

changing rapidly by more than 60 degrees, it

is reported as variable and coded as “VRB”

(i.e., VRB10KT). Gusty winds with sudden

changes of more than 10 knots are coded as

“G” (i.e., 270G10KT). Remarks on wind will

appear in the “remarks” section regarding

peak winds (i.e., PKWND), sudden wind

shifts (i.e.,WSHFT), or the passage of a

front (i.e., FROPA).


R35L/4500V6000FT –RA BR BKN030 10/80 A2990

RMK A02

6. visibility—Visibility is noted in statute

miles (SM) in the United States. Other

nations use meters or kilometers. Prevailing

visibility is the greatest visibility throughout

at least half a horizon circle. If prevailing

visibility is less than seven miles, a restric-

tion of visibility is noted on the METAR,

unless this restriction is caused by volcanic

ash, dust, sand, or snow, which will be

reported regardless of visual restriction. In

this example, the visibility is 2 SM:


R35L/4500V6000FT –RA BR BKN030 10/80 A2990

RMK A02.

If tower visibility is different from surface

visibility, it will be noted in the remarks.

The lesser distance appears in the visibility

section of the METAR, and the greater dis-

tance appears in the remarks (i.e., TWRVIS

1 would appear in the visibility section

while SFC VIS 2 would appear in the

remarks).

7. runway visual range (RVR)—This is an

automated report of runway visibility in

hundreds of feet. RVR is only reported if

prevailing visibility is less than 1 SM or if

RVR is less than 6,000 feet. This example

shows that runway 35 Left has a varying vis-

ibility from 4,500 to 6,000 feet.


R35L/4500V6000FT –RA BR BKN030 10/80 A2990

RMK A02

8. weather phenomena—Weather phenomena

appear in the METAR as a set of “qualifiers”

or descriptors along with the codes for the

phenomena themselves. Some examples of

qualifiers are + or – for heavy and light,

showers (SH), blowing (BL), or freezing

(FZ).While there are numerous actual phe-

nomena, they fall into three groups: precipi-

tation (i.e., DZ for drizzle and RA for rain),

obscuration (i.e., FG for fog and HZ for

haze), and other (i.e., SQ for squalls and FC

for funnel cloud). This example advises of

“light rain and mist.”


R35L/4500V6000FT –RA BR BKN030 10/80 A2990

RMK A02

9. sky condition—Sky condition is the per-

centage of cloud cover and cloud height; it

may also describe cloud type. Clouds are

described as clear, few, scattered, broken, or


45

12


overcast or as having vertical visibility,

depending upon how many eighths of the

sky are covered. Altitude is given in hun-

dreds of feet. In this example, clouds cover-

ing to of the sky are described as

broken (BKN) at a height of 3,000 feet.


R35L/4500V6000FT –RA BR BKN030 10/80 A2990

RMK A02.

10. temperature/dew point group—The tem-

perature/dew point group is reported in

degrees Celsius. This example reports a tem-

perature of 10 degrees Celsius and a dew

point of 80. If the temperature is below zero,

the letter “M” appears before the tempera-

ture. If no dew point is reported, a blank

space appears instead of a dew point. This

entire section is omitted from the METAR if

no temperature is available.


R35L/4500V6000FT –RA BR BKN030 10/80 A2990

RMK A02.

11. altimeter setting—The altimeter setting is

reported in inches mercury and is usually

around 30.00. If falling or rising rapidly,

altimeter setting is stipulated with the code

“PRESFR” or “PRESRR” in the remarks sec-

tion. Sometimes the pressure at sea level is

also included in the remarks section along

with the code “SLP.” In this example, the

altimeter setting is 29.90.


R35L/4500V6000FT –RA BR BKN030 10080 A2990

RMK A02.

12. remarks (if any)—Information included

here is meant to clarify all the information

in the METAR so far. Some typical codes

used in this section includeWSHFT (wind-

shift), PK_WND (peak wind), FRQ LTG

(frequent lightning), SLP044 (sea-level pres-

sure 1004.4 hectoPascals). This example

reports that the METAR was issued without

human input and comes from a station that

has a precipitation discriminator.


R35L/4500V6000FT –RA BR BKN030 10080 A2990

RMKA02

Examples of METARs and their translations can

be found at the end of this chapter.

Terminal Aerodrome Forecast

(TAF)

While a METAR is a description of current condi-

tions, a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) is a

forecast of weather conditions around a particular air-

port for the next 24 hours. The TAF, which is coded

similarly to theMETAR, is issued four times a day and

has these 10 elements:

1. type of report—This identifies the report as

either a standard terminal aerodrome fore-

cast (TAF) or an amended version (TAF

AMD), which is issued if the forecaster

thinks the current TAF is obsolete given a

change in conditions.

TAF

KPIR 111140Z 111212 13012KT P6SM BKN100

WS020/35035 TEMPO 1214 5SM BR

FM1500 16015G25KT P6SM SCT040 BKN250


46

58

78


FM0000 1412KT P6SM BKN080 OVC 150 PROB40

0004 3SM TSRA BKN030CB

FM0400 14008KT P6SM SCT040 OVC080 TEMPO

0408 3SM TSRA OVC030CB

BECMG 0810 32007T=

2. ICAO station identifier—This follows the

format used with the METAR. The report in

the example originates in Pierre, South

Dakota.

TAF

KPIR 111140Z 111212 13012KT P6SM BKN100

WS020/35035 TEMPO 1214 5SM BR

FM1500 16015G25KT P6SM SCT040 BKN250





BECMG 0810 32007T=

3. date and time of origin—These follow the

same format as the METAR. In this exam-

ple, the date and time of origin is the

eleventh day of the month, at 11:40 UTC.

TAF

KPIR 111140Z 111212 13012KT P6SM BKN100

WS020/35035 TEMPO 1214 5SM BR

FM1500 16015G25KT P6SM SCT040 BKN250





BECMG 0810 32007T=

4. valid period date and time—This refers to a

period of 24 hours from the time of

issuance for standard TAFs; the TAF in this

example was issued on the eleventh day and

is good from the 12 hour UTC until that

same hour on the next day. Amended TAFs

are usually good for less than 24 hours, for

example: 040709 means that a TAF AMD

issued on the fourth day is valid from 7

UTC until 9 UTC.

TAF

KPIR 111140Z 111212 13012KT P6SM BKN100

WS020/35035 TEMPO 1214 5SM BR

FM1500 16015G25KT P6SM SCT040 BKN250





BECMG 0810 32007T=

5. wind forecast—This uses the same format

as the METAR with compass heading,

speed, and the abbreviations KT for knots

and G for the highest gust expected. Multi-

ple wind speeds are given, however, because

a TAF addresses the possibility of changing

forecasts. This example (13012KT) indicates

a wind from 130 degrees at a speed of 12

knots while the next example

(16015G25KT) indicates a wind from 160

degrees at 15 knots with gusts up to 25

knots.

TAF

KPIR 111140Z 111212 13012KT P6SM BKN100

WS020/35035 TEMPO 1214 5SM BR

FM1500 16015G25KT P6SM SCT040 BKN250






47


BECMG 0810 32007T=

6. visibility forecast—This is reported in

whole numbers with fractions, if necessary,

with the units of statute miles (i.e., 2 SM is

a prevailing visibility of two and one-half

statute miles) up to six miles and the

weather phenomena restricting visibility to

less than six miles is reported in the signifi-

cant weather forecast. Visibility of six miles

or greater is reported as P6SM.

TAF

KPIR 111140Z 111212 13012KT P6SM BKN100

WS020/35035 TEMPO 1214 5SM BR

FM1500 16015G25KT P6SM SCT040 BKN250





BECMG 0810 32007T=

7. significant weather forecast—This refers to

where weather phenomena are reported.

The format is the same as with METAR

weather phenomena. In this example, BR is

used to indicate mist while TSRA indicates

thunderstorms and rain.

TAF

KPIR 111140Z 111212 13012KT P6SM BKN100

WS020/35035 TEMPO 1214 5SM BR

FM1500 16015G25KT P6SM SCT040 BKN250





BECMG 0810 32007T=

8. sky condition forecast—This is the same as

the METAR report except that cumulonim-

bus clouds are the only clouds reported in

TAFs. In this example, SCT040 BKN250

means scattered clouds at 4,000 feet and

broken clouds at 25,000 feet.

TAF

KPIR 111140Z 111212 13012KT P6SM BKN100

WS020/35035 TEMPO 1214 5SM BR

FM1500 16015G25KT P6SM SCT040 BKN250

FM0000 1412KT P6SM BKN080 OVC150 PROB40




BECMG 0810 32007T=

9. forecast change indicators—These indica-

tors denote that the forecast is expected to

change during the next 24 hours. This

change is classified as rapid, gradual, or

temporary.When the change is rapid and

lasts less than one hour, TAFs include an FM

indicator, which specifies the time at which

the change is expected (i.e., FM1500 sug-

gests a rapid change at 1500 UTC).When

the change is gradual and will last between

one and two hours, the code BECMG is

used.When a change is expected to last less

than one hour, the TEMPO indicator is

used. Unchanging conditions are not men-

tioned in the TEMPO indicator. For exam-

ple, FR1000 27005KT P6SM SKC TEMPO

1216 3SM BR includes the TEMPO item:

1216 3SM BR meaning that from 12 UTC to

16 UTC, mist will limit visibility to 3 SM.

All other conditions remain unchanged.


48

12


TAF

KPIR 111140Z 111212 13012KT P6SM BKN100

WS020/35035 TEMPO 1214 5SM BR

FM1500 16015G25KT P6SM SCT040 BKN250





BECMG 0810 32007T=

10. probability forecast—This describes the

likelihood of precipitation and thunder-

storms during a given time. This example

states that between 0000 UTC and 0400

UTC, there is a 40 percent probability of

thunderstorms with a decrease in visibility

of 3 SM as well as sky cover of broken

cumulonimbus clouds at 3,000 feet.

TAF

KPIR 111140Z 111212 13012KT P6SM BKN100

WS020/35035 TEMPO 1214 5SM BR

FM1500 16015G25KT P6SM SCT040 BKN250





BECMG 0810 32007T=

Examples of TAFs and their translations can be

found at the end of this chapter.

Aviation Area Forecast (FA)

The Aviation Area Forecast (FA) is much wider in

scope than the TAF and gives a detailed forecast over a

larger area. The FA has four parts:

1. communications and product header

2. precautionary statements

3. summary

4. visual flight rules—clouds/weather

This is part of a typical FA:

000

FAUS41 KKCI 091115 AAA

FA1W

BOSC FA 091115 AMD

SYNOPSIS ANDVFR CLDS/WX

SYNOPSIS VALID UNTIL 100300

CLDS/WX VALID UNTIL 092100...OTLK VALID

092100-100300

ME NHVTMA RI CT NY LONJ PA OH LEWVMD

DC DEVA AND CSTLWTRS

.

SEE AIRMET SIERRA FOR IFR CONDS AND MTN

OBSCN.

TS IMPLY SEV OR GTR TURB SEV ICE LLWS AND

IFR CONDS.

NONMSL HGTS DENOTED BY AGL OR CIG.

.

SYNOPSIS...WK LOW IS OVR LO WITH CDFNT

THRU CNTRL OH-WRN TN. LOW

WL SLOLY DEEPEN AS IT MOVS NEWD TO JUST

N OF ME BY 00Z. CDFNTWL

EXTDTHRUCNTRLME-NJ-S CNTRLVA-NRNGA.

.

ME NHVT

SRN ME/SERN NH...SCT100 BKN CI. BECMG 18-

21Z BKN030-040 OVC100.

TOPS FL200. OCNL VIS 3-5SM -SHRA. WDLY SCT

TSRA. CB TOPS FL380.

OTLK...MVFR CIG SHRA BECMG AFT 00Z MVFR

CIG.

RMNDR AREA...BKN080-100. TOPS 150. BECMG

15-18Z BKN030-040

OVC080. TOPS FL200. OCNL VIS 3-5SM -SHRA.

WDLY SCT -TSRA. CB TOPS


49


FL380. OTLK...MVFR CIG SHRA NRN ME..MVFR

CIG ELSW.

.

MA RI CT

SCT120 BKN CI. BECMG 15-18Z SCT050 BKN100.

BECMG 18-21Z BKN030-

050OVC100. TOPS FL200.OCNLVIS 3-5SM -SHRA.

WDLY SCT TSRA.

OTLK...MVFR CIG SHRA BECMG AFT 00Z VFR.

.

CSTLWTRS

S OF ACK...BKN CI. 21Z SCT-BKN040 BKN100.

WDLY SCT -SHRA/-TSRA.

CB TOPS FL400. OTLK...MVFR CIG SHRA TSRA.

N OF ACK...BKN CI. OTLK...MVFR CIG SHRA.

....

1. communications and product header—

The first part of an FA, the communications

and product header, gives the location, date,

and time of issuance along with a very

broad forecast. The third line (BOSC FA

091115 AMD) gives the most important

information: the location and date and time

of issuance. In this case, it refers to Boston

on the ninth day of the month at 11:15

UTC. The next lines include a broad

description of the weather along with effec-

tive dates and times. The last line indicates

to which states this FA applies.

000

FAUS41 KKCI 091115 AAA

FA1W

BOSC FA 091115 AMD

SYNOPSIS ANDVFR CLDS/WX

SYNOPSIS VALID UNTIL 100300

CLDS/WX VALID UNTIL 092100...OTLK VALID

092100-100300

ME NHVTMA RI CT NY LONJ PA OH LEWVMD

DC DEVA AND CSTLWTRS

2. precautionary statements—This section

typically warns of IFR conditions and thun-

derstorms. The first line of this example

warns that IFR conditions may exist in vari-

ous portions of the effective FA area. The

second line warns of various conditions that

come with all thunderstorms including

icing (ICE), severe turbulence (SEV TURB),

and low-level wind shear (LLWS). Accord-

ing to the third line, heights are measured

from mean sea level (MSL), and heights

above ground level will be referred to with

the contractions CIG, for “ceiling,” or AGL,

for “above ground level.”

SEE AIRMET SIERRA FOR IFR CONDS AND MTN

OBSCN.

TS IMPLY SEV OR GTR TURB SEV ICE LLWS AND

IFR CONDS.

NONMSL HGTS DENOTED BY AGL OR CIG.

3. summary—The summary indicates the

location and movement of fronts and sys-

tems within the FA area. This example notes

that a cold front is moving though central

Ohio and Tennessee (WK LOW IS OVR LO

WITH CDFNT THRU CNTRL OH-WRN

TN).

SYNOPSIS...WK LOW IS OVR LO WITH CDFNT

THRU CNTRL OH-WRN TN. LOW

WL SLOLY DEEPEN AS IT MOVS NEWD TO JUST

N OF ME BY 00Z. CDFNTWL

EXTDTHRUCNTRLME-NJ-S CNTRLVA-NRNGA.


50


4. visual flight rules—clouds/weather—This

last section gives a forecast for the next 12

hours and then an outlook of the following

six hours. This section is usually broken

down by state or group of states. The first

part of the example (SCT120 BKN CI.

BECMG 15-18Z SCT050 BKN100) points

out that for Massachusetts, Rhode Island,

and Connecticut, scattered clouds at 12,000

feet with broken clouds in between will

become scattered clouds at 5,000 feet with

broken clouds at 10,000 from 1500 UTC

until 1800 UTC. The second section warns

that along coastal waters (CSTLWTRS),

there will be broken clouds (BKN) at 2100

UTC (21Z) with scattered and broken

clouds at 4,000 feet (SCT-BKN040), broken

clouds at 10,000 feet (BKN100), and widely

scattered light showers and rain (WDLY

SCT –SHRA) and light thunderstorms and

rain (-SHRA/-TSRA).

MA RI CT

SCT120 BKN CI. BECMG 15-18Z SCT050 BKN100.

BECMG 18-21Z BKN030-

050OVC100. TOPS FL200.OCNLVIS 3-5SM -SHRA.

WDLY SCT TSRA.

OTLK...MVFR CIG SHRA BECMG AFT 00Z VFR.

.

CSTLWTRS

S OF ACK...BKN CI. 21Z SCT-BKN040 BKN100.

WDLY SCT -SHRA/-TSRA.

CB TOPS FL400. OTLK...MVFR CIG SHRA TSRA.

N OF ACK...BKN CI. OTLK...MVFR CIG SHRA.

In-Flight Aviation Weather

Advisories

In addition to the METAR, TAF, and FA, there are five

In-Flight AviationWeatherAdvisories, each targeted

toward alerting pilots of a particular weather issue

while flying. They are

1. SIGMETs

2. convective SIGMETs

3. AIRMETs

4. convective outlooks (AC)

5. Severe Weather Watch Bulletins (WW)

SIGMETsA SIGMET, which stands for Significant Meteorolog-

ical Information, is an alert for nonconvective haz-

ardous weather, regardless of the size of the weather

system. In particular, SIGMETs warn of severe icing,

sandstorms, volcanic ash, and clear air turbulence.

They are issued as needed and are usually in effect for

four hours.

Convective SIGMETsConvective SIGMETs are issued for conditions such as

severe turbulence, severe icing, and low-level wind

shear. In particular, convective SIGMETs are issued for

severe thunderstorms—those with winds exceeding 50

knots or hail larger than three-fourths inches in diam-

eter or those with tornadoes, embedded thunder-

storms, a line of thunderstorms at least 60 miles long,

or thunderstorms with heavy precipitation that affect

more than a 3,000-square-mile area. Convective SIG-

METs are issued for these three areas on an hourly basis

with any particular forecast good for nomore than two

hours: (1) Eastern United States, (2) Central United

States, and (3) Western United States.

AIRMETsAIRMET stands for Airmen’s Meteorological Infor-

mation. AIRMETs are similar in format to SIGMETs,

but they address three categories of conditions of lower

intensity:


51


1. sierra category

2. tango category

3. zulu category

The sierra category describes IFR conditions and

mountain obscurations. The tango category includes

moderate turbulence, surface winds of 30+ knots, and

wind shear (non-convective). The zulu categorywarns

of moderate icing and freezing-level height informa-

tion. AIRMETs are issued every six hours and as

needed.

Convective OutlooksConvective outlooks (AC) are issued by Storm Pre-

diction Center (SPC) and aremeant to be used as flight

planning tools. They are a national forecast of thun-

derstorms and convective weather hazardsmade of two

forecasts: one of the first 24 hours and one of the sec-

ond 24 hours. Each forecast describes areas of slight,

moderate, and severe thunderstorms. Severe thunder-

storms are those with winds of 50 knots or more, hail

of three-fourths inches, or tornadoes.

Severe Weather Watch Bulletins (WW)SevereWeatherWatchBulletins (WW), also issued by

SPC, identify areas of severe thunderstorms or torna-

does. They are issued as needed and include tornado

watches (any area where conditions make a tornado a

possibility). Each bulletin has these parts: the type of

weather to watch for, the area, and the time; other

information linking it to previous watches; particular

phenomenon such as hail size, wind speed, cell direc-

tion, and speed; and the likely cause.

52



53

Examples of METARs with Translations

EXAMPLE 1

METAR text: KDEN 081553Z 09007KT 10SMBKN012 BKN020 OVC028 08/05 A3032 RMK AO2

SLP234 T00780050

Conditions at: KDEN (DENVER (DIA), CO, US) observed 1553 UTC 08 September 2008

Temperature: 7.8°C (46°F)

Dew point: 5.0°C (41°F) [RH = 82%]

Pressure (altimeter): 30.32 inches Hg (1026.8 mb) [Sea-level pressure: 1023.4 mb]

Winds: from the E (90 degrees) at 8 mph (7 knots; 3.6 m/s)

Visibility: 10 or more miles (16+ km)

Ceiling: 1,200 feet AGL

Clouds: broken clouds at 1,200 feet AGL; broken clouds at 2,000 feet AGL; overcast cloud

deck at 2,800 feet AGL

Weather: no significant weather observed at this time

EXAMPLE 2

METAR text: KBOS 081554Z VRB06KT 10SM CLR 24/11 A3012 RMK AO2 SLP199 T02390111

Conditions at: KBOS (BOSTON, MA, US) observed 1554 UTC 08 September 2008 Temperature:

23.9°C (75°F)

Dew point: 11.1°C (52°F) [RH = 45%]


Winds: variable direction winds at 7 mph (6 knots; 3.1 m/s)


Ceiling: at least 12,000 feet AGL

Clouds: sky clear below 12,000 feet AGL

Weather: no significant weather observed at this time

EXAMPLE 3

METAR text: KLAX 081553Z 14004KT 5SM HZ BKN016 21/16 A2980 RMK AO2 SLP091

T02060156

Conditions at: KLAX (LOS ANGELES, CA, US) observed 1553 UTC 08 September 2008

Temperature: 20.6°C (69°F)

Dew point: 15.6°C (60°F) [RH = 73%]


Winds: from the SE (140 degrees) at 5 mph (4 knots; 2.1 m/s)

Visibility: 5 miles (8 km)


Clouds: broken clouds at 1,600 feet AGL

Weather: HZ (haze)


Examples of TAFs with Translations

EXAMPLE 1

Forecast for: KMIA (MIAMI, FL, US)

Text: KMIA 082348Z 090024 07025G35KT P6SM VCSH BKN025 BKN040 OVC250

Forecast period: 0000 to 0400 UTC 09 September 2008

Forecast type: FROM: standard forecast or significant change

Winds: from the ENE (70 degrees) at 29 mph (25 knots; 13.0 m/s)

gusting to 40 mph (35 knots; 18.2 m/s)



Clouds: broken clouds at 2,500 feet AGL; broken clouds at 4,000 feet AGL; overcast

cloud deck at 25,000 feet AGL

Weather: VCSH (showers in vicinity)

Text: FM0400 09025G35KT P6SM VCTS BKN015CB OVC030



Winds: from the E (90 degrees) at 29 mph (25 knots; 13.0 m/s)




Clouds: broken clouds at 1,500 feet AGL; overcast cloud deck at 3,000 feet AGL

Weather: VCTS (thunderstorm in vicinity)

Text: FM1500 11020G30KT P6SM VCSH BKN025CB BKN040 OVC250

Forecast period: 1500 UTC 09 September 2008 to 0000 UTC 10 September 2008 Forecast type:

FROM: standard forecast or significant change

Winds: from the ESE (110 degrees) at 23 mph (20 knots; 10.4 m/s)




Clouds: broken clouds at 2,500 feet AGL; broken clouds at 4,000 feet AGL; overcast

cloud deck at 25,000 feet AGL

Weather: VCSH (showers in vicinity)

EXAMPLE 2

Forecast for: KGAG (GAGE, OK, US)

Text: KGAG 082346Z 090024 01015G20KT P6SM OVC009



54


Examples of TAFs with Translations (cont.)

Winds: from the N (10 degrees) at 17 mph (15 knots; 7.8 m/s)



Ceiling: 900 feet AGL

Clouds: overcast cloud deck at 900 feet AGL

Weather: no significant weather forecast for this period

Text: FM0200 01012KT P6SM OVC007



Winds: from the N (10 degrees) at 14 mph (12 knots; 6.2 m/s)



Clouds: overcast cloud deck at 700 feet AGL


Text: TEMPO 0913 2SM BR BKN005


Forecast type: TEMPORARY: The following changes expected for less than half the time period

Visibility: 2.00 miles (3.22 km)


Clouds: broken clouds at 500 feet AGL

Weather: BR (mist)

Text: FM1400 04008KT P6SM BKN013



Winds: from the NE (40 degrees) at 9 mph (8 knots; 4.2 m/s)








Winds: from the ENE (60 degrees) at 9 mph (8 knots; 4.2 m/s)






55


56

Examples of TAFs with Translations (cont.)

Forecast period: 1900 UTC 09 September 2008 to 0000 UTC 10 September 2008 Forecast type:

FROM: standard forecast or significant change

Winds: from the SE (130 degrees) at 9 mph (8 knots; 4.2 m/s)








1. Which allows pilots to access weather reportsand alter flight plans online?

a. Flight Service Stations (FSSs)

b. En Route Flight Advisory Services (EFAS)

c. Direct User Access Terminal Service (DUATS)

d. Hazardous In-flight Weather Advisory

Services (HIWAS)

2. One of the main differences between Storm Pre-diction Center (SPC) and AviationWeather Cen-

ter (AWC) is

a. AWC focuses specifically on the interests of

aviation while SPC issues forecasts for many

purposes.

b. SPC focuses specifically on the interests of

aviation while AWC issues forecasts for many

purposes.

c. AWC issues reports of current conditions while

SPC issues forecasts for the next three days.

d. SPC reports on conditions related to the

upper atmosphere while AWC reports on

conditions of a certain airport.

3. One major difference between the METAR andthe TAF is a

a. METAR is a report for any place while a TAF

is a forecast of the conditions for the next 24

hours around a particular airport.

b. METAR reports cloud height, wind speed and

direction, visibility, and hazardous weather

while the TAF focuses only on visibility.

c. METAR focuses on ground conditions while a

TAF focuses on the upper atmosphere.

d. METAR is a 24- to 48-hour forecast while a

TAF is a report of current conditions.

4. En Route Flight Advisory Services (EFAS) arespecifically for

a. issuing long-term forecasts to aid flight

planning before takeoff.

b. describing convective weather conditions at a

specific time and place.

c. describing conditions for the next 24 hours

around a particular airport.

d. informing in-flight aircraft of the position

and intensity of storms.

5. After checking with the online weather advisorysystem, pilots may contact flight service stations

(FSSs) to

a. alter or cancel existing flight plans.

b. report their own upper-air observations.

c. obtain a forecast for the next 24 hours around

a particular airport.

d. obtain more detailed meteorological

information.

6. Which statement about NEXRAD is true?a. It is too expensive to use widely.

b. It is not as effective as ATC radar.

c. It is incapable of sensing microbursts.

d. It is capable of sensing tiny moisture particles.

7. Upper-air observations are made in two ways:weather balloons and

a. ATC radar.

b. pilot reports.

c. NEXRAD.

d. weather satellites.


57


8. One significant difference between SIGMETs andAIRMETs is that SIGMETs

a. address more serious situations than

AIRMETs.

b. address a much wider time frame than

AIRMETs.

c. address conditions in any location while

AIRMETs address conditions near airports.

d. address conditions near airports while

AIRMETs address conditions in any location.

9. Of the five In-flight AviationWeather Advisories,the one to look to for information regarding

severe thunderstorms within the next hour is the

a. AIRMET.

b. SIGMET.

c. convective SIGMET.

d. Severe Weather Watch Bulletin (WW).

10. Of the five In-flight AviationWeather Advisories,the one to look to for information regarding pos-

sible thunderstorms over the next two days is the

a. AIRMET.

b. SIGMET.

c. convective outlook.

d. Severe Weather Watch Bulletin (WW).

11. Air Route Surveillance Radar (ARSR-4) has arange of

a. 100–150 NM.

b. 150–200 NM.

c. 200–250 NM.

d. 250–300 NM.

12. A change in wind direction or speed betweenaltitudes is called

a. wind shear.

b. turbulence.

c. a gale.

d. a gust front.

13.Which statement about weather satellites is true?a. They can orbit the earth from east to west.

b. Their observations have a delay of about two

hours.

c. They are unable to observe the same area for

an entire day.

d. They can orbit the earth in a stationary orbit.

14. Terminal Doppler Weather Radar (TDWR) cando all of the following except

a. warn controllers of microbursts.

b. report heavy precipitation.

c. detect bad weather between airports.

d. offer advanced warnings of shifting wind.

15.Which type of Storm Prediction Center (SPC)forecaster issues Tornado and Severe Thunder-

stormWatches?

a. assistant

b. mesoscale

c. lead

d. outlook

Check your answers on pages 287 and 288.


58


C H A P T E R

59

The Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) publishes aeronautical charts for both visual flight rules

(VFR) and instrument flight rules (IFR) aircraft. Aeronautical charts illustrate topography, such as

landmarks, and the location of navigational aids for controllers and pilots.

Pilots and controllers must take care to use the most current charts for navigation—using obsolete charts

is dangerous. Navigation information often changes, and pilots and controllers should check the effective dates

on a chart before using it. The next scheduled edition date of the chart appears on its cover. You can also consult

Aeronautical Chart Bulletins in the Airport/Facility Directory (A/FD) or the National Aeronautical Charting

Office (NACO) Web site (http://naco.faa.gov). Pay close attention to NOTAMs (notices to airmen) for changes

affecting flight that occur during a chart’s effective dates.

Charting andAir TrafficControl

CHAPTER SUMMARYAeronautical charts are available for both VFR and IFR flights. Con-

trollers use these charts for navigation. Sectional charts are the most

common charts used to navigate VFR flights. Controllers guiding pilots

flying IFR aircraft frequently reference several charts, including en route

low- and high-altitude charts.

4


� VFR Aeronautical Charts

The most common charts used for VFR flight are sec-

tional charts, which are often called sectionals. A sec-

tional shows topographical information for a

particular area such as roads, rivers, and lakes as well

as other visual checkpoints such as stadiums.

Sectionals also include aeronautical information such

as nearby airports, the radio frequencies pilots should

use, and the location of controlled and restricted air-

space. Sectionals are easy to read and look a lot like

roadmaps.

A sectional is named after amajor city within the

area it displays. Cartographers use five techniques to

accurately show topographical information on

sectionals:

1. contour lines—Lines connecting points on

the earth of equal elevation are called con-

tour lines. The spacing and pattern of con-

tour lines give pilots and controllers an idea

of what an area’s terrain is like.Widely

spaced contours indicate gentle slopes, and

closely spaced contours indicate steep

inclines. On aeronautical charts, land sur-

face elevations are referred to as relief.

Fig. 4.1. Contour Lines

2. shaded relief—Cartographers use shaded

relief on maps to show how terrain looks

from the air. If you fly in an aircraft on a

sunny day and look down at the terrain

below, some of it will be in the shade.

3. color tints—To show bands of elevation in

relation to sea level, cartographers use a

range of color tints called hypsotints. The

lowest elevations appear light green while

the highest elevations are dark brown.

Fig. 4.3. Color Tints

Fig. 4.2. Shaded Relief

–CHARTING AND AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL–

60


4. obstruction symbols—An obstruction is a

manmade structure that may affect pilots

and controllers. NACO maintains a database

of over 118,000 obstacles in the United

States, Canada, the Caribbean, and Mexico.

Generally, only manmade structures extend-

ing more than 200 feet above ground level

(AGL) are charted. Smaller obstructions are

charted only if they are hazardous, such as

when they are very close to an airport.

These symbols are used to indicate obstruc-

tions on sectionals:

� Obstacles less than 1,000 feet AGL

� Obstacles 1,000 feet AGL and higher

� Highest obstacle in an area

� Obstacles under construction

� Obstacles with high-intensity strobe

lighting systems

5. maximum elevation figures (MEFs)—An

MEF represents the highest elevation

within a quadrant of a sectional. (A quad-

rant on a sectional is the area surrounded

by ticked lines that divide each 30 minutes

of latitude and each 30 minutes of longi-

tude.) This elevation includes terrain and

obstacles such as towers and trees. MEFs are

indicated over both land and water, and

they are depicted to the nearest hundredth

value, so the last two digits are not shown.

For example, if the MEF is 11,500 feet, it

appears on the map as 115.

� IFR Aeronautical Charts

When visual navigation is not appropriate, pilots must

apply instrument flight rules (IFR) and use appropri-

ate charts. Controllers guiding pilots flying IFR aircraft

frequently reference the following charts:

� en route low-altitude charts� en route high-altitude charts� Alaska low- and high-altitude en route

charts� U.S. Terminal Procedures publications� world aeronautical charts (WACs)� terminal area charts� Airport/Facility Directory (A/FD)

IFR En Route Low-Altitute Charts

IFR en route low-altitude charts are used from the

ground up to 18,000 feet. These charts depict airways,

limits of controlled airspace, VHF (very high fre-

quency) radio navigational aids, reporting points,

obstruction clearance altitudes, selected airports,min-

imum en route altitudes, special-use airspace, andmil-

itary training routes among other information. En

route low-altitude charts are revised every 56 days, and

en route change notices are issued as needed between

revisions.

IFR En Route High-Altitute Charts

IFR en route high-altitude charts are similar to en

route low-altitude charts but are for use at or above

18,000 feet. These charts show jet routes, radio fre-

quencies, selected airports, time zones, and special-use


61

UC


airspace. They also indicate which airports have

instrument approach procedures and a minimum

5,000-foot runway. En route high-altitude charts are

revised every 56 days, and en route change notices are

issued as needed between revisions.

Alaska Low- and High-Altitude

En Route Charts

These charts contain the same information as low-

and high-altitude en route charts except the informa-

tion on them pertains specifically to Alaska. The

Alaska low- and high-altitude en route charts are

revised every 56 days.

Fig. 4.4. An Excerpt from a Sectional Chart

Fig. 4.5. An En Route Low-Altitude Chart


62


U.S. Terminal Procedures

Publications

U.S. Terminal Procedures publications cover the

United States, Puerto Rico, and the Virgin Islands and

include these charts:

1. instrument approach procedure (IAP)

charts—These charts display aeronautical

information necessary to execute instru-

ment approaches to airports, including nav-

igation data, communications information,

and a sketch of the airport. The procedures

presented in these charts are meant to be

used with a specific electronic navigation

aid such as ILS or VOR.

2. standard instrument departure (SID)

charts—IFR aircraft are required to file

flight plans with the FAA. Clearance deliv-

ery refers to the FAA’s approval or alteration

and approval of these flight plans. Standard

instrument departure (SID) charts display

information used to expedite clearance

delivery and incorporate abatement

requirements.

3. standard terminal arrival (STAR) charts—

These charts help controllers issue arrival

procedures and facilitate pilots’ transitions

from en route to instrument approach oper-

ations by giving pilots this information

beforehand. Each STAR procedure is dis-

played in a different chart.

World Aeronautical Charts

(WACs)

World aeronautical charts (WACs) are similar to sec-

tionals in that they show topographical information

such as relief, major roadways, railroads, and land-

marks as well as navigational information such as air-

ports, airways, restricted areas, and obstructions.

WACs cover a much broader area, however, and are

small enough for moderate-speed aircraft. A WAC

covers an eight-degree latitude section and is valid for

one year.

Terminal Area Charts

Terminal area charts illustrate Class B airspace. They

show the same information as sectional charts but in

greater detail. These charts are used by pilots operat-

ing in or near Class B airspace.

Airport/Facility Directory (A/FD)

TheAirport/FacilityDirectory (A/FD) contains infor-

mation about airports such as hours of operation, fuel

availability, and the length and width of runways as

well as information about navigational aids. The direc-

tory offers other information such as parachute jump-

ing areas and National Weather Service (NWS)

upper-air observation stations. Each volume is indexed

alphabetically by state.

Fig. 4.6. An En Route High-Altitude Chart


63


Information Found on Both Low- and High-Altitude En Route Charts

Routes or airways are formed in the shape of corridors and are marked with navigational aids such as VOR-

TACs. Low-altitude routes, those below 18,000 feet, are called Victor airways and are marked with the letter

V, as in V64 (pronounced Victor sixty-four). High-altitude routes, those at or above 18,000 feet, are called jet

routes and are marked with the letter J, as in J187.

Navigational aids mark the position of radio beacons and transmitters used for navigation, such as the Tac-

tical Air Navigation (TACAN), which provides bearing and distance information.

Minimum en route altitude (MEA) is the lowest altitude of a guaranteed navigational signal shown as a num-

ber along the airway.

Minimum crossing altitude (MCA) is the lowest altitude allowed because of obstacles or a possible loss of

navigational signal.

Minimum obstruction clearance altitude (MOCA) is the lowest altitude allowed between radio fixes on VOR

(VHF omnidirectional range) airways, off-airway routes, and route segments that meets obstacle clearance

requirements and assures navigational coverage within 22 NM of a VOR.

Minimum reception altitude (MRA) is the lowest altitude at which an airway intersection is identifiable by

reception of both navigational signals.

Changeover points (COPs) are points of handoff from the current navigational aid to the next navigational aid.

A COP is usually halfway between the two, but if it is not, this will be shown on the chart.

Maximum authorized altitude (MAA) is the highest altitude usable with adequate reception of navigational

signals. Above the MAA, there may be interference from other navigational aids.

64




1. En route high-altitude charts are similar to enroute low-altitude charts but are for use at or

above

a. 10,000 feet.

b. 16,000 feet.

c. 18,000 feet.

d. 22,000 feet.

2. The chart commonly used for visual navigationis the

a. sectional chart.

b. world aeronautical chart (WAC).

c. standard terminal arrival (STAR) chart.

d. instrument approach procedure (IAP) chart.

3. The letter “V” in the route name V64 suggeststhat the route is

a. oriented east-west.

b. oriented north-south.

c. a low-altitude airway.

d. a high-altitude airway.

4. The lowest altitude allowed because of obstaclesis called the

a. minimum reception altitude (MRA).

b. maximum authorized altitude (MAA).

c. minimum crossing altitude (MCA).

d. minimum en route altitude (MEA).

5. Which statement about instrument approachprocedure (IAP) charts is true?

a. IAP charts show information that helps pilots

execute instrument approaches to airports.

b. IAP charts guide air traffic and show routes

for noise abatement.

c. IAP charts simplify clearance delivery

procedures and help pilots clear obstacles

safely.

d. IAP charts help pilots transition from an en

route instrument flying mode to instrument

approach operations.

6. What kind of chart shows roads, railroads, land-marks, and topography on a small scale that is

suitable for moderate-speed aircraft?

a. en route low-altitude chart

b. world aeronautical chart (WAC)

c. terminal area chart

d. instrument approach procedure (IAP) chart

7. Which of the following would most likely becharted as an obstruction on a sectional chart?

a. a skyscraper that is 300 feet AGL

b. a warehouse that is 600 feet long

c. a bridge that is 50 feet AGL

d. a mountain that is 250 feet AGL

8. A steep contour on a sectional chart would beindicated by lines that are

a. far apart.

b. light green.

c. close together.

d. shaded.


65


9. The maximum elevation figure (MEF) on a sec-tional is 9,200 feet. How would this number

appear on the chart?

a. 9.2

b. 92

c. 9200

d. 920

10.Which U.S. Terminal Procedures publication isused to expedite clearance delivery?

a. instrument approach procedure (IAP) chart

b. standard instrument departure (SID) chart

c. clearance delivery (CD) chart

d. standard terminal arrival (STAR) chart



66


As you learned in Chapter 1, the Analogy Test measures your ability to reason well.As you can imag-

ine, air traffic controllers must be able to formulate scenarios and quickly draw conclusions based

on what they see. An analogy is a comparison of two words or pictures that somehow relate to

each other. The Analogy Test will present you with a complete analogy, and you need to determine the relation-

ship between the twowords or symbols in this analogy.Youwill then be presented with half an analogy that, when

completed, should have the same relationship as the first. You need to choose the answer choice that best com-

pletes the second analogy.

� The Analogy Test

The Analogy Test will present you with 30 word analogies and 27 visual analogies, for a total of 57 questions.

Though you will actually take this test on a computer, this chapter of the book will help prepare you for what

you will see on the screen.

Analogies

CHAPTER SUMMARYThe Analogy Test is one of seven cognitive tests on the AT-SAT. On

this test, you will answer questions about word and visual analogies.

Each question has three boxes. The first box contains a complete

analogy. The second box contains part of an analogy and a question

mark, and the third box contains four answer options.

5C H A P T E R

67


Each analogy question will appear as a set of

three boxes.You will not be able to see the information

in these boxes until youmove themouse over each one.

This means you will only be able to view one box at a

time. The first box will contain the first analogy,which

will be a complete analogy. The second box will con-

tain half of the second analogy and a question mark

indicating the portion of the analogy that you will

complete. The third box will present four possibilities

(a, b, c, and d) for completing the analogy. You will

have to select one of these four choices.

� Word Analogies

In aword analogy, words represent objects or actions.

Each word in the analogy has a certain relationship to

the other word. Look at the following word analogy:

First, examine the language of an analogy. The

colon between the words represents the words “is to.”

If you were to say the first comparison aloud to your-

self, you would say,“Old is to young.”Between the first

two comparisons is the unspoken word “as.” If you

were to say the analogy aloud as it appears here, you

would say, “Old is to young as little is to _____.” Of

course, to complete the analogy, you will fill in the

blank with another word.

If you think about the relationship between the

two words, you will realize that “old” and “young” are

opposites. This means that the word you are looking

for is the opposite of “little.” The test will provide you

with four answer choices to help you complete each

analogy. Look at the answer choices for this question:

Do you see a word with the opposite meaning of

“little”? Answer choice c, “big,” is the opposite of “lit-

tle.” This is the best choice to complete the analogy:

“Old is to young as little is to big.”

Words in an analogy can have many different

relationships. Look at Figure 5.1 to see some examples

of the different relationships expressed in analogies:

Fig. 5.1. Relationships Commonly Expressed in Word Analogies

Keep in mind, however, that analogies can

express all kinds of information.As long as you can fig-

ure out the relationship between the first two words,

you will be able to choose the correct answer to create

this same relationship in the second pair of words.

Now look at some examples of some different

kinds of relationships commonly expressed in word

analogies. Try to identify each type of analogy and

guess the correct answer before you look at the answer

explanation below the question.

Relationships Commonly Expressed in Word Analogies

Relationship Example Analogy

Antonyms/opposites Near : Far

Synonyms Cold : Chilly

Part of a whole Finger : Hand

Function of a tool Pen : Write

Cause and effect Trip : Fall

Material to product Metal : Gate

Worker to job Driver : Drive

Worker to tool Plumber : Wrench

Masculine to feminine Son : Daughter

Type to a group Chicken : Food

–ANALOGIES–

68


1.

To find the answer to this analogy, first say it to

yourself: “Petal is to flower as page is to _____.” Then

think about the relationship between the two words in

the first comparison: A petal is part of a flower. Ask

yourself which object is made of pages. A page is part

of a book. The correct answer is c.

2.

At first, you might think that this question has

more than one answer. A firefighter uses a hose to put

out fires, but a firefightermight also coil a hose or drag

a hose to a fire hydrant. If you think of more than one

answer, try to find a word in the answer choices that

expresses the same relationship in the second compar-

ison. A carpenter is not likely to “coil” or “drag” any of

the objects listed in the answer choices. You are look-

ing for the best possible answer to complete the anal-

ogy. A firefighter uses a hose as a carpenter uses a saw.

Answer choice d is correct.

3.

This is a synonym analogy. Both words in each

comparison share the same meaning. To answer this

question, find the word with the same meaning as

“run.” Fly is to soar as run is to sprint. Answer choice

b is the correct answer.

� Visual Analogies

A visual analogy also expresses a relationship. Instead

of using words, a visual analogy uses symbols or pic-

tures to show a relationship. Visual analogies often

show symbols in different positions. Once you have

determined how the figure in the complete analogy has

changed, you can complete the unfinished analogy by

visualizing the second object changing position.

Look at the following visual analogy:

The object in the first analogy is a triangle. The

first triangle is upright (�), while the second one has

fallen to the right (�). Likewise, the first arrow in the

second analogy is pointing upward (�). Which way

should the second arrow point? The arrow should

–ANALOGIES–

69


express the same relationship shown by the triangles,

whichmeans it should point to the right (�). The cor-

rect answer here is b.

Other visual analogies might show a specific

change within a figure or a change in a sequence. The

following are some examples of different kinds of rela-

tionships commonly expressed in visual analogies. Try

to figure out what kind of change is taking place in each

before you choose an answer. Then see if your choice

is correct by reading the answer explanation for each

question.

4.

The first comparison shows amirror image of the

circle. To correctly complete the second analogy, you

will have to find the symbol that shows amirror image

of the one in the box. Some of the answer choices show

variations in which the symbol has been altered in

some way. The only choice that shows a mirror image

of the symbol is answer choice a.

5.

Sequence analogies contain a lot of detail. They

also contain patterns, or sequences. These patterns are

easy to follow if you take a moment to notice how the

symbols in the analogies are moving or changing. In

the first comparison, the upright arrows are pointing

to the left, then to the center, and then to the right. The

upside-down arrows follow the same pattern. In the

second comparison, the same pattern is being followed.

Look for the answer choice in which the upside-down

symbols point to the left, then to the center, and then

to the right. Answer choice c shows this pattern.

Analogies can be tricky, but they will make more

sense to you the more you practice. Your goal on the

AT-SAT Analogy Test is to identify the correct symbol

very quickly. TheAnalogy Test is not only a test of com-

prehension, but also of speed and memory. Because

you can only see the contents of one box at a time, you

will have to remember what is in one box as you move

on to another. Skip questions that you cannot answer.

You will not be penalized for skipping questions, and

you will have a chance to return to them at the end.

This will give you more time to move on to questions

that you can answer, which will increase your score.

Think of the practice questions at the end of this chap-

ter and in the analogies practice test as exercise for your

eyes and brain. Themore you practice, the easier it will

be for you to see the correct answer, and the faster you

will get!

–ANALOGIES–

70




1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

–ANALOGIES–

71


10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

–ANALOGIES–

72


18.

19.

20.


–ANALOGIES–

73



� Pract ice Test 1—Analogy Test

Review the analogy in the first box. Choose the

answer that best completes the analogy in the second

box, so that it expresses the same relationship as the

analogy in the first box. Mark the letter on the answer

sheet on page 87.

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

–PRACTICE TEST 1—ANALOGY TEST–

75


10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.


76


20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.


77


30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

–PRACTICE TEST 1—ANALOGY TEST––PRACTICE TEST 1—ANALOGY TEST–

78


40.

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

–PRACTICE TEST 1—ANALOGY TEST––PRACTICE TEST 1—ANALOGY TEST–

79


50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.


80


60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.


81


70.

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

76.

77.

78.

79.


82


80.

81.

82.

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

88.

89.


83


90.

91.

92.

93.

94.

95.

96.

97.


84


98.

99.

100.


85



Practice Test 1—Analogy Test

–LEARNINGEXPRESS ANSWER SHEET–

87

1. a b c d

2. a b c d

3. a b c d

4. a b c d

5. a b c d

6. a b c d

7. a b c d

8. a b c d

9. a b c d

10. a b c d

11. a b c d

12. a b c d

13. a b c d

14. a b c d

15. a b c d

16. a b c d

17. a b c d

18. a b c d

19. a b c d

20. a b c d

21. a b c d

22. a b c d

23. a b c d

24. a b c d

25. a b c d

26. a b c d

27. a b c d

28. a b c d

29. a b c d

30. a b c d

31. a b c d

32. a b c d

33. a b c d

34. a b c d

35. a b c d

36. a b c d

37. a b c d

38. a b c d

39. a b c d

40. a b c d

41. a b c d

42. a b c d

43. a b c d

44. a b c d

45. a b c d

46. a b c d

47. a b c d

48. a b c d

49. a b c d

50. a b c d

51. a b c d

52. a b c d

53. a b c d

54. a b c d

55. a b c d

56. a b c d

57. a b c d

58. a b c d

59. a b c d

60. a b c d

61. a b c d

62. a b c d

63. a b c d

64. a b c d

65. a b c d

66. a b c d

67. a b c d

68. a b c d

69. a b c d

70. a b c d

71. a b c d

72. a b c d

73. a b c d

74. a b c d

75. a b c d

76. a b c d

77. a b c d

78. a b c d

79. a b c d

80. a b c d

81. a b c d

82. a b c d

83. a b c d

84. a b c d

85. a b c d

86. a b c d

87. a b c d

88. a b c d

89. a b c d

90. a b c d

91. a b c d

92. a b c d

93. a b c d

94. a b c d

95. a b c d

96. a b c d

97. a b c d

98. a b c d

99. a b c d

100. a b c d


� Answers and Explanat ions

1. a. The second image in the first comparison hasbeen rotated 45 degrees to the right. Answer

choice a completes the analogy with a 45-

degree rotation of the first image in the sec-

ond comparison.

2. c. Jazz is a type of music, and a carrot is a typeof vegetable.

3. b.Close is an action performed on a door. Mowis an action performed on grass.

4. d.The figure in the first comparison is horizon-tal and then vertical. Since the first figure in

the second comparison is horizontal, the

analogy can be completed with the vertical

figure shown in answer choice d.

5. b. South and north are opposite directions, justas right and left are opposite directions.

6. c. In the first comparison, the first image hasbeen rotated 180 degrees. The image that

makes the second comparison analogous to

the first comparison is answer choice c.

7. a. The first comparison shows the relationshipbetween a figure and a shape created with a

triple image of the figure. The correct answer,

answer choice a, shows a triple image of the

figure in the incomplete comparison.

8. b.This is a “part of a whole” analogy. A slice is apart of a pizza, just as a quarter is a part of a

dollar.

9. d.A hat is a type of clothing, and a flute is atype of instrument.

10. c. Evening comes right before night, just asdawn comes right before day.

11. d.The first set of images shows a diagonal lineand then a circle and a diagonal line com-

bined. The image in the incomplete set shows

an equal sign and a diagonal line combined.

To make the two sets of images analogous,

the second set must be completed with the

same diagonal line that appears in the first

set.

12. a. Expensive and pricey share the same mean-ing. Fluid shares the same meaning as liquid.

13. c. Grandfather is the female equivalent ofgrandmother. The female equivalent of uncle

is aunt.

14. b. In the first comparison, the first image is anoutline, while the second image has been

completely filled in. Answer choice b shows a

completely filled-in version of the star

outline.

15. d.True and false are antonyms, meaning theyhave opposite meanings. The opposite of

freeze is thaw.

16. b.The first set of images shows a comparisonbetween an image and a rotated version of

the image. The image that shows this same

rotation in the second set is answer choice b.

17. b.A thermometer is a tool used by a doctor. Aspatula is a tool used by a chef.

18. b.A branch is a part of a tree, just as a keyboardis part of a computer.

19. d.The first set shows a circle compared to a cir-cle with a line above it and a line below it.

The analogy can be correctly completed with

a rectangle, which is shown in answer

choice d.

20. a. A foot is a larger unit of measurement thanan inch. A pound is a larger unit of measure-

ment than an ounce.

21. d.A sofa is a piece of furniture most oftenfound in a living room. A desk is a piece of

furniture most often found in an office.

22. b.A frog sometimes lives in a pond, while a bearsometimes lives in a cave.


88


23. c. The first comparison shows a mirror imageof two figures. Answer choice c shows the

mirror image of the figure in the second

comparison.

24. c. Strong and mighty have the same meaning.The word with the same meaning as drowsy

is tired.

25. b.The two sets of figures in the first comparisoneach show two separate figures and then an

image of the combined figures, as does the

first set of figures in the incomplete compari-

son. To complete the analogy, answer choice

b shows two separate figures and then an

image of the combined figures.

26. c.Wide is the opposite of narrow, as young isthe opposite of old.

27. c. A boat travels on the water, and a train travelson tracks.

28. d.A key fits into a lock as a peg fits into a hole.29. b.The first comparison shows arrows pointing

in two different directions. The arrows that

point opposite the ones in the incomplete

comparison are shown in answer choice b.

30. a. A kitten matures to become a cat, while a cubmatures to become a lion.

31. d.The second image in the first comparison hasbeen rotated 180 degrees. Answer choice d

completes the analogy with a 180-degree

rotation of the first image in the second

comparison.

32. b.A slob is a person who is messy, while a pro-fessor is a person who is smart.

33. a. A teller works in a bank, and a nurse works

in a hospital.

34. c. The first comparison shows two identicalimages with opposite colors. Answer choice c

completes the analogy with an identical shape

with reverse colors of the first image in the

incomplete comparison.

35. c. These analogies show synonyms, or wordswith the same meaning. A pastime is a hobby,

and a mission is a task.

36. c. This is a “masculine to feminine” analogy. Aprince is to a princess as an emperor is to an

empress.

37. b.The images in the first comparison are identi-cal. Answer choice b completes the analogy

with a shape that is identical to the image in

the second comparison.

38. d.The second image in the second comparisonhas been turned 180 degrees. Answer choice d


rotation of the first image in the first

comparison.

39. b.A telephone is a device used to chat withsomeone. A calculator is a device used to

compute something.

40. d.This is a “type to a group” analogy. A cashewis a type of nut.Milk is a type of beverage.

41. a. The first comparison shows an image andthen a triple version of the image. Answer

choice a completes the analogy by showing

the single image that is tripled in the second

comparison.

42. c. This is a “cause and effect” analogy. Feelingnervous might cause a person to tremble,

while feeling amused might cause a person

to laugh.

43. d.A painting is often created on a canvas, whilea poem is often created in a notebook.

44. b.A priestess is the title for a female priest. Ladyis an English title of honor for a woman. The

male equivalent is lord.

45. a. The second image in the first comparison hasbeen rotated 90 degrees clockwise. Answer

choice a completes the analogy with a 90-

degree clockwise rotation of the first image in



89


46. a. The dove is a symbol that stands for peace,and a heart is a symbol that represents love.

47. c. Bitter and sweet are antonyms, or opposites.The word with the opposite meaning of

moist is dry.

48. a. The images in the first comparison show asymbol and then a thicker version of the

symbol. Answer choice a is a thinner version

of the symbol in the second comparison.

49. a. The images in the second comparison show adark image and a more detailed lighter image.

Answer choice a completes the analogy with a

dark version of the detailed image in the first

comparison.

50. d.A postal worker’s job is to deliver mail. Atruck driver’s job is to deliver cargo.

51. a. Scent is a synonym for smell.Noise is a syn-onym for sound.

52. c. The second image in the first comparison hasbeen rotated 180 degrees. Answer choice c


rotation of the second image in the second

comparison.

53. c. This is a “part of a whole” analogy. A pupil ispart of an eye, just as a knuckle is part of a

finger.

54. d.A knife is a tool used to cut, while an oven isa tool used to bake.

55. b.The second image in the first comparison hasbeen rotated 90 degrees counterclockwise.

Answer choice b completes the analogy with

a 90-degree rotation of the second image in


56. b.A car is a type of vehicle. A courthouse is atype of building.

57. c. The second image in the first comparison hasbeen rotated 180 degrees and doubled.

Answer choice c completes the analogy with a

single version of the second image in the sec-

ond comparison. The image has also gone

through a 180-degree rotation.

58. a. The images in the first comparison are identi-cal except that their coloring is reversed.

Answer choice a completes the analogy with

an identical shape in which the color has

been reversed.

59. c. A kite can be found in the sky, just as a sail-boat can be found in the ocean.

60. a. A fisherman uses a rod to catch fish, while alumberjack uses a saw to cut down trees.

61. d.Safe and dangerous are antonyms. The oppo-site of early is late.

62. c. The images in the first comparison are identi-cal except that one image is flipped horizon-

tally. Answer choice d completes the analogy

with an identical shape to the first image in

the second comparison that is flipped

horizontally.

63. b.Blue is a type of color, and a boot is a type ofshoe.

64. b.The first symbol in the first comparison iscompared to a version of the symbol within a

box. Answer choice b completes the analogy

by showing the symbol in the first compari-

son within a box.

65. a. Jump and leap are synonyms. Thief and bur-glar also have the same meaning.

66. c. Heir is the masculine form of the wordheiress, just as waiter is the masculine form

of the word waitress.

67. b.The images in the second comparison areidentical. Answer choice b completes the

analogy with a shape that is identical to the

first image in the first comparison.

68. b.First and last have opposite meanings. Theword with the opposite meaning of worst is

best.


90


69. a. The images in the first comparison show acapital symbol and a lowercase symbol.

Answer choice a completes the analogy with

the lowercase version of the symbol in the

second comparison.

70. d.A comedy is one type of movie, just as a dic-tionary is one type of book.

71. a. Keys are part of a piano just as strings arepart of a guitar.

72. a. The first two images in the second sequencehave been combined to create the third

image. The image that completes the

sequence correctly is answer choice a, the

clover with three petals.

73. b.The images in the first comparison are identi-cal. Answer choice b completes the analogy

with a shape that is identical to the second

image in the second comparison.

74. c. The purpose of glasses is to clarify vision. Thepurpose of a bandage is to protect a wound.

75. c. The first comparison shows a flower and anidentical flower with one petal removed. The

second image in the second comparison

shows a flower with one petal removed.

Answer choice c is correct because it shows

the entire flower.

76. b.An artist creates sketches, and a chef createsdishes.

77. d.A pear is one type of fruit. Beef is one type ofmeat.

78. b.The images in the first comparison are identi-cal except that one image is facing right and

one image is facing left. Answer choice b

completes the analogy with an identical shape

that is facing in the opposite direction of the

second image in the comparison.

79. c. Clean and spotless are synonyms. They sharethe same meaning. Filthy has the same

meaning as dirty.

80. a. The images in the first comparison are identi-cal, but the second image is darker than the

first. Answer choice a completes the second

comparison with an identical shape in which

the second image is darker than the first.

81. b. Joy and grief are opposite emotions, just aspush and pull are opposite actions.

82. c. A pool is filled with water, and a sandbox isfull of sand.

83. a. A poem is made up of words, as a song ismade up of lyrics.

84. b.The second image in the first comparison is athree-dimensional version of the first image.

Answer choice b completes the analogy with

a two-dimensional version of the second

image in the second comparison.

85. a. Add is a synonym of increase, just as depart isa synonym of leave.

86. d.A barber uses scissors as a photographer usesa camera.

87. b.The second comparison shows a vertical fig-ure compared to a horizontal image of the

figure overlapped with a second horizontal

image. The vertical rectangle seen in answer

choice b completes the analogy.

88. b.Decrease and reduce share the same meaning.Untrue and false also share the same

meaning.

89. d.Learn and teach are opposite actions, as arebuy and sell.

90. b.A fork is a type of utensil, as amaple is a type

of tree.

91. b.The first comparison shows a horizontalshape inside of an oval compared to a larger,

vertical version of the image on the outside of

the oval. Answer choice b shows a small, hori-

zontal version of the large shape on the out-

side of the oval in the incomplete

comparison.


91


92. c. The second comparison shows two oppositeimages, and then the same images with a

shape between them. Answer choice c, which

shows two opposite images without a shape

between them, completes the analogy.

93. a. A puppet is a type of toy. Aspirin is a type ofmedicine.

94. b.Miserable and happy are opposite emotions,as are excited and calm.

95. c. Hero is the masculine form of heroine, just aswidower is the masculine form of widow.

96. a. The first comparison shows two versions ofan image and the same image with a line

underneath. Answer choice a completes the

second comparison to make the two sets

analogous.

97. c. The second comparison shows a circle with adiagonal line running through it compared to

a circle with a horizontal line running

through it. A square with a horizontal line

running through it will complete the analogy;

this image is presented in answer choice c.

98. b.A farmer drives a tractor just as a pilot flies a

plane.

99. b.The second image in the second comparisonhas been rotated 90 degrees. To make the first

comparison analogous, answer choice b is

correct.

100. c. A horse lives in a stable, and a pig lives in apen.


92


Since controllers must be able to perform mathematical calculations, two tests on the AT-SAT are

about math: the Angles Test and the Applied Math Test. You will take these tests on a computer,

and you will not be able to use a pencil and paper to calculate your answers. For the Angles Test,

you will need to be able to recognize themeasurement of angles without using a protractor. The Angles Test con-

tains 30 multiple-choice questions. For the Applied Math Test, you will have to calculate distance problems as

quickly as you can.While this might seem difficult, it will be much easier if you practice, practice, practice! The

Applied Math Test contains 30 multiple-choice questions, but the first five are practice items and are not scored.

� Angles

You probably learned about angles back in elementary school and then again in high school.When two raysmeet

and share an endpoint, they form an angle.

Angles andApplied Math

CHAPTER SUMMARYThe Angles Test and the Applied Math Test are cognitive tests on the

AT-SAT. For some questions on the Angles Test, you will be shown an

angle and asked to choose the correct measurement. For other ques-

tions, you will have to click on the angle that is a given measurement.

On the Applied Math Test, you will be asked questions about the

movement of aircraft. You will have to calculate time, distance, and

speed.

6C H A P T E R

93


Angles are usually named for the letters used to

label their rays and point, as in this angle, which would

be named ABC:

Angles on the AT-SAT do not have letters, how-

ever. They simply look like this:

TheAngles Test assesses your ability to recognize

the measure of an angle. You do not really need a pro-

tractor to do this. You need only basic knowledge of

angle measurement.

Angles are grouped into these categories:

Acute Angles

Acute anglesmeasure between 0 and 90 degrees.

These angles are acute:

Obtuse Angles

Obtuse anglesmeasure more than 90 degrees but not

more than 180 degrees. These are obtuse angles:

A

B C

0º

30º

80º

95º

45º

–ANGLES AND APPLIED MATH–

94


Right Angles

A right angle measures exactly 90 degrees. The rays

that make up a right angle are perpendicular, as in

these right angles:

Straight Angles

A straight angle is 180 degrees and looks like a

straight line with a point in the middle. This is a

straight angle:

Reflex Angles

Reflex angles have a measure that is greater than

180 degrees but less than 360 degrees. These are reflex

angles:

180º

240º

200º

280º

340º

150º

175º

90º

90º


95


Complete Angles

A complete anglemeasures 360 degrees. This is

a complete angle:

Questions About Angles

Two types of questions about angles appear on the

Angles Test. In the first type, you are given an angle and

asked to choose its measurement, as in this question:

What is the measure of this angle?

a. 25°

b. 45°

c. 95°

d. 120°

You can correctly answer this question using the

process of elimination. You can tell by looking at the

angle that it is less than 90 degrees, so you can elimi-

nate answer options c and d. A 25-degree angle is very

small, so answer choice a is not correct. The angle looks

as if its measure is about half of 90 degrees, so 45

degrees is the best answer choice.

In the second type of question, you are given a

measurement and asked to choose the angle that

matches this measurement, as in this question:

Which of the following represents a 20-degree angle?

a.

b.

c.

d.

You can also find the answer to this question

using the process of elimination. You know that a 20-

degree angle is much smaller than a 90-degree angle.

You also know that a 45-degree angle is half the size of

a 90-degree angle. Using this reasoning, you can tell

that answer choice c is correct.

Try to answer these questions without looking at

the answer explanations:


96


1. What is the measure of this angle?

a. 75°

b. 90°

c. 220°

d. 180°

The angle is not 90 degrees, and it is not less than

90 degrees, so eliminate answer choices a and b.A 180-

degree angle looks like a straight line, so also eliminate

answer choice d. The correct answer choice is c.

2. Which of the following represents a 75-degreeangle?

a.

b.

c.

d.

This angle is less than 90 degrees, so eliminate

answer choices c and d. It is too large to be a 25-degree

angle. The correct answer is b.

� Appl ied Math

On the Applied Math Test, you will answer questions

that require you to calculate the movement of an air-

craft—its time, distance, or speed. You need to do this

without pencil and paper and as quickly as possible. If

you have difficulty answering a question, skip it and

move on. There are 30 multiple-choice questions on

theAppliedMath Test, but the first five are for practice

and are not scored.

You will use a version of this formula to answer

all items in this section of the test:

T = D/S

T = time

D = distance

S = speed or rate

Time = distance/speed


97


Not every question in this section will ask for

time, however. Use these variations of this formula to

find rate and distance:

S = D/T

Speed (or rate) = distance/time

D = S × T

Distance = speed (or rate) × time

Memorize these formulas, so you can work

through the questions quickly and confidently. It is also

important to know that in these formulas, you must

give the time in hours, not minutes (see sidebar,“Con-

verting Minutes to Hours”).

Here is a sample question:

How many miles apart are city A and city B if

N74986 (310 miles per hour) takes 210 minutes

to fly from one city to the other?

a. 950

b. 885

c. 750

d. 1,085

This question asks you to find the distance, so

you would use the formula D = S × T. Begin by con-

verting 210 minutes to hours:

210 ÷ 60 = 3.5

Now plug the values into the formula and

multiply:

D = 310 × 3.5

The answer is 1,085miles.What if you are unable

to multiply this quickly without a calculator? Round

the numbers and quickly estimate. The number 300

multiplied by 3 is 900—but you know your answer is

greater than this because you rounded both numbers

down. The only answer choice that fits is d.

Now try another example:

It takes N73JPC 5 hours and 45 minutes to fly

from one airport to another. If the distance

between the airports is 1,725 miles, what is the

average speed of N73JPC in miles per hour?

a. 297

b. 300

c. 317

d. 305

Converting Minutes to Hours

To solve the problems in the Applied Math section of the AT-SAT, you will often have to convert minutes to hours.

To find hours and minutes when you know only the number of minutes, simply divide the number of minutes

by 60. The quotient is the number of hours. If a remainder exists, it goes after the decimal point.

Examples:

240 minutes = 4 hours

260 minutes = 4.3 hours

98


This question asks you to find the speed or rate

of an aircraft, so you should use the formula S = D/T.

Use 5.75 to represent 5 hours and 45 minutes.

The average speed of N73JPC is 300 miles per

hour, so answer choice b is correct.

Now, try these questions.Cover the answer expla-

nation beneath each question and see if you can solve

it without help.

1. How long does it take an aircraft to fly 1,020miles if it travels at 240 miles per hour?

a. 4 hours and 15 minutes

b. 4 hours and 25 minutes

c. 4 hours and 35 minutes

d. 4 hours and 45 minutes

Use the formula T = D/S. Plug in the values:

It takes 4.25 hours, which is equivalent to 4 hours

and 15 minutes. Answer choice a is correct.

2. N35284 has descended from 8,140 feet to 5,800feet in 6 minutes.What is the average descent

rate in feet per minute?

a. 400

b. 380

c. 390

d. 370

You need to calculate the speed or rate to answer

this question.Use the formula S =D/T. To find the dis-

tance in this problem, subtract 5,800 from 8,140.

The descent rate is 390 feet per minute. Answer

choice c is correct.

3. How many miles has N63GJM flown after 42

minutes at a speed of 330 miles per hour?

a. 198

b. 246

c. 231

d. 215

Use the formula for distance, D = S × T. To con-

vert 42minutes into hour format, divide it by 60 (42 ÷

60 = 0.7). 42 minutes is equal to 0.7 hours. Now plug

the correct values into the formula.

N63GJMhas flown 231miles. The correct answer

is c.

S = = 30017255.75

T = = 4.251020240

S = = 3908140 - 58006

D = 330 x 0.7 = 231


99





a. 90°

b. 100°

c. 130°

d. 180°


a.

b.

c.

d.


a. 95°

b. 120°

c. 160°

d. 180°


a.

b.

c.

d.


100



a. 20°

b. 45°

c. 600°

d. 80°


a.

b.

c.

d.


a. 70°

b. 90°

c. 110°

d. 140°


a.

b.

c.

d.


101



a. 40°

b. 170°

c. 180°

d. 120°


a.

b.

c.

d.


11. The distance between Columbus and Scranton is400 miles. How many minutes will it take an air-

craft to fly from one city to the other if it is trav-

eling at a speed of 250 miles per hour?

a. 78

b. 90

c. 84

d. 96

12. N82JPC is 12 minutes from flying overDubuque. If it is traveling at a speed of 245 miles

per hour, how many miles is it from Dubuque?

a. 55

b. 49

c. 52

d. 46

13. The round-trip distance between two cities is210 miles. If it takes an aircraft 20 minutes to fly

from one city to the other, what is the aircraft’s

average speed in miles per hour?

a. 315

b. 515

c. 430

d. 630

14. N704SC is traveling 1 mile every 10 seconds.How long will it take to travel 630 miles?

a. 1 hour and 15 minutes

b. 1 hour and 30 minutes

c. 1 hour and 45 minutes



102


15. If the distance between Davenport and Peoria is75 miles, and if an aircraft traveling at 250 miles

per hour flies over both cities, at what time will it

fly over Peoria if it flew over Davenport at

0620Z?

a. 0634Z

b. 0630Z

c. 0626Z

d. 0638Z

16. At what altitude in feet will N75895 be at after 2minutes and 45 seconds if it just passed 8,500

feet and is climbing at 400 feet per minute?

a. 9,840

b. 9,600

c. 9,720

d. 9,480

17. N6205C flew 999 miles in 4.5 hours. What wasits average speed in miles per hour?

a. 222

b. 250

c. 220

d. 218

18. An aircraft traveling at 220 miles per hour flewfrom Cincinnati to Cleveland in 1 hour and from

Cleveland to Pittsburgh in 30 minutes. What is

the distance in miles from Cincinnati to Cleve-

land to Pittsburgh?

a. 440

b. 220

c. 330

d. 110

19.How many minutes will it take N87GJM to flyfrom Lexington to Toledo (255 miles) if it is trav-

eling at 204 miles per hour?

a. 65

b. 85

c. 70

d. 75

20. An aircraft traveled from Cedar Rapids to AnnArbor (400 miles) in 1 hour and 11 minutes and

from Ann Arbor to Boston (650 miles) in 1 hour

and 49 minutes. What was its average speed in

miles per hour?

a. 354

b. 350

c. 360

d. 344



103



� Pract ice Test 2—Angles Test

You will answer 100 questions about angles on thispractice test. Use a pen or pencil ONLY to circle thecorrect answer, not to try to measure the angles. On theactual Angles Test, you will answer 30 multiple-choicequestions on a computer without a pen or pencil.

Choose the correct answer and mark the correspon-ding letter on the answer sheet on page 131.


a. 10°

b. 180°

c. 50°

d. 120°


a.

b.

c.

d.


a. 20°

b. 110°

c. 190°

d. 80°


a.

b.

c.

d.

–PRACTICE TEST 2—ANGLES TEST–

105



a. 225°

b. 95°

c. 100°

d. 65°


a.

b.

c.

d.


a. 360°

b. 35°

c. 75°

d. 95°


a.

b.

c.

d.


106



a. 40°

b. 90°

c. 180°

d. 10°

10.Which of the following represents a 130-degreeangle?

a.

b.

c.

d.

11.What is the measure of this angle?

a. 40°

b. 25°

c. 125°

d. 10°


a.

b.

c.

d.


107



a. 100°

b. 90°

c. 210°

d. 180°


a.

b.

c.

d.


a. 105°

b. 60°

c. 90°

d. 180°


a.

b.

c.

d.


108



a. 100°

b. 25°

c. 85°

d. 190°


a.

b.

c.

d.


a. 95°

b. 120°

c. 170°

d. 80°


a.

b.

c.

d.


109



a. 10°

b. 40°

c. 290°

d. 170°


a.

b.

c.

d.


a. 20°

b. 120°

c. 60°

d. 150°

24.Which of the following represents an 80-degreeangle?

a.

b.

c.

d.


a. 245°

b. 90°

c. 180°

d. 135°


110



a.

b.

c.

d.


a. 150°

b. 75°

c. 180°

d. 20°


a.

b.

c.

d.


a. 140°

b. 70°

c. 90°

d. 15°


111



a.

b.

c.

d.


a. 40°

b. 120°

c. 75°

d. 325°


a.

b.

c.

d.


a. 90°

b. 125°

c. 40°

d. 190°


112



a.

b.

c.

d.


a. 360°

b. 210°

c. 180°

d. 75°


a.

b.

c.

d.


a. 80°

b. 20°

c. 220°

d. 150°


113



a.

b.

c.

d.


a. 45°

b. 90°

c. 200°

d. 140°


a.

b.

c.

d.


a. 80°

b. 120°

c. 180°

d. 210°


114



a.

b.

c.

d.


a. 20°

b. 90°

c. 55°

d. 100°


a.

b.

c.

d.


a. 80°

b. 95°

c. 135°

d. 110°


115



a.

b.

c.

d.


a. 45°

b. 70°

c. 180°

d. 310°


a.

b.

c.

d.


a. 115°

b. 90°

c. 75°

d. 150°


116



a.

b.

c.

d.


a. 55°

b. 20°

c. 90°

d. 160°


a.

b.

c.

d.


a. 180°

b. 120°

c. 45°

d. 20°


117



a.

b.

c.

d.


a. 80°

b. 370°

c. 180°

d. 210°


a.

b.

c.

d.


a. 45°

b. 170°

c. 90°

d. 20°


118



a.

b.

c.

d.


a. 20°

b. 80°

c. 100°

d. 160°


a.

b.

c.

d.


a. 190°

b. 220°

c. 90°

d. 75°


119



a.

b.

c.

d.


a. 140°

b. 125°

c. 90°

d. 45°

64.Which of the following represents an 85-degreeangle?

a.

b.

c.

d.


a. 10°

b. 130°

c. 80°

d. 175°


120



a.

b.

c.

d.


a. 175°

b. 230°

c. 95°

d. 200°


a.

b.

c.

d.


a. 200°

b. 95°

c. 105°

d. 145°


121



a.

b.

c.

d.


a. 125°

b. 75°

c. 205°

d. 320°


a.

b.

c.

d.


a. 90°

b. 270°

c. 160°

d. 120°


122



a.

b.

c.

d.


a. 110°

b. 35°

c. 240°

d. 90°


a.

b.

c.

d.


a. 140°

b. 120°

c. 30°

d. 10°


123



a.

b.

c.

d.


a. 155°

b. 50°

c. 95°

d. 110°


a.

b.

c.

d.


a. 140°

b. 350°

c. 230°

d. 125°


124



a.

b.

c.

d.


a. 5°

b. 125°

c. 25°

d. 60°


a.

b.

c.

d.


a. 90°

b. 125°

c. 195°

d. 280°


125



a.

b.

c.

d.


a. 360°

b. 180°

c. 300°

d. 90°


a.

b.

c.

d.


a. 250°

b. 180°

c. 360°

d. 70°


126



a.

b.

c.

d.


a. 180°

b. 10°

c. 360°

d. 90°


a.

b.

c.

d.


a. 30°

b. 90°

c. 185°

d. 120°


127



a.

b.

c.

d.


a. 240°

b. 200°

c. 110°

d. 180°


a.

b.

c.

d.


a. 320°

b. 170°

c. 240°

d. 360°


128



a.

b.

c.

d.


a. 210°

b. 75°

c. 100°

d. 165°


a.

b.

c.

d.


129



Practice Test 2—Angles Test

1. a b c d

2. a b c d

3. a b c d

4. a b c d

5. a b c d

6. a b c d

7. a b c d

8. a b c d

9. a b c d

10. a b c d

11. a b c d

12. a b c d

13. a b c d

14. a b c d

15. a b c d

16. a b c d

17. a b c d

18. a b c d

19. a b c d

20. a b c d

21. a b c d

22. a b c d

23. a b c d

24. a b c d

25. a b c d

26. a b c d

27. a b c d

28. a b c d

29. a b c d

30. a b c d

31. a b c d

32. a b c d

33. a b c d

34. a b c d

35. a b c d

36. a b c d

37. a b c d

38. a b c d

39. a b c d

40. a b c d

41. a b c d

42. a b c d

43. a b c d

44. a b c d

45. a b c d

46. a b c d

47. a b c d

48. a b c d

49. a b c d

50. a b c d

51. a b c d

52. a b c d

53. a b c d

54. a b c d

55. a b c d

56. a b c d

57. a b c d

58. a b c d

59. a b c d

60. a b c d

61. a b c d

62. a b c d

63. a b c d

64. a b c d

65. a b c d

66. a b c d

67. a b c d

68. a b c d

69. a b c d

70. a b c d

71. a b c d

72. a b c d

73. a b c d

74. a b c d

75. a b c d

76. a b c d

77. a b c d

78. a b c d

79. a b c d

80. a b c d

81. a b c d

82. a b c d

83. a b c d

84. a b c d

85. a b c d

86. a b c d

87. a b c d

88. a b c d

89. a b c d

90. a b c d

91. a b c d

92. a b c d

93. a b c d

94. a b c d

95. a b c d

96. a b c d

97. a b c d

98. a b c d

99. a b c d

100. a b c d

131




1. c. This angle measures about 50 degrees. Theangle is an acute angle, so answer choices b

and d are not correct. An angle measuring 10

degrees is very small, so answer choice a is

not correct.

2. a. A 25-degree angle is a small angle, but not assmall as the angle in answer choice b, which is

about 10 degrees. The angles shown in

answer choices c and d are larger than 25

degrees.

3. d.This angle is an acute angle, which means itmeasures less than 90 degrees. The angle is

larger than a 20-degree angle, however.

4. b.A 100-degree angle is larger than 90 degreesand is an obtuse angle. You can therefore

eliminate answer choices a and c. A 180-

degree angle is a straight angle, which looks

like a straight line, so answer choice d is also

incorrect.

5. d.A 65-degree angle is less than 90 degrees andis an acute angle. The only angle that is acute

is the one shown in answer choice d.

6. c. A 55-degree angle is an acute angle, whichmeans its measure is less than 90 degrees.

Since answer choice a shows an obtuse angle,

it is not the correct answer. Answer choice d

shows an angle that is almost 90 degrees, so

this is not the correct answer. Answer choice

b shows an angle that is less than 55 degrees,

so this answer choice is not correct.

7. d.A 95-degree angle is an obtuse angle that isslightly larger than a 90-degree angle. Answer

choice d is correct.

8. b.An angle that is 125 degrees is obtuse, mean-ing its measure is more than 90 degrees. The

angles shown in answer choices c and d are

acute, so these answer choices are not correct.

The angle shown in answer choice a is much

larger than a 180-degree angle, which is a

straight angle, so this answer choice is not

correct.

9. a. A 40-degree angle is smaller than both a 90-degree angle and a 45-degree angle. Answer

choice a is correct.

10. a. A 130-degree angle is an obtuse angle that is50 degrees smaller than a 180-degree angle,

which is a straight angle. Answer choice a is

correct.

11. b.A 25-degree angle is small, but not as small asa 10-degree angle. Answer choice b is correct.

12. a. A 65-degree angle is larger than a 45-degreeangle, but not as large as a 95-degree angle. A

95-degree angle is shown in answer choice b,

so this answer choice is not correct. The angle

shown in answer choice d is obtuse, and the

angle shown in answer choice c is too small.

Answer choice a is correct.

13. c. This angle is a reflex angle, which means itsmeasure is greater than 180 degrees but not

more than 360 degrees. Answer choice c is

correct.

14. d.A 170-degree angle is almost a straight angle,which looks like a straight line. Answer choice

d is correct.

15. a. This angle is obtuse, which means its measureis greater than 90 degrees. Answer choice d is

a straight angle. Answer choice a is the cor-

rect answer; the angle shown is about 105

degrees.

16. d.A 60-degree angle is an acute angle, whichmeans its measure is less than 90 degrees. The

only answer choice showing an acute angle is

answer choice d.


132


17. c. An 85-degree angle looks almost like a rightangle, which is 90 degrees. Therefore, answer

choice c is correct.

18. b.A 10-degree angle is very small. Answerchoice b is correct.

19. c. A 180-degree angle is a straight angle. Thisangle is nearly straight, so it is about 170

degrees.

20. b.A 100-degree angle is slightly larger than a90-degree angle, which has perpendicular

rays. The angle shown in answer choice b is

about 100 degrees.

21. a. This angle is very small. It is only about 10degrees.

22. a. A 145-degree angle is an obtuse angle, whichmeans its measure is greater than 90 degrees.

A 180-degree angle is a straight angle, so a

145-degree angle has a measure between 90

and 180 degrees. The angle shown in answer

choice a is about 145 degrees.

23. c. This angle’s measure is less than 90 degreesbut greater than 20 degrees, so answer choice

a is not correct. Answer choices b and d show

obtuse angles, so these answer choices are

also not correct. Answer choice c is correct.

24. a. An 80-degree angle appears slightly smallerthan a right angle, which is 90 degrees. The

angle shown in answer choice a is about 80

degrees, so answer choice a is correct.

25. d.A 135-degree angle is an obtuse angle, whichmeans it is greater than 90 degrees. It is not as

large, however, as a 245- or 180-degree angle.

Answer choice d is correct.

26. a. The rays of a right angle are perpendicular.The angle in answer choice a is a 90-degree

angle, so answer choice a is correct.

27. a. The angle shown is about 150 degrees. Itsmeasure is greater than 90 degrees but less

than 180 degrees.

28. c. A 35-degree angle is a small angle that is lessthan 90 degrees. The angle in answer choice c

is about 35 degrees.

29. d.A 15-degree angle is very small. Answerchoices a, b, and c show angles larger than 15

degrees.

30. a. A 45-degree angle is half the size of a 90-degree angle. Answer choice a is a 45-degree

angle.

31. c. This angle is less than 90 degrees, but it is notas small as the angle shown in answer choice

a. The angle is about 75 degrees.

32. d.A 100-degree angle is slightly larger than aright angle. The angle shown in answer

choice d is about 100 degrees.

33. b.The angle shown is larger than a 90-degreeangle but much smaller than a 180-degree

angle. It is about 125 degrees.

34. d.A 30-degree angle is smaller than a 45-degreeangle, which is half the size of a 90-degree

angle. The angle shown in answer choice d is

30 degrees.

35. c. A straight angle looks like a straight line andis 180 degrees.

36. a. A 175-degree angle looks as if it is almost astraight line. Answer choice a is correct.

37. c. This angle is a reflex angle, which measuresmore than 180 degrees. This angle is about

220 degrees.

38. b.A 190-degree angle is slightly larger than a180-degree angle. Answer choice b shows a

190-degree angle.

39. d.This angle is obtuse, which means it is greaterthan 90 degrees, so answer choices a and b are

not correct. It is not as large as a 200-degree

angle, however, which is a reflex angle. It is

about 140 degrees.

40. a. A 185-degree angle is slightly larger than astraight angle. Answer choice a is correct.


133


41. b.The angle shown is about 120 degrees. It is anobtuse angle, an angle larger than 90 degrees,

but less than 180 degrees.

42. a. A 70-degree angle is an acute angle, whichmeans it measures less than 90 degrees. It is

larger than the angle shown in answer choice

b, however. The angle shown in answer choice

a is about 70 degrees.

43. c. The angle is acute, which means it is less than90 degrees. It is larger than a 20-degree angle,

however. The angle is about 55 degrees.

44. d.A 160-degree angle is an obtuse angle, whichmeans it measures more than 90 degrees but

less than 180 degrees. The angle in answer

choice b is only about 120 degrees, however.

45. d.The measure of this angle is slightly greaterthan 90 degrees; it is about 110 degrees.

46. b.A 180-degree angle is a straight angle. Answerchoice b is correct.

47. b.This angle is smaller than 90 degrees, but itsmeasure is greater than 45 degrees. It is about

70 degrees.

48. a. A 230-degree angle is a reflex angle, whichmeans it measures more than 180 degrees but

less than 360 degrees. The angle in answer

choice a is about 230 degrees.

49. a. This angle is obtuse, which means it is greaterthan 90 degrees. It is not as large as a 150-

degree angle, however. The angle is about 115

degrees.

50. b.A 40-degree angle is smaller than a 90-degreeangle. The only angle that is acute is the angle

in answer choice b.

51. a. This angle is less than 90 degrees, but itsmeasure is greater than 20 degrees. It is about

55 degrees.

52. c. A 240-degree angle is very large, but not aslarge as a 300-degree angle, which is shown in

answer choice d. The angle in answer choice c


53. d.This angle is very small, smaller than a 45-degree angle. It is about 20 degrees.

54. a. A 150-degree angle is larger than a 90-degreeangle, but its measure is less than 190 degrees.

The angle in answer choice a is about 150

degrees.

55. d.This angle is very large. Its measure is greaterthan 180 degrees. A 360-degree angle, how-

ever, is a circle. This angle is about 210

degrees.

56. d.A 20-degree angle is very small. The angle inanswer choice d is about 20 degrees.

57. a. A 45-degree angle is half the size of a 90-degree angle. Answer choice a is correct.

58. c. An angle that measures 95 degrees is slightlylarger than a 90-degree angle. The angle in

answer choice c is about 95 degrees.

59. c. A 100-degree angle is slightly larger than aright angle, which measures 90 degrees.

Answer choice c is correct.

60. b.A 185-degree angle is slightly larger than a180-degree angle, which looks like a straight

line. The angle in answer choice b is about

185 degrees.

61. a. A 190-degree angle has a measure that is 10degrees greater than a 180-degree angle,

which looks like a straight line. This angle is

about 190 degrees.

62. d.A 220-degree angle is a reflex angle that ismuch larger than the angle in answer choice

a, which is about 120 degrees. The angle in

answer choice d is about 220 degrees.

63. c. The angle shown has perpendicular rays. It isa right angle, which means it is 90 degrees.

64. d.An 85-degree angle is slightly smaller than a90-degree angle. The angle in answer choice d



134


65. b.The angle shown is obtuse, which means itmeasures more than 90 degrees. It does not

measure 175 degrees, however. It is a 130-

degree angle.

66. b.A 135-degree angle looks as if its measure isalmost halfway between 90 and 180 degrees.

The angle in answer choice b is about 135

degrees.

67. a. This angle looks as if it is nearly a straightline, which is 180 degrees. This angle is about

175 degrees.

68. a. A 105-degree angle is larger than a 90-degreeangle, but only by 15 degrees. The angle in

answer choice a is about 105 degrees.

69. d.This angle measures more than 90 degreesbut less than 180 degrees. It is about 145

degrees.

70. b.A 50-degree angle is less than 90 degrees. Theangle in answer choice b is about 50 degrees.

71. c. This angle is very large. It is greater than 180degrees. Its measure is less than 320 degrees,

however. It is a 205-degree angle.

72. d.A 140-degree angle has a measure greaterthan 90 degrees but less than 180 degrees.

The angle in answer choice d is about 140

degrees.

73. c. This angle measures more than 120 degreesbut less than 180 degrees. Its measure is about

160 degrees.

74. b.A 195-degree angle is larger than the angle inanswer choice d, which is about 180 degrees.

The angle in answer choice b is about 195

degrees.

75. b.This angle measures less than 90 degrees. Itmeasures about 35 degrees.

76. d.A 65-degree angle is smaller than a 90-degreeangle, but not as small as the angle in answer

choice a. The angle in answer choice d is

about 65 degrees.

77. c. This angle is very small, but its measure isgreater than 10 degrees. It is a 30-degree

angle.

78. a. A 120-degree angle is obtuse, which means itsmeasure is greater than 90 degrees. It is not as

large as the angle shown in answer choice d,

however, which has a measure of 170 degrees.

The angle in answer choice a is about 120

degrees.

79. a. This angle is greater than 90 degrees but lessthan 180 degrees—but its measure is closer to

180 degrees. The angle measures about 155

degrees.

80. b.A 205-degree angle is greater than a 180-degree angle, which is a straight angle. The

angle in answer choice b is about 205 degrees.

81. c. This angle measures more than 180 degrees,but the angle measures less than 350 degrees.

It is a 230-degree angle.

82. b.A 115-degree angle is an obtuse angle, whichmeans its measure is greater than 90 degrees.

Its measure is not as great as 160 degrees,

however. A 160-degree angle looks as if it is

nearly a straight line. The angle in answer

choice b is 115 degrees.

83. a. The measure of this angle is very small. It isonly about 5 degrees.

84. b.A 200-degree angle is a little larger than a180-degree angle, which looks like a straight

line. The angle in answer choice bmeasures

about 200 degrees.

85. c. This angle measures a little more than 180degrees. It is a 195-degree angle.

86. a. A 165-degree angle looks as if it is almost astraight line. The angle in answer choice a

measures 165 degrees.

87. c. This angle is not a complete angle, so answerchoice a is not correct. It is very large, how-


135


ever, much larger than 180 degrees. The angle


88. d.A 15-degree angle is very small. The angle inanswer choice dmeasures 15 degrees.

89. a. This is a very large angle, much larger than180 degrees. An angle that measures 360

degrees, however, is a complete angle, which

looks like a circle. The angle is about 250

degrees.

90. d.A 75-degree angle is slightly less than 90degrees. The angle in answer choice d is

about 75 degrees.

91. c. This angle is a complete angle, so its measureis 360 degrees.

92. b.A 5-degree angle is very small. The angle inanswer choice bmeasures about 5 degrees.

93. c. This angle is a little larger than a 180-degreeangle, which looks like a straight line. This

angle is about 185 degrees.

94. d.A 260-degree angle is very large, but not aslarge as a 300-degree angle, which looks like a

circle. The angle in answer choice d is about

260 degrees.

95. b.This angle looks a little larger than a 180-degree angle, which is a straight line. This

angle is about 200 degrees.

96. b.A 240-degree angle is very large, much largerthan a 180-degree angle. The angle in answer

choice b is 240 degrees.

97. a. This angle is not a complete circle, so answerchoice d is not correct. The angle is very

large, however. It is about 320 degrees.

98. a. A 155-degree angle is an obtuse angle, whichmeans it is larger than 90 degrees. It is smaller

than a 180-degree angle, which looks like a

straight line. The angle in answer choice a is

about 155 degrees.

99. d.This angle looks as if it is nearly a straightline. It is about 165 degrees.

100. b.An angle that measures 235 degrees is largerthan a 180-degree angle, which is in answer

choice d. The angle in answer choice b is

about 235 degrees.


136


� Pract ice Test 3—Applied MathTest

You will answer 100 applied math questions on thispractice test. Read and answer these questions asquickly as you can. If you are unsure of an answer,skip it and come back to it when you have finishedanswering the other questions. Memorize the formu-las in Chapter 6 before you take this test. Use yourpen or pencil ONLY to circle your answers. You willtake the actual test on a computer, and you will nothave a pencil and paper to calculate your answers.Perform the calculations in your head. The actualApplied Math Test contains 30 multiple-choice ques-tions, but the first five are not scored.

Choose the correct answer and mark the correspon-ding letter on the answer sheet on page 151.

This practice test can also be taken online. Turn to thescratch card in the back of this book for informationon accessing this practice test online with immediatescoring.

1. N83894 travels 28 miles every 8 minutes. Howmany miles does it travel in 5 hours and 36

minutes?

a. 1,196

b. 1,176

c. 1,156

d. 1,136

2. An aircraft traveling at 170 miles per hour flewover one airport at 0811Z and another airport at

1005Z. What is the distance between the two air-

ports in miles?

a. 319

b. 323

c. 327

d. 331

3. The distance from Flagstaff to Oklahoma City is800 miles. If N23GJM travels at 320 miles per

hour, how many hours will it take for it to make

the round trip between the two cities?

a. 2.5

b. 3

c. 5

d. 6

4. What is an aircraft’s average speed in miles perhour if it travels 984 miles in 288 minutes?

a. 195

b. 205

c. 215

d. 225

5. N89891 is at an altitude of 17,000 feet and isdescending at a rate of 420 feet per minute. What

will be its altitude in feet after 5 minutes and 6

seconds?

a. 14,816

b. 14,858

c. 14,900

d. 14,942

6. The distance between Las Vegas and Reno is 350miles. If N32692 leaves Las Vegas at 0757Z and

arrives in Reno at 0912Z, what is its average

speed in miles per hour?

a. 270

b. 285

c. 280

d. 290

–PRACTICE TEST 3—APPLIED MATH TEST–

137


7. Two aircraft going in opposite directions passeach other at 0620Z. If one of the aircraft is trav-

eling at 190 miles per hour and the other aircraft

is traveling at 230 miles per hour, how many

miles will be between them at 0644Z?

a. 76

b. 92

c. 148

d. 168

8. N73961 has to make a 500-mile trip in less than1 hour and 42 minutes. How many miles per

hour minimum must it travel on average to

make this trip on time?

a. 293

b. 294

c. 295

d. 296

9. An aircraft took off in Eugene and landed inSeattle, 250 miles away. If, on average, it traveled

10 miles every 3 minutes, what time did it land

in Seattle if it took off from Eugene at 1033Z?

a. 1128Z

b. 1138Z

c. 1148Z

d. 1158Z

10. If an aircraft has been ascending at an averagerate of 900 feet per minute for the last 78 sec-

onds, how many feet has it ascended during that

time?

a. 1,160

b. 1,170

c. 1,180

d. 1,190

11. An aircraft has flown 525 miles in 105 minutes.What is the aircraft’s average ground speed in

knots?

a. 275

b. 300

c. 325

d. 350

12. Two aircraft are flying in the same direction. Oneaircraft passes the other at 0746Z. If one of the

aircraft is traveling at 205 miles per hour and the

other aircraft is traveling at 245 miles per hour,

what will be the distance between them in miles

at 0840Z?

a. 36

b. 34

c. 32

d. 30

13. How long would it take an aircraft traveling at190 miles per hour to make a round trip of 703

miles?





14. The distance between Indianapolis and Madisonis 270 miles. If N22371 took off from Indianapo-

lis and is halfway to Madison, how long has it

been traveling if it is flying at 200 miles per

hour?

a. 38 minutes and 30 seconds

b. 39 minutes and 30 seconds

c. 40 minutes and 30 seconds

d. 42 minutes and 30 seconds


138


15. N44770 traveled 231 miles in 66 minutes,N13121 traveled 220 miles in 1 hour, N79928

traveled 152 miles in 48 minutes, and N81276

traveled 115 miles in 30 minutes. Which aircraft

had the highest average speed?

a. N13121

b. N44770

c. N79928

d. N81276

16. If an aircraft travels at 170 miles per hour, howmany miles does it travel in 21 minutes?

a. 58

b. 59.5

c. 60

d. 61.5

17. N65969 flew from Tucson to Phoenix in 33 min-utes, while N44439 made the same trip in 40

minutes. If the distance between Tucson and

Phoenix is 110 miles, how many miles per hour

faster on average did N65969 travel than

N44439?

a. 33

b. 35

c. 39

d. 37

18. An aircraft traveled the first 80 miles of a 320-mile flight in 20 minutes, and it traveled the

remainder of the flight in 1 hour. What was the

average speed of the aircraft in miles per hour?

a. 230

b. 240

c. 250

d. 260

19. An aircraft is descending 1,275 feet every 3 sec-onds. How many feet will it descend in 8

seconds?

a. 3,400

b. 3,475

c. 3,500

d. 3,575

20. N59423 is traveling at 160 miles per hour andflew over Flint 45 minutes ago. How many miles

outside Flint is the aircraft?

a. 100

b. 120

c. 140

d. 160

21. An aircraft made the 120-mile trip from TampaBay to Gainesville, flying at 250 miles per hour.

How long did the trip take?





22. N52GJM took off from El Paso 2 hours and 6minutes ago and has been traveling at an average

speed of 260 miles per hour. If it flew over ABC

airport 18 minutes ago, how many miles is it

from El Paso to ABC airport?

a. 468

b. 520

c. 598

d. 572


139


23. An aircraft flew from airport ABC to airportDEF in 37 minutes. It then flew from airport

DEF to airport XYZ in 47 minutes. If the average

speed of the aircraft was 225 miles per hour,

what was its total distance traveled in miles?

a. 330

b. 300

c. 315

d. 285

24. N71GJM takes 7 hours to fly 1,645 miles. Howmany hours does it take to fly 940 miles?

a. 4

b. 3.5

c. 5

d. 4.5

25.What time will an aircraft arrive in Little Rock ifit is flying from Mobile at a speed of 250 miles

per hour? The distance from Mobile to Little

Rock is 375 miles, and the aircraft departed

Mobile at 0556Z.

a. 0720Z

b. 0724Z

c. 0728Z

d. 0732Z

26. How many miles did N72185 travel if it flew for5 hours at a speed of 195 miles per hour?

a. 1,014

b. 1,020

c. 1,030

d. 1,024

27. An aircraft just reached 6,500 feet, and it willreach 8,200 feet in 4 minutes. What is its average

ascent rate in feet per minute?

a. 450

b. 425

c. 400

d. 375

28. The distance from Louisville to Kansas City is480 miles. If an aircraft travels 1 mile every 15

seconds, how long does it take to travel from one

city to the other?

a. 2.4 hours

b. 2.0 hours

c. 2.2 hours

d. 1.8 hours

29. N84699 and N34953 are both traveling from LosAngeles to New York, a distance of 2,450 miles. If

N84699 is flying at 490 miles per hour and

N34953 is traveling at 500 miles per hour, how

many minutes sooner will N34953 arrive than

N84699?

a. 12

b. 8

c. 10

d. 6

30. How many feet has an aircraft descended from0833Z to 0837Z if its descent rate is 515 feet per

minute?

a. 2,040

b. 2,030

c. 2,050

d. 2,060


140

15


31. The average ground speed of N4569G as it trav-eled from Reading to Fort Wayne was 200 knots.

If the distance between the two cities is 480

miles, how many minutes did it take N4569G to

make the trip?

a. 136

b. 140

c. 144

d. 152

32. N44JPC will land in St. Louis in 44 minutes. If itis currently 330 miles outside St. Louis, what is

its average speed in miles per hour?

a. 300

b. 350

c. 400

d. 450

33. The distance from airport ABC to airport DEF is120 miles, while the distance from airport DEF

to airport XYZ is 480 miles. If an aircraft took

half an hour to fly from airport ABC to airport

DEF, and if it will fly at the same speed from air-

port DEF to airport XYZ, how many hours will it

take the aircraft to fly from airport ABC to air-

port DEF to airport XYZ?

a. 2

b. 2.5

c. 3

d. 3.5

34. If the ground speed of an aircraft is 205 knots,how many miles will it travel in 270 minutes?

a. 927.5

b. 925.0

c. 922.5

d. 900.0

35. N3285C left from Dover and arrived in Hartfordat 1223Z. If the distance between the two cities is

230 miles, and if the aircraft traveled at a speed

of 200 miles per hour, at what time did it take off

from Dover?

a. 1,109Z

b. 1,114Z

c. 1,123Z

d. 1,117Z

36. In the last 30 seconds, an aircraft has traveled 3.5miles. If it is flying at a constant speed, how long

will it take to travel 1,470 miles?





37. N79126 is 440 miles outside of Pasadena. If itwill arrive in Pasadena in 55 minutes, at what

average speed is it traveling in miles per hour?

a. 450

b. 460

c. 470

d. 480

38. The distance from Green Bay to Chicago is 180miles. If the average speed of an aircraft is 450

miles per hour, how many minutes will it take

the aircraft to travel a quarter of the way from

one city to the other?

a. 5

b. 6

c. 7

d. 8


141


39.What is the distance in miles between airportABC and airport DEF if an aircraft traveling at

215 miles per hour can travel halfway from one

airport to the other in 54 minutes?

a. 385

b. 389

c. 387

d. 391

40. An aircraft traveling at 360 miles per hour is fly-ing from Charleston to Raleigh, a distance of 215

miles. So far, it has been traveling for 20 minutes.

How many miles does it have left to fly?

a. 90

b. 85

c. 80

d. 95

41. N76668 is traveling at an average speed of 211miles per hour, and it is scheduled to cover a dis-

tance of 550 miles in 1 hour and 40 minutes.

How many miles per hour faster does it need to

fly to stay on schedule?

a. 123

b. 119

c. 121

d. 117

42. An aircraft (200 miles per hour) is flying fromOmaha to Salt Lake City, a distance of 820 miles.

If it is scheduled to make the trip in 3 hours and

56 minutes, how many minutes late will it be?

a. 11

b. 9

c. 10

d. 8

43. The altitude of N82561 is 2,000 feet greater thanthe altitude of N21134. If N82561 is descending

at a rate of 400 feet per minute, and if N21134 is

ascending at a rate of 500 feet per minute, how

many feet higher will N21134 be than N82561

after 4 minutes?

a. 1,400

b. 1,600

c. 2,000

d. 1,800

44. The distance between Miami and Jacksonville is315 miles. If an aircraft took off from Miami at

1158Z and traveled of the distance between the

two cities by 1228Z, what was its average speed

in miles per hour?

a. 415

b. 410

c. 400

d. 420

45. An aircraft traveled 390 miles in 45 minutes. If ittravels at a constant speed, how long would it

take the aircraft to fly 1,300 miles?





46. N98GJM flew from Dallas to San Antonio, a dis-tance of 240 miles, at an average speed of 250

miles per hour. How long did it take N98GJM to

make the trip?

a. between 56 and 57 minutes

b. between 57 and 58 minutes

c. between 58 and 59 minutes

d. between 59 and 60 minutes


142

23


47. If an aircraft was descending at a rate of 600 feetper minute and traveling at a speed of 360 miles

per hour, how many miles forward would it fly

during the time that it descended 1,800 feet?

a. 36

b. 18

c. 27

d. 9

48. If an aircraft is ascending 165 feet every 18 sec-onds, what is its average ascent rate in feet per

minute?

a. 540

b. 530

c. 550

d. 560

49. The distance between Billings and Scottsdale is860 miles. If an aircraft flying from one city to

the other is traveling at an average speed of 400

miles per hour, how many minutes early will the

aircraft arrive if it is scheduled to make the flight

in 2 hours and 16 minutes?

a. 5

b. 3

c. 2

d. 7

50. The distance between Yuma and San Diego is150 miles. If N57913 departs from Yuma 15 min-

utes after N40558 traveling at 300 miles per hour,

at what average speed in miles per hour must it

fly to arrive in Yuma at the same time as N40558?

a. 600

b. 550

c. 450

d. 500

51. An aircraft flies from Sioux City to Duluth (370miles) in 1 hour and 7 minutes. It then makes

the return trip to Sioux City in 1 hour and 23

minutes. What is its average speed in miles per

hour for the entire round trip?

a. 298

b. 296

c. 294

d. 300

52. If the time is currently 0909Z, and if an aircraft isscheduled to arrive at airport ABC at 0957Z, at

what average speed in miles per hour does it have

to travel to arrive on time if it is currently 300

miles outside the airport?

a. 275

b. 350

c. 325

d. 375

53. How many miles did N64325 travel if it flew 30miles every 4 minutes for a total of 3 hours and

12 minutes?

a. 1,420

b. 1,460

c. 1,440

d. 1,480

54. The distance between East Lansing and Cham-paign is 270 miles. How many minutes faster

would an aircraft make the trip between the two

cities if it was traveling at 270 miles per hour

rather than 200 miles per hour?

a. 18

b. 21

c. 27

d. 24


143


55. If the altitude of an aircraft is currently 6,925 feetand it is ascending at a rate of 525 feet per

minute, in how many minutes will it reach an

altitude of 8,500 feet?

a. 2.8

b. 3.2

c. 3.0

d. 3.4

56. For the last 5 hours an aircraft has been travelingat an average speed of 412 miles per hour. What

is the total number of miles traveled by the air-

craft during this time?

a. 2,183

b. 2,163

c. 2,173

d. 2,153

57. N81290 made the trip from Baltimore to Buffalo(275 miles) 13 minutes faster than N22142. If

N22142 made the trip in 43 minutes, at what

average speed in miles per hour did N81290

make the trip?

a. 540

b. 560

c. 550

d. 570

58. An aircraft flew over airport ABC 1 hour and 45minutes ago. It is due to fly over airport DEF in

27 minutes. If the aircraft is traveling at an aver-

age speed of 350 miles per hour, what is the dis-

tance in miles between airport ABC and airport

DEF?

a. 870

b. 970

c. 770

d. 670

59. If an aircraft travels at an average speed of 200miles per hour, how many minutes faster can it

make the trip from New Orleans to Ames (860

miles) than the trip from New Orleans to Detroit

(940 miles)?

a. 18

b. 24

c. 36

d. 30

60.What is the average speed of N56334 in miles perhour if it travels of the distance from airport

ABC to airport DEF (1,200 miles) in

150 minutes?

a. 380

b. 350

c. 360

d. 340

61.What is the average speed in miles per hour of anaircraft that flies from Bismarck to Fargo (186

miles) in of an hour?

a. 300

b. 315

c. 310

d. 305

62. An aircraft is of the way between airport ABCand airport DEF. If it took off from airport ABC

65 minutes ago and is traveling toward airport

DEF at a speed of 312 miles per hour, what is the

distance in miles between the two airports?

a. 1,114

b. 914

c. 1,014

d. 814


144

34

35

13


63. Aircraft N77341 is traveling at 160 miles perhour. At what time will it arrive in Pierre if it is

400 miles outside the city and if the time is

currently 0949Z?

a. 1209Z

b. 1219Z

c. 1229Z

d. 1239Z

64. How many miles will an aircraft travel if it flies atan average speed of 300 miles per hour for 2

hours and 18 minutes and then flies at an aver-

age speed of 200 miles per hour for 1 hour and

24 minutes?

a. 930

b. 950

c. 970

d. 990

65. Ten minutes and 30 seconds after takeoff, an air-craft has reached an altitude of 7,875 feet. What

has been its average ascent rate in feet per

minute?

a. 700

b. 750

c. 725

d. 775

66. An aircraft is flying from Wichita to Albu-querque (550 miles) 50 miles per hour slower

than it did last time. If it made the trip in 1 hour

last time, how long will it take for the aircraft to

make the trip this time?

a. 1 hour and 6 minutes

b. 1 hour and 12 minutes

c. 1 hour and 18 minutes

d. 1 hour and 24 minutes

67. How many miles is the round trip from airportABC to airport DEF if an aircraft flying at a

speed of 360 miles per hour takes 1 hour and 10

minutes to fly from one airport to the other?

a. 420

b. 630

c. 720

d. 840

68. At what average ground speed in knots is an air-craft traveling if it has flown 600 miles since

0541Z, and if it is now 0701Z?

a. 450

b. 475

c. 500

d. 550

69. N92GJM has flown 150 miles in the last 24 min-utes, while N88379 has flown 200 miles in the

same amount of time. How many miles per hour

faster on average is N88379 flying than N92GJM?

a. 125

b. 150

c. 175

d. 200

70. Forty minutes ago, one aircraft passed anotheraircraft going in the same direction. If the two

aircraft are now 220 miles apart, what is the dif-

ference in their average speeds in miles per hour?

a. 300

b. 330

c. 360

d. 390


145


71. Two aircraft take off at the same time from thesame airport, traveling in opposite directions.

How many miles apart will they be after 210

minutes if one is traveling at 250 miles per hour

and the other is traveling at 350 miles per hour?

a. 2,000

b. 2,300

c. 2,200

d. 2,100

72. N87JPC passed over Jackson 1 hour and 45 min-utes ago. If it is traveling 46 miles every 12 min-

utes, how many miles from Jackson is it?

a. 430.5

b. 412.5

c. 420.5

d. 402.5

73. An aircraft was scheduled to depart Biloxi at0610Z and arrive in Columbia at 0712Z. It took

off on time, but it arrived 28 minutes late. If the

distance between the two cities is 525 miles, what

was the aircraft’s average speed in miles per

hour?

a. 325

b. 275

c. 350

d. 425

74. How many seconds will it take for an aircraft todescend 1,100 feet if it is descending at a rate of

250 feet per minute?

a. 284

b. 264

c. 270

d. 250

75. An aircraft’s altitude has changed from 5,200 feetto 9,800 feet in the last 5 minutes. What is the

aircraft’s average ascent rate in feet per minute?

a. 900

b. 880

c. 920

d. 940

76. N90023 flew over airport ABC 53 minutes ago,and it flew over airport DEF 11 minutes ago. If

the aircraft is flying at a speed of 420 miles per

hour, what is the distance in miles between the

two airports?

a. 298

b. 288

c. 294

d. 274

77. If the distance between Augusta and Savannah is110 miles, how many miles outside Savanna will

an aircraft flying from Augusta to Savannah be

after 10 minutes if it is flying at a speed of 240

miles per hour?

a. 60

b. 50

c. 40

d. 70

78. If the distance between two airports is 900 miles,how many hours will it take for an aircraft travel-

ing at a speed of 150 miles per hour to travel a

quarter of the way from one airport to the other?

a. 1.5

b. 6

c. 4.5

d. 3


146


79. N22996 traveling at 204 miles per hour is sched-uled to arrive in Idaho Falls in 5 minutes. If it

arrives on schedule, how many miles outside

Idaho Falls is it now?

a. 15

b. 17

c. 19

d. 13

80.What is the average speed in miles per hour of anaircraft that flies from Olympia to Boise (400

miles) and halfway back to Olympia in 160 min-

utes?

a. 250

b. 275

c. 225

d. 200

81. An aircraft made the trip from Salem to Mesa(1,000 miles) in 240 minutes. It then made the

return trip in 300 minutes. How many miles per

hour slower, on average, was it traveling during

the return trip?

a. 40

b. 50

c. 70

d. 60

82. How many minutes ago did N68493 fly overABC airport if it is traveling 13 miles every 4

minutes and is 390 miles outside the

airport?

a. 140

b. 130

c. 120

d. 150

83. If an aircraft is descending at a rate of 650 feetper minute, at what altitude was the aircraft 6

minutes ago if it is now at an altitude of 5,000

feet?

a. 8,900

b. 9,500

c. 9,300

d. 9,100

84. N88459 (500 miles per hour) is flying fromSacramento to Nashville (1,900 miles). After how

many minutes will it be halfway there?

a. 118

b. 114

c. 110

d. 122

85.What is the average speed in miles per hour of anaircraft that flies 376 miles in the first 67 minutes

of a flight and 324 miles in the remaining 53

minutes of the flight?

a. 400

b. 350

c. 375

d. 325

86. An aircraft is flying at a speed of 210 miles perhour and ascending at a rate of 432 feet per

minute. In the time that it takes to ascend 144

feet, how many miles forward does the aircraft

travel?

a. 70

b. 100

c. 90

d. 80


147


87. If an aircraft traveling at a speed of 290 miles perhour took off from airport ABC 108 minutes

ago, flew over airport DEF, and is currently 35

miles outside airport DEF, what is the distance in

miles from airport ABC to airport DEF?

a. 487

b. 587

c. 557

d. 522

88. N62JPC made the trip from Trenton to Rich-mond (240 miles) in the time that it took

N59138 (200 miles per hour) to fly 300 miles. At

what average speed in miles per hour was

N62JPC flying?

a. 160

b. 280

c. 240

d. 200

89. How many miles will an aircraft cover if it flies12 miles every 3 minutes for a total of 4.9 hours?

a. 1,225

b. 1,375

c. 1,325

d. 1,275

90. N92485 is climbing at 575 feet per minute. If itsaltitude was 3,900 feet at 1223Z, what time is it

now if its altitude is currently 6,200 feet?

a. 1229Z

b. 1227Z

c. 1228Z

d. 1226Z

91. The time is currently 0503Z, and an aircraft isleaving airport ABC. It must travel at a mini-

mum average speed of 400 miles per hour to

reach its destination by 0645Z. How many miles

away is its destination?

a. 760

b. 680

c. 720

d. 640

92. The distance from Virginia Beach to Tallahasseeis 650 miles. If an aircraft has covered of the

distance between the two cities in 15 minutes,

what is its average speed in miles per hour?

a. 480

b. 450

c. 420

d. 520

93. N29668 and N12230 departed from the same air-port at the same time, traveling in opposite

directions. N29668 has traveled 600 miles, and

N12230 has traveled 800 miles. If N12230 is trav-

eling at a speed of 200 miles per hour, at what

average speed in miles per hour is N29668

traveling?

a. 250

b. 175

c. 200

d. 150

94. At what average rate in feet per minute must anaircraft ascend to reach an altitude of 7,500 feet

12 minutes and 30 seconds after taking off?

a. 600

b. 700

c. 650

d. 750


148

15


95.What is the distance in miles between airportABC and airport DEF if an aircraft flying at a

speed of 160 miles per hour can cover between

the two of the distance in 2 hours?

a. 180

b. 450

c. 360

d. 270

96. The distance from Arlington to Lubbock is 280miles. If an aircraft flew from one city to the

other at a speed of 250 miles per hour, how

much longer was its flight than it would have

been if it had traveled at 280 miles per hour?





97. How many miles has N67768 flown if it has beentraveling for 4 hours and 40 minutes at a speed

of 330 miles per hour?

a. 1,440

b. 1,740

c. 1,640

d. 1,540

98. An aircraft is scheduled to make the flight fromMiami to Key West (126 miles) in 45 minutes. At

what minimum average speed in miles per hour

does it need to fly to stay on schedule?

a. 168

b. 178

c. 174

d. 172

99. An aircraft takes 3 hours and 50 minutes to fly920 miles. What is its average speed in miles per

hour?

a. 270

b. 250

c. 260

d. 240

100. How many miles apart are airport ABC andairport DEF if N55772 (190 miles per hour)

departs airport ABC at 0808Z and arrives at

airport DEF 11 minutes prior to its scheduled

arrival time of 1049Z?

a. 525

b. 475

c. 500

d. 450


149

34

14



Practice Test 3—Applied Math Test


151

1. a b c d

2. a b c d

3. a b c d

4. a b c d

5. a b c d

6. a b c d

7. a b c d

8. a b c d

9. a b c d

10. a b c d

11. a b c d

12. a b c d

13. a b c d

14. a b c d

15. a b c d

16. a b c d

17. a b c d

18. a b c d

19. a b c d

20. a b c d

21. a b c d

22. a b c d

23. a b c d

24. a b c d

25. a b c d

26. a b c d

27. a b c d

28. a b c d

29. a b c d

30. a b c d

31. a b c d

32. a b c d

33. a b c d

34. a b c d

35. a b c d

36. a b c d

37. a b c d

38. a b c d

39. a b c d

40. a b c d

41. a b c d

42. a b c d

43. a b c d

44. a b c d

45. a b c d

46. a b c d

47. a b c d

48. a b c d

49. a b c d

50. a b c d

51. a b c d

52. a b c d

53. a b c d

54. a b c d

55. a b c d

56. a b c d

57. a b c d

58. a b c d

59. a b c d

60. a b c d

61. a b c d

62. a b c d

63. a b c d

64. a b c d

65. a b c d

66. a b c d

67. a b c d

68. a b c d

69. a b c d

70. a b c d

71. a b c d

72. a b c d

73. a b c d

74. a b c d

75. a b c d

76. a b c d

77. a b c d

78. a b c d

79. a b c d

80. a b c d

81. a b c d

82. a b c d

83. a b c d

84. a b c d

85. a b c d

86. a b c d

87. a b c d

88. a b c d

89. a b c d

90. a b c d

91. a b c d

92. a b c d

93. a b c d

94. a b c d

95. a b c d

96. a b c d

97. a b c d

98. a b c d

99. a b c d

100. a b c d



1. a. (D = 5.6 × 210) 5.6 is 5 hours and 36 minutesin hour format. Also, 28 miles every 8 min-

utes is equivalent to 7 miles every 2 minutes,

and 7 miles every 2 minutes is equivalent to

210 miles every 60 minutes, or 210 miles per

hour.

2. c. (D = 1.9 × 170) From 0811Z to 1005Z, 1 hour and 54 minutes elapsed, which is 1.9

in hour format.

3. c. ( ) The time has to be multipliedby 2 because it is a round trip.

4. b. ( ) 4.8 is 288 minutes in hour format.

5. b. (D = 5.1 × 420) 5.1 is 5 minutes and 6 sec-onds in minute format. Once distance is

found, it should be subtracted from 17,000 to

determine the altitude.

6. c. ( ) From 0757Z to 0912Z, 1 hour and15 minutes elapsed, which is 1.25 in hour

format.

7. d. (D = 0.4 × 190 + 0.4 × 230) From 0620Z to0644Z, 24 minutes will elapse, which is 0.4 in

hour format.

8. c. ( ) 1.7 is 1 hour and 42 minutes inhour format. Also, since the speed is greater

than 294 and less than 295, it should be

rounded up to 295.

9. c. ( ) 1.25 is 1 hour and 15 minutes inhour format. Since the aircraft traveled 10

miles every 3 minutes, it traveled 200 miles

every 60 minutes, or 200 MPH. Also, since

the departure time was 1033Z, the arrival

time was 1148Z.

10. b. (D = 1.3 × 900) 1.3 is 78 seconds in minuteformat.

11. b. ( ) 1.75 is 105 minutes in hour format.

12. a. (D = 0.9 × 245 – 0.9 × 205) From 0746Z to0840Z, 54 minutes will elapse, which is 0.9 in

hour format.

13. c. ( ) 3.7 is 3 hours and 42 minutes inhour format.

14. c. ( ) 0.675 is 40 minutes and 30 sec-onds in hour format. Also, halfway from Indi-

anapolis to Madison is = 135 miles.

15. d. (SN44770 = ; SN13121 = ; SN79928 = ;

SN81276 = ) 1.1, 0.8, and 0.5 are 66 min-

utes, 48 minutes, and 30 minutes, respec-

tively, in hour format.

16. b. (D = 0.35 × 170) 0.35 is 21 minutes in hourformat.

17. b. (SN65969 = ; SN44439 = ) 0.55 is 33 min-

utes in hour format, and is 40 minutes in

hour format. Also, the difference between the

speeds is SN65969 – SN44439.

18. b. ( ) is 20 minutes in hour format.


152

T = x 2800320

S = 5251.75

T = 703190

T = 135200

S = 320 + 113

2702

110.55

2311.11150.5

2201

1520.8

11023

S = 9844.8

S = 3501.25

S = 5001.7

T = 250200

23


19. a. (D = 8 × 425) Since the aircraft is descending1,275 feet every 3 seconds, it is descending

425 feet per second.

20. b. (D = 0.75 × 160) 0.75 is 45 minutes in hourformat.

21. b. ( ) 0.48 is 28 minutes and 48 secondsin hour format.

22. a. (D = 1.8 × 260) 1.8 is 1 hour and 48 minutesin hour format. Also, the time from El Paso to

ABC airport is 2 hours and 6 minutes – 18

minutes = 1 hour and 48 minutes.

23. c. (D = 1.4 × 225) 1.4 is 84 minutes in hour for-mat. Also, 37 minutes + 47 minutes = 84

minutes.

24. a. ( ; ) N71GJM’s speed is 235miles per hour.

25. b. ( ) 1.5 is 1 hour and 30 minutes inhour format. Since the aircraft departed

Mobile at 0556Z, it will arrive in Little Rock 1

hour and 30 minutes later at 0724Z.

26. a. (D = 5.2 × 195) 5.2 hours is equivalent to 5hours.

27. b. ( ) The average ascent rate is425 feet per minute.

28. b. ( ) If the aircraft travels 1 mile every15 seconds, it travels 4 miles every minute, or

4 × 60 = 240 miles per hour.

29. d. (TN84699 = ; TN34953 = ) SinceN84699 will arrive in 5 hours and N34953

will arrive in 4.9 hours, N34953 will arrive 0.1

hours, or 6 minutes, sooner than N84699.

30. d. (D = 4 × 515) The number of minutes thathave passed from 0833Z to 0837Z is 4.

31. c. ( ) 2.4 is 144 minutes in hour format.

32. d. ( ) is 44 minutes in hour format.

33. b. ( ; ) 0.5 is half an hour inhour format. Also, the speed of the aircraft is

240 miles per hour.

34. c. (D = 4.5 × 205) 4.5 is 270 minutes in hourformat.

35. b. ( ) 1.15 is 69 minutes in hour format.Since N3285C arrived in Hartford at 1223Z,

it must have taken off from Dover 69 minutes

earlier at 1114Z.

36. b. ( ) 3.5 is 3 hours and 30 minutes inhour format. Also, if the aircraft travels 3.5

miles in 30 seconds, it travels 7 miles per

minute, or 420 miles per hour.

37. a. ( ) is 55 minutes in hour format.

38. b. ( ) 0.1 is 6 minutes in hour format.Also, a quarter of 180 miles is = 45 miles.

39. c. (D = 0.9 × 215 × 2) 0.9 is 54 minutes in hourformat.

40. d. (D = × 360) Since the aircraft has traveled120 miles so far, it has 215 – 120 = 95 miles

left to fly.


153

T = 120250

S = 16457

T = 375250

S = 8200 - 65004

T = 480240

2450490

2450500

T = 940235

S = 1200.5

T = 230200

T = 1470420

S = 4401112

T = 45450

1804

S = 3301115

T = 480200

T = 480240

13


41. b. ( ) Since N76668 has to travel 330MPH to stay on schedule, it has to fly 330 –

211 = 119 miles per hour faster.

42. a. ( ) 4.1 is 4 hours and 6 minutes inhour format. Since the aircraft is scheduled to

make the trip in 3 hours and 56 minutes, it is

going to be 10 minutes late.

43. b. (DN82561 = 4 × 400; DN21134 = 4 × 500) Since

N82561 is 2,000 feet higher than N21134,

after 4 minutes N21134 will ascend to

N82561’s current altitude. Therefore, since

N82561 will descend 1,600 feet, N21134 will

be 1,600 feet higher than N82561.

44. d. ( ) of the distance between Miamiand Jacksonville is × 315 = 210 miles. Also,

from 1158Z to 1228Z, 30 minutes passed, and

0.5 is 30 minutes in hour format.

45. b. ( ; ) is 45 minutes in hourformat. Also, the speed of the aircraft is 520

MPH, and 2.5 is 2 hours and 30 minutes in

hour format.

46. b. ( ) 0.96 is 57 minutes and 36 secondsin hour format.

47. b. ( ; D = × 360) It took 3 minutes

for the aircraft to descend 1,800 feet, and is

3 minutes in hour format.

48. c. ( ) 0.3 is 18 seconds in minute format.

49. d. ( ) 2.15 is 2 hours and 9 minutes inhour format. Since the aircraft is scheduled to

make the flight in 2 hours and 16 minutes, it

will arrive 7 minutes early.

50. a. (TN40558 = ; SN57913 = ) Since N40558will make the trip in 30 minutes, N57913

must make the trip in 15 minutes to arrive in

Yuma at the same time. Also, is 15 minutes

in hour format.

51. b. ( ) The distance of the round trip is740 miles, and the total time for the round

trip is 2 hours and 30 minutes, or 2.5 hours.

52. d. ( ) 0.8 is 48 minutes in hour format.Also, the number of minutes elapsed from

0909Z to 0957Z is 48 minutes.

53. b. (D = 3.2 × 450) 3.2 is 3 hours and 12 minutesin hour format. Also, if N64325 flew 30 miles

every 4 minutes, it flew 7.5 miles every

minute, or 7.5 × 60 = 450 miles per hour.

54. b. ( ) 1.35 is 1 hour and 21 minutes inhour format. Since the aircraft would make the

trip in 1 hour if it were traveling at 270 miles

per hour, it would make the trip 21 minutes

faster if it were traveling at this speed.

55. c. ( ) The aircraft will reach 8,500feet in 3 minutes.

56. b. (D = 5.25 × 412) 5.25 is equivalent to 5hours.

57. b. ( ) 0.5 is 30 minutes in hour format.Also, since N22142 made the trip in 43 min-

utes, N81290 made the trip in 43 – 13 =

30 minutes.


154

S = 55053

T = 820200

S = 7402.5

S = 3000.8

T = 270200

S = 27520.5

T =8500 - 6925525

150300

15014

S = 2100.5

S = 39034

T = 240250

T = 1800600

S = 1650.3

T = 860400

T = 1300520

23

14

23

34

120

120

12


58. c. (D = 2.2 × 350) 2.2 is 2 hours and 12 minutesin hour format. Also, 1 hour and 45 minutes

plus 27 minutes is 2 hours and 12 minutes.

59. b. (TN.O. to Ames = ; TN.O. to Detroit = ) Thetime from New Orleans to Ames is 4.3 hours,

or 4 hours and 18 minutes, while the time

from New Orleans to Detroit is 4.7 hours, or

4 hours and 42 minutes. Therefore, the air-

craft can make the trip to Ames 24 minutes

faster.

60. c. ( ) of 1,200 miles is 900 miles.Also, 2.5 is 150 minutes in hour format.

61. a. ( ) The average speed is 300 miles perhour.

62. c. (D = × 312 × 3) is 65 minutes in hour

format. Also, since the aircraft has traveled

of the distance between the two airports, its

distance traveled so far has to be multiplied

by 3 to find the total distance between the

two airports.

63. b. ( ) 2.5 is 2 hours and 30 minutes inhour format. Also, since the time is currently

0949Z, after 2 hours and 30 minutes have

passed, the time will be 1219Z.

64. c. (D = 2.3 × 300 + 1.4 × 200) 2.3 is 2 hoursand 18 minutes in hour format, and 1.4 is 1

hour and 24 minutes in hour format.

65. b. ( ) 10.5 is 10 minutes and 30 secondsin minute format.

66. c. ( ) 1.1 is 1 hour and 6 minutes inhour format. Also, since the aircraft was trav-

eling at a speed of 550 miles per hour last

time, it is traveling 550 – 50 = 500 miles per

hour this time.

67. d. (D = × 360 × 2) is 1 hour and 10 minutesin hour format. Also, the round trip between

the two airports is twice the distance from

one airport to the other.

68. a. ( ) is 1 hour and 20 minutes inhour format. Also, from 0541Z to 0701Z, 1

hour and 20 minutes elapsed.

69. a. (SN92GJM = ; SN88379 = ) 0.4 is 24minutes in hour format. Also, since N92GJM

is flying at 375 MPH, and since N88379 is fly-

ing at 500 MPH, N88379 is flying 500 – 375 =

125 MPH faster than N92GJM.

70. b. ( ) is 40 minutes in hour format.

71. a. (D = 3.5 × 50 + 3.5 × 350) 3.5 is 210 minutesin hour format.

72. a. (D = 1.75 × 230) 1.75 is 1 hour and 45 min-utes in hour format. Also, if N87JPC is travel-

ing 46 miles every 12 minutes, it is traveling

230 miles every 60 minutes, or 230 miles per

hour.

73. c. ( ) 1.5 is 1 hour and 30 minutes inhour format. Also, since the aircraft arrived

28 minutes late, it arrived at 0740Z, and the

time elapsed from 0610Z to 0740Z is 1 hour

and 30 minutes.

74. b. ( ) 4.4 is 264 seconds in minute format.


155

860200

S = 9002.5

S = 60043

S = 20023

S = 5251.5

T = 1100250

S = 18635

T = 400160

S = 787510.5

T = 550500

940200

1500.4

2000.4

34

76

43

23

76

13

1312

1312


75. c. ( ) The average ascent rate is920 fet per minute.

76. c. (D = 0.7 × 420) 0.7 is 42 minutes in hour for-mat. Also, if N90023 flew over airport ABC

53 minutes ago, and it flew over airport DEF

11 minutes ago, then the time elapsed was 53

– 11 = 42 minutes.

77. d. (D = × 240) is 10 minutes in hour for-

mat. Also, since the aircraft will have traveled

40 miles after 10 minutes, it will be 110 – 40

= 70 miles outside of Savannah.

78. a. ( ) A quarter of 900 miles is =225 miles.

79. b. (D = × 204) is 5 minutes in hour

format.

80. c. ( ) is 160 minutes in hour format.

Also, the trip from Olympia to Boise and

halfway back to Olympia is 400 + 200 = 600

miles.

81. b. ( ; ) 4 is 240 minutes in

hour format, and 5 is 300 minutes in hour

format. Also, since the aircraft made the trip

from Salem to Mesa at a speed of 250 MPH

and the trip from Mesa to Salem at 200 MPH,

it was traveling 50 MPH slower during the

return trip.

82. d. ( ) 2 is 120 minutes in hour format.Also, if N68493 is traveling 13 miles every 4

minutes, it is traveling 3.25 miles every

minute, or 3.25 × 60 = 195 MPH.

83. a. (D = 6 × 650) Since the aircraft hasdescended 3,900 feet in the last 6 minutes,

and since it is now at an altitude of 5,000 feet,

6 minutes ago it was at an altitude of 5,000 +

3,900 = 8,900 feet.

84. d. ( ) 1.9 is 114 minutes in hour format.Also, half of 1,900 miles is = 950 miles.

85. c. ( ) The aircraft flies a total of 376 +324 = 700 miles, and it flies a total of 67 + 53

= 120 minutes. Two is 120 minutes in hour

format.

86. a. ( ; D = × 210) is 20 minutes inhour format. Also, it takes the aircraft 20

minutes to ascend 144 feet.

87. a. (D = 1.8 × 290) 1.8 is 108 minutes in hourformat. Also, since the aircraft has traveled a

total distance of 522 miles, the distance

between the two airports is 522 – 35 = 487

miles.

88. a. (TN59138 = ; SN62JPC = ) It tookN59138 1.5 hours to fly 300 miles.

89. a. (D = 4.9 × 250) If the aircraft flies 12 milesevery 3 minutes, it flies 25 miles every 6 min-

utes, or 250 MPH.

90. b. ( ) Since it has taken the air-craft 4 minutes to ascend from 3,900 feet to

6,200 feet, and since the time was 1223Z at

3,900 feet, the time is currently 1227Z.

91. b. (D = 1.7 × 400) 1.7 is 1 hour and 42 minutesin hour format. Also, the time elapsed from

0503Z to 0645Z is 1 hour and 42 minutes.


156

T = 225150

T = 950500

S = 7002

T = 144432

300200

T = 6200 - 3900575

2401.5

19002

S = 60083

S = 10004

T = 390195

Sreturn = 10005

9004

16

16

112

83

12

13

13

112

S = 9800 - 52005


92. d. ( ) is 15 minutes in hour format.Also, of 650 miles is 130 miles.

93. b. (TN12230 = ; SN29668 = ) Both N12230and N29668 have been traveling for 4 hours.

94. a. ( ) 12.5 is 12 minutes and 30 secondsin hour format.

95. a. (D = 2.25 × 160 × 0.75) 2.25 is equivalent to2 , and 0.75 is equivalent to .

96. c. ( ) Since the aircraft made the trip in1.12 hours traveling at a speed of 250 MPH,

and since it would have made the trip in 1

hour if traveling at a speed of 280 MPH, its

flight time was 1.12 – 1 = 0.12 hours longer.

0.12 is 7 minutes and 12 seconds in hour

format.

97. d. (D = × 330) is 4 hours and 40 minutes

in hour format.

98. a. ( ) is 45 minutes in hour format.

99. c. ( ) is 3 hours and 50 minutes inhour format.

100.b. (D = 2.5 × 190) 2.5 is 2 hours and 30 minutesin hour format. Also, if the aircraft arrives at

airport DEF 11 minutes prior to its scheduled

arrival time of 1049Z, then it arrives at

1038Z, and the time elapsed between 0808Z

and 1038Z is 2 hours and 30 minutes.


157

800200

S = 750012.5

T = 280250

S = 12634

S = 920236

6004

S = 13014

14

15

14

34

143

143

34

236



Controllers must be able to interpret visual information and make good decisions based on this

information—and they must be able to do this very quickly. The Scan Test and the Dial Read-

ing Test assess your ability to interpret bits of information similar to the kind you will see on the

job. Keep in mind that both tests are administered on a computer and are speed tests, so you should work as

quickly as you can without sacrificing accuracy. You will answer 20 multiple-choice questions on the Dial Test.

For the Scan Test, you will have to use numbers on the keypad of a computer keyboard to enter as many answers

as you can. If you practice using a keypad, it will help your performance on the test.

� Scan

Controllers sometimes work very quickly. They might look at a radar screen and decide to reroute a plane because

of traffic or an oncoming storm. The Scan Test assesses your ability to process small chunks of information quickly

and accurately. To do well on this test, you need to be alert and enter numbers quickly using a keypad. The test

Scan and DialReading

CHAPTER SUMMARYThe Scan Test and the Dial Reading Test are cognitive tests on the AT-

SAT. On the Scan Test, you will watch data blocks on a computer

screen. Each data block has an identification number on the top and

a number on the bottom. On the bottom of your screen will be a num-

ber range. You will key in the identification number for any data block

with a number on the bottom that is outside this range. On the Dial

Reading Test, you will read dials similar to those you might see on the

instrument panel in the cockpit of an aircraft.

7C H A P T E R

159


is timed—you are usually given 20 minutes after an ini-

tial practice period—and you need to enter as many

numbers as you can during this time.

On this test, you will see “data blocks”—infor-

mation displayed in green on a computer screen with

a blue background and a white bar across the bottom.

You will see a number range in this white bar. The com-

puter screen represents the sector, or portion of air-

space, that you are overseeing on the job. Each data

block looks like a fraction, with a letter and number on

the top and a number on the bottom. The number on

the top represents the aircraft’s identification number

or call sign. The number on the bottom represents the

speed of the aircraft, as in this example:

J25

310

In this data block, the identification number is 25

and the speed is 310.

During the test, data blocks will appear all over

the screen, move in a straight line for a while, and then

disappear. Some will move very quickly, while others

will move more slowly. Your job is to scan each data

block to see if its speed is outside the range at the bot-

tom of the screen before the block disappears. If its

speed is outside the range, you enter the block’s iden-

tification number. Then the block disappears. Be aware

that the range does not stay the same throughout the

test. It changes periodically, so you need to scan the

range, too. Look at these data blocks:

Now write the identification numbers of data

blocks with lower line numbers falling beyond the

range 305–760.

1.

2.

3.

Did you find them? You should have written the

identification numbers 56, 38, and 11. On the test, you

would input the numbers using the keypad and then

hit “enter” as shown here:

5-6 <enter>

3-8 <enter>

1-1 <enter>

Now try one more.

Write the identification numbers in the data

blocks with lower line numbers falling beyond the

range 250–510.

1.

2.

3.

4.

V90390

A48220

B75480

X12695

S68710

P07505

K19420

M31589

B56130

F26420

K38780

V41550

T18370

J11303

P95660

C72610

–SCAN AND DIAL READING–

160


You should have written these identification

numbers: 48, 31, 12, and 68, which you would enter like

this:

4-8 <enter>

3-1 <enter>

1-2 <enter>

6-8 <enter>

� Dial Reading

On the Dial Reading Test, you will look at drawings of

an instrument panel in the cockpit of an aircraft and

read dials. You do not need aeronautical knowledge to

do this—you simply need to be able to interpret visual

information quickly and accurately. The key is to inter-

pret the increments on the dials correctly. Pay attention

to what each line between two numbers represents. For

example, a temperature dial might present numbers

this way:

0 | 40�| 80 | 120 | 160

On a temperature dial with these increments, an

arrow pointing to the line between 40 and 80 means it

is 60 degrees. Each increment on this dial represents 20

degrees.

Also, pay attention to whether the numbers on a

dial are in tens, hundreds, or thousands. You can find this

information on the face of the dial. For example, the

numbers on an RPM dial represent hundreds, so if an

arrow points to 12 on the dial, it means the RPM is 1,200.

The Dial Reading Test contains 20 multiple-

choice items. On the actual test, these items have five

answer options. The Dial Reading Test is a speed test,

which means someone times it to see how quickly you

can complete the questions. For this reason, if you are

struggling to answer a question, skip it. Come back to

it later if you have time. You will have to read a com-

bination of these dials:

� altitude dial � RPM dial � temperature dial � VSI dial � amperes dial � heading dial � airspeed dial � fuel-air ratio dial

Altitude Dial

The altitude dial shows the aircraft’s altitude relative

to the horizon. The numbers on the dial represent

thousands. Pilots use altitude dials to tell whether an

aircraft’s wings are level and whether its nose is point-

ing above or below the horizon. An altitude dial is espe-

cially useful in times of poor visibility. On this dial, the

altitude is about 25,000.


161

0

10 50

20

60

4030

Altitude

thousands


RPM Dial

The RPM dial shows the rotations per minute (RPM)

of the aircraft’s engine. The RPM dial is often called the

engine tachometer. The numbers on this RPM dial

represent hundreds. According to this dial, this air-

craft’s RPM is 1,050.

Temperature Dial

The temperature dial shows the temperature in

degrees. The temperature on this dial is about 95°

Celsius.

VSI Dial

A VSI (vertical speed indicator) dial shows the chang-

ing rate of air pressure during ascent or descent. If the

indicator is on a number on the top half of the dial, the

aircraft is climbing or ascending. If the indicator is on

a number on the bottom half of the dial, the aircraft is

descending. A VSI reading is in hundreds, so 10 on the

dial represents 1,000. In this dial, the aircraft is climb-

ing at a speed of about 750 feet per minute.

Amperes Dial

The amperes dial shows the strength of the aircraft’s

electrical charges in milliamperes (mAmps). If the

reading is positive, it is referred to as a charge. If the

reading is negative, it is called a discharge. The read-

ing on this amperes dial is about a 12 charge.

10

0 40

10 3020

20

VSI

100 FT/MIN

-30 -15 0 +15 +30

AMPERESmAmpes

15

18 6

21

9

30

12

RPM

hundreds

0 160

40 12080

TEMPCº


162


Heading Dial

Heading is the direction in which the aircraft’s nose is

pointing. While a heading dial looks like a compass,

you do not need to be concerned with direction. The

questions on the AT-SAT about heading refer only to

numbers. According to this heading indicator, this air-

craft’s heading is 12.

Air Speed Dial

The airspeed indicator is one of the most important

dials on an instrument panel. It measures an aircraft’s

speed by measuring the dynamic pressure of the air

stream rushing against the aircraft as it flies. A pilot

must make sure the aircraft does not slow or stall—the

aircraft will not stay in the air if this happens. Accord-

ing to this dial, this aircraft is flying about 107 miles per

hour (MPH).

Fuel-Air Ratio Dial

The fuel-air ratio refers to the mixture of fuel and air

that enters the engine. Pilots generally want to have as

much fuel and air as possible. According to this dial, the

fuel-air ratio of this aircraft is –12.

90 30

0

60

AIR SPEED

MPH

-12-14-16-18-20

Fuel-Air Ratio

W E

N

S

HEADING

3330

2421 15

12

0603


163


164


1–2: Write your answers on the lines.

1. Write the identification number in the data blocks with lower line numbers falling beyond the range 410–730.

K15170

T30400

G84640

P75390

N19220L62

750

V29450

M41710



165

2. Write the identification number in the data blocks with lower line numbers falling beyond the range 390–780.

L12450

J55385

M43790

V61405

T79910

B52775

N24260

P09616




3. What is the air speed?a. 90 MPH

b. 102 MPH

c. 990 MPH

d. 105 MPH

4. What is the RPM reading?a. 1,050

b. 950

c. 1,500

d. 1,100

5. What is the temperature? a. 105º C

b. 100º C

c. 85º C

d. 82º C

6. What is the vertical speed?a. 800 descending

b. 1,100 climbing

c. 100 climbing

d. 750 climbing

7. What is the altitude? a. 25,000

b. 2,200

c. 220,000

d. 250

8. What is the ampere reading? a. 5 charge

b. 20 discharge

c. 10 charge

d. 15 discharge

10

0 40

10 3020

20

VSI

100 FT/MIN

0

10 50

20

60

4030

Altitude

thousands

0 160

40 12080

TEMPCº

-30 -15 0 +15 +30

AMPERESmAmpes

15

18 6

21

9

30

12

RPM

hundreds

90 30

0

60

AIR SPEED

MPH


166


9. What is the temperature?a. 78º C

b. 50º C

c. 60º C

d. 80º C

10.What is the vertical speed?a. 300 climbing

b. 3,000 descending

c. 6,000 descending

d. 600 climbing

11.What is the altitude?a. 15,000

b. 1,500

c. 1,200

d. 12,000

12.What is the fuel-air ratio?a. –14

b. –13

c. –14.5

d. –140

13.What is the air speed?a. 105 MPH

b. 112 MPH

c. 120 MPH

d. 118 MPH

14.What is the RPM reading?a. 1,450

b. 140

c. 130

d. 1,300


10

0 40

10 3020

20

VSI

100 FT/MIN

0

10 50

20

60

4030

Altitude

thousands

0 160

40 12080

TEMPCº

15

18 6

21

9

30

12

RPM

hundreds

90 30

0

60

AIR SPEED

MPH-12-14-16-18-20

Fuel-Air Ratio


167



� Pract ice Test 4—Scan Test

You will answer 100 questions on this practice test. Read and answer these questions as quickly as you can.

Look at the data blocks in each diagram. Quickly jot down the identification number of any data block with a

bottom number outside the range shown beneath the diagram.

On the actual test, you will use a keyboard to input the identification numbers of data blocks with bottom num-

bers outside the range. The range on the actual test is shown in a white bar on the bottom of the computer

screen. The data blocks move on the computer screen and eventually disappear, so you need to enter the num-

bers as quickly as you can.

This practice test can also be taken online. Turn to the scratch card in the back of this book for information on

accessing this practice test online with immediate scoring.

Write the identification number in the data blocks with lower line numbers falling beyond the range 270–430.

1. ________

2. ________

3. ________

4. ________

T50670

D19440

I22280

P10400

V63390

J39260

A81300

G72510

–PRACTICE TEST 4—SCAN TEST–

169



5. ________

6. ________

7. ________

8. ________

V25480

J18290

I29300

G44610

D45460

K09600

A81310


170



9. ________

10. ________

11. ________

12. ________

P32210

V93380

K78520

P10400 A14

370

D98440

K21230

I62480

T33150


171



13. ________

14. ________

15. ________

G87200

K55160

I43280

D10320

T62170

A26290

V38195

J93180

172




16. ________

17. ________

18. ________

19. ________

20. ________

R16480

V57325

T93750

A78640

D21210

I49400

J13590

P90680

J26200

173




21. ________

22. ________

23. ________

24. ________

T87340

K20290

N23270

U29350

V65260

R31500

I82520

J79490


174



25. ________

26. ________

27. ________

28. ________

29. ________

D45690

C25310

J37720

K10280

I90290

D64350

N16730

T88900


175



30. ________

31. ________

32. ________

C72330

I96290

R65260

A40180

B57155

J29310

D07350

S21170

176




33. ________

34. ________

35. ________

36. ________

37. ________

I20230

T70190

K36500

J16360

C52220

S48470

G10450

N93270

P72210

D61390

V88410


177



38. ________

39. ________

40. ________

41. ________

T34300

L22440 P98

490

I75410

K55290 K81

500 D10320

B27220

C53350

J46280


178



42. ________

43. ________

44. ________

45. ________

A22470

G95490

I72630

J38370

T13520

P40710

N97610

D05590


179



46. ________

47. ________

48. ________

49. ________

P63370

F19400

J81610

U75240

J32390

T54530

K02520

D49570


180



50. ________

51. ________

52. ________

53. ________

P53360

D47400

N21380

A76200

I22350

J80320

K35150

Z91170


181



54. ________

55. ________

56. ________

57. ________

D18310

K08650

N60300

U65380

T95550

G49680

J23590

I31370

P82490

A77610


182



58. ________

59. ________

60. ________

61. ________

62. ________

G65350

N50470

I94180

L19130

A33310

J28220

D89330

T74140

P61300

J20260


183



63. ________

64. ________

65. ________

T13480

N01390

P74400

J53360

T62170

D60420

K17500

I21320


184



66. ________

67. ________

68. ________

69. ________.

I91300

N17370

P74160 D10

320

A02180

D35400

T60210

K82390

U10350


185



70. ________

71. ________

72. ________

73. ________

J74520

A95610

G19710

D53380

T06430

N26580

P88390

I47630


186



74. ________

75. ________

76. ________

77. ________

M74310

I86500

T53390

K39550

S26430

N17490

G02320

J60530


187



78. ________

79. ________

80. ________

81. ________

N20280 D48

420

S85310

I51460

H22440

P97270

T03300

A64330


188



82. ________

83. ________

84. ________

85. ________

T72400

J89240D10

270V61220

K15270

A87380

G56210

Z93360


189



86. ________

87. ________

88. ________

89. ________

P98420

G02410

J26450

T57180

K81300

Z73190

A15210

D34460


190



90. ________

91. ________

92. ________

N52300

G19510

J74420

T38450

M90480

J20320

I65390A46

500 D77430


191



93. ________

94. ________

95. ________

96. ________

97. ________

N18500

P24470

J86330

G90310

T06430 T33

220

Z76280

V55360K51

480

D13210 A62

450


192



98. ________

99. ________

100. ________

V12320

K24280

A62260

T95180

D77300

J80200

P39250

G11320


193


� Answers

1. 50

2. 72

3. 19

4. 39

5. 18

6. 29

7. 44

8. 09

9. 32

10. 7811. 3312. 6213. 5514. 6215. 1016. 9317. 26 18. 9019. 7820. 2121. 6522. 3123. 2324. 8225. 8826. 3727. 1028. 9029. 1630. 2131. 0732. 5733. 3634. 7035. 4836. 52

37. 7238. 9839. 8140. 2741. 4642. 2243. 7244. 3845. 4046. 6347. 7548. 8149. 4950. 2151. 3552. 4753. 9154. 1855. 0856. 4957. 6058. 6559. 1960. 5061. 7462. 8963. 5364. 6265. 2166. 7467. 0268. 3569. 8270. 1971. 4772. 8873. 5374. 7475. 02

76. 3977. 6078. 2079. 9780. 5181. 2282. 7283. 5684. 8985. 6186. 2687. 5788. 7389. 3490. 5291. 4692. 1993. 2494. 5195. 3396. 1397. 1898. 1299. 11100. 95


194


� Pract ice Test 5—Dial Reading Test

You will answer 100 questions about dials on this practice test. Read and answer these questions as quicklyas you can. If you are unsure of an answer, skip it and come back to it when you have finished answering theother questions. On the actual AT-SAT, you will take the Dial Reading Test on a computer, so on this test, useyour pen or pencil ONLY to circle your answers. On the AT-SAT, you will not be allowed to use a pen and paperto calculate the increments on the dials.

Remember that the actual Dial Reading Test is a speed test. You will have to answer about 20 questions asquickly as you can. Choose the correct answer and mark the corresponding letter on the answer sheet onpage 213.

This practice test can also be taken online. Turn to the scratch card in the back of this book for information onaccessing this practice test online with immediate scoring.

10

0 40

10 3020

20

VSI

100 FT/MIN

0

10 50

20

60

4030

Altitude

thousands

0 160

40 12080

TEMPCº

15

18 6

21

9

30

12

RPM

hundreds

90 30

0

60

AIR SPEED

MPH

-12-14-16-18-20

Fuel-Air Ratio

–PRACTICE TEST 5—DIAL READING TEST–

195

1. What is the vertical speed?a. 0

b. 10 climbing

c. 100 descending

d. 1,000 descending

2. What is the temperature?a. 45º C

b. 50º C

c. 60º C

d. 70º C

3. What is the RPM?a. 1,900

b. 1,850

c. 1,650

d. 1,750

4. What is the altitude?a. 20,000

b. 2,000

c. 20

d. 200,000

5. What is the fuel-air ratio?a. –21

b. –17.5

c. –19.5

d. –16


b. 105 MPH

c. 115 MPH

d. 97 MPH


7. What is the RPM reading?a. 225

b. 2,500

c. 2,250

d. 250


b. 1,150 MPH

c. 11,500 MPH

d. 1,100 MPH

9. What is the ampere reading?a. 25 discharge

b. 25 charge

c. 15 discharge

d. 15 charge

10.What is the altitude?a. 55

b. 55,000

c. 5,500

d. 550

11.What is the vertical speed?a. 1,500 climbing

b. 2,000 climbing

c. 180 climbing

d. 1,700 climbing

12.What is the temperature?a. 20º F

b. 10º F

c. 20º C

d. 10º C

10

0 40

10 3020

20

VSI

100 FT/MIN

0

10 50

20

60

4030

Altitude

thousands

0 160

40 12080

TEMPCº

15

18 6

21

9

30

12

RPM

hundreds

90 30

0

60

AIR SPEED

MPH

-30 -15 0 +15 +30

AMPERESmAmpes


196



b. 500 climbing

c. 200 descending

d. 100 descending


b. 500

c. 5,000

d. 50,000

15.What is the ampere reading?a. 0

b. 15 charge

c. 10 charge

d. 5 discharge


b. 90 MPH

c. 75 MPH

d. 95 MPH

17.What is the RPM reading?a. 187

b. 18,700

c. 18.7

d. 1,870

18.What is the temperature?a. 100º C

b. 90º C

c. 85º C

d. 87.5º C

10

0 40

10 3020

20

VSI

100 FT/MIN

0

10 50

20

60

4030

Altitude

thousands

0 160

40 12080

TEMPCº

15

18 6

21

9

30

12

RPM

hundreds

90 30

0

60

AIR SPEED

MPH

-30 -15 0 +15 +30

AMPERESmAmpes


197


19.What is the vertical speed?a. 900 descending

b. 1,100 climbing

c. 800 climbing

d. 900 climbing


b. 1,650

c. 1,700

d. 170


b. 150º C

c. 165º C

d. 170º C


b. 150

c. 15,000

d. 150,000

23.What is the heading?a. 0.045

b. 4.5

c. 450

d. 45


b. –18.5

c. –20

d. –21

10

0 40

10 3020

20

VSI

100 FT/MIN

0

10 50

20

60

4030

Altitude

thousands

0 180

30 15090

TEMPCº

15

18 6

21

9

30

12

RPM

hundreds

W E

N

S

HEADING

3330

2421 15

12

0603

-12-14-16-18-20

Fuel-Air Ratio


198



b. 101 MPH

c. 1,060 MPH

d. 1,100 MPH


b. 3,000

c. 30,000

d. 300,000


b. –14

c. –13

d. –12


b. 2,100

c. 200

d. 2,500


b. 500 climbing

c. 15,000 descending

d. 1,500 descending


b. 60º C

c. 80º C

d. 90º C

10

0 40

10 3020

20

VSI

100 FT/MIN

0

10 50

20

60

4030

Altitude

thousands

0 160

40 12080

TEMPCº

15

18 6

21

9

30

12

RPM

hundreds

-12-14-16-18-20

Fuel-Air Ratio

90 30

0

60

AIR SPEED

MPH


199



b. 100,000

c. 1,000

d. 10,000

32.What is the ampere reading?a. 5 discharge

b. 5 charge

c. 15 charge

d. 15 discharge


b. 82 MPH

c. 90 MPH

d. 85 MPH


b. 120 climbing

c. 1,500 climbing

d. 150 climbing

35.What is the heading?a. 31.5

b. 35.0

c. 315

d. 350


b. 2,550

c. 2,500

d. 2,150

10

0 40

10 3020

20

VSI

100 FT/MIN

0

10 50

20

60

4030

Altitude

thousands

15

18 6

21

9

30

12

RPM

hundreds

W E

N

S

HEADING

3330

2421 15

12

0603

-30 -15 0 +15 +30

AMPERESmAmpes

120 40

0

80

AIR SPEED

MPH


200


37.What is the vertical speed?a. 1,000 descending

b. 1,000 climbing

c. 1,200 climbing

d. 1,200 descending


b. 1,400

c. 1,520

d. 152

39.What is the temperature reading?a. 130º C

b. 135º C

c. 140º C

d. 145º C


b. 28,000

c. 32,000

d. 3,200

41.What is the heading?a. 15

b. 150

c. 14

d. 135


b. 70 MPH

c. 75 MPH

d. 80 MPH

10

0 40

10 3020

20

VSI

100 FT/MIN

0

10 50

20

60

4030

Altitude

thousands

15

18 6

21

9

30

12

RPM

hundreds

W E

N

S

HEADING

3330

2421 15

12

0603

90 30

0

60

AIR SPEED

MPH

0 160

40 12080

TEMPCº


201



b. 3,000 descending

c. 300 climbing

d. 3,000 climbing


b. 1,200

c. 1,350

d. 135

45.What is the temperature reading?a. 80º F

b. 87º F

c. 76º F

d. 90º F


b. 45,000

c. 4,500

d. 450,000


b. 20

c. 28

d. 26


b. 910 MPH

c. 900 MPH

d. 91 MPH

10

0 40

10 3020

20

VSI

100 FT/MIN

0

10 50

20

60

4030

Altitude

thousands

W E

N

S

HEADING

3330

2421 15

12

0603

90 30

0

60

AIR SPEED

MPH

15

18 6

21

9

30

12

RPM

hundreds

1 100

25 7550

TEMPFº


202



b. 110º C

c. 90º C

d. 85º C


b. 100 climbing

c. 400 descending

d. 400 climbing


b. 95 MPH

c. 100 MPH

d. 105 MPH


b. 1,500

c. 15,000

d. 150,000


b. 4 discharge

c. 4 charge

d. 3 charge


b. 1,950

c. 2,050

d. 2,150

10

0 40

10 3020

20

VSI

100 FT/MIN

0

1 5

2

6

43

Altitude

thousands

15

18 6

21

9

30

12

RPM

hundreds

150 50

0175 25

125 75100

AIR SPEED

MPH

0 160

40 12080

TEMPCº

-6 -3 0 +3 +6

AMPERESmAmpes


203



b. 500 descending

c. 5,000 descending

d. 5,000 climbing


b. 1,450

c. 1,550

d. 1,750


b. 112 MPH

c. 100 MPH

d. 95 MPH


b. –19

c. –17

d. –18


b. 800

c. 8,000

d. 80,000


b. 60º C

c. 70º C

d. 80º C

5

0 20

5 1510

10

VSI

100 FT/MIN

0

2 10

4

12

86

Altitude

thousands

15

18 6

21

9

30

12

RPM

hundreds

150 50

0175 25

125 75100

AIR SPEED

MPH

0 160

40 12080

TEMPCº

-12-14-16-18-20

Fuel-Air Ratio


204


61.What is the ampere reading?a. 3 charge

b. 4 charge

c. 3 discharge

d. 4 discharge


b. 400 climbing

c. 300 descending

d. 100 descending


b. 1,700

c. 1,600

d. 1,500


b. 400

c. 4,000

d. 40,000


b. 75º C

c. 65º C

d. 70º C


b. 78 MPH

c. 80 MPH

d. 88 MPH

5

0 20

5 1510

10

VSI

100 FT/MIN

15

18 6

21

9

30

12

RPM

hundreds

0

1 5

2

6

43

Altitude

thousands

-6 -3 0 +3 +6

AMPERESmAmpes

0 120

30 9060

TEMPCº

AIR SPEED

MPH

125

175

75

25

150 50

0

100


205



b. 1,250 climbing

c. 1,550 climbing

d. 1,650 climbing


b. 18

c. 160

d. 180


b. 1,800

c. 2,150

d. 2,050


b. –17.5

c. –18

d. –19.5


b. 15 MPH

c. 12 MPH

d. 14 MPH


b. 2,500

c. 500

d. 250

5

0 20

5 1510

10

VSI

100 FT/MIN

15

18 6

21

9

30

12

RPM

hundreds

AIR SPEED

MPH

100

140

60

20

120 40

0

80

-12-14-16-18-20

Fuel-Air Ratio

0

1 5

2

6

43

Altitude

thousands

W E

N

S

HEADING

3330

2421 15

12

0603


206



b. 105º C

c. 95º C

d. 110º C


b. 1,000 climbing

c. 100 descending

d. 1,000 descending


b. 180

c. 1,800

d. 18,000


b. 2,100

c. 215

d. 2,500


b. 4 discharge

c. 6 charge

d. 4 charge


b. 49 MPH

c. 40 MPH

d. 45 MPH

5

0 20

5 1510

10

VSI

100 FT/MIN

0

1 5

2

6

43

Altitude

thousands

0 120

30 9060

TEMPCº

AIR SPEED

MPH

120 40

0

80

15

18 6

21

9

30

12

RPM

hundreds

-6 -3 0 +3 +6

AMPERESmAmpes


207



b. 105º C

c. 110º C

d. 115º C


b. 92

c. 890

d. 9


b. 1,500 descending

c. 150 climbing

d. 1,500 climbing


b. 540

c. 5,500

d. 6,000


b. –13

c. –14

d. –15


b. 92.5 MPH

c. 87.5 MPH

d. 90 MPH

5

0 20

5 1510

10

VSI

100 FT/MIN

0

1 5

2

6

43

Altitude

thousands

0 120

30 9060

TEMPCº

AIR SPEED

MPH

125

175

75

25

150 50

0

100

-12-14-16-18-20

Fuel-Air Ratio

15

18 6

21

9

30

12

RPM

hundreds


208



b. 1,000 descending

c. 10 climbing

d. 1,000 climbing


b. 25

c. 29

d. 240


b. 100

c. 1,000

d. 10,000


b. 40º C

c. 45º C

d. 50º C


b. –16.5

c. –15.5

d. –16

90.What is the air speed?a. 2.5 MPH

b. 5 MPH

c. 10 MPH

d. 15 MPH

5

0 20

5 1510

10

VSI

100 FT/MIN

0

1 5

2

6

43

Altitude

thousands

0 120

30 9060

TEMPCº

AIR SPEED

MPH

100

140

60

20

120 40

0

80

-12-14-16-18-20

Fuel-Air Ratio

W E

N

S

HEADING

3330

2421 15

12

0603


209



b. 1,350

c. 1,400

d. 1,450


b. 30º C

c. 400º C

d. 800º C


b. 190 climbing

c. 1,900 climbing

d. 190 descending


b. 30

c. 300

d. 3,000

95.What is the ampere reading?a. 2 charge

b. 4 charge

c. 6 discharge

d. 4 discharge


b. 120 MPH

c. 1,000 MPH

d. 1,200 MPH

5

0 20

5 1510

10

VSI

100 FT/MIN

0

1 5

2

6

43

Altitude

thousands

0 80

20 6040

TEMPCº

-6 -3 0 +3 +6

AMPERESmAmpes

15

18 6

21

9

30

12

RPM

hundreds

AIR SPEED

MPH

125

175

75

25

150 50

0

100


210



b. 65º C

c. 70 Cº

d. 75 Cº


b. 7,500 climbing

c. 75 climbing

d. 750 descending


b. 106

c. 10,600

d. 10.6

100. What is the fuel-air ratio?a. –13

b. –13.5

c. –14.5

d. –15

15

18 6

21

9

30

12

RPM

hundreds

10

0 40

10 3020

20

VSI

100 FT/MIN

0 80

20 6040

TEMPCº

-12-14-16-18-20

Fuel-Air Ratio


211



Practice Test 5—Dial Reading Test


213

1. a b c d

2. a b c d

3. a b c d

4. a b c d

5. a b c d

6. a b c d

7. a b c d

8. a b c d

9. a b c d

10. a b c d

11. a b c d

12. a b c d

13. a b c d

14. a b c d

15. a b c d

16. a b c d

17. a b c d

18. a b c d

19. a b c d

20. a b c d

21. a b c d

22. a b c d

23. a b c d

24. a b c d

25. a b c d

26. a b c d

27. a b c d

28. a b c d

29. a b c d

30. a b c d

31. a b c d

32. a b c d

33. a b c d

34. a b c d

35. a b c d

36. a b c d

37. a b c d

38. a b c d

39. a b c d

40. a b c d

41. a b c d

42. a b c d

43. a b c d

44. a b c d

45. a b c d

46. a b c d

47. a b c d

48. a b c d

49. a b c d

50. a b c d

51. a b c d

52. a b c d

53. a b c d

54. a b c d

55. a b c d

56. a b c d

57. a b c d

58. a b c d

59. a b c d

60. a b c d

61. a b c d

62. a b c d

63. a b c d

64. a b c d

65. a b c d

66. a b c d

67. a b c d

68. a b c d

69. a b c d

70. a b c d

71. a b c d

72. a b c d

73. a b c d

74. a b c d

75. a b c d

76. a b c d

77. a b c d

78. a b c d

79. a b c d

80. a b c d

81. a b c d

82. a b c d

83. a b c d

84. a b c d

85. a b c d

86. a b c d

87. a b c d

88. a b c d

89. a b c d

90. a b c d

91. a b c d

92. a b c d

93. a b c d

94. a b c d

95. a b c d

96. a b c d

97. a b c d

98. a b c d

99. a b c d

100. a b c d



1. d.Since the arrow is on the 10 on the bottomhalf of this VSI dial, the aircraft is descending.

You need to convert 10 to hundreds, so the

correct answer is 1,000 descending.

2. c. The temperature dial is in increments of 20,and the indicator is on the line between 40

and 80, which means it is 60 degrees Celsius.

3. d.The indicator is just underneath the 18, so itreads about 17.5. RPM is measured in hun-

dreds, so the correct answer is 1,750.

4. a. The indicator is slightly ahead of the 20, andaltitude is measured in thousands, so the alti-

tude is 20,000.

5. c. The indicator is slightly ahead of the smallline after the line indicating –19, so the fuel-

air ratio is –19.5.

6. d.On the air speed dial, 1 to 30 is divided into 4parts, so each line represents 7.5. The indica-

tor is just about touching the line after the 90,

so the reading is a little less than 97.5. The

best answer is 97 MPH.

7. c. This RPM dial is divided into increments of1.5. The indicator is pointing to the line after

21, which represents 22.5. You need to con-

vert this number to hundreds, so the correct

answer is 2,250.

8. a.On this air speed dial, 1 to 30 is divided into4 parts, so each line represents 7.5. The indi-

cator is about halfway between the last two

lines on the dial, so the air speed is about

115 MPH.

9. a. The area between –15 and –30 on theamperes dial is divided into 3 sections, so

each line represents –5. The indicator is

pointing to the line representing –25, so the

ampere reading is 25 discharge.

10. b.The indicator is on the line between 50 and60, which represents 55. The altitude is in

thousands, so the altitude is 55,000.

11. d.The indicator is fairly close to the 20 in theupper half of the dial, and VSI is measured in

hundreds, so the best answer is 1,700

climbing.

12. c. This temperature dial is in increments of 20,so the temperature is 20 degrees Celsius.

13. a. The vertical speed dial is in increments of 10,and the indicator is about one-fourth of the

distance between 0 and 10 on the upper half

of the dial, which represents about 2.5. VSI is

measured in hundreds, so the VSI is 250

climbing.

14. d. The indicator on this altitude dial is pointingto 50. Altitude is measured in thousands, so it

is 50,000.

15. b.The indicator on this amperes dial is on +15,so the reading is 15 charge.

16. a. Each line on this air speed dial represents 7.5,and the indicator is about halfway between

82.5 and 90, so the air speed is about

86 MPH.

17. d.The RPM is in hundreds and the indicator isslightly above 18. Each line on this dial repre-

sents 1.5, so it is about 18.7. When you con-

vert this number to hundreds, the RPM is

1,870 RPM.

18. a. This temperature dial is in increments of 20,and the indicator is on the line between 80

and 120, which represents 100. The tempera-

ture is about 100 degrees Celsius.

19. b.VSI is measured in hundreds and the indica-tor is pointing slightly above 10 in the upper

half of the dial, so the best answer is 1,100

climbing.

-–PRACTICE TEST 5—DIAL READING TEST–

214


20. b.RPM is measured in hundreds and each lineon this dial represents 1.5. The indicator is

pointing to the line between 15 and 18, so the

answer is 16.5. When you convert this num-

ber to hundreds, the answer is 1,650.

21. c. This temperature dial is in increments of 15.The indicator is pointing to the line between

150 and 180, so the temperature is 165

degrees Celsius.

22. c. Altitude is measured in thousands and theindicator is pointing to 15, so the correct

answer is 15,000.

23. b.Each line on the heading dial represents 3,and the indicator is pointing to an area

between 3 and 6, so the correct answer is 4.5.

24. c. Each line on this fuel-air ratio dial represents–0.5. The indicator is pointing to –20, which

is the fuel-air ratio for this aircraft.

25. a. Each line on the air speed dial represents 7.5,and the indicator is pointing slightly ahead of

the line representing 105, so the best answer

is 106 MPH.

26. c. Altitude is measured in thousands, and theindicator is pointing to 30, so the correct

answer is 30,000.

27. b.Each line on this fuel-air ratio represents –0.5, and the indicator is pointing to –14, so

this is the fuel-air ratio.

28. b.RPM is measured in hundreds and the indi-cator is pointing to 21, so the correct answer

is 2,100.

29. d.VSI is measured in hundreds and the indica-tor is pointing to 15 on the bottom half of the

dial, so the answer is 1,500 descending.

30. c. This temperature dial is in increments of 20.The indicator is pointing to 80, so the tem-

perature is 80 degrees Celsius.

31. d.Altitude is measured in thousands and theindicator on this dial is pointing to 10, so the

correct answer is 10,000.

32. b.This amperes dial is in increments of 5. Thisindicator is pointing to +5, which is 5 charge.

33. d.This air speed dial is in increments of 10. Theindicator is between the lines for 80 and 90,

so the air speed is 85 MPH.

34. a. VSI is measured in 100 feet per minute. Onthis dial, the indicator is on 12 on the upper

half of the dial, so the answer is 1,200

climbing.

35. a. The indicator on this heading dial is abouthalfway between 30 and 33, so the best

answer is 31.5.

36. a. RPM is measured in hundreds, and the indi-cator on this dial is on 23, so the correct

answer is 2,300.

37. d.The upper half of a VSI dial indicates that theaircraft is climbing, and the lower half indi-

cates that it is descending. On this dial, the

indicator is on 12 on the lower half. VSI is

measured in hundreds, so the correct answer

is 1,200 descending.

38. b.RPM is measured in hundreds, and the indi-cator on this dial is on 14, so the best answer

is 1,400.

39. c. This temperature dial is in increments of 20.The indicator is pointing to 140, so the tem-

perature is 140 degrees Celsius.

40. c. On this dial, the indicator is pointing toabout 32. Since altitude is measured in thou-

sands, the answer is 32,000.

41. a. The indicator on this dial is on 15, whichmeans the heading is 15.

42. c. Each line on this air speed dial represents 7.5,and the indictor is on the second line after

the 60, so the correct answer is 75 MPH.


215


43. b.The indicator on this VSI dial is on 30 on thebottom of the dial, which means the aircraft

is descending. Since VSI is measured in hun-

dreds, the answer is 3,000 descending.

44. b. RPM is measured in hundreds, and the indi-

cator on this dial is on 12, so the correct

answer is 1,200.

45. b.This temperature dial is in increments of12.5. The indicator is on the line between 75

and 100, which represents 87.5. The tempera-

ture is about 87 degrees Fahrenheit.

46. b.The indicator on this dial is on 45. Altitude ismeasured in thousands, so the answer is

45,000.

47. d.The indicator on this heading dial is on 26, sothe heading is 26.

48. d.To find the air speed on this dial, note thatthe indicator is on 91. The correct answer is

91 MPH.

49. c. The temperature on this dial is about 10degrees below the line that indicates 100

degrees, so it is 90 degrees Celsius.

50. c. Because the indicator is on the bottom half ofthis dial, the aircraft is descending. The indi-

cator points to 4 and VSI is measured in 100

feet/minute, so the correct answer is 400

descending.

51. b.Each line on the air speed indicator repre-sents 12.5. The line before 100 represents

87.5. The indicator is closer to the number

100 than the line, however. The air speed is

about 95 MPH.

52. b.The indicator on the altitude dial is on 1.5.Each number represents thousands, however,

so the correct answer is 1,500.

53. b.This amperes dial is in increments of 1, andthe indicator is pointing to –4, so the reading

is 4 discharge.

54. c. The indicator is very close to 21, and theRPM is in hundreds, so the best answer is

2,050.

55. a. The indicator is pointing to the 5 on theupper half of this VSI dial, which means the

aircraft is climbing. The reading is in hun-

dreds, so the correct answer is 500 climbing.

56. c. The indicator on this RPM dial is slightlyabove the 15 and the reading is in hundreds,

so the best answer is 1,550.

57. b.Each line on this air speed dial represents12.5 and the indicator is about halfway

between 100 and 125, so the best answer is

112 MPH.

58. d.Each line on this fuel-air ratio represents –0.5. The indicator is on –18, which is the

fuel-air ratio.

59. c. The indicator on this altitude dial is pointingto 8. The reading is in thousands, so the alti-

tude is 8,000.

60. a. Each line on this temperature dial represents20, and the indicator is about halfway

between 40 and the line after it, so the tem-

perature is about 50 degrees.

61. b.Each line on this amperes dial represents 1,and the indicator is on +4, so the answer is 4

charge.

62. c. The indicator is pointing to 3, which is morethan halfway between 0 and 5. It is on the

bottom half of the dial, so the aircraft is

descending. The reading is 100 feet/minute,

so the correct answer is 300 descending.

63. b.Each line between the numbers on this RPMdial represents 1.5, so the line between the 15

and 18 represents 16.5. The indicator is

pointing past this line and the reading is in

hundreds, so the best answer is 1,700.


216


64. c. The indicator on this altitude dial is pointingto the 4 and the reading is in thousands, so

the correct answer is 4,000.

65. b.Each line on this temperature dial represents15 degrees, so the line between 60 and 90 is

75 degrees.

66. d.Each line on this air speed dial represents12.5. The indicator is pointing to the line

between 75 and 100, so the air speed is about

88 MPH.

67. d.The indicator on this VSI dial is pointing toan area at least one number ahead of 15 on

the top half of the dial, so the aircraft is

climbing. The reading is in hundreds, so the

best answer is 1,650 climbing.

68. b.Each line on this heading dial represents 3.The indicator is on the line between 15 and

21, so the heading is 18.

69. a. Each line on this RPM dial represents 1.5.The indicator is on the line between 18 and

20, so the reading is 19.5. This reading needs

to be converted to hundreds, however, so the


70. d.The indicator on this fuel-air ratio dial is onthe line right before 20, and each line repre-

sents –0.5. The correct answer is –19.5.

71. a. This air speed dial is in increments of 10, andthe indicator is on 10, so the correct answer is

10 MPH.

72. b.The indicator on this dial is between 2 and 3,and the reading is in thousands, so the

answer is 2,500.

73. c. This temperature dial is divided into incre-ments of 15. The indicator is slightly ahead of

90, so the best answer is 95 degrees Celsius.

74. b.The indicator on this vertical speed dial ispointing to 10 on the upper half of the dial,

which indicates that the aircraft is climbing.

Ten needs to be converted to hundreds, how-

ever, so the correct answer is 1,000 climbing.

75. c. This RPM dial is divided into increments of1.5. The indicator is on 18, which when con-

verted to hundreds is 1,800.

76. b.This altitude dial is divided into incrementsof 0.5. The indicator is pointing to an area

slightly ahead of 2. After converting this

number to thousands, the best answer is

2,100.

77. c. Each line on this amperes dial represents 1,and the indicator is pointing to +6, which

means its reading is 6 charge.

78. d.This air speed dial is divided into incrementsof 10. The indicator is between 40 and 50, so

the best answer is 45 MPH.

79. b.This temperature dial is divided into incre-ments of 15. The indicator is on the line

between 90 and 120, which represents 105.

The temperature is 105 degrees Celsius.

80. a. The indicator is on 9. Since RPM is in hun-dreds, the correct answer is 900.

81. d.The indicator on this VSI dial is on 15 on thetop half of the dial, which means the aircraft

is climbing. When you convert 15 to hun-

dreds, the answer is 1,500 climbing.

82. c. This altitude indicator is in increments of 0.5,and the indicator is pointing to 5.5. The read-

ing is in thousands, however, so the correct

answer is 5,500.

83. b.The indicator on this fuel-ratio dial is point-ing to the line between –14 and –12. The cor-

rect answer is –13.

84. c. The indicator is on the 87.5 line, so the cor-rect answer is 87.5 MPH.

85. b.This VSI dial is divided into increments of 5.The indicator is on the 10 on the bottom of

the dial, which means the aircraft is descend-


217


ing. VSI is indicated in hundreds, so the cor-

rect answer is 1,000 descending.

86. a.On this dial, heading is shown in incrementsof 3. The indicator is on the line between 24

and 30, so the heading is 27.

87. c. Altitude is measured in thousands, and theindicator on this dial is pointing to 1, so the


88. c. This temperature dial is in increments of 15.The indicator is on a line between 30 and 60,

so the temperature is 45 degrees Celsius.

89. d.Every line on this fuel-air ratio dial represents–0.5. The indicator is pointing to –16, which

is the fuel-air ratio.

90. c. This air speed dial is in increments of 10, andthe indicator is pointing to the line between 0

and 20, so the air speed is 10 MPH.

91. b.This RPM dial is in increments of 1.5. Theindicator is on the line between 12 and 15,

which is 13.5. RPM is measured in hundreds,

so the answer is 1,350.

92. a. This temperature dial is in increments of 10.The indicator is on 40, so the temperature is

40 degrees Celsius.

93. c. The indicator on this vertical speed dial is on19, which is on the top half of the dial. This

means that the aircraft is climbing. Since VSI

is measured in hundreds, the vertical speed is

1,900 climbing.

94. d.The indicator on this altitude dial is pointingto 3. Since altitude is measured in thousands,

the answer is 3,000.

95. d.Each line on this amperes dial represents 1.This indicator is pointing to –4, which is a

4 discharge.

96. a. The indicator on this air speed dial is point-ing to 100, so the air speed is 100 MPH.

97. c. This temperature dial is in increments of 10.The indicator is on the line between 60 and

80, so the temperature is 70 degrees Celsius.

98. a. The indicator on this vertical speed dial is inthe middle of 5 and 10. This indicates 7.5.

The indicator is pointing to an area on the

upper half of the dial, so the aircraft is climb-

ing. When you convert 7.5 to hundreds, the

answer is 750.

99. a. The indicator is between 9 and 12, so thereading is about 10.6. When you convert this

number to hundreds, the answer is 1,060.

100. b.The indicator on this fuel-air ratio dial is onthe line between –14 and –13, so the fuel-air

ratio is –13.5.


218


C H A P T E R

219

Controllers must assess information, such as that on a radar screen, and make good decisions based

on what they see. Both the Letter Factory (LF) Test and the Air Traffic Scenario Test (ATST) assess

your situational awareness and require you to react quickly to what you see on a computer screen.

Both tests require the use of a computer mouse.

� Letter Factory

On the Letter Factory (LF) Test, you will have to assess situations and plan and think ahead. This test is a lot like a

computer or video game—you use a mouse to perform tasks. At the beginning of the test, four factory assembly

lines appear on the screen. Each assembly line has a conveyor belt with a loading area in front of it and manufac-

tures four letters (A, B, C, or D) that may be in one of three colors (orange, purple, or green). Your job is to find a

box that is the same color as a letter coming down the conveyor belt and drag the box so that it is underneath the

conveyor belt (i.e., an orange box for an orange A). Letters move down the conveyor belt one after another, and the

Letter Factoryand Air TrafficScenarios

CHAPTER SUMMARYThe Letter Factory Test and the Air Traffic Scenario Test are cognitive

tests on the AT-SAT. On the Letter Factory Test, you will view four fac-

tory assembly lines, each with a conveyor belt and a loading area. You

will use a computer mouse to drag the letters that appear on the belt

into the appropriate box in the loading area. The Air Traffic Scenario

Test is a simulation of a radar screen. You will use a computer mouse

to issue commands to maintain separation between aircraft.

8


conveyor belts move at different speeds. Once you get

four letters of one color in a box (i.e., a purple A, B, C,

and D in a purple box), the box will disappear, and you

will have to get another one from a supply of boxes on

the right of the screen. When the supply of boxes on the

side of the screen runs low, you need to click “Order

Boxes” and more boxes will appear.

The game is not as easy as it seems. You can only

put a box underneath a letter after the letter crosses a

white line on the conveyor belt. You also have to be on

the lookout for defective letters, letters other than A, B,

C, or D. Defective letters need to be removed by Qual-

ity Control, which you alert by clicking on a box. You

have to click on the box before the letter crosses the

white line—the reverse of the procedure you follow for

letters that are not defective. A defective letter quickly

disappears after you click Quality Control.

The LF Test also tests your ability to recall what

you have seen. Every so often, the assembly lines will

disappear and a multiple-choice question will appear

in their place. This question will ask about something

on the screen you have just seen. It might ask, “Which

conveyor belt was moving the slowest?” or “What color

was the letter on the first belt?” After you answer the

question, you will see a new assembly line scenario, and

you will start again.

You will lose points if you put a letter in the

incorrect box or if you let a letter reach the end of the

conveyor belt and no box is there. You will also lose

points if you move too many boxes to the bottom of

the conveyor belt, forget to alert Quality Control about

defective letters, or forget to order new boxes. Note that

you will be given ample time to practice before you

begin the test.

Look at this letter factory screen. Because it is in

black and white, the boxes are numbered. Use this key

to put the correct letter in the correct box:

A Box 1

B Box 2

C Box 3

D Box 4

220

–LETTER FACTORY AND AIR TRAFFIC SCENARIOS–


Note that the letter must be below the white line

before you can put it in a box. If it is above the white

line, you take no action. On the actual test, you will

wait until the letter crosses the white line before put-

ting it in a box.

1–3: Answer these questions based on the dia-

gram on the previous page.

1. The letter on Belt A should go in the box at theend of

a. Belt A.

b. Belt B.

c. Belt C.

d. Belt D.

The letter on Belt A is C. According to the key, it should

go in Box 3, and this box is at the end of Belt C, so the

correct answer choice is c.

2. What should you do about the letter on Belt B? a. Take no action.

b. Put it in Box 4.

c. Alert Quality Control.

d. Put it in Box 1.

The letter on Belt B is T, which is defective. It has not

crossed the white line, so you should alert Quality Con-

trol. The correct answer choice is c.

3. The letter on Belt D should go in the box at theend of

a. Belt A.

b. Belt B.

c. Belt C.

d. Belt D.

The letter on Belt D is B. According to the key, it should

go in Box 2, which is at the end of Belt B. The correct

answer choice is b.

4–5: Now, cover the diagram with a piece of paper

and answer these questions.

4. What letter was on Belt A? a. A

b. B

c. C

d. D

5. What was the defective letter? a. J

b. T

c. F

d. L

The answer to question 4 is c. The letter C was on Belt

A. The defective letter was T.

� Air Traff ic Scenarios

The Air Traffic Scenarios Test (ATST) is a simulation

of an ATC radar screen that updates every seven sec-

onds. Your job is to maintain separation between air-

craft represented by data blocks and direct these

aircraft to avoid errors.

The main section of the screen has four exits: A,

B, C, and D. It also has two airports: e and f. Aircraft

can fly at three speeds:

S Slow

M Medium

F Fast

221



Aircraft can fly at four altitudes:

1 Low

2 Low to Medium

3 Medium to Fast

4 Fast

Aircraft can fly toward one of four exits or toward

one of two airports. Each aircraft is identified by a data

block consisting of the aircraft’s speed, altitude, and

exit or airport. For example, look at this data block:

F4B

This aircraft is flying fast, at a high altitude, and

toward exit B.

Now try another:

S1e

This aircraft is flying at a slow speed, at a low

altitude, and toward airport e.

Each aircraft also has an arrow indicating the

direction, or heading, in which it is flying.

Your goal is to identify and correct these errors:

� Aircraft flying either too fast or too slow.

Aircraft flying toward an exit should fly at a

fast speed, while aircraft flying toward an

airport should fly at a slow speed.� Aircraft flying at an incorrect altitude. Air-

craft flying toward an exit should fly at a

high altitude, while aircraft flying toward an

airport should fly at a low altitude. � Aircraft flying toward the wrong exit or

airport. If an aircraft is identified as F3A,

the arrow after it should point to exit A, not

to another exit or an airport. If the aircraft

is flying toward an incorrect exit, you need

to change its heading. � Aircraft flying too close together. Aircraft

are required to maintain a separation of five

miles laterally or 1,000 feet vertically. If air-

craft are too close together, you need to sep-

arate them—sometimes quickly, so they do

not collide. � Aircraft flying too close to a boundary. On

this test, the boundary is the line around the

top, bottom, and sides of the screen.

On the actual test, you will use a computer mouse

to make changes. You simply click on the data block

representing an aircraft, and then click on the correct

change on the right of the screen. For example, if you

would like to change an aircraft’s heading, you would

click on the data block for that aircraft and then click

on the correct heading on the right of the screen.

You will also need to scan the Pilot Readback box

on the right of the screen. Sometimes pilots will mis-

interpret your commands. When this happens, you

need to reissue the command by clicking on the aircraft

and then the change.

Keep an eye on the destination of each aircraft on

the screen. Occasionally, an aircraft flying toward an

exit will change its destination and fly toward an air-

port and vice versa.

Points are both awarded and deducted on this

test. You will be awarded points for maintaining cor-

rect separation and making necessary changes in speed

and altitude. You will lose points if you direct an air-

craft to an incorrect destination, do not maintain sep-

aration between aircraft, or do not catch an error in

speed or altitude.

222



Look at the screen above. Then answer the ques-

tions that follow.

1. What change should you make to M1f? a. increase its altitude

b. decrease its speed

c. change its heading to 2

d. change its heading to 7

Remember the basic rule of game: aircraft flying

toward an exit should fly fast and high while aircraft

flying toward an airport should fly low and slow. This

aircraft should have its speed reduced since it is flying

toward airport f. Answer choice b is correct.

2. Which aircraft are not maintaining the requiredseparation?

a. S4D and F4A

b. F4C and F2C

c. S1e and S2f

d. F4D and S2f

You probably noticed right away that aircraft S1e and

S2f are too close together. The correct answer is c.

3. What change, if any, should you make to F4D? a. decrease its speed

b. decrease its altitude

c. change its heading

d. make no change

This aircraft is flying toward the correct destination,

which is an exit, and it is flying at a high speed and alti-

tude. Answer choice d is correct.

4. Which aircraft is too close to a boundary? a. F4C

b. F4A

c. S4D

d. F2C

F4C is very close to the right of the screen. Answer

choice a is correct.

223



5. Which aircraft is flying toward the wrong exit? a. F4C

b. F4D

c. F4A

d. S4D

F4A is flying toward airport f when it should be flying

toward exit A. If you were taking the actual test, you

would change its heading. Answer choice c is correct.

6. What change, if any, should you make to S4D?a. increase its speed

b. reduce its altitude


d. make no change

This aircraft is flying toward an exit, so it should be fly-

ing at a high speed. You would need to change the S to

F. Answer choice a is correct.

224



1. The letter on Belt C should go in the box at the

end of

a. Belt A.

b. Belt B.

c. Belt C.

d. Belt D.


a. Belt D.

b. Belt C.

c. Belt B.

d. Belt A.

3. What should you do about the letter on Belt D?a. Put it in Box 2.

b. Take no action.

c. Put it in Box 3.

d. Alert Quality Control.

4. You should order more boxes for a. Box 1.

b. Box 2.

c. Box 3.

d. Box 4.

5. What should you do about the letter on Belt C? a. Take no action.

b. Put it in Box 2.

c. Put it in Box 3.


225


Circle the correct answer to each question.

Use the diagram below to answer questions 1–5.

Key

A Box 1 C Box 3

B Box 2 D Box 4



226

Answer questions 6–10 from memory.

6. What was the defective letter? a. C

b. G

c. D

d. B

7. The defective letter was on a. Belt A.

b. Belt B.

c. Belt C.

d. Belt D.

8. What letter was on Belt C? a. A

b. B

c. C

d. D

9. What letter was on Belt A?a. A

b. B

c. C

d. D

10.What letter was on Belt B?a. A

b. B

c. C

d. D



227

Use this diagram below to answer questions 11–15.

11. Which aircraft is flying to the wrong exit? a. F3A

b. S4C

c. F4A

d. F4B

12.Which aircraft are not maintaining the requiredseparation?

a. F4B and S2e

b. F4A and F4B

c. S4C and F3A

d. M4D and F4B

13.What change, if any, should you make to S4C? a. increase its speed



d. make no change

14.Which aircraft is flying to an airport? a. S4C

b. F4B

c. F4A

d. S2e

15.Which aircraft is too close to a boundary? a. F4B

b. M4D

c. F3A

d. S4C





� Pract ice Test 6—LetterFactory Test

You will answer 100 letter factory questions on this

practice test. You will take the actual Letter Factory

(LF) Test on a computer, and you will use a mouse to

perform tasks. This practice test is similar to the

actual test, and it will help you hone your situational-

awareness skills. You will need a pen or pencil to cir-

cle your answers and a sheet of paper to cover the

diagram to test your ability to recall information.

Follow these rules when taking this practice test:

1. Use this key to place the correct letters in

the correct boxes:

A Box 1

B Box 2

C Box 3

D Box 4

Note that you can only put a letter in a box

if it is below the white line. If it is not, you

should choose the answer choice that says

“take no action.”

2. When a letter other than A, B, C, or D appears on

a conveyor belt, the letter is defective and you

need to alert Quality Control—but only if the

letter is above the white line. If the letter is below

this line, it is too late for Quality Control. In this

case, you cannot do anything about the defective

letter.

3. Boxes are located at the right side of the diagram.

You need to order more when you are out of Box

1, Box 2, Box 3, or Box 4.

4. You need to cover the diagram before answering

some questions. This is to test your ability to

remember what you have seen. Follow the direc-

tions as you answer questions on this

practice test.

Choose the correct answer, and mark the correspon-

ding letter on the answer sheet on page 251.

229

–PRACTICE TEST 6—LETTER FACTORY TEST–


Use this diagram to answer questions 1–10.


a. Belt A.

b. Belt B.

c. Belt C.

d. Belt D.

2. What should you do about the letter on Belt B? a. Put it in the box at the end of Belt A.

b. Put it in the box at the end of Belt B.

c. Put it in the box at the end of Belt C.

d. Put it in the box at the end of Belt D.

3. What should you do about the letter on Belt C? a. Alert Quality Control.

b. Take no action.

c. Put it in Box 2.

d. Put it in Box 4.


a. Belt A.

b. Belt B.

c. Belt C.

d. Belt D.

5. If the letter C appeared on Belt B, it would go inthe box at the end of

a. Belt A.

b. Belt B.

c. Belt C.

d. Belt D.

230



231

Now, cover the diagram with a piece of paper.


6. What letter was on Belt A? a. A

b. B

c. C

d. D

7. What letter was on Belt D?a. A

b. B

c. C

d. D

8. There was NOT an extra box on the right side ofthe diagram for number

a. 1.

b. 2.

c. 3.

d. 4.

9. What was the defective letter? a. R

b. P

c. K

d. G


b. Belt B.

c. Belt C.

d. Belt D.




11. The letter on Belt C should go in the box at theend of

a. Belt A.

b. Belt B.

c. Belt C.

d. Belt D.

12.What should you do about the letter on Belt B?a. Alert Quality Control.

b. Take no action.

c. Put it in Box 4.

d. Put it in Box 1.

13.What should you do about the letter on Belt D?a. Put it in Box 1.

b. Put it in Box 3.

c. Alert Quality Control.

d. Take no action.


a. Belt A.

b. Belt B.

c. Belt C.

d. Belt D.

15.What should you do about the letter on Belt C?a. Alert Quality Control.

b. Take no action.

c. Put it in Box 3.

d. Put it in Box 2.

232



233



16.What letter was on Belt C?a. A

b. B

c. C

d. D

17.What was the defective letter? a. K

b. R

c. P

d. S

18. The defective letter was on Belt a. A.

b. B.

c. C.

d. D.

19. There was NOT an extra box on the right side ofthe diagram for number

a. 1.

b. 2.

c. 3.

d. 4.


b. B

c. C

d. D




21. The letter on Belt B should go in the box at theend of

a. Belt A.

b. Belt B.

c. Belt C.

d. Belt D.


a. Belt A.

b. Belt B.

c. Belt C.

d. Belt D.

23.What should you do about the letter on Belt C? a. Put it in the box at the end of Belt D.

b. Put it in the box at the end of Belt C.

c. Take no action.


24.What should you do about the letter on Belt A?a. Alert Quality Control.

b. Take no action.

c. Put it in the box at the end of Box B.

d. Put it in the box at the end of Box C.

25.What should you do about the letter on Belt D? a. Alert Quality Control.

b. Put it in Box 1.

c. Take no action.

d. Put it in Box 2.

234



235




b. B

c. C

d. D

27.What was the defective letter?a. R

b. H

c. K

d. B


b. Belt B.

c. Belt C.

d. Belt D.

29.What letter was on Belt D?a. D

b. C

c. B

d. A

30. Extra boxes were available to a. 1 only.

b. 1 and 2 only.

c. 1, 2, and 3 only.

d. 1, 2, 3, and 4.




31.What should you do with the letter on Belt C?a. Put it in the box at the end of Belt A.

b. Take no action.

c. Put it in the box at the end of Belt B.


32.What should you do with the letter on Belt A? a. Put it in the box at the end of Belt D.

b. Alert Quality Control.

c. Put it in the box at the end of Belt A.

d. Take no action.

33. If the letter B appeared below the white line onBelt C, you would put the letter in the box at the

end of

a. Belt A.

b. Belt B.

c. Belt C.

d. Belt D.


a. Belt A.

b. Belt B.

c. Belt C.

d. Belt D.

35.What should you do with the letter on Belt B?a. Alert Quality Control.

b. Put it in Box 1.

c. Put it in Box 2.

d. Take no action.

236



237



36.What was the defective letter? a. N

b. X

c. Y

d. V


b. Belt B.

c. Belt C.

d. Belt D.

38.What letter was on Belt A?a. A

b. B

c. C

d. D


b. B

c. C

d. D

40.Which letter was above the white line? a. A

b. B

c. C

d. D





a. Belt A.

b. Belt B.

c. Belt C.

d. Belt D.

42.What should you do with the letter on Belt D?a. Put it in the box at the end of Belt A.

b. Take no action.

c. Put it in the box at the end of Belt C.


43.What should you do if you need another boxnumbered 3?

a. Take no action.


c. Use Box 1.

d. Order more boxes.

44.What should you do about the letter on Belt A?a. Put it in the box at the end of Belt B.

b. Put it in the box at the end of Belt D.

c. Take no action.



a. Belt A.

b. Belt B.

c. Belt C.

d. Belt D.

238



239



46.What letter was on Belt D?a. A

b. B

c. C

d. D


b. B

c. C

d. D

48.What was the defective letter? a. O

b. G

c. C

d. Q

49. The defective letter was on Belt a. A.

b. B.

c. C.

d. D.

50. The letter on Belt B was a. D.

b. C.

c. B.

d. A.




51.What should you do with the letter on Belt C?a. Put it in the box at the end of Belt D.


c. Put it in the box at the end of Belt A.

d. Take no action.


a. Belt A.

b. Belt B.

c. Belt C.

d. Belt D.

53.What should you do with the letter on Belt B? a. Put it in the box at the end of Belt D.

b. Put it in the box at the end of Belt A.

c. Take no action.


54. If a letter D appeared on the top of Belt B, youwould put the letter in the box at the end of

a. Belt A.

b. Belt B.

c. Belt C.

d. Belt D.


a. Belt A.

b. Belt B.

c. Belt C.

d. Belt D.

240



241



56. The letter on Belt C was a. D.

b. C.

c. B.

d. A.

57. The letter on Belt A was a. A.

b. B.

c. C.

d. D.

58.Which belt had a letter above the white line? a. A

b. B

c. C

d. D

59.What was the defective letter? a. R

b. B

c. D

d. P

60.Which belt had Box 1 at the end of it? a. A

b. B

c. C

d. D





a. Belt A.

b. Belt B.

c. Belt C.

d. Belt D.

62.What should you do with the letter on Belt D?a. Put it in the box at the end of Belt C.


c. Put it in the box at the end of Belt D.

d. Take no action.

63. You should order more of a. Box 1.

b. Box 2.

c. Box 3.

d. Box 4.


a. Belt A.

b. Belt B.

c. Belt C.

d. Belt D.

65. If the letter B appeared at the top of Belt C, itwould go in the box at the end of

a. Belt A.

b. Belt B.

c. Belt C.

d. Belt D.

242



243



66.What letter was on Belt A?a. D

b. C

c. B

d. A


b. B

c. C

d. D

68.What was the defective letter?a. X

b. W

c. Z

d. V


b. Belt B.

c. Belt C.

d. Belt D.


b. B

c. C

d. D




71.What should you do with the letter on Belt A?a. Put it in the box at the end of Belt C.

b. Take no action.

c. Put it in the box at the end of Belt D.



a. Belt A.

b. Belt B.

c. Belt C.

d. Belt D.

73.What should you do with the letter on Belt C? a. Take no action.

b. Put it in Box 1.

c. Put it in Box 4.



a. Belt A.

b. Belt B.

c. Belt C.

d. Belt D.

75. If the letter E appears at the top of Belt A, youshould

a. take no action.

b. put it in Box 2.

c. alert Quality Control.

d. put it in Box 4.

244



245



76.What letter was above the white line? a. D

b. C

c. B

d. A


b. B

c. C

d. D

78.What letter was on Belt D? a. D

b. C

c. B

d. A

79. Extra boxes were available for a. Box 1 only.

b. Box 1 and Box 2.

c. Boxes 1, 2, and 3.

d. Boxes 1, 2, 3, and 4.

80.What was the defective letter? a. I

b. L

c. T

d. J




81. The letter on Belt B goes in the box at the end of a. Belt A.

b. Belt B.

c. Belt C.

d. Belt D.

82.What should you do with the letter on Belt D?a. Put it in Box 2.

b. Order a new box.

c. Put it in Box 4.


83.What should you do with the letter on Belt A?a. Alert Quality Control.

b. Put it in Box 4.

c. Take no action.

d. Put it in Box 3.


a. Belt A.

b. Belt B.

c. Belt C.

d. Belt D.


b. Box 2.

c. Box 3.

d. Box 4.

246



247



86.What was the defective letter? a. V

b. U

c. W

d. O


b. Belt B.

c. Belt C.

d. Belt D.


b. B

c. C

d. D

89.What letter was on Belt A?a. D

b. C

c. B

d. A

90. Box 1 was at the end of a. Belt A.

b. Belt B.

c. Belt C.

d. Belt D.




91.What should you do with the letter on Belt D?a. Put it in Box 2.

b. Put it in Box 3.

c. Take no action.



a. Belt A.

b. Belt B.

c. Belt C.

d. Belt D.

93.What should you do with the letter on Belt A?a. Put it in Box 4.

b. Take no action.

c. Put it in Box 1.



b. Box 2.

c. Box 3.

d. Box 4.


a. Belt A.

b. Belt B.

c. Belt C.

d. Belt D.

248



249



96.What was the defective letter? a. N

b. M

c. V

d. W


b. Belt B.

c. Belt C.

d. Belt D.


b. B

c. C

d. D

99.What letter was on Belt D?a. A

b. B

c. C

d. D

100. What letter was on Belt C?a. A

b. B

c. C

d. D




Practice Test 6—Letter Factory Test


251

1. a b c d

2. a b c d

3. a b c d

4. a b c d

5. a b c d

6. a b c d

7. a b c d

8. a b c d

9. a b c d

10. a b c d

11. a b c d

12. a b c d

13. a b c d

14. a b c d

15. a b c d

16. a b c d

17. a b c d

18. a b c d

19. a b c d

20. a b c d

21. a b c d

22. a b c d

23. a b c d

24. a b c d

25. a b c d

26. a b c d

27. a b c d

28. a b c d

29. a b c d

30. a b c d

31. a b c d

32. a b c d

33. a b c d

34. a b c d

35. a b c d

36. a b c d

37. a b c d

38. a b c d

39. a b c d

40. a b c d

41. a b c d

42. a b c d

43. a b c d

44. a b c d

45. a b c d

46. a b c d

47. a b c d

48. a b c d

49. a b c d

50. a b c d

51. a b c d

52. a b c d

53. a b c d

54. a b c d

55. a b c d

56. a b c d

57. a b c d

58. a b c d

59. a b c d

60. a b c d

61. a b c d

62. a b c d

63. a b c d

64. a b c d

65. a b c d

66. a b c d

67. a b c d

68. a b c d

69. a b c d

70. a b c d

71. a b c d

72. a b c d

73. a b c d

74. a b c d

75. a b c d

76. a b c d

77. a b c d

78. a b c d

79. a b c d

80. a b c d

81. a b c d

82. a b c d

83. a b c d

84. a b c d

85. a b c d

86. a b c d

87. a b c d

88. a b c d

89. a b c d

90. a b c d

91. a b c d

92. a b c d

93. a b c d

94. a b c d

95. a b c d

96. a b c d

97. a b c d

98. a b c d

99. a b c d

100. a b c d



1. c. The letter on Belt A is A, and it should go inBox 1, which is at the end of Belt C.

2. d.The letter D is on Belt B, and it should go inBox 4, which is at the end of Belt D.

3. b.The letter on this belt is defective. If the letterwas above the white line, you would alert

Quality Control. Since it is below this line,

you should take no action.

4. a. The letter on Belt D is B, which should go inBox 2. This box is at the end of Belt A.

5. b.The letter C goes into Box 3, which is at theend of Belt B.

6. a. The letter A was on Belt A. 7. b.The letter B was on Belt D. 8. d.The extra boxes were numbered 1, 2, and 3.

There was not a box for number 4.

9. b.The defective letter was the letter P. 10. c. The defective letter was on Belt C. 11. c. The letter on Belt C is C and it should go in

Box 3, which is at the end of Belt C.

12. b.The letter is above the white line, so youshould take no action and simply let it go.

13. c. The letter on Belt D is S, so it is a defectiveletter. Since it is above the white line, you

should alert Quality Control.

14. a. The letter on Belt A is D, which should go inBox 4. This box is at the end of Belt A.

15. c. The letter on Belt C is C, and it is below thewhite line, so you should put it in Box 3 at

the end of Belt C.

16. c. Letter C was on Belt C. 17. d.The defective letter was S. 18. d.The defective letter was on Belt D. 19. b.There was not an extra box for number 2.20. a. Letter A was on Belt B.

21. d.The letter on Belt B is C, which should go inBox 3. This box is at the end of Belt D.

22. b.The letter on Belt D is A, and it should go inBox 1, which is at the end of Belt B.

23. b.The letter on Belt C is B, which should go inBox 2. This box is at the end of Belt C.

24. a. The letter on Belt A is H, which is a defectiveletter. This letter is above the white line, so

you should alert Quality Control.

25. b.The letter on Belt D is A, which should go inBox 1. This box is at the end of Belt B.

26. b.The letter B was on Belt C.27. b.The defective letter was H. 28. a. The defective letter, the letter H, was on

Belt A.

29. d.The letter A was on Belt D. 30. d.Extra boxes were available for all four

numbers.

31. c. The letter on Belt C is D, so it should go inBox 4, which is at the end of Belt B.

32. d.This letter is above the white line on the belt,so you should take no action.

33. a. The letter B would go in Box 2, which is atthe end of Belt A.

34. c. The letter on Belt D is C, which should go inBox 3. This box is at the end of Belt C.

35. d.This letter is defective, but it is below thewhite line, so you should not take any action.

36. b.The defective letter was X. 37. b.The defective letter was on Belt B. 38. a. Letter A was on Belt A. 39. d.Letter D was on Belt C. 40. a. Letter A was above the white line. 41. a. The letter on Belt C is A, and it should go in

Box 1. Box 1 is at the end of Belt A.

42. c. The letter on Belt D is C, which should go inBox 3. This box is at the end of Belt C.

43. d.There are only extra boxes for Box 1 and Box2, so you would need to order more boxes.

252



44. d.The letter is defective and above the whiteline, so you should alert Quality Control.

45. b.The letter on Belt B is B, which should go inBox 2. This box is at the end of Belt B.

46. c. Letter C was on Belt D. 47. a. Letter A was on Belt C. 48. b.Letter G was the defective letter. 49. a. The defective letter was on Belt A. 50. c. The letter on Belt B was B. 51. c. The letter on Belt C is B, which goes in Box 2.

This box is at the end of Belt A.

52. c. The letter on Belt A is A, and it should go inBox 1, which is at the end of Belt C.

53. d.The letter is defective, and it is above thewhite line, so you should alert Quality

Control.

54. d.The letter D goes in Box 4, which is at the endof Belt D.

55. b.The letter on Belt D is C, which should go inBox 3. This box is at the end of Belt B.

56. c. The letter on Belt C was B. 57. a. The letter on Belt A was A. 58. b.Belt B had a letter above the white line. 59. a. The defective letter was R. 60. c. Box 1 was at the end of Belt C.61. a. The letter on Belt B is C, which should go in

Box 3. This box is at the end of Belt A.

62. b.The letter on this belt is defective. It is abovethe white line, so you should alert Quality

Control.

63. a. You have no extra boxes for Box 1, so youshould order more.

64. d.The letter on Belt C is A, and it should go inBox 1, which is at the end of Belt D.

65. b.The letter B goes in Box 2, which is at the endof Belt B.

66. a. Letter D was on Belt A. 67. a. Letter A was on Belt C. 68. c. Letter Z was the defective letter.

69. d.The defective letter was on Belt D. 70. c. Letter C was on Belt B. 71. b.The letter is above the white line, so you

would take no action.

72. b.The letter on Belt B is A, and it goes in Box 1,which is at the end of Belt B.

73. d.The letter is defective and it is above thewhite line, so you should alert Quality

Control.

74. d.The letter on Belt D is C, and it should go inBox 3. This box is at the end of Belt D.

75. c. The letter E is defective and above the whiteline, so you should alert Quality Control.

76. c. Letter B was above the white line on Belt A. 77. a. Letter A was on Belt B. 78. b.Letter C was on Belt D. 79. d.Extra boxes were available for Boxes 1, 2, 3,

and 4.

80. c. The defective letter was T. 81. d.The letter A is on Belt B, and it should go in

Box 1, which is at the end of Belt D.

82. d.The letter is defective, and it is above thewhite line, so you should alert Quality

Control.

83. b.The letter on Belt A is D, and it should go inBox 4. This box is at the end of Belt A.

84. c. The letter on Belt C is C, and it should go inBox 3, which is at the end of Belt C.

85. c. There are no extra boxes for Box 3, so youshould order more.

86. a. The defective letter was V. 87. d.The defective letter was on Belt D. 88. a. The letter A was on Belt B. 89. a. The letter D was on Belt A. 90. d.Box 1 was at the end of Belt D. 91. a. The letter on Belt D is B, and it should go in

Box 2, which is at the end of Belt A.

92. c. The letter on Belt C is D, and it should go inBox 4. This box is at the end of Belt C.

253



93. d.The letter is defective and above the whiteline, so you should alert Quality Control.

94. a. You should order more boxes for Box 1.There are extra boxes for Box 2, Box 3, and

Box 4.

95. d.The letter A is on Belt B. It should go in Box1, which is at the end of Belt D.

96. b.The defective letter was M. 97. a. The defective letter was on Belt A. 98. a. The letter A was on Belt B. 99. b.The letter B was on Belt D. 100.d.The letter D was on Belt C.

254



� Pract ice Test 7—Air Traff icScenarios Test (ATST)

You will answer 100 questions about air traffic sce-

narios on this practice test. Read and answer these

questions as quickly as you can. Remember that air-

craft flying toward an exit should fly fast and at a high

altitude. Aircraft flying toward an airport, on the other

hand, should fly slowly and at a low altitude.


Remember that on the actual test the data blocks will

move on the screen. You will have to click on each

data block and then click on what you would like to

change on the right of the screen.

Choose the correct answer, and mark the correspon-

ding letter on the answer sheet on page 281.

255

–PRACTICE TEST 7—AIR TRAFFIC SCENARIOS TEST (ATST)–


256

1. Which aircraft should have its heading changedto about 5?

a. M2f

b. S2f

c. F4D

d. S4e

2. What change should you make to S4e? a. lower the altitude

b. raise the speed

c. change the heading to 2

d. change the heading to 6

3. Which aircraft are in danger of colliding? a. M2f and F2B

b. F4D and M2f

c. F3A and F2B

d. S2f and S4e

4. What change, if any, should you make to S2f? a. increase its speed

b. change its heading

c. increase its altitude

d. no change is needed

5. What change, if any, should you make to S4e? a. increase its speed

b. lower its altitude



6. You should increase the altitude for a. F2B.

b. S2f.

c. M2f.

d. S4e.

7. The aircraft M3C is in danger of colliding with a. S2f.

b. F4D.

c. F3A.

d. S4e.

8. Which aircraft are most likely less than 5 milesapart?

a. F3A and F2B

b. M3C and S4e

c. F2B and M3A

d. S4e and M2f



257


9. What change should you make to M4D? a. decrease its speed

b. change its heading to 7

c. decrease its altitude


10. You should increase the altitude for a. S3f.

b. M2f.

c. F2C.

d. M3A.

11.What change, if any, should you make to S3f? a. lower its altitude

b. increase its speed



12. The aircraft M3A is in danger of colliding with a. M3D.

b. S3f.

c. M2f.

d. F2C.

13.Which aircraft should have its heading changedto about 2?

a. S3f

b. F3B

c. M3A

d. M3D

14.What change, if any, should you make to M3D? a. decrease its speed






258

15.Which aircraft need immediate separation? a. F2C and M3A

b. M3A and M3D

c. F3B and M4D

d. F2C and M2f

16. You should decrease the altitude for a. F2C.

b. M3D.

c. S3f.

d. M4D.



259

Use the diagram below to answer questions

17–24.

17.What change, if any, should you make to F2e? a. decrease its speed

b. increase its altitude



18.Which aircraft need immediate separation? a. S4A and F4A

b. F2B and F4A

c. F2e and S4e

d. M2A and M3D

19.Which aircraft is flying in the wrong directionand needs a change in heading to reach its

destination?

a. F2B

b. M3D

c. F2e

d. F4A

20.What change, if any, should you make to M2A?a. decrease its speed




21.What change should you make to S4e? a. increase its speed




22.Which aircraft has a heading of about 2? a. F2e

b. S4a

c. F2B

d. M3D



260

23.What change, if any, should you make to S4A? a. increase its speed




24.Which aircraft have about the same heading? a. M2A and M3D

b. F2B and F2e

c. S4a and M3D

d. S4e and F2e



261


25–32.

25.Which aircraft need immediate separation? a. F3D and M4D

b. M4B and S4f

c. M3e and F2B

d. F1A and M3e

26.What change, if any, should you make to F2B? a. decrease its speed




27.What change, if any, should you make to S4f? a. increase its speed




28.Which aircraft is flying in the wrong direction toreach its destination?

a. F4D

b. M4D

c. M3e

d. M4B

29.Which aircraft is too close to a boundary? a. F3D

b. M3e

c. M4B

d. S4f

30.What change, if any, should you make to F4D?a. decrease its speed






262

31.Which aircraft have about the same heading? a. F2B and M4B

b. S4f and F1A

c. F4D and M4B

d. M3e and F2B

32.What change should you make to F1A?a. increase its altitude






263


33–40.

33.What change, if any, should you make to M2f? a. decrease its speed




34.Which aircraft is too close to a boundary? a. S2e

b. S1e

c. F2A

d. F3B

35.Which aircraft need immediate separation? a. M2f and F3D

b. F3D and F3B

c. F2A and S1f

d. S1f and S1e

36.What change, if any, should you make to F2A?a. change its heading




37.Which aircraft is flying toward the wrong destination?

a. M2f

b. F3B

c. F2A

d. F3D

38.Which aircraft is flying at an incorrect speed? a. S4D

b. M2f

c. S1f

d. F3D



264





40.What change should you make to F3D? a. decrease its speed






265


41–48.

41.What change, if any, should you make to S4A?a. change its heading


c. increase its speed


42.Which aircraft are in need of immediate separation?

a. M1e and F2B

b. F3A and M4A

c. F4A and S4A

d. S3f and M4A

43.Which aircraft is too close to a boundary? a. M4A

b. F4B

c. S4A

d. F2B





45.Which aircraft is flying toward the wrong exit? a. S4A

b. M4A

c. M1e

d. F4A

46.What change should you make to M4A?a. decrease its altitude






266

47.Which aircraft is flying toward the wrong exit? a. M1e

b. F4B

c. F3A

d. F2B

48.What change, if any, should you make to M1e?a. increase its altitude


c. decrease its speed




267


49–56.

49.Which aircraft need immediate separation? a. M3C and F2C

b. S3e and S1e

c. M4A and S4D

d. F4C and M3C

50.What change, if any, should you make to S4D? a. increase its altitude




51.Which aircraft is too close to a boundary? a. S3e

b. F4b

c. S4D

d. F4C


a. S4D

b. S1e

c. F4C

d. S3e

53.What change, if any, should you make to S3e? a. change its heading




54.Which aircraft is flying toward the wrong exit?a. M4A

b. S4D

c. F4C

d. F3B



268

55. You should increase the altitude for a. F2C.

b. S3e.

c. S1e.

d. M4A.

56.Which aircraft have about the same heading? a. S3e and F3B

b. M3C and F2C

c. F4C and S4D

d. F3B and F4B


268


269


57–64.

57.What change, if any, should you make to F2B? a. change its heading




58.Which aircraft is flying toward the wrong exit? a. F4C

b. F2B

c. M4D

d. F4B

59.What change should you make to F3A?a. change its heading to 1



d. decrease its altitude

60.Which aircraft need immediate separation? a. F4B and F2B

b. S2e and S1e

c. F4B and M4D

d. S4f and F2B

61.Which aircraft is flying too close to a boundary?a. F4C

b. F2B

c. M4D

d. F4B

62.What change, if any, should you make to S4f?a. increase its speed

b. decrease is altitude




269


270

63.Which aircraft is headed in the wrong directionto reach its destination?

a. F3A

b. S4f

c. S1e

d. F3D

64.What change, if any, should you make to F4B?a. change its heading






271


65–72.

65.What change, if any, should you make to F1A?a. change its heading




66.Which aircraft is flying toward the wrong exit?a. F3B

b. F1B

c. F4D

d. F1A

67.What change, if any, should you make to F2e?a. change its heading




68.Which aircraft is flying too close to a boundary? a. F4D

b. S2e

c. F2e

d. S1e





70. You should increase the altitude of a. S1f.

b. S2e.

c. F1B.

d. F4D.



272

71.What change, if any, should you make to S2f? a. change its heading




72.Which aircraft are in need of immediate separation?

a. F1A and F4A

b. S1f and F2e

c. F3B and F1B

d. F2e and S1e



273


73–80.

73.Which aircraft is flying toward the wrong exit?a. F2C

b. F3D

c. F3B

d. M4D

74. You should decrease the speed of a. F3D.

b. F4A.

c. M1e.

d. S4A.

75.Which change, if any, should you make to F2C?a. change its heading




76.Which aircraft is too close to a boundary?a. S4A

b. F3B

c. M1e

d. M2f

77.Which aircraft require immediate separation?a. M2f and S4A

b. F4D and M4D

c. M1e and F3B

d. F3D and F3B

78.What change, if any, should you make to M2f?a. change its heading






274

79.Which aircraft is too close to a boundary? a. F4A

b. F2C

c. M4D

d. F4D

80. You should decrease the altitude for a. F4A.

b. F3D.

c. M3f.

d. M1e.



275


81–88.

81. You should increase the altitude of a. F1C.

b. S1e.

c. F4C.

d. F2f.

82.Which aircraft need immediate separation? a. F2f and F4C

b. F3C and F4C

c. S1e and S4e

d. F3A and F4C

83.Which aircraft is flying too close to a boundary?a. F2f

b. F3A

c. F3B

d. S1e

84.Which aircraft is flying toward the wrong exit toreach its destination?

a. F3A

b. F3B

c. M2C

d. F4C

85.What change, if any, should you make to S4e?a. lower its altitude




86.Which aircraft need immediate separation? a. M2C and F3B

b. F3A and F2f

c. F1C and F4C

d. M2C and F3C



276

87.What change, if any, should you make to F2f?a. change its heading





a. F2f

b. F1C

c. F4A

d. S4e



277


89–96.

89.What change, if any, should you make to F1A?a. decrease its speed




90.Which aircraft require immediate separation?a. F3C and S3e

b. F2D and F3D

c. F1A and S1f

d. F4C and M1e

91.Which aircraft is too close to a boundary? a. F1A

b. F3D

c. M1e

d. S1f

92.Which aircraft is flying toward the wrong exit?a. F3D

b. F1A

c. F4C

d. F2D

93.What change, if any, should you make to M1e? a. change its heading




94.What change, if any, should you make to S1f?a. increase its speed






278

95.Which aircraft are flying at about the same heading?

a. F3C and S3e

b. S1f and F2D

c. F4C and M1e

d. M1e and F3D


a. M1e

b. S3e

c. F3C

d. S1f



279


97–100.

97.What change, if any, should you make to S4B?a. increase its speed




98.Which aircraft is flying toward the wrong exit?a. M3D

b. F3D

c. S4B

d. F3A

99.What change, if any, should you make to F4A?a. decrease its speed




100. You should decrease the speed of a. M3D.

b. F3D.

c. S3f.

d. F1e.




Practice Test 7—Air Traffic Scenarios Test (ATST)


281

1. a b c d

2. a b c d

3. a b c d

4. a b c d

5. a b c d

6. a b c d

7. a b c d

8. a b c d

9. a b c d

10. a b c d

11. a b c d

12. a b c d

13. a b c d

14. a b c d

15. a b c d

16. a b c d

17. a b c d

18. a b c d

19. a b c d

20. a b c d

21. a b c d

22. a b c d

23. a b c d

24. a b c d

25. a b c d

26. a b c d

27. a b c d

28. a b c d

29. a b c d

30. a b c d

31. a b c d

32. a b c d

33. a b c d

34. a b c d

35. a b c d

36. a b c d

37. a b c d

38. a b c d

39. a b c d

40. a b c d

41. a b c d

42. a b c d

43. a b c d

44. a b c d

45. a b c d

46. a b c d

47. a b c d

48. a b c d

49. a b c d

50. a b c d

51. a b c d

52. a b c d

53. a b c d

54. a b c d

55. a b c d

56. a b c d

57. a b c d

58. a b c d

59. a b c d

60. a b c d

61. a b c d

62. a b c d

63. a b c d

64. a b c d

65. a b c d

66. a b c d

67. a b c d

68. a b c d

69. a b c d

70. a b c d

71. a b c d

72. a b c d

73. a b c d

74. a b c d

75. a b c d

76. a b c d

77. a b c d

78. a b c d

79. a b c d

80. a b c d

81. a b c d

82. a b c d

83. a b c d

84. a b c d

85. a b c d

86. a b c d

87. a b c d

88. a b c d

89. a b c d

90. a b c d

91. a b c d

92. a b c d

93. a b c d

94. a b c d

95. a b c d

96. a b c d

97. a b c d

98. a b c d

99. a b c d

100. a b c d



1. c. The exit for F4D is D and it is flying towardA. If its heading were changed to 5, it would

be on course to exit D.

2. a. S4e is flying to airport e, so it should flyslowly and at a low altitude. The number 4

represents the highest altitude, so you should

lower the altitude.

3. c. The two planes in danger of colliding are F3Aand F2B. The heading on F2B should be

changed so that it is flying toward its exit and

out of the path of F3A.

4. d.S2f is flying in the direction of its destination.Since it is flying toward an airport, it should

fly at a slow speed and a low altitude. There-

fore, no change is needed.

5. b. S4e is flying to an airport, so it should fly at aslow speed and a low altitude. Therefore, it is

currently flying too high.

6. a. Since F2B is flying to an exit, it should fly at afast speed and a high altitude.

7. a.M3C and S2f are in danger of colliding. Youshould change the heading of one of them.

8. c. Although they are heading in different direc-tions, F2B and M3A are very close together.

9. b.M4D’s destination is D and it is headingtoward B. If you changed its heading to 7, it

would be flying in the right direction.

10. c.While you could increase the altitude forM3A, you should definitely increase the alti-

tude for F2C. An aircraft flying toward an exit

should fly at a high altitude.

11. a. Aircraft flying toward an airport should fly ata slow speed and a low altitude.

12. d.The aircraft M3A is in danger of collidingwith F2C. You should change the heading of

one of them.

13. b.F3B’s destination is exit B, but it is headed inthe wrong direction. If its heading were

changed to 2, it would be on course.

14. b.M3D is heading toward exit A and it shouldbe headed toward exit D, so you should

change its heading.

15. a. F2C and M3A are too close together and needimmediate separation.

16. a. An aircraft flying into an airport should flyslowly and at a low altitude. Aircraft flying to

exits, however, should fly at a high speed and

a high altitude.

17. a. This aircraft is flying into an airport too fast.It should be flying at a slow speed and a low

altitude.

18. b. If F2B and F4A are not separated, they aregoing to collide.

19. d.To reach its destination, F4A’s heading shouldbe 0, not 4.

20. c. According to the rules of the ATST, aircraftflying toward an exit should fly fast at a high

altitude. M2A’s altitude is only 2.

21. c. Aircraft flying into airports should fly slowlyat a low altitude. This aircraft has a very high

altitude.

22. c. If you look at the heading indicator at theright of the diagram, you will see that F2B’s

heading is about 2.

23. a. Since this aircraft is flying toward an exit, itshould be flying at a very high speed.

24. d.Both S4e and F2e have a heading of about 0.25. a. F3D and M4D are not maintaining a 5-mile

separation.

26. b.Aircraft flying toward an exit should fly at ahigh speed and a high altitude.

27. b.An aircraft flying into an airport should fly ata slow speed and a low altitude.

28. c.M3e is flying in the opposite direction of itsdestination, airport e.

282



29. b.M3e is too close to the bottom of the dia-gram, which is a boundary.

30. d.F4D is flying at a high speed and a high alti-tude, which is correct for an aircraft flying

toward an exit. It is also flying at the correct

heading, so no change is needed.

31. d.M3e and F2B both have a heading of about 2.32. a. Aircraft flying to exits should fly high and

fast.

33. a. Since this aircraft is flying to an airport, youshould decrease its speed.

34. a. S2e is too close to the edge of the diagram,which is a boundary.

35. d.S1f and S1e may collide if they are not separated.

36. c. F2A is flying toward an exit, so it should havea high speed and a high altitude. An altitude

of 2 is low.

37. d.F3D is flying away from its destination, so itsheading should be changed.

38. a. An aircraft flying toward an exit should havea fast speed.

39. d.Since S1f is flying to an airport, the speed andaltitude should be low. Its heading is also fine,

so no change is needed.

40. c. F3D is flying away from exit D, so its headingshould be changed.

41. c. Since S4A is flying toward an exit, it shouldbe flying at a higher speed.

42. a.M1e and F2B are heading toward oneanother, so you need to separate them

immediately.

43. b.F4B is too close to the side of the diagram,which is a boundary.

44. b.Aircraft flying to airports should fly at a lowaltitude and a slow speed.

45. d.F4A is flying toward exit D instead of exit A. 46. c. Since M4A is flying toward an exit, it should

be flying at a high speed.

47. c. F3A is flying toward exit B instead of exit A. 48. c. Since M1e is flying to an airport, it should fly

at a slow speed.

49. a.M3C and F2C are not 5 miles apart, so theyneed immediate separation.

50. c. Since S4D is flying to an exit, it should be fly-ing at a high speed.

51. b.F4B is very close to the side of the diagram,which is a boundary.

52. b. S1e should be flying toward airport e, but it isflying toward airport f.

53. c. S3e is flying toward an airport, so it should beflying at a slow speed and a low altitude.

54. d.F3B should be flying toward exit B, but it isheaded toward exit A.

55. a. F2C is flying to an exit, so it should fly at ahigh altitude.

56. b.Both M3C and F2C have a heading that isabout 5.

57. b.F2B is flying toward an exit, so it should havea high altitude.

58. c.M4D should be flying toward exit D, but it isheaded toward exit C.

59. a. F3A is flying toward exit D, and it should beflying toward exit A. Its heading should be

changed to 1.

60. b. S2e and S1e are flying too close together.They are closer than 5 miles apart.

61. a. F4C is too close to the side of the diagram,which is a boundary.

62. b. S4f is heading toward an airport, so its alti-tude should be low.

63. a. F3A should be headed toward exit A, but it isflying toward exit D.

64. d.F4B’s heading, altitude, and speed are fine.65. c. F1A is flying to an exit, so it should be flying

at a higher altitude.

66. a. F3B should be flying toward exit B, but it isheaded toward exit C.

283



67. b.F1A is flying toward an airport, so you shoulddecrease its speed.

68. b. S2e is too close to the bottom of the diagram,which is a boundary.

69. d.S1f is flying in the right direction and at a lowspeed and altitude, which is correct for an air-

craft flying to an airport.

70. c. You should increase the altitude of F1Bbecause it is flying toward an exit.

71. a. S2f is not flying toward airport f, so its head-ing should be changed.

72. a. If you look at the mile indicator to the rightof the diagram, you will see that F1A and F4A

are not the required 5 miles apart.

73. b.F3D should be flying toward exit D, but it isflying toward exit C.

74. c.M1e is flying toward an airport, so it shouldfly at a low speed.

75. b.F2C is flying to an exit, so it should fly at ahigh altitude.

76. b.F3B is too close to the right side of the dia-gram, which is a boundary.

77. b.F4D and M4D are not 5 miles apart, so theyneed to be separated immediately.

78. c.M2f is flying toward an airport, so it shouldfly at a slow speed.

79. a. F4A is flying too close to the top of the dia-gram, which is a boundary.

80. c.M3f is flying toward an airport, so it shouldfly at a low altitude.

81. a. F1C is flying toward an exit, so it should havea high altitude.

82. c. S1e and S4e are not flying 5 miles apart, therequired distance.

83. b.F3A is flying too close to the top of the dia-gram, which is a boundary.

84. d.F4C should be flying toward exit C, but it isflying toward exit B.

85. a. S4e should be flying at a low altitude, since itis flying toward an airport.

86. a.M2C and F3B are close together and about tocollide. They need immediate separation.

87. b.F2f is flying to an airport, so its speed shouldbe much lower.

88. c. F4A should be flying toward exit A, but it isflying toward exit D.

89. c. F1A is flying to an exit, so it should fly at ahigher altitude.

90. a. F3C and S3e are very close. They are requiredto be at least 5 miles apart.

91. b.F3D is too close to the side of the diagram,which is a boundary.

92. c. F4C is flying toward exit B when it should beheaded toward exit C.

93. b.M1e is flying toward an airport, so it shouldbe flying at a slow speed.

94. d.S1f is flying at an appropriate speed and alti-tude and is headed in the correct direction.

95. a. F3C and S3e are both flying at the same head-ing, which is about 3.

96. b. S3e should be flying toward airport e, but it isflying toward exit C.

97. a. S4B is flying to an exit, so its speed should behigh.

98. b.F3D is flying to exit C when it should flytoward exit D.

99. c. F4A is not flying in the direction of its exit, soits heading should be changed.

100.d.F1e is flying toward an airport, so it should beflying at a low speed.

284



� Pract ice Test 8—ExperienceQuest ionnaire

As part of the AT-SAT, the FAA will ask you to com-

plete an Experience Questionnaire, which will ask

about your life experiences. It is very similar to a per-

sonality test. There are no right or wrong answers on

the questionnaire. According to the FAA, they use the

questionnaire for future planning such as career

preparation for high school students interested in

aviation and ATC. All responses are kept

confidential.

You will answer 100 questions on this practice test,

which are very similar to those on the Experience

Questionnaire. Rate your response to each phrase

using the following scale:

A. Definitely True

B. Somewhat True

C. Neither True nor False

D. Somewhat False

E. Definitely False

_____ 1. Seldom read the comics.

_____ 2. Finish my work on time.

_____ 3. Say what I think.

_____ 4. Acquire skills quickly.

_____ 5. Enjoy being reckless.

_____ 6. Believe in the power of fate.

_____ 7. Dislike being complimented.

_____ 8. Can’t stand waiting.

_____ 9. Easily laugh at myself.

_____ 10. Feel that yelling helps me feel better.

_____ 11. Can’t stand being alone.

_____ 12. Do things my own way.

_____ 13. Give compliments.

_____ 14. Admit when I am wrong.

_____ 15. Have a strong personality.

_____ 16. Read a lot.

_____ 17. Am a risk taker.

_____ 18. Have been called a cheapskate.

_____ 19. See myself as a good leader.

_____ 20. Hate surprises.

_____ 21. Act without thinking.

_____ 22. Am a creature of habit.

_____ 23. Get overwhelmed by emotions.

_____ 24. Have a conscience.

_____ 25. Am a hard worker.

_____ 26. Am often unsure of myself.

_____ 27. Get excited by new ideas.

_____ 28. Do things at my own pace.

_____ 29. Go on binges.

_____ 30. Gossip about others.

_____ 31. Call my friends when they are sick.

_____ 32. Can read people like a book.

_____ 33. Am a shy person.

_____ 34. Feel that the pace of life is too fast.

_____ 35. Am careful to avoid making mistakes.

_____ 36. Cut conversations short.

_____ 37. Dislike loud music.

_____ 38. Do most of the talking.

_____ 39. Am good at analyzing problems.

_____ 40. Return borrowed items.

_____ 41. Rule with an iron fist.

_____ 42. Am good at saving money.

_____ 43. Care about others.

_____ 44. Seek danger.

285

–PRACTICE TEST 8—EXPERIENCE QUESTIONNAIRE–


_____ 45. Seldom joke around.

_____ 46. Come up with bold plans.

_____ 47. Copy others.

_____ 48. Follow my instincts.

_____ 49. Remain calm during emergencies.

_____ 50. Accept the consequences of my actions.

_____ 51. Find it hard to forgive others.

_____ 52. Am always on time.

_____ 53. Change my mind.

_____ 54. Buy more than I need.

_____ 55. Follow the rules.

_____ 56. Am always busy.

_____ 57. Love to doodle.

_____ 58. Make friends easily.

_____ 59. Nag others.

_____ 60. Am told that I am down to Earth.

_____ 61. Have a lot of fun.

_____ 62. Have too many things to do.

_____ 63. Ignore signs of danger.

_____ 64. Keep a cool head.

_____ 65. Am trusted to keep secrets.

_____ 66. Can’t say no.

_____ 67. Am able to cooperate with others.

_____ 68. Get irritated easily.

_____ 69. Believe it always better to be safe thansorry.

_____ 70. Believe that I am important.

_____ 71. Have a good memory.

_____ 72. Accept challenging tasks.

_____ 73. Change my mood.

_____ 74. Forget appointments.

_____ 75. Am not good at telling jokes.

_____ 76. Don’t mind eating alone.

_____ 77. Believe that others have good intentions.

_____ 78. Feel comfortable with myself.

_____ 79. Feel that others misunderstand me.

_____ 80. Am seldom bored.

_____ 81. Am nice to store clerks.

_____ 82. Am not bothered by disorder.

_____ 83. Laugh a lot.

_____ 84. Let others down.

_____ 85. Am polite to strangers.

_____ 86. Am quick to correct others.

_____ 87. Have good luck.

_____ 88. Purchase only practical things.

_____ 89. Quickly forget disagreements.

_____ 90. Mediate in quarrels.

_____ 91. Might seem eccentric.

_____ 92. Make people feel at ease.

_____ 93. Invent things that can go wrong.

_____ 94. Am easily distracted.

_____ 95. Get offended easily.

_____ 96. Keep my promises.

_____ 97. Am interested in many things.

_____ 98. Interrupt others.

_____ 99. Know my limitations.

_____ 100. Keep things tidy.

286

–PRACTICE TEST 8—EXPERIENCE QUESTIONNAIRE–


287

� Chapter Review Answers

Chapter 1

1. b.

2. d.

3. d.

4. a.

5. c.

6. b.

7. a.

8. c.

9. a.

10. c.

Chapter 2

1. b.

2. b.

3. c.

4. d.

5. c.

6. a.

7. a.

8. c.

9. a.

10. b.11. b.12. b.13. d.14. c.15. b.

Chapter 3

1. c.

2. a.

3. a.

4. d.

5. d.

6. d.

7. b.

8. a.

9. c.

10. c.11. c.12. a.13. d.

Appendix


–APPENDIX–

288

14. c.15. c.

Chapter 4

1. c.

2. a.

3. c.

4. c.

5. a.

6. b.

7. a.

8. c.

9. b.

10. b.

Chapter 5

1. c.

2. b.

3. a.

4. b.

5. c.

6. a.

7. d.

8. d.

9. a.

10. a.11. c.12. a.13. a.14. b.15. c.16. c.17. d.18. d.19. b.20. b.

Chapter 6

1. d.

2. b.

3. c.

4. c.

5. b.

6. a.

7. b.

8. b.

9. b.

10. c.11. d.12. b.13. a.14. c.15. d.16. b.17. a.18. c.19. d.20. b.

Chapter 7

1. 30, 75, 62, and 152. 24, 79, 43, and 553. a.

4. a.

5. b.

6. d.

7. a.

8. c.

9. d.

10. b.11. a.12. a.13. b.14. d.


–APPENDIX–

289

Chapter 8

1. a.

2. c.3. d.4. d.5. b.

6. b.7. d.8. b.9. d.10. a.11. a.12. a.13. a.14. d.15. b.


–APPENDIX–

290

� Key Contacts for Air Traff ic Control

Federal Aviation Administration

800 Independence Ave., SW

Washington, DC 20591

866-835-5322

www.faa.gov

Air Traffic Control Association

1101 King St., Ste. 300

Alexandria, VA 22313

703-299-2430

www.atca.org

National Air Traffic Controllers Association

1325 Massachusetts Ave., NW

Washington, DC 20005

202-628-5451

www.natca.org

� Common Acronyms

AAF airway facilities service

AAITVL arrival aircraft interval

AC, A/C, or ACFT aircraft

ACC area control center

ACDO Air Carrier District Office

ACFT aircraft

ACID aircraft identification

ACLT actual calculated landing time

ADF automatic direction finder

ADIZ air defense identification zone

ADR airport departure rate

ADS automatic dependent surveillance

AF airways facilities

AFC area forecast center

AFD airport/facility directory


–APPENDIX–

291

AFS airways facilities sector

AFSS automated flight service station

AGL above ground level

AIM Aeronautical Information Manual

AIP Aeronautical Information Publication

ALNOT alert notice

ALS Approach Light System

AMASS Airport Movement Area Safety System

AMCL amended clearance

ANF air navigation facility

AOC airline operational control center

AOE airport of entry

APREQ approval request

ARCP air refueling control point

AREA automated en route air traffic control

AREP air refueling regress point

AREX air refueling exit

ARFF aircraft rescue and fire fighting

ARIP air refueling initiation point

ARO airport reservations office

ARSA airport radar service area

ARSR air route surveillance radar

ARTC air route traffic control

ARTCC air route traffic control center

ARTS automated radar terminal systems

ASD aircraft situational display

ASDE airport surface detection equipment

ASL above sea level

ASP arrival sequencing program

ASR airport surveillance radar

ATA actual time of arrival

ATC air traffic control

ATCSCC air traffic control system command center

ATCT airport traffic control tower

ATD actual time of departure

ATM air traffic management

ATO air traffic operations

ATR air transport rating

ATS air traffic services


–APPENDIX–

292

AWOS automatic weather observing/reporting system

AWY airway

AZM azimuth

BCM back course marker

BGND beginning descent

BIFR before encountering IFR conditions

BRAF braking action fair

BRAG braking action good

BRAN braking action nil

BRAP braking action poor

BRG bearing

BRITE bright radar indicator tower equipment

C circling (approach and landing charts)

CA conflict alert

CAA civil aviation authorities

CAAS Class A airspace

CAP civil air patrol

CARF central altitude reservation function

CAS collision avoidance system

CASA controller automated spacing aid

CBAS Class B airspace

CBSA Class B surface area

CCAS Class C airspace

CCC central computer complex

CCFP collaborative convective forecast product

CD clearance delivery

CDAS Class D airspace

CDR coded departure routes

CDSA Class D surface area

CDT controlled departure time

CEAS Class E airspace

CESA Class E surface area

CFA controlled firing area

CFAP cleared for approach

CFR Code of Federal Regulations

CFWSU Central Flow Weather Service Unit

CIC controller in charge

CIFP cancel IFR flight plan

CIFR cancel IFR clearance previously given


–APPENDIX–

293

CNS communications, navigation, and surveillance

CONTRAILS condensation trails

COORD coordinate

COP changeover point

COTS commercial off-the-shelf

CRDA converging runway display aid

CTA Control Area

CTAF common traffic advisory frequency

CTAS Center TRACON Automation System

CTGY category

CTL control

CUST customs

CVFP cancel VFR flight plan

CVR cockpit voice recorder

CW continuous wave

DA decision altitude

DARC Direct Access Radar Channel

DBRITE digital bright radar indicator tower equipment

DEFCON defense readiness conditions

DEP depart

DESTN destination

DEWIZ distant early warning identification zone

DF direction finder

DGNSS differential global navigation satellite system

DGPS differential global positioning system

DIST distance

DME distance measuring equipment

DNWN downwind

DR direct route

DRSA low drift sand

DRSN low drifting snow

DRZL drizzle

DSCNT descent

DSIPT dissipate

DSP departure sequencing program

DSP display system replacement

DSRGD disregard

DSS decision support system

DSTC distance


–APPENDIX–

294

DTAX descent to and cross

DUATS direct user access terminal system

DVFR defense VFR

DVOR Doppler very-high-frequency omni-directional range

EARTS en route automated radar tracking system

ECM electronic counter measures

EDCT estimated departure clearance (time)

EFAS en route flight advisory service

EFC expect further clearance

ELT emergency locator transmitter

ENRT en route

ERM, ERSP, or ESP en route spacing program

ETA estimated time of arrival

ETD estimated time of departure

ETE estimated time en route

ETG enhanced target generator

ETMS enhanced traffic management system

EXPED expedite

FA aviation area forecast

FA final approach

FANS future air navigation system

FAP final approach point

FAR Federal Aviation Regulations

FAST final approach spacing tool

FBO fixed-base operator

FCC Federal Communications Commission

FCT federal contract tower

FDC flight data center

FDIO flight date input/output

FDP/RDP flight data processing/radar data processing

FE flight engineer

FL flight level

FLIP Flight Information Publication

FLTCK flight check

FMS flight management system

FP flight plan

FPL full performance level

FPR flight plan route

FPS flight progress strip


–APPENDIX–

295

FRC full route clearance

FRH fly runway heading

FROPA frontal passage

FSL full stop landing

FSS flight service station

FZ super cooled/freezing

FZRANO freezing rain sensor not available

G/A ground to air

G/A/G ground to air and air to ground

GA general aviation

GC ground control

GCA ground control approach

GCI ground control intercept

GDP ground delay program

GENOT General Notices Issued by Washington Headquarters

GLONASS global orbiting navigational satellite system

GNSS Global Navigation Satellite System

GPS Global Positioning System

GRDL gradual

GWT gross weight

HAA height above airport

HAT height above touchdown

HCS host computer system

HDG heading

HDTA high-density traffic airport

HF high frequency

HFR hold for release

HIRL high-intensity runway lights

HIWA Hazardous In-flight Weather Advisory Service

HP holding pattern

HUD heads-up display

IAF initial approach fix

IAP instrument approach procedure

IAS indicated air speed

IATA International Air Transport Association

IBND inbound

ICAO International Civil Aviation Organization

IF intermediate fix

IFIM International Flight Information Manual


–APPENDIX–

296

IFR Instrument Flight Rules

IFSS International Flight Service Station

ILS Instrument Landing System

IM inner marker

IMC instrument meteorological conditions

INBD inbound

INS Inertial Navigation System

INSTBY instability

INT intersection

INTCP intercept

INTXN intersection

INVOF in the vicinity of

IP initial point

IPT integrated product team

IR IFR Military Training Route

ITC in-trail climb

ITD in-trail descent

JATO jet-assisted take-off

J-BAR jet runway barrier

JPDO Joint Programs and Development Office

JSS Joint Surveillance System

LA low approach

LAAS Local-Area Augmentation System

LAB laboratory

LAHSO land and old short operations

LAN local area network

LAT latitude

LAWRS limited aviation weather reporting station

LC local control

LDA localizer-type directional aid

LDG landing

LDIN lead-in lighting system

LIRL low-intensity runway edge lights

LLWAS Low-level Wind Shear Alert System

LLWS low-level wind shear

LMM compass locator at ILS middle marker

LO CIGS low ceilings

LOM compass locator at ILS outer marker

LOP line-of-position


–APPENDIX–

297

LORAN long-range navigation

LP linear polarization

LRR long-range radar

LT turn left after take-off

M Match number (speed ratio to speed of sound)

MAA maximum authorized (IFR) altitude

MALS Medium-intensity Approach Lighting System

MALSF Medium-intensity Approach Lighting System with sequenced flashers

MALSR Medium-intensity Approach Lighting System with runway alignment

indicator lights

MB marker beacon

MCA minimum crossing altitude

MDA minimum descent altitude

MEA minimum en route altitude

METAR aviation routine weather report

MFOB minimum fuel on board

MHA minimum holding alcohol

MHDF medium-and high-frequency direction-finding station (same location)

MIRL medium-intensity runway edge lights

MNPS minimum navigation performance specification

MNPSA minimum navigation performance specification airspace

MOCA minimum obstruction clearance altitude

MODE C altitude-reporting mode of secondary radar

MRA minimum reception altitude

MSA minimum safe altitude

MSAW minimum safe altitude warning

MSL mean sea level

MT mountain

MTCA minimum terrain clearance altitude

MTD moving target detection

MTI moving target indicator

MTR Military Training Route

MULTI-TAX many aircraft trying to taxi at once, creating congestion

MVFR maintain VFR

NAATS National Association of Air Traffic Control Specialists

NAFEC National Aviation Facilities Experimental Center

NAR North American route

NASP national airport system plan

NAT North Atlantic track


–APPENDIX–

298

NATCA National Traffic Controllers Association

NATS National Air Traffic Service

NAVAID navigational aid

NDB non-directional radio beacon

NEXRAD Next-Generation Weather Radar

NFDC National Flight Data Center

NM nautical miles

NMC National Meteorological Center

NOPT no procedure turn required

NOTAM notice to airmen

NRP North American Route Program

NTAP Notices To Airmen publication

NTZ no transgression zone

NWS National Weather Service

OA overhead approach

OBND outbound

OBST obstacle

OBSTN obstruction

OC on course

OCA obstacle clearance altitude

ODALS Omni-directional Approach Lighting System

OAPS oceanic display and planning system

OFSHR offshore

OG on ground

OHD overhead

OJT on-the-job training

OM outer marker

OMB U.S. Office of Management and Budget

ORD Operational Readiness Demonstration

OSHA Occupational Safety and Health Administration

OT on time

OTLK outlook

OTP VFR conditions-on-top

P/CG Pilot Controller Glossary

P6SM visibility greater than 6 statue miles (TAF only)

PAPI precision approach path indicator

PAR precision approach radar

PCL pilot-controlled lighting

PCS permanent change of station


–APPENDIX–

299

PDAR preferential arrival/departure route (Stage A)

PDC pre-departure clearance

PDR preferential departure route (Stage A)

PIC pilot in command

PIREP pilot weather report

PLASI pulsating visual approach slope indicators

PPI plan position indicator

PPINA radar weather report not available (or omitted for a reason different than

those otherwise stated.)

PPINE radar weather report no echoes observed.

PPINO radar weather report equipment inoperative due to breakdown

PPIOK radar weather report equipment operation resumed

PPIOM radar weather report equipment operation resumed

PPR prior permission required

PRBLTY probability

PRES pressure

PRESFR pressure falling rapidly

PREV previous

PRM precision runway monitor

PSR primary surveillance radar

PT procedure turn

PTCHY patchy

PUBL publish

PVD plan view display

PWI proximity warning indicator

PWINO precipitation identifier information not available (weather reports only)

QFE atmospheric pressure at airport elevation

QFLOW quota flow control procedures

QNH altimeter subscale setting to obtain elevation when on the ground

RAGF remote air-ground facility

RAIM receiver autonomous integrity monitoring

RAPCON radar approach control

RAR runway acceptance rate

RBDE radar bright display equipment

RBN radio beacon

RCC rescue coordination center

RCK radio check

RCL runway centerline

RCLL runway centerline lights


–APPENDIX–

300

RCO remote communication outlet

RCR runway condition reading

RCVNO receiving capability out

RDL radial

REIL runway end identifier lights

RENOT Regional Notices Issued by Washington Headquarters

RF radio frequency

RFI radio frequency interference

RHI range height indicator

RHINO radar echo height information not available

RIF reduction in force

RITC request in trail climb

RITD request in trail descent

RL report immediately upon leaving

RMM remote maintenance monitoring

RNAV Required Navigation Performance

ROC rate of climb

ROD rate of descent

ROTG rotating

RPM rotation per minute

RPV remotely piloted vehicle

RT right turn after take-off

RTE route

RTR remote transmitter/receiver

RVR runway visual range

RVRNO RVR not available

RVSM Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum

RVV runway visibility value

RVVNO RVV not available

RWY or RY runway

SALS Short Approach Lighting System

SALSF Short Approach Lighting System with sequenced flashing lights

SCATANA security control of air traffic and air navigation aids

SCT scattered

SCTR sector

SCTY security

SDBY standby

SDF simplified directional facility

SECT sector


–APPENDIX–

301

SEPN separation

SFL sequence flashing lights

SHF super-high frequency

SI straight-in approach

SIAP standard instrument approach procedure

SID Standard Instrument Departures

SIGMET significant meteorological information

SIGWX significant weather

SIMUL simultaneous

SKC sky clear

SKED schedule

SM statute mile

SMA surface movement advisor

SOP standard operating practice

SPD speed

SPEC specification

SPECI non-routine aviation selected special weather report

SPO strategic plan of operation

SQDN squadron

SRND surround

SRY secondary

SSALF Simplified Short Approach Lighting System with sequenced flashers

SSALS Simplified Short Approach Lighting System

SSB single sideband

SSNO request no SIDS or STARS

SSR secondary surveillance radar

ST straight in approach

STAR standard terminal arrival route

STARS standard terminal automation replacement system

STMP special traffic management program

STOL short take-off landing

STWY stopway

SUA special-use airspace

SUB substitute

SUSP suspend

SVC service

SVFR special VFR

SVRWX severe weather

SWAP severe weather avoidance plan


–APPENDIX–

302

SWAP severe weather avoidance procedures

SYNS synopsis

TACAN Tactical Air Navigation

TAF terminal aerodrome forecast

TAS true air speed

TCAS Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System

TCCC tower control computer complex

TCH threshold crossing height

TCP transfer of control point

TCVR transceiver

TDWR terminal Doppler weather radar

TDY temporary duty

TEC tower en route control

TERPS terminal instrument approach procedure

TFC traffic

TFM traffic flow management

TFR temporary flight restriction

THLD threshold

TMA traffic management advisor

TMC traffic management coordinator

TMI traffic management initiatives

TMS traffic management system

TMU traffic management unit

TOG take-off gross weight

TR VFR low-altitude training routes

TRACON terminal radar approach control

TS thunderstorm

TSA Transportation Security Administration

TSD traffic situation display

TSFR transfer

TSGR thunderstorm with hail

TSGS thunderstorm with small hail

TSO technical standard order

TSPL thunderstorm with ice pellets

TSRA thunderstorm with rain

TSSA thunderstorm with dust storm or sandstorm

TSSN thunderstorm with snow

TSTM thunderstorm

TSTMS thunderstorms


–APPENDIX–

303

TURBC turbulence

TVOR terminal VOR

TWEB transcribed weather en route broadcast

TWR control tower

TWY taxiway

TX transmitter

UA routine PIREP

UFA until further advised

UFN until further notice

UHF ultra-high frequency

UNAVBL unavailable

UNKN unknown

UNL unlimited

UNMON unmonitored

UNOFFL unofficial

UNRDBL unreadable

UNRELBL unreliable

UNSKED unscheduled

UNSTBL unstable

UNSTDY unsteady

UNUSBL unusable

UP unknown precipitation

UPDFTS updrafts

UPDT update

UPR upper

URET user request evaluation tool

URG urgent

USA U.S. Army

USAF U.S. Air Force

USCGF U.S. Coast Guard

USMC U.S. Marine Corps

USN U.S. Navy

USNO U.S. Naval Observatory

UTC Coordinated Universal Time

V variable (weather reports only)

V Victor airway

VAPS visual approaches

VAR magnetic variation

VASI visual approach slope indicator


–APPENDIX–

304

VCFG fog in vicinity

VFR visual flight rules

VHF very high frequency

VIS visibility

VLF very low frequency

VMC visual meteorological conditions

VNAV vertical navigation (from TERPS-A1)

VOL volume

VOLMET meteorological information for aircraft in flight

VOR Very high frequency Omni-directional Range

VOR/DME VHF Omni-directional Range collocated with distance measuring

equipment

VORTAC VOR and TACAN (collocated)

VOT VOR test signal

VR VFR military training routes

VSBY visibility

VSTOL vertical/short take-off and landing

VTOL vertical take-off and landing

VV vertical visibility (indefinite ceiling)

WAAS wide-area augmentation system

WAC world aeronautical chart

WARP weather and radar processor

WDSPRD widespread

WKN weaken

WMO World Meteorological Organization

WND wind

WP waypoint

WRMFNT warm front

WRNG warning

WS SIGMENT

WS wind shear

WSFO Weather Service Forecast Office

WSHFT wind shift

WSR weather surveillance radar

WW severe weather watch bulletin

WX weather

X cross


305

abbreviated IFR flight plans. an authorization by ATC requiring pilots to submit only that information needed

for the purpose of ATC. It includes only a small portion of the usual IFR flight plan information. In certain

instances, this may be only aircraft identification, location, and pilot request. Other information may be requested

if needed by ATC for separation/control purposes. Abbreviated IFR flight plans are frequently used by aircraft

that are airborne and desire an instrument approach or by aircraft that are on the ground and desire a climb to

VFR-on-top.

abeam. an aircraft is “abeam” a point or an object when that point or object is about 90 degrees to the right or

left of the aircraft track. Abeam indicates a general position rather than a precise point.

accelerate-stop distance available. the length of the takeoff run available plus the length of the stopway if

provided.

acrobatic flight. an intentional maneuver involving an abrupt change in an aircraft’s attitude, an abnormal atti-

tude, or abnormal acceleration not necessary for normal flight.

additional services. advisory information provided by ATC that includes, but is not limited to, the following:

� traffic advisories

� vectors, when requested by the pilot, to assist aircraft receiving traffic advisories to avoid observed

traffic

� altitude deviation information of 300 feet or more from an assigned altitude as observed on a veri-

fied (reading correctly) automatic altitude readout (Mode C)

� advisories that traffic is no longer a factor

� weather and chaff information

� weather assistance

Glossary


–GLOSSARY–

306

� bird activity information

� holding pattern surveillance

administrator. FAA administrator or any person to whom he or she has delegated authority to in the matter

concerned.

advisory. advice and information provided to assist pilots in the safe conduct of flight and aircraft movement.

advisory service. advice and information provided by a facility to assist pilots in the safe conduct of flight and

aircraft movement.

aeronautical chart. a map used in air navigation displaying part or all of the following: topographic features, haz-

ards and obstructions, navigation aids, navigation routes, designated airspace, and airports. Commonly used aero-

nautical charts include (1) sectional charts; (2) VFR terminal area charts; (3) world aeronautical charts (WACs);

(4) en route low altitude charts; (5) en route high altitude charts; (6) instrument approach procedures (IAP) charts;

(7) instrument departure procedure (DP) charts; (8) standard terminal arrival (STAR) charts; (9) airport taxi

charts.

Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM). a primary FAA publication designed to instruct pilots and controllers

about operation in the NAS. It provides basic flight information, ATC procedures, and general instructional infor-

mation concerning health, medical facts, factors affecting flight safety, accident and hazard reporting, and types

of aeronautical charts and their use.

Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP). a publication issued by or with the authority of a state and con-

taining aeronautical information of a lasting character essential to air navigation.

air carrier district office. an FAA field office serving an assigned geographical area, staffed with flight standards

personnel serving the aviation industry and the general public on matters related to the certification and opera-

tion of scheduled air carriers and other large aircraft operations.

aircraft attitude. a term used to describe the orientation of an aircraft with respect to the horizon.

air defense identification zone (ADIZ). the area of airspace over land or water, extending upward from the sur-

face, within which the ready identification, location, and control of aircraft are required in the interest of national

security. This includes

� Domestic Air Defense Identification Zone—an ADIZ within the United States and along an inter-

national boundary.

� Coastal Air Defense Identification Zone—an ADIZ over the coastal waters of the United States.

� Distant Early Warning Identification Zone (DEWIZ)—an ADIZ over the coastal waters of Alaska.

� Land-Based Air Defense Identification Zone—an ADIZ over U.S. metropolitan areas, which is acti-

vated and deactivated as needed, with dimensions, activation dates, and other relevant information

disseminated via NOTAM.

air navigation facility. any facility used, available for use, or designed for use in air navigation, including land-

ing areas, lights, any apparatus or equipment for disseminating weather information, for signaling, for radio-direc-


–GLOSSARY–

307

tional finding, or for radio or other electrical communication, and any other structure or mechanism having a

similar purpose for guiding or controlling flight in the air or the landing and takeoff of aircraft.

air route surveillance radar (ARSR). ARTCC radar used primarily to detect and display an aircraft’s position while

en route between terminal areas. The ARSR enables controllers to provide radar ATC service when aircraft are

within the ARSR coverage. In some instances, ARSR may enable an ARTCC to provide terminal radar services

similar to but usually more limited than those provided by a radar approach control.

air route traffic control center (ARTCC). a facility established to provide ATC service to aircraft operating on

IFR flight plans within controlled airspace and principally during the en route phase of flight. When equipment

capabilities and controller workload permit, certain advisory/assistance services may be provided to VFR aircraft.

air traffic. aircraft operating in the air or on an airport surface, exclusive of loading ramps and parking areas.

air traffic clearance. an authorization by ATC for an aircraft to proceed under specified traffic conditions within

controlled airspace. The pilot in command of an aircraft may not deviate from the provisions of a VFR or IFR

air traffic clearance except in an emergency or unless an amended clearance has been obtained. Additionally, the

pilot may request a different clearance from that issued by ATC if information available to the pilot makes another

course of action more practical or if aircraft equipment limitations or company procedures forbid compliance

with the clearance issued. Pilots may also request clarification or amendment, as appropriate, any time a clear-

ance is not fully understood, or considered unacceptable because of safety of flight. Controllers should, in such

instances and to the extent of operational practicality and safety, honor the pilot’s request.

air traffic control (ATC). a service operated by appropriate authority to promote the safe, orderly, and expedi-

tious flow of air traffic.

air traffic control (ATC) clearance. authorization of an aircraft to proceed under conditions specified by an ATC

unit. For convenience, ATC clearance is frequently abbreviated as “clearance,” and the abbreviated term “

clearance” may be prefixed by the words taxi, takeoff, departure, en route, approach, or landing to indicate the par-

ticular portion of flight to which the ATC clearance relates.

air traffic control system command center (ATCSCC). air traffic tactical operations facility responsible for mon-

itoring and managing the flow of air traffic throughout the NAS; the goal is to direct air traffic in a safe and orderly

way and to minimize delays. The following functions are located at the ATCSCC:

� Central Altitude Reservation Function (CARF)—responsible for coordinating, planning, and

approving special user requirements under the Altitude Reservation (ALTRV) concept.

� Airport Reservation Office (ARO)—responsible for approving IFR flights at designated high-den-

sity traffic airports (John F. Kennedy, LaGuardia, and Ronald Reagan Washington National) during

specified hours.

� U.S. Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) Office—responsible for collecting, maintaining, and distributing

NOTAMs for the U.S. civilian and military, as well as international, aviation communities.

� Weather Unit—monitors all aspects of weather for the United States that might affect aviation

including cloud cover, visibility, winds, precipitation, thunderstorms, icing, and turbulence. Pro-


–GLOSSARY–

308

vides forecasts based on observations and discussions with meteorologists from various National

Weather Service (NWS) offices, FAA facilities, airlines, and private weather services.

air traffic service. a generic term referring to flight information service, alerting service, air traffic advisory serv-

ice, and ATC service including area control service, approach control service, and airport control service.

air traffic service (ATS) routes. a generic term that includes “VOR federal airways,” “colored federal airways,” “jet

routes,” and “RNAV routes.” The term “ATS route” does not replace these more familiar route names, but serves

only as an overall title when listing the types of routes that comprise the U.S. route structure.

aircraft approach category. a grouping of aircraft based on a speed of 1.3 times the stall speed in the landing con-

figuration at maximum gross landing weight. An aircraft must fit in only one category. If it is necessary to maneu-

ver at speeds in excess of the upper limit of a speed range for a category, the minimums for the category for that

speed must be used. For example, an aircraft that falls into Category A, but is circling to land at a speed in excess

of 91 knots, must use the approach Category B minimums when circling to land. The categories are as follows:

Category A (speed less than 91 knots); Category B (speed 91 knots or more but less than 121 knots); Category C

(speed 121 knots or more but less than 141 knots); Category D (speed 141 knots or more but less than 166 knots);

and Category E (speed 166 knots or more).

aircraft classes. for the purposes of wake turbulence separation minima (minimum), ATC classifies aircraft as:

� heavy—aircraft capable of takeoff weights of more than 255,000 pounds whether or not they are

operating at this weight during a particular phase of flight

� large—aircraft of more than 41,000 pounds, maximum certificated takeoff weight, up to 255,000

pounds

� small—aircraft of 41,000 pounds or less maximum certificated takeoff weight

aircraft conflict. predicted conflict, within URET, of two aircraft, or between aircraft and airspace. A red alert is

used for conflicts when the predicted minimum separation is 5 NM or less. A yellow alert is used when the pre-

dicted minimum separation is between 5 and approximately 12 NM. A blue alert is used for conflicts between an

aircraft and predefined airspace.

AIRMET. in-flight weather advisories issued only to amend the area forecast concerning weather phenomena that

are of operational interest to all aircraft and potentially hazardous to aircraft having limited capability because

of lack of equipment, instrumentation, or pilot qualifications. AIRMETs concern weather of less severity than that

covered by SIGMETs or Convective SIGMETs. AIRMETs cover moderate icing, moderate turbulence, sustained

winds of 30 knots or more at the surface, widespread areas of ceilings less than 1,000 feet and/or visibility less

than 3 miles, and extensive mountain obscurement.

airport. an area on land or water that is used or intended to be used for the landing and takeoff of aircraft and

includes its buildings and facilities.

airport advisory area. the area within 10 miles of an airport without a control tower or where the tower is not

in operation and on which a FSS is located.


–GLOSSARY–

309

airport arrival rate (AAR). a dynamic input parameter specifying the number of arriving aircraft that an airport

or airspace can accept from the ARTCC per hour. AAR is used to calculate the desired interval between succes-

sive arrival aircraft.

airport departure rate (ADR). a dynamic parameter specifying the number of aircraft that can depart an airport

and the airspace can accept per hour.

airport elevation. the highest point of an airport’s usable runways measured in feet from MSL.

Airport Facility/Directory. a publication designed primarily as a pilot’s operational manual containing all air-

ports, seaplane bases, and heliports open to the public including communications data, navigational facilities, and

certain special notices and procedures. This publication is issued in seven volumes according to geographical area.

airport lighting. various lighting aids that may be installed on an airport, including

� Approach Light System (ALS)—an airport lighting facility that provides visual guidance to landing

aircraft by radiating light beams in a directional pattern by which the pilot aligns the aircraft with

the extended centerline of the runway on his or her final approach for landing. Condenser-dis-

charge sequential flashing lights/sequenced flashing lights may be installed in conjunction with the

ALS at some airports. Types of ALS include

1. ALSF-1—ALS with sequenced flashing lights in ILS Cat-I configuration.

2. ALSF-2—ALS with sequenced flashing lights in ILS Cat-II configuration. The ALSF-2 may

operate as an SSALR when weather conditions permit.

3. SSALF—simplified short ALS with sequenced flashing lights.

4. SSALR—simplified short ALS with runway-alignment indicator lights.

5. MALSF—medium-intensity ALS with sequenced flashing lights.

6. MALSR—medium-intensity ALS system with runway-alignment indicator lights.

7. LDIN—lead-in-light system; consists of one or more series of flashing lights installed at or near

ground level that provides positive visual guidance along an approach path, either curved or

straight, where special problems exist with hazardous terrain, obstructions, or noise abatement

procedures.

8. RAIL—runway-alignment indicator lights; sequenced flashing lights installed only in combina-

tion with other light systems.

9. ODALS—omnidirectional ALS consisting of seven omnidirectional flashing lights located in

the approach area of a nonprecision runway. Five lights are located on the runway centerline

extended with the first light located 300 feet from the threshold and extending at equal inter-

vals up to 1,500 feet from the threshold. The other two lights are located, one on each side of

the runway threshold, at a lateral distance of 40 feet from the runway edge, or 75 feet from the

runway edge when installed on a runway equipped with a visual approach slope indicator

(VASI).


–GLOSSARY–

310

� runway lights/runway-edge lights—lights having a prescribed angle of emission used to define the

lateral limits of a runway. Runway lights are uniformly spaced at intervals of approximately 200

feet, and the intensity may be controlled or preset.

� touchdown zone lighting—two rows of transverse light bars located symmetrically about the run-

way centerline normally at 100-foot intervals. The basic system extends 3,000 feet along the run-

way.

� runway centerline lighting—flush centerline lights spaced at 50-foot intervals beginning 75 feet

from the landing threshold and extending to within 75 feet of the opposite end of the runway.

� threshold lights—fixed green lights arranged symmetrically left and right of the runway centerline,

identifying the runway threshold.

� runway-end identifier lights (REIL)—two synchronized flashing lights, one on each side of the

runway threshold, that provide rapid and positive identification of the approach end of a particular

runway.

� visual approach slope indicator (VASI)—an airport lighting facility providing vertical visual

approach slope guidance to aircraft during approach to landing by radiating a directional pattern

of high-intensity red and white focused light beams, which indicate to the pilot that he or she is “on

path.” If the pilot sees white/white flashing lights, he or she is “above path,” and if the pilot sees

red/red flashing lights, the pilot is “below path.” Some airports serving large aircraft have three-bar

VASIs that provide two visual guide paths to the same runway.

� precision approach path indicator (PAPI)—an airport lighting facility, similar to VASI, providing

vertical approach slope guidance to aircraft during approach to landing. PAPIs consist of a single

row of either two or four lights, normally installed on the left side of the runway, and have an effec-

tive visual range of about 5 miles during the day and up to 20 miles at night. PAPIs radiate a direc-

tional pattern of high-intensity red and white focused light beams, which indicate that the pilot is

“on path” if the pilot sees an equal number of white lights and red lights, with white to the left of

the red; “above path” if the pilot sees more white lights than red lights; and “below path” if the pilot

sees more red lights than white lights.

� boundary lights—lights defining the perimeter of an airport or a landing area.

airport marking aids. markings used on runway and taxiway surfaces to identify a specific runway, runway thresh-

old, centerline, or hold line. A runway should be marked in accordance with its present usage such visual, non-

precision instrument, or precision instrument.

airport reference point (ARP). the approximate geometric center of all usable runway surfaces.

airport reservation office. the office responsible for monitoring the operation of the high-density rule. Receives

and processes requests for IFR-operations at high-density traffic airports.


–GLOSSARY–

311

airport rotating beacon. a NAVAID in operation at many airports. At civil airports, alternating white and green

flashes indicate the location of the airport. At military airports, the beacons flash alternately white and green, but

are differentiated from civil beacons by dual-peaked (two quick) white flashes between the green flashes.

airport surveillance radar (ASR). approach control radar used to detect and display an aircraft’s position in the

terminal area. ASR provides range and azimuth information but does not provide elevation data. Coverage of ASR

can extend up to 60 miles.

airport traffic control (ATC) service. a service provided by a control tower for aircraft operating on the move-

ment area and in the vicinity of an airport.

airspace hierarchy.within the airspace classes, there is a hierarchy and, in the event of an overlap of airspace: Class

A preempts Class B, Class B preempts Class C, Class C preempts Class D, Class D preempts Class E, and Class E

preempts Class G.

airspeed. the speed of an aircraft relative to its surrounding air mass. The unqualified term “airspeed” means one

of the following:

� indicated airspeed—the speed shown on the aircraft airspeed indicator. This is the speed used in

pilot/controller communications under the general term “airspeed.”

� true airspeed—the airspeed of an aircraft relative to undisturbed air. Used primarily in flight plan-

ning and en route portion of flight. When used in pilot/controller communications, it is referred to

as “true airspeed” and not shortened to “airspeed.”

airstart. the starting of an aircraft engine while the aircraft is airborne, preceded by engine shutdown during train-

ing flights or by actual engine failure.

airway. a control area or portion thereof established in the form of corridor equipped with radio navigational

aids.

airway beacon. used to mark airway segments in remote mountain areas. The light flashes Morse Code to iden-

tify the beacon site.

alternate airport. an airport at which an aircraft may land if a landing at the intended airport becomes

inadvisable.

altitude. the vertical distance of a level, a point, or an object considered as a point, measured from MSL.

altitude readout. An aircraft’s altitude, transmitted via the Mode C transponder feature, that is visually displayed

in 100-foot increments on a radar scope having readout capability.

altitude reservation (ALTRV). airspace utilization under prescribed conditions normally employed for the mass

movement of aircraft or other special user requirements that cannot otherwise be accomplished. ALTRVs are

approved by the appropriate FAA facility.

altitude restriction. an altitude or altitudes, stated in the order flown, that are to be maintained until reaching a

specific point or time. Altitude restrictions may be issued by ATC due to traffic, terrain, or other airspace con-

siderations.

approach control facility. a terminal ATC facility that provides approach control service in a terminal area.


–GLOSSARY–

312

approach control service. ATC service provided by an approach control facility for arriving and departing

VFR/IFR aircraft and, on occasion, en route aircraft. At some airports not served by an approach control facility,

the ARTCC provides limited approach control service.

approach gate. an imaginary point used within ATC as a basis for vectoring aircraft to the final approach course.

The gate will be established along the final approach course 1 mile from the final approach fix on the side away

from the airport and will be no closer than 5 miles from the landing threshold.

approach sequence. the order in which aircraft are positioned while on approach or awaiting approach clearance.

approach speed. the recommended speed contained in aircraft manuals used by pilots when making an approach

to landing. This speed varies for different segments of an approach as well as for aircraft weight and configura-

tion.

appropriate ATS authority. the relevant authority designated by the state responsible for providing air traffic serv-

ices in an airspace. In the United States, the “appropriate ATS authority” is the program director for air traffic plan-

ning and procedures, ATP-1.

apron. a defined area on an airport, a heliport, or an aerodome intended to accommodate aircraft for purposes

of loading or unloading passengers or cargo, refueling, parking, or maintenance. With regard to seaplanes, a ramp

is used for access to the apron from the water.

area navigation (RNAV). provides enhanced navigational capability to the pilot. RNAV equipment can compute

the airplane position, actual track, and ground speed and then provide meaningful information relative to a route

of flight selected by the pilot. Typical equipment will provide the pilot with distance, time, bearing, and crosstrack

error relative to the selected “TO” or “active” waypoint and the selected route. RNAV systems include Doppler

radar, LORAN, LORAN-C, Global Positioning Systems (GPS), and Inertial Navigation Systems (INS).

Army Aviation Flight Information Bulletin. a bulletin that provides air operation data covering U.S. Army,

National Guard, and Army Reserve aviation activities.

arrival aircraft interval (AAI). an internally generated program in hundredths of minutes based upon the air-

port arrival rate (AAR). AAI is the desired optimum interval between successive arrival aircraft over the vertex.

arrival center. the ARTCC having jurisdiction for the impacted airport.

arrival delay. a parameter that specifies a period of time in which no aircraft will be metered for arrival at the

specified airport.

arrival sector. an operational control sector containing one or more meter fixes.

arrival sequencing program. the automated program designed to assist in sequencing aircraft destined for the

same airport.

arrival time. the time an aircraft touches down on arrival.

ATC assigned airspace. airspace of defined vertical/lateral limits, assigned by ATC, for the purpose of providing

air traffic segregation between the specified activities being conducted within the assigned airspace and other IFR

air traffic.


–GLOSSARY–

313

ATC instructions. directives issued by ATC requiring a pilot to take a specific action such as “Turn left heading

two five zero,” “Go around,” “Clear the runway.”

ATC preferred route notification. URET notification to the appropriate controller of the need to determine if

an ATC preferred route needs to be applied, based on destination airport.

ATS route. a specified route designed for channeling the flow of traffic as necessary for the provision of air traf-

fic services. Note: The term “ATS route” is used to mean airway, advisory route, controlled or uncontrolled route,

and arrival or departure route.

Automated Radar Terminal Systems (ARTS). a generic term for several tracking systems included in the Termi-

nal Automation Systems (TAS). ARTS plus a Roman-numeral suffix denotes a specific system. A letter following

the Roman numeral indicates a major modification to that system.

� ARTS IIIA—the radar tracking and beacon tracking level (RT&BTL) of the modular, programma-

ble automated radar terminal system. ARTS IIIA detects, tracks, and predicts primary and second-

ary radar-derived aircraft targets. This more sophisticated computer-driven system upgrades the

existing ARTS III system by providing improved tracking, continuous data recording, and fail-soft

capabilities.

� common ARTS—includes ARTS IIE, ARTS IIIE; and ARTS IIIE with ACD (see DTAS), which com-

bines functionalities of the previous ARTS systems.

� programmable indicator data processor (PIDP)—the PIDP is a modification to the AN/TPX-42

interrogator system currently installed in fixed RAPCONs. The PIDP detects, tracks, and predicts

secondary radar aircraft targets. These are displayed by means of computer-generated symbols and

alphanumeric characters depicting flight identification, aircraft altitude, ground speed, and flight

plan data. Although primary radar targets are not tracked, they are displayed coincident with the

secondary radar targets as well as with the other symbols and alphanumerics. The system has the

capability of interfacing with ARTCCs.

automated weather system. any of the automated weather sensor platforms that collect weather data at airports

and disseminate the weather information via radio and/or landline. The systems currently consist of the Auto-

mated Surface Observing System (ASOS), Automated Weather Sensor System (AWSS), and Automated Weather

Observation System (AWOS).

automated UNICOM. provides completely automated weather, radio-check capability, and airport advisory infor-

mation on an automated UNICOM system. These systems offer a variety of features, typically selectable by micro-

phone clicks on the UNICOM frequency. Availability will be published in the Airport/Facility Directory and

approach charts.

automatic altitude reporting. that function of a transponder that responds to Mode C interrogations by trans-

mitting the aircraft’s altitude in 100-foot increments.

automatic dependent surveillance (ADS). a surveillance technique in which aircraft automatically provide, via

a data link, data derived from onboard navigation and position-fixing systems, including aircraft identification,

four-dimensional position, and additional data as appropriate.


–GLOSSARY–

314

automatic dependent surveillance-broadcast (ADS-B). a surveillance system in which an aircraft or vehicle to

be detected is fitted with cooperative equipment in the form of a data-link transmitter. The aircraft or vehicle peri-

odically broadcasts its GPS-derived position and other information such as velocity over the data link, which is

received by a ground-based transmitter/receiver (transceiver) for processing and display at an ATC facility.

automatic dependent surveillance-contract (ADS-C). a data-link position reporting system, controlled by a

ground station, that establishes contracts with an aircraft’s avionics that occur automatically whenever specific

events occur or specific time intervals are reached.

automatic direction finder (ADF). an aircraft radio navigation system that senses and indicates the direction to

a L/MF nondirectional radio beacon (NDB) ground transmitter. Direction is indicated to the pilot as a magnetic

bearing or as a relative bearing to the longitudinal axis of the aircraft depending on the type of indicator installed

in the aircraft. In certain applications, such as military, ADF operations may be based on airborne and ground

transmitters in the VHF/UHF frequency spectrum.

automatic terminal information service. the continuous broadcast of recorded noncontrol information in

selected terminal areas. Its purpose is to improve controller effectiveness and to relieve frequency congestion by

automating the repetitive transmission of essential but routine information such as “Los Angeles information Alfa.

One three zero zero Coordinated Universal Time. Weather, measured ceiling two thousand overcast, visibility three,

haze, smoke, temperature seven one, dew point five seven, wind two five zero at five, altimeter two niner niner

six. I-L-S Runway Two Five Left approach in use, Runway Two Five Right closed, advise you have Alfa.”

automatic terminal information service. the provision of current, routine information to arriving and depart-

ing aircraft by means of continuous and repetitive broadcasts throughout the day or a specified portion of the

day.

available landing distance (ALD). the portion of a runway available for landing and roll-out for aircraft cleared

for land and hold short operations (LAHSO.) This distance is measured from the landing threshold to the hold

short point.

Aviation Weather Service. a service provided by the National Weather Service (NWS) and FAA that collects and

disseminates pertinent weather information for pilots, aircraft operators, and controllers. Available aviation

weather reports and forecasts are displayed at each NWS office and FSS.

azimuth (MLS). a magnetic bearing extending from an MLS navigation facility. Note: Azimuth bearings are

described as magnetic and are referred to as “azimuth” in radio-telephone communications.

back-taxi. a term used by controllers to taxi an aircraft on the runway opposite to the traffic flow. The aircraft

may be instructed to back-taxi to the beginning of the runway or at some point before reaching the runway end

to depart or exit the runway.

bearing. the horizontal direction to or from any point, usually measured clockwise from true north, magnetic

north, or some other reference point through 360 degrees.

blind speed. the rate of departure or closing of a target relative to the radar antenna at which cancellation of the

primary radar target by moving target indicator (MTI) circuits in the radar equipment causes a reduction or com-

plete loss of signal.


–GLOSSARY–

315

blind spot. an area from which radio transmissions and/or radar echoes cannot be received. The term is also used

to describe portions of the airport not visible from the control tower.

braking action advisories. when tower controllers have received runway braking action reports that include the

terms “poor” or “nil,” or whenever weather conditions are conducive to deteriorating or rapidly changing run-

way braking conditions, the tower will include on the ATIS broadcast the statement, “BRAKING ACTION ADVI-

SORIES ARE IN EFFECT.” During the time braking action advisories are in effect, ATC will issue the latest braking

action report for the runway in use to each arriving and departing aircraft. Pilots should be prepared for deteri-

orating braking conditions and should request current runway condition information if not volunteered by con-

trollers. Pilots should also be prepared to provide a descriptive runway condition report to controllers after

landing.

breakout. a technique to direct aircraft out of the approach stream. In the context of close parallel operations, a

breakout is used to direct threatened aircraft away from a deviating aircraft.

call for release. wherein the overlying ARTCC requires a terminal facility to initiate verbal coordination to secure

ARTCC approval for release of a departure into the en route environment.

call up. initial voice contact between a facility and an aircraft, using the identification of the unit being called and

the unit initiating the call.

cardinal altitudes. Odd or even thousand-foot altitudes or odd or even flight levels; e.g., 5,000; 6,000; 7,000; FL

250; FL 260; FL 270.

ceiling. the height above the earth’s surface of the lowest layer of clouds or obscuring phenomena that is reported

as “broken,” “overcast,” or “obscuration” and not classified as “thin” or “partial.”

center’s area. the specified airspace within which an ARTCC provides ATC control and advisory service.

center radar ARTS presentation/processing. a computer program developed to provide a backup system for air-

port surveillance ARTCC radar in the event of a failure or malfunction. The program uses ARTCC radar for the

processing and presentation of data on the ARTS IIA or IIIA displays.

center radar ARTS presentation/processing-plus. a computer program developed to provide a backup system

for airport surveillance radar in the event of a terminal secondary radar system failure. The program uses a com-

bination of ARTCC radar and terminal airport surveillance radar primary targets displayed simultaneously for

the processing and presentation of data on the ARTS IIA or IIIA displays.

center TRACON automation system (CTAS). a computerized set of programs designed to aid ARTCC and TRA-

CONs in the management and control of air traffic.

center weather advisory. an unscheduled weather advisory issued by Center Weather Service Unit meteorolo-

gists for ATC use to alert pilots of existing or anticipated adverse weather conditions within the next 2 hours. A

CWA may modify or redefine a SIGMET.

charted VFR flyways. flight paths recommended for use to bypass areas heavily traversed by large turbine-pow-

ered aircraft. Pilot compliance with recommended flyways and associated altitudes is strictly voluntary. VFR Fly-

way Planning Charts are published on the back of existing VFR Terminal Area Charts.


–GLOSSARY–

316

charted visual flight procedure approach. an approach conducted while operating on an IFR flight plan that

authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to proceed visually and clear of clouds to the airport via visual landmarks and

other information depicted on a charted visual flight procedure. This approach must be authorized and under

the control of the appropriate ATC facility. Weather minimums required are depicted on the chart.

circle-to-land maneuver. a maneuver initiated by the pilot to align the aircraft with a runway for landing when

a straight-in landing from an instrument approach is not possible or is not desirable. At tower-controlled airports,

this maneuver is made only after ATC authorization has been obtained, and the pilot has established required

visual reference to the airport.

clear air turbulence (CAT). turbulence encountered in air where no clouds are present. This term is commonly

applied to high-level turbulence associated with wind shear. CAT is often encountered in the vicinity of the jet

stream.

clear of the runway.

� Taxiing aircraft approaching a runway is clear of the runway when all parts of the aircraft are held

short of the applicable runway-holding position marking.

� A pilot or controller may consider an aircraft exiting or crossing a runway clear of the runway

when all parts of the aircraft are beyond the runway edge and there are no restrictions to its contin-

ued movement beyond the applicable runway-holding position marking.

� Pilots and controllers must exercise good judgment to ensure that adequate separation exists

between all aircraft on runways and taxiways at airports with inadequate runway edge lines or

holding-position markings.

clearway. an area beyond the takeoff runway under the control of airport authorities within which terrain or fixed

obstacles may not extend above specified limits. These areas may be required for certain turbine-powered oper-

ations and the size and upward slope of the clearway will differ depending on when the aircraft was certificated.

clutter. in radar operations, clutter refers to the reception and visual display of radar returns caused by precipi-

tation, chaff, terrain, numerous aircraft targets, or other phenomena. Such returns may limit or preclude ATC

from providing services based on radar.

combined center-RAPCON. an ATC that combines the functions of an ARTCC and a radar approach control

facility.

common point. a significant point over which two or more aircraft will report passing or have reported passing

before proceeding on the same or diverging tracks. To establish/maintain longitudinal separation, a controller may

determine a common point not originally in the aircraft’s flight plan and then clear the aircraft to fly over the

point.

common traffic advisory frequency (CTAF). a frequency designed to carry out airport advisory practices while

operating to or from an airport without an operating control tower. The CTAF may be a UNICOM, Multicom,

FSS, or tower frequency and is identified in appropriate aeronautical publications.


–GLOSSARY–

317

compass locator. a low-power, low- or medium-frequency (L/MF) radio beacon installed at the site of the outer

or middle marker of an ILS. It can be used for navigation at distances of approximately 15 miles or as authorized

in the approach procedure.

composite separation. a method of separating aircraft in a composite route system where, by management of

route and altitude assignments, a combination of half the lateral minimum specified for the area concerned and

half the vertical minimum is applied.

conflict alert. a function of certain ATC automated systems designed to alert radar controllers to existing or pend-

ing situations between tracked targets (known IFR or VFR aircraft) that require immediate attention/action.

conflict resolution. the resolution of potential conflicts between aircraft that are radar identified and in com-

munication with ATC by ensuring that radar targets do not touch. Pertinent traffic advisories will be issued when

this procedure is applied.

controlled airspace. an airspace of defined dimensions within which ATC service is provided to IFR flights and

to VFR flights in accordance with the airspace classification.

� “controlled airspace” is a generic term that covers Class A, Class B, Class C, Class D, and Class E air-

space.

� controlled airspace is also that airspace within which all aircraft operators are subject to certain

pilot qualifications, operating rules, and equipment requirements in 14 CFR Part 91. For IFR oper-

ations in any class of controlled airspace, a pilot must file an IFR flight plan and receive an appro-

priate ATC clearance. Each Class B, Class C, and Class D airspace area designated for an airport

contains at least one primary airport around which the airspace is designated.

� controlled airspace in the United States is designated as follows:

1. Class A—generally, that airspace from 18,000 feet MSL up to and including FL 600, including

the airspace overlying the waters within 12 NM of the coast of the 48 contiguous states and

Alaska. Unless otherwise authorized, all persons must operate their aircraft under IFR.

2. Class B—generally, that airspace from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL surrounding the nation’s

busiest airports in terms of airport operations. The configuration of each Class B airspace area

is individually tailored and consists of a surface area and two or more layers (some Class B air-

spaces areas resemble upside-down wedding cakes) and is designed to contain all published

instrument procedures once an aircraft enters the airspace. An ATC clearance is required for all

aircraft to operate in the area, and cleared aircraft receive separation services within the air-

space. The cloud clearance requirement for VFR operations is “clear of clouds.”

3. Class C—generally, that airspace from the surface to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation

(charted in MSL) surrounding those airports that have an operational control tower, are serv-

iced by a radar approach control, and have a certain number of IFR operations. Although the

configuration of each Class C area is individually tailored, the airspace usually consists of a sur-

face area with a 5-NM radius, a circle with a 10-NM radius that extends no lower than 1,200

feet up to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation and an outer area that is not charted. Each pilot


–GLOSSARY–

318

flying in this airspace must establish two-way radio communications with the ATC facility pro-

viding air traffic services prior to entering the airspace and then maintain those communica-

tions while within the airspace. VFR aircraft receive separation services from IFR aircraft within

the airspace.

4. Class D—generally, that airspace from the surface to 2,500 feet above the airport elevation

(charted in MSL) surrounding those airports that have an operational control tower. The con-

figuration of each Class D airspace area is individually tailored and when instrument proce-

dures are published, the airspace will normally be designed to contain the procedures. Arrival

extensions for instrument approach procedures may be Class D or Class E airspace. Unless oth-

erwise authorized, each pilot must establish two-way radio communications with the ATC

facility providing air traffic services prior to entering the airspace and then maintain those

communications while in the airspace. No separation services are provided to VFR aircraft.

5. Class E—generally, if the airspace is not Class A, Class B, Class C, or Class D, and it is controlled

airspace, it is Class E airspace. Class E airspace extends upward from either the surface or a des-

ignated altitude to the overlying or adjacent controlled airspace. When designated as a surface

area, the airspace will be configured to contain all instrument procedures. Also in this class are

federal airways, airspace beginning at either 700 or 1,200 feet AGL used to transition to/from

the terminal or en route environment, en route domestic, and offshore airspace areas desig-

nated below 18,000 feet MSL. Unless designated at a lower altitude, Class E airspace begins at

14,500 MSL over the United States, including that airspace overlying the waters within 12 NM

of the coast of the 48 contiguous states and Alaska, up to, but not including 18,000 feet MSL,

and the airspace above FL 600.

convective SIGMET. a weather advisory concerning convective weather significant to the safety of all aircraft. Con-

vective SIGMETs are issued for tornadoes, lines of thunderstorms, embedded thunderstorms of any intensity level,

areas of thunderstorms greater than or equal to video integrator processor (VIP) level 4 with an area coverage of

(40%) or more, and hail inch or greater.

cruise. used in an ATC clearance to authorize a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from the minimum IFR alti-

tude up to and including the altitude specified in the clearance. The pilot may level off at any intermediate alti-

tude within this block of airspace. Climb/descent within the block is to be made at the discretion of the pilot.

However, once the pilot starts descent and verbally reports leaving an altitude in the block, he or she may not return

to that altitude without additional ATC clearance. Further, it is approval for the pilot to proceed to and make an

approach at destination airport and can be used in conjunction with:

� an airport clearance limit at locations with a standard/special instrument approach procedure. The

CFRs require that if an instrument letdown to an airport is necessary, the pilot shall make the let-

down in accordance with a standard/special instrument approach procedure for that airport, or

� an airport clearance limit at locations that are within/below/outside controlled airspace and with-

out a standard/special instrument approach procedure. Such a clearance is NOT AUTHORIZA-

TION for the pilot to descend under IFR conditions below the applicable minimum IFR altitude

34

410


–GLOSSARY–

319

nor does it imply that ATC is exercising control over aircraft in Class G airspace; however, it pro-

vides a means for the aircraft to proceed to destination airport, descend, and land in accordance

with applicable CFRs governing VFR flight operations. Also, this provides search and rescue pro-

tection until such time as the IFR flight plan is closed.

cruise climb. a climb technique employed by aircraft, usually at a constant power setting, resulting in an increase

of altitude as the aircraft weight decreases.

cruising altitude. an altitude or flight level maintained during en route level flight. This is a constant altitude and

should not be confused with a cruise clearance.

cruising level. a level maintained during a significant portion of a flight.

CT message. an expected departure clearance time (EDCT) generated by the ATCSCC to regulate traffic at arrival

airports. Normally, a CT message is automatically transferred from the Traffic Management System computer to

the NAS en route computer and appears as an EDCT. In the event of a communication failure between the traf-

fic management system (TMS) and the NAS, the CT message can be manually entered by the traffic management

controller (TMC) at the en route facility.

current flight plan. the flight plan, including changes, if any, brought about by subsequent clearances.

current plan. the ATC clearance the aircraft has received and is expected to fly.

dead reckoning. dead reckoning, as applied to flying, is the navigation of an airplane solely by means of com-

putations based on airspeed, course, heading, wind direction, speed, groundspeed, and elapsed time.

decision height. with respect to the operation of aircraft, means the height at which a decision must be made dur-

ing an ILS, MLS, or PAR instrument approach to either continue the approach or to execute a missed approach.

decoder. the device used to decipher signals received from air traffic control radar beacon system (ATCRBS)

transponders to effect their display as select codes.

departure control. a function of an approach control facility providing ATC service for departing IFR and, under

certain conditions, VFR aircraft.

departure sequencing program. a program designed to assist in achieving a specified interval over a common

point for departures.

digital-automatic terminal information service (D-ATIS). the service provides text messages to aircraft, airlines,

and other users outside the standard reception range of conventional ATIS via landline and data link communi-

cations to the cockpit.

digital target. a computer-generated symbol representing an aircraft’s position, based on a primary return or radar

beacon reply, shown on a digital display.

Digital Terminal Automation System (DTAS). a system where digital radar and beacon data is presented on dig-

ital displays and the operational program monitors the system performance on a real-time basis.

direction finder. a radio receiver equipped with a directional sensing antenna used to take bearings on a radio

transmitter. Specialized radio direction finders are used in aircraft as air navigation aids. Others are ground-based

and are used primarily to obtain a “fix” on a pilot requesting orientation assistance or to locate downed aircraft.


–GLOSSARY–

320

directly behind. an aircraft is considered to be operating directly behind when it is following the actual flight path

of the lead aircraft over the surface of the earth except when applying wake turbulence separation criteria.

discrete frequency. a separate radio frequency for use in direct pilot-controller communications in ATC that

reduces frequency congestion by controlling the number of aircraft operating on a particular frequency at one

time. Discrete frequencies are normally designated for each control sector in en route/terminal ATC facilities. Dis-

crete frequencies are listed in the Airport/Facility Directory.

distance measuring equipment (DME). equipment (airborne and ground) used to measure, in NM, the slant

range distance of an aircraft from the DME navigational aid.

diverse vector area. in a radar environment, that area in which a prescribed departure route is not required as

the only suitable route to avoid obstacles.

diversion (DVRSN). flights that are required to land at other than their original destination for reasons beyond

the control of the pilot/company, e.g. periods of significant weather.

DME fix. a geographical position determined by reference to a navigational aid that provides distance and azimuth

information. It is defined by a specific distance in NM and a radial, azimuth, or course (i.e., localizer) in degrees

magnetic from that aid.

DME separation. spacing of aircraft in terms of distances (NM) determined by reference to distance measuring

equipment (DME).

downburst. a strong downdraft that induces an outburst of damaging winds on or near the ground. Damaging

winds, either straight or curved, are highly divergent. The sizes of downbursts vary from 1/2 mile or less to more

than 10 miles. An intense downburst often causes widespread damage. Damaging winds, lasting 5 to 30 minutes,

could reach speeds as high as 120 knots.

en route air traffic control services. ATC service provided aircraft on IFR flight plans, generally by centers, when

these aircraft are operating between departure and destination terminal areas. When equipment, capabilities, and

controller workload permit, certain advisory/assistance services may be provided to VFR aircraft.

en route automation system (EAS). the complex integrated environment consisting of situation display systems,

surveillance systems and flight data processing, remote devices, decision support tools, and the related commu-

nications equipment that form the heart of the automated IFR ATC system. It interfaces with automated termi-

nal systems and is used in the control of en route IFR aircraft.

en route flight advisory service. a service specifically designed to provide, upon pilot request, timely weather infor-

mation pertinent to his or her type of flight, intended route of flight, and altitude. The FSSs providing this serv-

ice are listed in the Airport/Facility Directory.

estimated time of arrival (ETA). the time the flight is estimated to arrive at the gate (scheduled operators) or the

actual runway on times for nonscheduled operators.

estimated time en route. the estimated flying time from departure point to destination (lift-off to touchdown).

feeder fix. the fix depicted on Instrument Approach Procedure Charts that establishes the starting point of the

feeder route.


–GLOSSARY–

321

feeder route. a route depicted on Instrument Approach Procedure Charts to designate routes for aircraft to pro-

ceed from the en route structure to the initial approach fix (IAF).

filed flight plan. the flight plan as filed with an air traffic service (ATS) unit by the pilot or his or her designated

representative without any subsequent changes or clearances.

final approach. that part of an instrument approach procedure that commences at the specified final approach

fix or point, or where such a fix or point is not specified.

� at the end of the last procedure turn, base turn or inbound turn of a racetrack procedure, if

specified; or

� at the point of interception of the last track specified in the approach procedure; and ends at a

point in the vicinity of an aerodrome from which

oach procedure is initiated.

final approach course. a bearing/radial/track of an instrument approach leading to a runway or an extended run-

way centerline all without regard to distance.

final approach fix (FAF). the fix from which the final approach (IFR) to an airport is executed and which iden-

tifies the beginning of the final approach segment. It is designated on Government charts by the Maltese Cross

symbol for nonprecision approaches and the lightning bolt symbol for precision approaches; or when ATC directs

a lower-than-published glideslope/path intercept altitude, it is the resultant actual point of the glideslope/path

intercept.

final approach-IFR. the flight path of an aircraft that is inbound to an airport on a final instrument approach

course, beginning at the final approach fix or point and extending to the airport or the point where a circle-to-

land maneuver or a missed approach is executed.

final approach point (FAP). the point, applicable only to a nonprecision approach with no depicted FAF (such

as an on airport VOR), where the aircraft is established inbound on the final approach course from the proce-

dure turn and where the final approach descent may be commenced. The FAP serves as the FAF and identifies

the beginning of the final approach segment.

final controller. the controller providing information and final approach guidance during PAR and ASR

approaches utilizing radar equipment.

final monitor aid. a high-resolution color display that is equipped with the controller alert system hardware/soft-

ware that is used in the precision runway monitor (PRM) system. The display includes alert algorithms provid-

ing the target predictors, a color change alert when a target penetrates or is predicted to penetrate the no

transgression zone (NTZ), a color change alert if the aircraft transponder becomes inoperative, synthesized voice

alerts, digital mapping, and like features contained in the PRM system.

final monitor controller. ATC specialist assigned to radar monitor the flight path of aircraft during simultane-

ous parallel and simultaneous close parallel ILS approach operations. Each runway is assigned a final monitor

controller during simultaneous parallel and simultaneous close parallel ILS approaches. Final monitor controllers

shall utilize the precision runway monitor (PRM) system during simultaneous close parallel ILS approaches.


–GLOSSARY–

322

fix. a geographical position determined by visual reference to the surface, by reference to one or more radio

NAVAIDs, by celestial plotting, or by another navigational device.

flight level (FL). a level of constant atmospheric pressure related to a reference datum of 29.92 inches of mer-

cury. Each is stated in three digits that represent hundreds of feet. For example, flight level (FL) 250 represents a

barometric altimeter indication of 25,000 feet; FL 255, an indication of 25,500 feet.

flight service station (FSS). air traffic facilities that provide pilot briefing, en route communications, and VFR

search-and-rescue services, assist lost aircraft and aircraft in emergency situations, relay ATC clearances, origi-

nate NOTAMs, broadcast aviation weather and NAS information, and receive and process IFR flight plans. At

selected locations, FSSs also provide En Route Flight Advisory Service (Flight Watch), issue airport advisories,

and advise Customs and Immigration of transborder flights. Selected FSSs in Alaska also provide TWEB record-

ings and take weather observations.

fly heading (degrees). informs the pilot of the heading he or she should fly. The pilot may have to turn to, or con-

tinue on, a specific compass direction in order to comply with the instructions. The pilot is expected to turn in

the shorter direction to the heading unless otherwise instructed by ATC.

fly-by waypoint. a fly-by waypoint requires the use of turn anticipation to avoid overshoot of the next flight seg-

ment.

fly-over waypoint. a fly-over waypoint precludes any turn until the waypoint is overflown and is followed by an

intercept maneuver of the next flight segment.

gate hold procedures. procedures at selected airports to hold aircraft at the gate or other ground location when-

ever departure delays exceed or are anticipated to exceed 15 minutes. The sequence for departure will be main-

tained in accordance with initial call-up unless modified by flow control restrictions. Pilots should monitor the

ground control/clearance delivery frequency for engine start/taxi advisories or new proposed start/taxi time if

the delay changes.

general aviation. that portion of civil aviation that encompasses all facets of aviation except air carriers holding

a certificate of public convenience and necessity from the Civil Aeronautics Board and large aircraft commercial

operators.

glideslope. provides vertical guidance for aircraft during approach and landing. The glideslope/glidepath is based

on the following:

� electronic components emitting signals that provide vertical guidance by reference to airborne

instruments during instrument approaches such as ILS/MLS, or

� visual ground aids, such as VASI, that provide vertical guidance for a VFR approach or for the

visual portion of an instrument approach and landing.

� PAR. Used by ATC to inform an aircraft making a PAR approach of its vertical position (elevation)

relative to the descent profile.

Global Positioning System (GPS). a space-based radio positioning, navigation, and time-transfer system. The sys-

tem provides highly accurate position and velocity information, and precise time, on a continuous global basis,


–GLOSSARY–

323

to an unlimited number of properly equipped users. The system is unaffected by weather, and provides a world-

wide common grid reference system. The GPS concept is predicated upon accurate and continuous knowledge

of the spatial position of each satellite in the system with respect to time and distance from a transmitting satel-

lite to the user. The GPS receiver automatically selects appropriate signals from the satellites in view and trans-

lates these into three-dimensional position, velocity, and time. System accuracy for civil users is normally 100

meters horizontally.

ground-based transceiver (GBT). the ground-based transmitter/receiver (transceiver) receives automatic depend-

ent surveillance-broadcast messages, which are forwarded to an ATC facility for processing and display with other

radar targets on the plan position indicator (radar display).

ground clutter. a pattern produced on the radar scope by ground returns that may degrade other radar returns

in the affected area. The effect of ground clutter is minimized by the use of moving target indicator (MTI) cir-

cuits in the radar equipment resulting in a radar presentation that displays only targets that are in motion.

ground controlled approach. a radar approach system operated from the ground by ATC personnel transmit-

ting instructions to the pilot by radio. The approach may be conducted with surveillance radar (ASR) only or with

both surveillance and PAR. Usage of the term “GCA” by pilots is discouraged except when referring to a GCA facil-

ity. Pilots should specifically request a PAR approach when a precision radar approach is desired or request an

ASR or surveillance approach when a nonprecision radar approach is desired.

ground delay program (GDP). a traffic management process administered by the ATCSCC when aircraft are held

on the ground. The purpose of the program is to support the TM mission and limit airborne holding. It is a flex-

ible program and may be implemented in various forms depending upon the needs of the AT system. Ground

delay programs provide for equitable assignment of delays to all system users.

ground speed. the speed of an aircraft relative to the surface of the earth.

ground stop (GS). the GS is a process that requires aircraft that meet a specific criteria to remain on the ground.

The criteria may be airport specific, airspace specific, or equipment specific; for example, all departures to San

Francisco, or all departures entering Yorktown sector, or all Category I and II aircraft going to Charlotte. GSs nor-

mally occur with little or no warning.

handoff. an action taken to transfer the radar identification of an aircraft from one controller to another if the

aircraft will enter the receiving controller’s airspace and radio communications with the aircraft will be

transferred.

Hazardous In-Flight Weather Advisory Service. continuous recorded hazardous in-flight weather forecasts

broadcasted to airborne pilots over selected VOR outlets defined as an HIWAS BROADCAST AREA.

high altitude redesign (HAR). a level of nonrestrictive routing (NRR) service for aircraft that have all waypoints

associated with the HAR program in their flight management systems or RNAV equipage.

hold for release. used by ATC to delay an aircraft for traffic management reasons; i.e., weather, traffic volume,

etc. Hold for release instructions (including departure delay information) are used to inform a pilot or a con-

troller (either directly or through an authorized relay) that an IFR departure clearance is not valid until a release

time or additional instructions have been received.


–GLOSSARY–

324

hold procedure. a predetermined maneuver that keeps aircraft within a specified airspace while awaiting further

clearance from ATC. Also used during ground operations to keep aircraft within a specified area or at a specified

point while awaiting further clearance from ATC.

holding fix. a specified fix identifiable to a pilot by NAVAIDs or visual reference to the ground used as a refer-

ence point in establishing and maintaining the position of an aircraft while holding.

holding point. a specified location, identified by visual or other means, in the vicinity of which the position of

an aircraft in flight is maintained in accordance with ATC clearances.

IFR aircraft. an aircraft conducting flight in accordance with instrument flight rules.

ILS categories. ILS Category I is an ILS approach procedure that provides for approach to a height above touch-

down of not less than 200 feet and with runway visual range of not less than 1,800 feet. ILS Category II is an ILS

approach procedure that provides for approach to a height above touchdown of not less than 100 feet and with

runway visual range of not less than 1,200 feet. ILS Category III is divided into these categories:

� IIIA—an ILS approach procedure that provides for approach without a decision height minimum

and with runway visual range of not less than 700 feet.

� IIIB—an ILS approach procedure that provides for approach without a decision height minimum

and with runway visual range of not less than 150 feet.

� IIIC—an ILS approach procedure that provides for approach without a decision height minimum

and without runway visual range minimum.

inertial navigation system (INS). an RNAV system that is a form of self-contained navigation.

instrument approach procedure (IAP). a series of predetermined maneuvers for the orderly transfer of an air-

craft under instrument flight conditions from the beginning of the initial approach to a landing or to a point from

which a landing may be made visually. It is prescribed and approved for a specific airport by competent

authority.

instrument departure procedure (DP). a preplanned IFR departure procedure published for pilot use, in graphic

or textual format, that provides obstruction clearance from the terminal area to the appropriate en route struc-

ture. There are two types of DP:

� Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP), may be printed either textually or graphically

� Standard Instrument Departure (SID), always printed graphically

instrument flight rules (IFR). rules governing the procedures for conducting instrument flight. Also a term used

by pilots and controllers to indicate type of flight plan.

instrument landing system (ILS). a precision instrument approach system that normally consists of the follow-

ing electronic components and visual aids:

� localizer

� glideslope

� outer marker


–GLOSSARY–

325

� middle marker

� approach lights

instrument meteorological conditions. meteorological conditions expressed in terms of visibility, distance from

cloud, and ceiling less than the minima specified for visual meteorological conditions.

instrument runway. a runway equipped with electronic and visual navigation aids for which a precision or non-

precision approach procedure having straight-in landing minimums has been approved.

intermediate fix (IF). the fix that identifies the beginning of the intermediate approach segment of an instru-

ment approach procedure. The fix is not normally identified on the instrument approach chart as an IF.

International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO). a specialized agency of the United Nations whose objective

is to develop the principles and techniques of international air navigation and to foster planning and develop-

ment of international civil air transport. ICAO is divided into these regions: African-Indian Ocean Region,

Caribbean Region, European Region, Middle East/Asia Region, North American Region, North Atlantic Region,

Pacific Region, and South American Region.

International Flight Information Manual. a publication designed primarily as a pilot’s preflight planning guide

for flights into foreign airspace and for flights returning to the United States from foreign locations.

interrogator. the ground-based surveillance radar beacon transmitter-receiver, which normally scans in syn-

chronism with a primary radar, transmitting discrete radio signals that repetitiously request all transponders on

the mode being used to reply. The replies received are mixed with the primary radar returns and displayed on the

same plan position indicator (radar scope).

intersecting runways. two or more runways that cross or meet within their lengths. Intersecting runways may be

� a point defined by any combination of courses, radials, or bearings of two or more navigational

aids.

� used to describe the point where two runways, a runway and a taxiway, or two taxiways cross or

meet.

intersection departure. a departure from any runway intersection except the end of the runway.

jamming. electronic or mechanical interference that may disrupt the display of aircraft on radar or the trans-

mission/reception of radio communications/navigation.

jet blast. jet engine exhaust (thrust stream turbulence).

land and hold short operations. operations that include simultaneous takeoffs and landings and/or simultane-

ous landings when a landing aircraft is able and is instructed by the controller to hold short of the intersecting

runway/taxiway or designated hold short point. Pilots are expected to promptly inform the controller if the hold

short clearance cannot be accepted.

landing area. any locality either on land, water, or structures, including airports/heliports and intermediate land-

ing fields, that is used, or intended to be used, for the landing and takeoff of aircraft whether or not facilities are

provided for the shelter, servicing, receiving, or discharging passengers or cargo.


–GLOSSARY–

326

landing minimums. the minimum visibility prescribed for landing a civil aircraft while using an instrument

approach procedure. The minimum applies with other limitations set forth in 14 CFR Part 91 with respect to the

Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) or Decision Height (DH) prescribed in the instrument approach procedures

as follows:

� straight-in landing minimums—a statement of MDA and visibility, or DH and visibility, required

for a straight-in landing on a specified runway, or

� circling minimums—a statement of MDA and visibility required for the circle-to-land maneuver.

lateral navigation (LNAV). a function of RNAV equipment that calculates, displays, and provides lateral guid-

ance to a profile or path.

lateral separation. the lateral spacing of aircraft at the same altitude by requiring operation on different routes

or in different geographical locations.

local traffic. aircraft operating in the traffic pattern or within sight of the tower, aircraft known to be departing

or arriving from flight in local practice areas, or aircraft executing practice instrument approaches at the airport.

localizer. the component of an ILS that provides course guidance to the runway.

localizer usable distance. the maximum distance from the localizer transmitter at a specified altitude, as verified

by flight inspection, at which reliable course information is continuously received.

longitudinal separation. the longitudinal spacing of aircraft at the same altitude by a minimum distance expressed

in units of time or miles.

low-altitude airway structure. the network of airways serving aircraft operations up to but not including 18,000

feet MSL.

low approach. an approach over an airport or runway following an instrument approach or a VFR approach

including the go-around maneuver where the pilot intentionally does not make contact with the runway.

LPV. a type of approach with vertical guidance (APV) based on WAAS, published on RNAV GPS approach charts.

This procedure takes advantage of the precise lateral guidance available from WAAS. The minima (smallest value)

is published as a decision altitude (DA).

mach number. the ratio of true airspeed to the speed of sound; e.g., Mach .82, Mach 1.6.

marker beacon. an electronic navigation facility transmitting a 75 MHz vertical fan or bone-shaped radiation

pattern. Marker beacons are identified by their modulation frequency and keying code, and when received by com-

patible airborne equipment, indicate to the pilot, both aurally and visually, that he or she is passing over the

facility.

maximum authorized altitude. a published altitude representing the maximum usable altitude or flight level for

an airspace structure or route segment. It is the highest altitude on a federal airway, jet route, area navigation low

or high route, or other direct route for which an MEA is designated in 14 CFR Part 95 at which adequate recep-

tion of navigation aid signals is assured.

metering. a method of time-regulating arrival traffic flow into a terminal area so as not to exceed a predetermined

terminal acceptance rate.


–GLOSSARY–

327

metering airports. airports adapted for metering and for which optimum flight paths are defined. A maximum

of 15 airports may be adapted.

metering fix. a fix along an established route from over which aircraft will be metered prior to entering terminal

airspace. Normally, this fix should be established at a distance from the airport that will facilitate a profile descent

10,000 feet or more above airport elevation (AAE).

metering position(s). adapted PVDs/MDMs and associated “D” positions eligible for display of a metering posi-

tion list. A maximum of four PVDs/MDMs may be adapted.

metering position list. an ordered list of data on arrivals for a selected metering airport displayed on a metering

position PVD/MDM.

microburst. a small downburst with outbursts of damaging winds extending 2.5 miles or less. In spite of its small

horizontal scale, an intense microburst could induce wind speeds as high as 150 knots.

middle marker. a marker beacon that defines a point along the glideslope of an ILS normally located at or near

the point of decision height (ILS Category I). It is keyed to transmit alternate dots and dashes, with the alternate

dots and dashes keyed at the rate of 95 dot/dash combinations per minute on a 1300 Hz tone, which is received

aurally and visually by compatible airborne equipment.

minimum crossing altitude (MCA). the lowest altitude at certain fixes at which an aircraft must cross when pro-

ceeding in the direction of a higher minimum en route IFR altitude (MEA).

minimum descent altitude (MDA). the lowest altitude, expressed in feet above MSL, to which descent is author-

ized on final approach or during circle-to-land maneuvering in execution of a standard instrument approach pro-

cedure where no electronic glideslope is provided.

minimum en route altitude (MEA). the lowest published altitude between radio fixes that assures acceptable nav-

igational signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements between those fixes. The MEA prescribed for

a federal airway or segment thereof, area navigation low or high route, or other direct route applies to the entire

width of the airway, segment, or route between the radio fixes defining the airway, segment, or route.

minimum IFR altitudes (MIA). minimum altitudes for IFR operations as prescribed in 14 CFR Part 91. These

altitudes are published on aeronautical charts and prescribed in 14 CFR Part 95 for airways and routes, and in

14 CFR Part 97 for standard instrument approach procedures. If no applicable minimum altitude is prescribed

in 14 CFR Part 95 or 14 CFR Part 97, the following minimum IFR altitude applies:

� in designated mountainous areas, 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance

of 4 NM from the course to be flown; or

� other than mountainous areas, 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of

4 NM from the course to be flown; or

� as otherwise authorized by the administrator or assigned by ATC.

minimum obstruction clearance altitude (MOCA). the lowest published altitude in effect between radio fixes

on VOR airways, off-airway routes, or route segments that meets obstacle clearance requirements for the entire


–GLOSSARY–

328

route segment and that assures acceptable navigational signal coverage only within 25 statute (22 nautical) miles

of a VOR.

minimum reception altitude (MRA). the lowest altitude at which an intersection can be determined.

minimum safe altitude.

� The minimum altitude specified in 14 CFR Part 91 for various aircraft operations.

� Altitudes depicted on approach charts that provide at least 1,000 feet of obstacle clearance for

emergency use within a specified distance from the navigation facility upon which a procedure is

predicated. These altitudes will be identified as Minimum Sector Altitudes or Emergency Safe Alti-

tudes and are established as follows:

1. minimum sector altitudes–altitudes depicted on approach charts that provide at least 1,000 feet

of obstacle clearance within a 25-mile radius of the navigation facility upon which the proce-

dure is predicated. Sectors depicted on approach charts must be at least 90 degrees in scope.

These altitudes are for emergency use only and do not necessarily assure acceptable naviga-

tional signal coverage.

2. emergency safe altitudes—altitudes depicted on approach charts that provide at least 1,000 feet

of obstacle clearance in nonmountainous areas and 2,000 feet of obstacle clearance in desig-

nated mountainous areas within a 100-mile radius of the navigation facility upon which the

procedure is predicated and normally used only in military procedures. These altitudes are

identified on published procedures as “Emergency Safe Altitudes.”

minimum vectoring altitude (MVA). the lowest MSL altitude at which an IFR aircraft will be vectored by a radar

controller, except as otherwise authorized for radar approaches, departures, and missed approaches. The altitude

meets IFR obstacle clearance criteria. It may be lower than the published MEA along an airway or J-route seg-

ment. It may be utilized for radar vectoring only on the controller’s determination that an adequate radar return

is being received from the aircraft being controlled. Charts depicting minimum vectoring altitudes are normally

available only to controllers and not to pilots.

missed approach point (MAP). a point prescribed in each instrument approach procedure at which a missed

approach procedure will be executed if the required visual reference does not exist.

mode. The letter or number assigned to a specific pulse spacing of radio signals transmitted or received by ground

interrogator or airborne transponder components of the Air Traffic Control Radar Beacon System (ATCRBS).

Mode A (military Mode 3) and Mode C (altitude reporting) are used in ATC.

movement area. the runways, taxiways, and other areas of an airport/heliport that are utilized for taxiing/hover

taxiing, air taxiing, takeoff, and landing of aircraft, exclusive of loading ramps and parking areas. At those air-

ports/heliports with a tower, specific approval for entry onto the movement area must be obtained from ATC.

moving target indicator. an electronic device that will permit radar scope presentation only from targets that are

in motion. A partial remedy for ground clutter.


–GLOSSARY–

329

National Airspace System (NAS). the common network of U.S. airspace; air navigation facilities, equipment and

services, airports, or landing areas; aeronautical charts, information ,and services; rules, regulations, and proce-

dures, technical information, and manpower and material. Included are system components shared jointly with

the military.

navigable airspace. airspace at and above the minimum flight altitudes prescribed in the CFRs including airspace

needed for safe takeoff and landing.

navigation reference system (NRS). the NRS is a system of waypoints developed for use within the United States

for flight planning and navigation without reference to ground-based navigational aids. The NRS waypoints are

located in a grid pattern along defined latitude and longitude lines. The initial use of the NRS will be in the high-

altitude environment in conjunction with the High-Altitude Redesign initiative. The NRS waypoints are intended

for use by aircraft capable of point-to-point navigation.

navigational aid (NAVAID). any visual or electronic device airborne or on the surface that provides point-to-

point guidance information or position data to aircraft in flight.

nonapproach control tower. authorizes aircraft to land or takeoff at the airport controlled by the tower or to tran-

sit the Class D airspace. The primary function of a nonapproach control tower is the sequencing of aircraft in the

traffic pattern and on the landing area. Nonapproach control towers also separate aircraft operating under IFR

clearances from approach controls and centers. They provide ground-control services to aircraft, vehicles, per-

sonnel, and equipment on the airport movement area.

nondirectional beacon. an L/MF or UHF radio beacon transmitting nondirectional signals whereby the pilot of

an aircraft equipped with direction finding equipment can determine his or her bearing to or from the radio bea-

con and “home” on or track to or from the station. When the radio beacon is installed in conjunction with the

instrument landing system marker, it is normally called a compass locator.

nonprecision approach procedure. a standard instrument approach procedure in which no electronic glideslope

is provided; e.g., VOR, TACAN, NDB, LOC, ASR, LDA, or SDF approaches.

nonradar. precedes other terms and generally means without the use of radar, such as

� nonradar approach—used to describe instrument approaches for which course guidance on final

approach is not provided by ground-based precision or surveillance radar. Radar vectors to the

final approach course may or may not be provided by ATC. Examples of nonradar approaches are

VOR, NDB, TACAN, and ILS/MLS approaches.

� nonradar approach control—an ATC facility providing approach control service without the use of

radar.

� nonradar arrival—an aircraft arriving at an airport without radar service or at an airport served by

a radar facility and radar contact has not been established or has been terminated due to a lack of

radar service to the airport.


–GLOSSARY–

330

� nonradar route—a flight path or route over which the pilot is performing his or her own naviga-

tion. The pilot may be receiving radar separation, radar monitoring, or other ATC services while

on a nonradar route.

� nonradar separation—the spacing of aircraft in accordance with established minima without the

use of radar; e.g., vertical, lateral, or longitudinal separation.

notice to airmen. a notice containing information (not known sufficiently in advance to publicize by other means)

concerning the establishment, condition, or change in any component, (facility, service, or procedure of, or haz-

ard in the NAS) the timely knowledge of which is essential to personnel concerned with flight operations.

� NOTAM(D)—a NOTAM given (in addition to local dissemination) distant dissemination beyond

the area of responsibility of the FSS. These NOTAMs will be stored and available until canceled.

� NOTAM(L)—a NOTAM given local dissemination by voice and other means, such as telautograph

and telephone, to satisfy local user requirements.

� FDC NOTAM—a NOTAM regulatory in nature, transmitted by U.S. NOTAM Office and given sys-

tem-wide dissemination.

obstacle departure procedure (ODP). a preplanned IFR departure procedure printed for pilot use in textual or

graphic form to provide obstruction clearance via the least onerous route from the terminal area to the appro-

priate en route structure. ODPs are recommended for obstruction clearance and may be flown without ATC clear-

ance unless an alternate departure procedure (SID or radar vector) has been specifically assigned by ATC.

obstruction light. a light or one of a group of lights, usually red or white, frequently mounted on a surface struc-

ture or natural terrain to warn pilots of the presence of an obstruction.

parallel ILS approaches. approaches to parallel runways by IFR aircraft that, when established inbound toward

the airport on the adjacent final approach courses, are radar-separated by at least 2 miles.

parallel offset route. a parallel track to the left or right of the designated or established airway/route. Normally

associated with RNAV operations.

parallel runways. two or more runways at the same airport whose centerlines are parallel. In addition to runway

number, parallel runways are designated as L (left) and R (right) or, if three parallel runways exist, L (left), C (cen-

ter), and R (right).

precision approach radar (PAR). radar equipment in some ATC facilities operated by the FAA and/or the mili-

tary services at joint-use civil/military locations and separate military installations to detect and display azimuth,

elevation, and range of aircraft on the final approach course to a runway. This equipment may be used to mon-

itor certain nonradar approaches, but is primarily used to conduct a PAR wherein the controller issues guidance

instructions to the pilot based on the aircraft’s position in relation to the final approach course (azimuth), the

glidepath (elevation), and the distance (range) from the touchdown point on the runway as displayed on the radar

scope.

preferential routes. preferential routes (PDRs, PARs, and PDARs) are adapted in ARTCC computers to accom-

plish inter/intrafacility controller coordination and to assure that flight data is posted at the proper control posi-


–GLOSSARY–

331

tions. Locations having a need for these specific inbound and outbound routes normally publish such routes in

local facility bulletins, and their use by pilots minimizes flight plan route amendments. When the workload or

traffic situation permits, controllers normally provide radar vectors or assign requested routes to minimize cir-

cuitous routing. Preferential routes are usually confined to one ARTCC’s area and are referred to by the follow-

ing names or acronyms:

� preferential departurer route (PDR)—a specific departure route from an airport or terminal area

to an en route point where there is no further need for flow control. It may be included in an

Instrument Departure Procedure (DP) or a Preferred IFR Route.

� preferential arrival route (PAR)—a specific arrival route from an appropriate en route point to an

airport or terminal area. It may be included in a Standard Terminal Arrival (STAR) or a Preferred

IFR Route. The abbreviation “PAR” is used primarily within the ARTCC and should not be con-

fused with the abbreviation for precision approach radar.

� preferential departure and arrival route (PDAR)—a route between two terminals that are within or

immediately adjacent to one ARTCC’s area. PDARs are not synonymous with Preferred IFR Routes

but may be listed as such as they do accomplish essentially the same purpose.

preferred IFR routes. routes established between busier airports to increase system efficiency and capacity. They

normally extend through one or more ARTCC areas and are designed to achieve balanced traffic flows among

high-density terminals. IFR clearances are issued on the basis of these routes except when severe weather avoid-

ance procedures or other factors dictate otherwise. Preferred IFR Routes are listed in the Airport/Facility Direc-

tory. If a flight is planned to or from an area having such routes but the departure or arrival point is not listed in

the Airport/Facility Directory, pilots may use that part of a preferred IFR route that is appropriate for the depar-

ture or arrival point that is listed. Preferred IFR Routes are correlated with DPs and STARs and may be defined

by airways, jet routes, direct routes between NAVAIDs, Waypoints, NAVAID radials/DME, or any combinations

thereof.

procedure turn. the maneuver prescribed when it is necessary to reverse direction to establish an aircraft on the

intermediate approach segment or final approach course. The outbound course, direction of turn, distance within

which the turn must be completed, and minimum altitude are specified in the procedure. However, unless oth-

erwise restricted, the point at which the turn may be commenced and the type and rate of turn are left to the dis-

cretion of the pilot.

protected airspace. the airspace on either side of an oceanic route/track that is equal to one-half the lateral sep-

aration minimum except where reduction of protected airspace has been authorized.

radar. a device that, by measuring the time interval between transmission and reception of radio pulses and cor-

relating the angular orientation of the radiated antenna beam or beams in azimuth and/or elevation, provides

information on range, azimuth, and/or elevation of objects in the path of the transmitted pulses.

� primary radar—a radar system in which a minute portion of a radio pulse transmitted from a site

is reflected by an object and then received back at that site for processing and display at an ATC

facility.


–GLOSSARY–

332

� secondary radar/radar beacon (ATCRBS)—a radar system in which the object to be detected is fit-

ted with cooperative equipment in the form of a radio receiver/transmitter (transponder). Radar

pulses transmitted from the searching transmitter/receiver (interrogator) site are received in the

cooperative equipment and used to trigger a distinctive transmission from the transponder. This

reply transmission, rather than a reflected signal, is then received back at the transmitter/receiver

site for processing and display at an ATC facility.

radar approach. an instrument approach procedure that utilizes Precision Approach Radar (PAR) or Airport Sur-

veillance Radar (ASR).

radar approach control facility. a terminal ATC facility that uses radar and nonradar capabilities to provide

approach control services to aircraft arriving, departing, or transiting airspace controlled by the facility.

� provides radar ATC services to aircraft operating in the vicinity of one or more civil and/or mili-

tary airports in a terminal area. The facility may provide services of a ground-controlled approach

(GCA); i.e., ASR and PAR approaches. A radar approach control facility may be operated by the

FAA, U.S. Air Force, U.S. Army, U.S. Navy, U.S. Marine Corps, or jointly by FAA and a military

service. Specific facility nomenclatures are used only for administrative purposes and are related to

the physical location of the facility and the operating service generally as follows:

1. Army Radar Approach Control (ARAC) (Army).

2. Radar Air Traffic Control Facility (RATCF) (Navy/FAA).

3. Radar Approach Control (RAPCON) (Air Force/FAA).

4. Terminal Radar Approach Control (TRACON) (FAA).

5. Air Traffic Control Tower (ATCT) (FAA). (Only those towers delegated

approach control authority.)

radar arrival. an aircraft arriving at an airport served by a radar facility and in radar contact with the facility.

radar required. a term displayed on charts and approach plates and included in FDC NOTAMs to alert pilots that

segments of either an instrument approach procedure or a route are not navigable because of either the absence

or unusability of a NAVAID. The pilot can expect to be provided radar navigational guidance while transiting seg-

ments labeled with this term.

radar route. a flight path or route over which an aircraft is vectored. Navigational guidance and altitude assign-

ments are provided by ATC.

remote airport information service (RAIS). a temporary service provided by facilities that are not located on

the landing airport but have communication capability and automated weather reporting available to the pilot

at the landing airport.

RNAV approach. an instrument approach procedure that relies on aircraft area navigation equipment for navi-

gational guidance.

route. a defined path, consisting of one or more courses in a horizontal plane, that aircraft traverse over the sur-

face of the earth.


–GLOSSARY–

333

runway. a defined rectangular area on a land airport prepared for the landing and takeoff run of aircraft along

its length. Runways are normally numbered in relation to their magnetic direction rounded off to the nearest 10

degrees; e.g., Runway 1, Runway 25.

runway gradient. the average slope, measured in percent, between two ends or points on a runway. Runway gra-

dient is depicted on government aerodrome sketches when total runway gradient exceeds 0.3%.

runway heading. the magnetic direction that corresponds with the runway centerline extended, not the painted

runway number. When cleared to “fly or maintain runway heading,” pilots are expected to fly or maintain the head-

ing that corresponds with the extended centerline of the departure runway. Drift correction will not be applied;

e.g., Runway 4, actual magnetic heading of the runway centerline 044, fly 044.

runway in use/active runway/duty runway. any runway or runways currently being used for takeoff or landing.

When multiple runways are used, they are all considered active runways. In the metering sense, a selectable adapted

item that specifies the landing runway configuration or direction of traffic flow. The adapted optimum flight plan

from each transition fix to the vertex is determined by the runway configuration for arrival metering processing

purposes.

see and avoid. when weather conditions permit, pilots operating IFR or VFR are required to observe and maneu-

ver to avoid other aircraft. Right-of-way rules are contained in 14 CFR Part 91.

segments of an instrument approach procedure. an instrument approach procedure may have as many as four

separate segments depending on how the approach procedure is structured.

� initial approach—the segment between the initial approach fix and the intermediate fix or the

point where the aircraft is established on the intermediate course or final approach course.

� intermediate approach—the segment between the intermediate fix or point and the final approach

fix.

� final approach—the segment between the final approach fix or point and the runway, airport, or

missed approach point.

� missed approach—the segment between the missed approach point or the point of arrival at deci-

sion height and the missed approach fix at the prescribed altitude.

separation. in ATC, the spacing of aircraft to achieve their safe and orderly movement in flight and while land-

ing and taking off.

separation minima. the minimum longitudinal, lateral, or vertical distances by which aircraft are spaced through

the application of ATC procedures.

severe weather avoidance plan (SWAP). an approved plan to minimize the affect of severe weather on traffic flows

in impacted terminal and/or ARTCC areas. SWAP is normally implemented to provide the least disruption to the

ATC system when flight through portions of airspace is difficult or impossible due to severe weather.

severe weather forecast alerts. preliminary messages issued in order to alert users that a Severe Weather Watch

Bulletin (WW) is being issued. These messages define areas of possible severe thunderstorms or tornado activ-


–GLOSSARY–

334

ity. The messages are unscheduled and issued as required by the Storm Prediction Center (SPC) at Norman,

Oklahoma.

short range clearance. a clearance issued to a departing IFR flight that authorizes IFR flight to a specific fix short

of the destination while ATC facilities are coordinating and obtaining the complete clearance.

SIGMET. a weather advisory issued concerning weather significant to the safety of all aircraft. SIGMET advisories

cover severe and extreme turbulence, severe icing, and widespread dust or sandstorms that reduce visibility to

less than 3 miles.

special VFR conditions. meteorological conditions that are less than those required for basic VFR flight in Class

B, C, D, or E surface areas and in which some aircraft are permitted flight under VFR.

special VFR operations. aircraft operating in accordance with clearances within Class B, C, D, and E surface areas

in weather conditions less than the basic VFR weather minima. Such operations must be requested by the pilot

and approved by ATC.

standard instrument departure (SID). a preplanned IFR ATC departure procedure printed for pilot/controller

use in graphic form to provide obstacle clearance and a transition from the terminal area to the appropriate en

route structure. SIDs are primarily designed for system enhancement to expedite traffic flow and to reduce

pilot/controller workload. ATC clearance must always be received prior to flying a SID.

standard rate turn. a turn of three degrees per second.

standard terminal arrival. a preplanned IFR ATC arrival procedure published for pilot use in graphic and/or tex-

tual form. STARs provide transition from the en route structure to an outer fix or an instrument approach

fix/arrival waypoint in the terminal area.

TACTICAL air navigation (TACAN). an ultrahigh frequency electronic rho-theta air navigation aid that provides

suitably equipped aircraft a continuous indication of bearing and distance to the TACAN station.

terminal area facility. a facility providing ATC service for arriving and departing IFR, VFR, Special VFR, and on

occasion en route aircraft.

terminal radar service area (TRSA).Airspace surrounding designated airports wherein ATC provides radar vec-

toring, sequencing, and separation on a full-time basis for all IFR and participating VFR aircraft. The AIM con-

tains an explanation of TRSA. TRSAs are depicted on VFR aeronautical charts. Pilot participation is urged but is

not mandatory.

terminal VFR radar service. a national program instituted to extend the terminal radar services provided IFR

aircraft to VFR aircraft. The program is divided into four types service.

The type of service provided at a particular location is contained in the Airport/Facility Directory.

� basic radar service—These services are provided for VFR aircraft by all commissioned terminal

radar facilities. Basic radar service includes safety alerts, traffic advisories, limited radar vectoring

when requested by the pilot, and sequencing at locations where procedures have been established

for this purpose and/or when covered by a letter of agreement. The purpose of this service is to

adjust the flow of arriving IFR and VFR aircraft into the traffic pattern in a safe and orderly man-


–GLOSSARY–

335

ner and to provide traffic advisories to departing VFR aircraft.

� TRSA service—This service provides, in addition to basic radar service, sequencing of all IFR and

participating VFR aircraft to the primary airport and separation between all participating VFR air-

craft. The purpose of this service is to provide separation between all participating VFR aircraft

and all IFR aircraft operating within the area defined as a TRSA.

� Class C service—This service provides, in addition to basic radar service, approved separation

between IFR and VFR aircraft, and sequencing of VFR aircraft, and sequencing of VFR arrivals to

the primary airport.

� Class B service—This service provides, in addition to basic radar service, approved separation of

aircraft based on IFR, VFR, and/or weight, and sequencing of VFR arrivals to the primary

airport(s).

tower. a terminal facility that uses air-ground communications, visual signaling, and other devices to provide ATC

services to aircraft operating in the vicinity of an airport or on the movement area. Authorizes aircraft to land or

takeoff at the airport controlled by the tower or to transit the Class D airspace area regardless of flight plan (IFR

or VFR) or weather conditions. A tower may also provide approach control services (radar or nonradar).

tower en route control service. the control of IFR en route traffic within delegated airspace between two or more

adjacent approach control facilities. This service is designed to expedite traffic and reduce control and pilot com-

munication requirements.

transponder. the airborne radar beacon receiver/transmitter portion of the Air Traffic Control Radar Beacon Sys-

tem (ATCRBS) that automatically receives radio signals from interrogators on the ground, and selectively replies

with a specific reply pulse or pulse group only to those interrogations being received on the mode to which it is

set to respond.

user request evaluation tool (URET). an automated tool provided at each radar associate position in selected en

route facilities. This tool utilizes flight and radar data to determine present and future trajectories for all active

and proposal aircraft and provides enhanced, automated flight data management.

VFR aircraft. an aircraft conducting flight in accordance with visual flight rules.

VFR conditions. weather conditions equal to or better than the minimum for flight under visual flight rules. The

term may be used as an ATC clearance/instruction only when:

� an IFR aircraft requests a climb/descent in VFR conditions.

� the clearance will result in noise abatement benefits where part of the IFR departure route does not

conform to an FAA approved noise abatement route or altitude.

� a pilot has requested a practice instrument approach and is not on an IFR flight plan.

Note: all pilots receiving this authorization must comply with the VFR visibility and distance from cloud crite-

ria in 14 CFR Part 91. Use of the term does not relieve controllers of their responsibility to separate aircraft in

Class B and Class C airspace or TRSAs as required by FAAO JO 7110.65. When used as an ATC clearance/instruc-

tion, the term may be abbreviated “VFR,” as in “maintain VFR,” and “climb/descend VFR.”


–GLOSSARY–

336

visual approach. an approach conducted on an IFR flight plan that authorizes the pilot to proceed visually and

clear of clouds to the airport. The pilot must, at all times, have either the airport or the preceding aircraft in sight.

This approach must be authorized and under the control of the appropriate ATC facility. Reported weather at

the airport must be ceiling at or above 1,000 feet and visibility of 3 miles or greater.

visual flight rules (VFR). rules that govern the procedures for conducting flight under visual conditions. The term

“VFR” is also used in the United States to indicate weather conditions that are equal to or greater than minimum

VFR requirements. In addition, it is used by pilots and controllers to indicate type of flight plan.

visual meteorological conditions. Meteorological conditions expressed in terms of visibility, distance from cloud,

and ceiling equal to or better than specified minima.

visual separation. a means employed by ATC to separate aircraft in terminal areas and en route airspace in the

NAS. There are two ways to effect this separation:

� The tower controller sees the aircraft involved and issues instructions, as necessary, to ensure that

the aircraft avoid each other.

� A pilot sees the other aircraft involved and upon instructions from the controller provides his or

her own separation by maneuvering his or her aircraft as necessary to avoid it. This may involve

following another aircraft or keeping it in sight until it is no longer a factor.

voice switching and control system (VSCS). the VSCS is a computer-controlled switching system that provides

controllers with all voice circuits (air-to-ground and ground-to-ground) necessary for ATC.

VOR. a ground-based electronic navigation aid transmitting very high-frequency navigation signals, 360 degrees

in azimuth, oriented from magnetic north. Used as the basis for navigation in the NAS. The VOR periodically

identifies itself by Morse Code and may have an additional voice identification feature. Voice features may be used

by ATC or FSS for transmitting instructions/information to pilots.

VORTAC. a navigation aid providing VOR azimuth, TACAN azimuth, and TACAN distance measuring equip-

ment (DME) at one site.

wide-area augmentation system (WAAS). the WAAS is a satellite navigation system consisting of the equipment

and software that augments the GPS Standard Positioning Service (SPS). The WAAS provides enhanced integrity,

accuracy, availability, and continuity over and above GPS SPS. The differential correction function provides

improved accuracy required for precision approach.


–NOTES–


–NOTES–


Documents

ATCO Reviewer