A+_PDFQ

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Security Threats & Authentication, Network Level Security & Firewall Installation Question 1 Which is the most likely reason that Micro-ATX form factor motherboards had fewer expansion slots than ATX form factor motherboards?

A. The Micro-ATX CPU clock speed was too slow B. The Micro-ATX was designed to fit in smaller cases C. The Micro-ATX power supply could not support many slots D. The Micro-ATX chipset was typically incompatible with many bus types

Answer: B

Question 2 Which measurement is closest to the full-size ATX form factor?

A. 6 x 4.6 inches B. 6.5 x 6 inches C. 10 x 6.5 inches D. 12 x 9.6 inches

Answer: D

Question 3 Which are typically found on motherboards? Select all that apply.

A. RAM slots B. Lithium battery C. Processor socket D. Hard disk drive

Answer: A-C

Question 4 Which is a common term used for the Memory Controller Hub (MCH) on Intel motherboards?

A. Northbridge B. Southbridge C. Central Processing Unit D. I/O Controller Hub (ICH)

Answer: A


Question 5 What is the name of the point-to-point connection used by each link in a PCIe device?

A. Bus B. Plug C. Lane D. Tunnel

Answer: C

Question 6 Which are functions of a CPU socket? Select all that apply.

A. Houses the CPU B. Houses system memory stores C. Enables easy replacement of the CPU D. Physically supports the CPU and heat sink

Answer: A, C, and D

Question 7 Which label is likely to be on a connector for the power light?

A. HDD LED B. PWR OFF C. POWER SW D. POWER LED

Answer: D

Question 8 Which connector would most likely be used to connect to an IDE DVD drive?

A. Mini B. PCIe C. SATA D. Molex

Answer: D

Question 9 Which is the maximum size of a Micro-ATX form factor motherboard?

A. 6 x 6 inches B. 6 x 9.6 inches C. 9 x 9.6 inches D. 9.6 x 9.6 inches


Answer: D

Question 10 Which are currently the most common motherboard form factors? Select all that apply.

A. AT B. ITX C. ATX D. Micro-ATX

Answer: B-D

Question 11 Which made it difficult for manufacturers to support or license RDRAM?

A. RDRAM was not fast enough B. RDRAM was not compatible with PCs C. RDRAM was not part of the JEDEC standard D. RDRAM could not hold enough memory

Answer: C

Question 12 A user has a 100 MHz system bus on the motherboard. Which SDRAM speed should be installed?

A. 66 MHz B. 100 MHz C. 133 MHz D. 200 MHz

Answer: B

Question 13 Which are improvements of DDR3 over DDR2? Select all that apply. A. Higher reliability B. Better storage capabilities C. Lower power consumption D. Higher levels of performance Answer: A, C, and D


Question 14 How many pins does a standard DDR2 module require?

A. 240 B. 333 C. 533 D. 800

Question 15 The original DDR is actually SDRAM that has been double pumped, meaning that twice the data is transferred but at the same __________.

A. RAM B. down flow C. clock speed D. megabytes per second

Answer: B

Question 16 Which are differences between SRAM and DRAM? Select all that apply.

A. DRAM is slower than SRAM B. DRAM is volatile and requires power to retain data C. SRAM is easily replaced and added to the motherboard D. SRAM does not need refreshing, while DRAM needs to be refreshed

Answer: A and D

Question 17 A single-sided memory module may have chips on both physical sides or on just one side. Which is the reason it is named single-sided?

A. The memory is stored on just one side B. The computer can address all the chips at once C. Information is transferred from one side at a time D. It is the only stick available on that side of the computer

Answer: B

Question 18 Which is a result of installing dual-channel RAM?

A. 32-bit bus B. 64-bit bus C. 128-bit bus D. 256-bit bus


Answer: C

Question 19 Which are considerations when determining the configuration of RAM? Select all that apply.

A. RDRAM B. Memory latency C. Single-sided or double-sided D. Single-channel or dual-channel

Answer: B-D

Question 20 ECC RAM is not always supported by new PCs. Which will disable ECC if it is supported?

A. BIOS B. Parity C. DIMM D. Memory latency

Answer: A

Question 21 Which are types of RAM? Select all that apply.

A. CPU B. DDR C. DIMM D. SDRAM E. Rambus

Answer: B, D, and E

Question 22 The DDR DIMM has 184 pins and is not compatible with __________.

A. PC 1600 B. DDR 333 C. DDR 400 D. 168-pin SDRAM DIMMs

Answer: D


Question 23 As part of the main memory of the CPU, RAM is used to do which?

A. Store or retrieve data B. Permanently store information C. Create space on the hard drive D. Find random bits of information

Answer: A

Question 24 Which are ways to keep the computer CPU cool? Select all that apply.

A. Keep case open for air B. Use a good thermal compound C. Ensure all fans are functional and turn freely D. Keep heat sinks and interior of case free from dust

Answer: B-D

Question 25 Most new CPU heat sinks contain factory-applied thermal compound that spreads and fills gaps automatically after installing the heat sink and booting the computer. TRUE FALSE Answer: True

Question 26 Generally heat sinks have been made of aluminum, but more recently they have been made out of which material?

A. Steel B. Plastic C. Copper D. Rubber

Answer: C

Question 27 On a laptop, the GPU is integrated with which element?

A. Slot rate B. Registers C. Motherboard D. Disk controller


Answer: C

Question 28 Multicore CPUs contain two or more actual processor cores. TRUE FALSE Answer: True

Question 29 Hyper-threading is the basically the same as HyperTransport. TRUE FALSE Answer: False

Question 30 Which is typically the largest CPU cache?

A. L0 B. L1 C. L2 D. L3

Answer: D

Question 31 Which term describes the speed of a component?

A. Slot rate B. AMD rate C. Clock rate D. Socket rate

Answer: C

Question 32 Which are names of different types of CPU? Select all that apply.

A. Core i7 B. Athlon 64 C. Phenom X4 D. Core i7 Extreme


Answer: A-D

Question 33 64-bit CPUs use a type of CPU architecture that incorporates which elements that are 64 bits wide?

A. Names B. Posters C. Receipts D. Registers

Answer: D

Question 34 Which type of sockets use lands that protrude out and touch the CPU's contact points?

A. 775 B. LGA C. PGA D. 1155

Answer: B

Question 35 Which does dual-channel architecture essentially do?

A. Doubles DDR2 clock speed B. Doubles the data throughput C. Creates multiple docks for DIMMs D. Creates two different channels for video

Answer: B

Question 36 If the equation for data transfer rate is, Clock speed x bytes x 2 = Data Transfer Rate, which is the data transfer rate for a DDR-333 with a clock speed of 166 MHz and a 64-bit-wide bus?

A. 2,667 MBps B. 3,200 MBps C. 2,133 MBps D. 1,600 MBps

Answer: A


Question 37 The DDR2 has a faster signal than DDR1. Which feature makes DDR2 faster?

A. Additional pins B. Additional memory C. Additional sticks D. Additional RAM

Answer: A

Question 38 Which are pin formats for SO-DIMMs? Select all that apply.

A. DDR 200-pin B. DDR2 200-pin C. DDR3 204-pin D. DDR4 204-pin E. SDRAM 144-pin

Answer: A-C, E

Question 39 Which is the best way for a user to determine whether their RAM will be compatible with the motherboard?

A. Go to a computer store and ask B. Search for the motherboard model via Google C. Go to Microsoft's Web site and search for the DRAM model D. Go to the RAM manufacturer's Web site and search for the motherboard model

Answer: D

Question 40 Multicore systems should have at least how many extra exhaust fans mounted to the back of the case?

A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four

Answer: A


Question 41 Which is the most efficient cache memory?

A. L1 B. L2 C. L3 D. HTTP

Answer: B

Question 42 Which term is used for the interface that connects a CPU to a motherboard?

A. Socket B. Pocket C. PCI slot D. AGP Slot

Answer: A

Question 43 A CPU socket is the electrical interface between the CPU and which other element?

A. Case B. RAM C. Motherboard D. Disk controller

Answer: C

Question 44 Which is a reason to be careful with low-level formatting?

A. Formatting may scramble files B. Formatting destroys data on the drive C. The system security could be compromised D. Formatting too often may use up all memory space

Answer: B

Question 45 In which area could a user see the voltage used by the components of the motherboard?

A. IEEE B. BIOS C. BYOS D. Windows OS


Answer: B

Question 46 Which is part of temperature monitoring?

A. Humidity B. Fan speed C. Computer usage D. Room temperature

Answer: B

Question 47 Which types of media do optical drives support? Select all that apply.

A. CD B. USB C. DVD D. Blu-ray

Answer: A, C, and D

Question 48 Which component holds the read/write head for a hard drive?

A. Platter B. Spindle C. Actuator arm D. Jumper Block

Answer: C

Question 49 Which is the go-between from the CPU and the RAM?

A. Memory controller B. SRAM C. DRAM D. ROM

Answer: A


Question 50 Which are types of drive encryption? Select all that apply.

A. Trusted platform module B. LoJack module C. CMOS D. UEFI

Answer: A and B

Question 51 Which can the BIOS monitor?

A. RAM usage B. Clock speed C. Search history D. HDs installed

Answer: B

Question 52 To have a secure system with boot device priority, which is recommended?

A. Reboot the system daily B. Delete any unused media devices C. Set boot device priority to hard drive first D. Remove boot device priority from the system

Answer: C

Question 53 Which keyboard shortcuts allow a user to access the BIOS to configure it? Select all that apply.

A. F1 B. F2 C. F10 D. DEL E. CTRL+DEL

Answer: A-D


Question 54 Which are connectors a TV tuner card might use to connect to a computer? Select all that apply.

A. PCI B. USB C. PS/2 D. PCIe

Answer: A, B, and D

Question 55 Which option represents the maximum data rate for 802.11b?

A. 6.5 Mbps B. 11 Mbps C. 54 Mbps D. 600 Mbps

Answer: B

Question 56 Which would you typically see on a recently manufactured video card? Select all that apply.

A. RAM B. GPU C. DVI port D. Fan and heat sink

Answer: A-D

Question 57 Which operating system requires a CD-ROM audio cable to play audio from a CD-ROM drive through the sound card?

A. Windows 7 B. Windows XP C. Windows 2000 D. Windows Vista

Answer: C

Question 58 Which is the fastest expansion bus?

A. PCI B. ISA C. AGP D. PCIe


Answer: D

Question 59 Which are expansion cards which can be added to a PC? Select all that apply.

A. Modem B. Sound card C. Network card D. Computer speakers

Answer: A-C

Question 60 Which are processes that can be done by built-in diagnostics in the BIOS? Select all that apply.

A. CPU tests B. SFC tests C. Drive tests D. Memory tests E. Low-level formatting

Answer: A, C-E

Question 61 For a secure system, enter a strong __________ password.

A. user B. supervisor C. encrypted D. self-configuring

Answer: B

Question 62 Which is the main function of the central processing unit?

A. Bootstrapping B. RW Blu-ray discs C. Execute instructions D. Install firmware upgrades

Answer: C


Question 63 Which is the main purpose of RAM in the CPU?

A. Memory B. Calculate C. Anti-malware D. Add clock speed

Answer: A

Question 64 Which is a reason to use a riser card in a PC? Select all that apply.

A. A computer case is too small for a legacy card necessary for custom software B. A modem is needed for a motherboard in an ATX case C. A motherboard with one PCI slot requires two additional slots D. A motherboard that has no on-board sound and only PCI slots available

Answer: A and C

Question 65 The network card is the _______________ between the PC and the network.

A. modem B. internet C. protocol D. interface

Answer: D

Question 66 Which motherboard slot is the best option when connecting a USB 3.0 expansion card?

A. ISA B. PCI C. AGP D. PCIe

Answer: D

Question 67 A CD-RW can hold up to how much data?

A. 650 MB B. 900 MB C. 950 MB D. 1,000 MB


Answer: A

Question 68 Which are functions of CDs, DVDs, and Blu-ray discs? Select all that apply.

A. Data storage and access B. Audio storage and playback C. Video storage and playback D. Unlimited data storage E. Application access and installation

Answer: A-C, E

Question 69 How many disks can RAID 5 use?

A. Minimum of 3 B. Minimum of 2 C. Minimum of 5 D. Only 2

Answer: A

Question 70 When each disk is connected to a separate controller, this is known as __________ __________.

A. Striping parity B. Multiple disks C. Disk duplexing D. Fault tolerance

Answer: C

Question 71 Fault tolerance is determining, if something happens to one disk, whether the data can be retrieved. Which RAID level has no fault tolerance?

A. RAID 0 B. RAID 1 C. RAID 5 D. RAID 10

Answer: A


Question 72 Which does RAID stand for?

A. Random access industry drives B. Round advanced independent drives C. Redundant array of inexpensive disks D. Recovery advantage of intelligent disks

Answer: C

Question 73 Which is a primary use for a tape drive?

A. Music storage B. Software updates C. Archival data storage D. Security data storage

Answer: C

Question 74 Floppy disks are not used as often as they were ten years ago. Which are reasons they are still used today?

A. Gaming B. New updates C. Special boot disks D. Store important data

Answer: C

Question 75 SSDs use __________ to store data instead of moving parts used in platter-based hard drives.

A. microSD B. media drives C. optical drives D. memory chips

Answer: D


Question 76 Which three data transfer rates are SD cards divided into?

A. Class 2 B. Class 4 C. Class 6 D. Class 8

Answer: A-C

Question 77 SD cards are technically similar to which type of device?

A. Hard drive B. Floppy drive C. USB flash drive D. Community drive

Answer: C

Question 78 Which are CompactFlash Type 1 cards used in? Select all that apply.

A. Microdrives B. High-end cameras C. Handheld computers D. Desktop gaming computers

Answer: B and C

Question 79 If a user is looking to purchase a USB flash drive, and they want to know how many times it can be written to before failure occurs. Which would be the best answer to give them?

A. Exactly the number that the manufacturers say B. The number depends on the amount of usage C. Google the USB drive and find what people say online D. Take the number that the manufacturers list and cut it in half

Answer: D

Question 80 Which is the name for media with no moving parts?

A. Mass media B. Optical media C. Magnetic media D. Solid-state media


Answer: D

Question 81 If the latency is directly related to rotational speed and is usually half the time it takes to rotate the disk once, which is the average latency of 7200 rpm?

A. 4.2 ms B. 3.0 ms C. 5.6 ms D. 2.8 ms

Answer: A

Question 82 Internal PATA uses which type of interface to transmit data to and from the motherboard?

A. IDE B. UAC C. SOX D. DIMM

Answer: A

Question 83 The BASE-R standards requires which type of cable?

A. Sheathed B. Fiberoptic C. Twisted-pair D. Shielded copper twisted pair

Answer: C

Question 84 Which device might use eSATA?

A. Modem B. Cellular WAN C. Internal hard disks D. External hard disks

Answer: D


Question 85 Which is the most common USB version?

A. USB 1.0 B. USB 1.1 C. USB 2.0 D. USB 3.0

Answer: C

Question 86 USB stands for which option?

A. Universal serial bus B. Unpaired single bus C. Universal system bus D. United system bridge

Answer: A

Question 87 The SCSI controller usually gets which ID?

A. ID 2 B. ID 5 C. ID 7 D. ID 0

Answer: D

Question 88 The motherboard IDE connection allows for which two types of drives?

A. Slave B. Master C. Minion D. Overseer

Answer: A and B

Question 89 BD-R refers to two optical disc formats that can be recorded with an optical disc recorder. TRUE FALSE


Answer: True

Question 90 Which is the most common type of DVD?

a. DVD-5 b. DVD-R SL c. DVD+R SL d. DVD-R DL

Answer: A

Question 91 Data CDs can be read only from a compatible CD-ROM drive. TRUE FALSE Answer: True

Question 92 Which is the definition of parity?

A. Data is copied to two identical disks. B. Data is placed across multiple disks in an effort to increase performance C. If one disk fails, the array can reconstruct the data from this information D. A program specifically designed to retrieve, interpret, and display information

Answer: C

Question 93 A tape drive can be internal or external. If it is internal, which might it connect to?

A. FAT12 B. Parallel port C. USB, IEEE 1394 D. SCSI controller card

Answer: D

Question 94 Which is an advantage of having an SSD in a portable computer?

A. Less expensive B. Faster boot time C. Longer battery life D. More storage capacity


Answer: C

Question 95 CF cards can have which types of technologies builtin? Select all that apply.

A. WLAN B. SDRAM C. Ethernet D. Bluetooth

Answer: A, C, and D

Question 96 Which are examples of solid-state cards? Select all that apply.

A. SD B. USB C. Internal SATA D. CompactFlash

Answer: A and D

Question 97 Which are typical speeds for hard drives? Select all that apply.

A. 7200 rpm B. 5400 rpm C. 6800 rpm D. 10,000 rpm

Answer: A, B, and D

Question 98 What is the maximum data transfer rate for the IEEE 1394b?

A. 1.5 Gbps B. 400 Mbps C. 500 Mbps D. 800 Mbps

Answer: D


Question 99 What is the maximum length of USB version 2.0 cables?

A. 2 meters B. 3 meters C. 5 meters D. 10 meters

Answer: C

Question 100 Which option represents the number of pins on a VGA connector? 7 12 15 24 Answer: C

Question 101 What is the maximum length of a FireWire 400 cable?

A. 8 meters B. 10 meters C. 4.5 meters D. 5.4 meters

Answer: C

Question 102 Which is the data transfer rate of FireWire 400?

A. 100 Mbps B. 200 Mbps C. 400 Mbps D. 800 Mbps

Answer: C

Question 103 Which specific type of fans move a larger volume of air and typically produce less noise pollution than their smaller cousins?

A. 75mm B. 80mm C. 100mm D. 120mm


Answer: D

Question 104 A single-core processor and 3.2 GHz are the recommended as a minimal specification for a gaming processor. TRUE FALSE Answer: False

Question 105 An HTPC and other convergence devices integrate components of a home theater into a unit co-located with a home entertainment system TRUE FALSE Answer: True

Question 106 What is a RAID array?

A. A third-party hardware connection drive B. A data storage scheme that uses multiple drives C. A status indicator that watches for hardware failure D. A power generator that allows a system to operate during a component or environmental

failure Answer: B

Question 107 Which systems use simple file sharing by default? Select all that apply.

A. Windows 7 B. Windows Vista C. Windows XP Home Edition D. Windows XP Professional

Answer: C and D


Question 108 Which option is functional whether connected to a network or not?

A. Macro-ATX B. Thin clients C. Thick clients D. Smart clients

Answer: C

Question 109 Which is a stateless, fanless desktop appliance?

A. Thin client B. Thick client C. Compact card D. RAM processor

Answer: A

Question 110 For which reason do users need a large, fast hard drive when editing video?

A. WEP objectives B. Connector sizes C. Video files are very large D. The wattage requirements

Answer: C

Question 111 In Windows, selecting which option will allow users to see how much RAM they currently have.

A. ATC B. Insert C. Properties D. Documents

Answer: C

Question 112 The graphics processor handles the taking of commands from the CPU and translating them into coordinates and color information for which element understand?

A. IRF B. CAT C. Molex D. Monitor


Answer: D

Question 113 The HDMI output delivers video signals in which type of format without analog conversion?

A. VGA B. Digital C. Type A D. Type B

Answer: B

Question 114 Which is another name for thick client?

A. Wide client B. Large client C. Deep client D. Heavy client

Answer: D

Question 115 A video card is composed of which two major components?

A. Video RAM B. CAX channels C. Menu controllers D. Video processor GPU

Answer: A and D

Question 116 Which options do not represent a device that converts analog signal to a digital format?

A. Scanner B. Keyboard C. Web camera D. Bar code reader E. Game controller F. Mouse

Answer: B, E, and F


Question 117 Game pads and joysticks are connected to a PC using which type of medium? Select all that apply.

A. USB B. PS/2 C. Game ports D. The network

Answer: A and C

Question 118 Which are bar code readers designed to read?

A. CAP B. UPC C. KVM D. DRAM

Answer: B

Question 119 If a user travels often with a scanner, which would be the best suggestion for them?

A. Pack the scanner with other machines B. Take the scanner only if there is no other option C. Secure the lid to reduce damage to the glass tray D. Use the locking mechanism for the scanner light assembly

Answer: D

Question 120 When installing a scanner, which type of devices are used? Select all that apply.

A. USB B. PS/2 C. TWAIN D. Firewire

Answer: A, C, and D

Question 121 Which is important to remember when connecting a KVM?

A. Do not cross the cables B. KVM affects the bus speed C. Do not forget to get the adapters D. The scanner can be only used with the switch


Answer: A

Question 122 Which best describes a touch screen?

A. An information kiosk that provides person/computer interaction B. A mobile unit which enables interaction through touch technology C. A monitor that allows interaction between computers of the same touch quality D. A video display that detects the presence of a finger that enables interaction with the operating

system. Answer: D

Question 123 Which is a cause of the enhanced pointer precision option in some applications for the mouse?

A. Erratic mouse movement B. Automatically turns on Clicklock C. The double-click becomes too sensitive D. Switching primary and secondary buttons does not work

Answer: A

Question 124 Which types of ports are used by a mouse or by a keyboard? Select all that apply.

A. USB B. PS/2 C. SATA D. Wireless

Answer: A, B, and D

Question 125 Which types of connections can a microphone use to connect to a PC? Select all that apply.

A. USB B. PS/2 C. 10-pin D. 1/8-inch mini jack

Answer: A and D


Question 126 Which type of connector does a MIDI device use to enable control and exchange of data? Select all that apply.

A. USB B. RJ-45 C. Mini-jack D. 5-pin DIN

Answer: A-D

Question 127 Which type of multimedia device uses a USB connection? Select all that apply.

A. MIDI B. Camcorder C. Microphone D. Touch screen

Answer: A-C

Question 128 Most webcams use a special USB connection. Into which type of port should a user plug in a webcam?

A. USB port B. Quality USB port C. Hi-Speed USB port D. Higher frame USB port

Answer: C

Question 129 Digital cameras can be integrated into __________ and ___________.

A. PDAs B. KVM switches C. MIDI devices D. mobile phones

Answer: A and D

Question 130 Which is another type of display output device besides the LCD monitor and CRT monitor?

A. SXGA+ B. WXGA C. Drivers D. Projector


Answer: D

Question 131 Which is needed to connect speakers to a PC?

A. CD-ROM B. Sound card C. DVD/CD drive D. 4-pin analog cable

Answer: B

Question 132 Which is a hot-swappable connection for a printer?

A. SCSI B. Parallel C. IEEE 1394 D. Serial port

Answer: C

Question 133 Which option represents a typical Ethernet cable?

A. SCSI B. PS/3 C. Cat 5 D. PATA

Answer: C

Question 134 Which option represents the number of pins on a Centronics SCSI connector?

A. 25 B. 35 C. 40 D. 50

Answer: D


Question 135 Which option represents the number of wires in a self-powered IEEE 1394 cable?

A. 6 B. 9 C. 12 D. 15

Answer: A

Question 136 Which option represents the number of pins on an EIDI connector?

A. 20 B. 40 C. 60 D. 80

Answer: B

Question 137 Which option represents the speed a SATA cable can transfer data? 6 Gbps 13 Gbps 16 Gbps 100 Gbps Answer: A

Question 138 Which option represents the number of wires used in a standard RJ-45 connector cable?

A. 8 B. 12 C. 14 D. 18

Answer: A

Question 139 Which option represents a typical peripheral that uses a parallel connector?

A. printer B. monitor C. speakers D. keyboard


Answer: A

Question 140 Which option represents the number of pins on a standard IEEE 1394 connector? Select all that apply.

A. 4 B. 6 C. 9 D. 13

Answer: A-C

Question 141 Which option represents the number of pins on a standard floppy drive?

A. 30 B. 34 C. 40 D. 44

Answer: B

Question 142 Which option represents the P in the term PATA?

A. Polar B. Precise C. Parallel D. Perpendicular

Answer: C

Question 143 Which option represents the number of pins in a SATA connector?

A. 4 B. 7 C. 9 D. 11

Answer: B


Question 144 Which option represents a typical material used to make the inner conductor of a coaxial cable?

A. Tin coated with zinc B. Zinc coated with steal C. Copper coated with tin D. Titanium coated with copper

Answer: C

Question 145 Which option represents the number of RCA connectors on a composite cable that are needed to connect to a video display device?

A. 1 B. 3 C. 4 D. 6

Answer: A

Question 146 Which option represents the type of connectors typically found on a component cable?

A. RCA B. BNC C. HDMI D. FireWire

Answer: A

Question 147 Which options represents the fastest type of DVI cable?

A. DVI Instant B. DVI Accent C. DVI Dual link D. DVI Diamond

Answer: C

Question 148 Which options represent a display cable? Select all that apply.

A. DVI B. VGA C. MIDI D. HDMI


Answer: A, B, and D

Question 149 Which option represents the number of pins on a DVI-D connector?

A. Two sets of nine pins and a blade B. Three rows of eight pins and a blade C. Two sets of nine pins and four contacts surrounding a blade D. One set of eight pins and one set of four pins, with four contacts surrounding a blade

Answer: A

Question 150 Which is used to reduce computer vision syndrome (CVS)?

A. LCD screens B. Glass display C. Plasma screen D. Anti-glare filter

Answer: A

Question 151 Which DVI port supports both digital and analog signals?

A. DVI-I B. DVI-A C. DVI-N D. DVI-D

Answer: A

Question 152 In a comparison between a 15" and a 21" monitor, what will be the difference if both monitors have a resolution of 1280 x 1024?

A. The 15" monitor will be sharper B. The 21" monitor will be sharper C. The monitors will be equally sharp D. The resolution is too large for the 15" monitor

Answer: A


Question 153 What is a common refresh rate for most LCDs?

A. 40Hz B. 60Hz C. 100Hz D. 120Hz

Answer: B

Question 154 Which projector version uses light valves with rotating color wheels?

A. LED B. DLP C. LCD D. XGA

Answer: B

Question 155 What is the lifespan of the average LED light?

A. 15 years B. About 7 years C. Less than 40,000 hours D. More than 100,000 hours

Answer: D

Question 156 CRT monitors use which three colors to produce images?

A. Red B. Blue C. White D. Green E. Yellow F. Magenta

Answer: A, B, and D


Question 157 Besides a standard USB port, which way can a biometric device connect to a PC? Select all that apply.

A. PS/2 B. RJ-45 C. Hard drive D. Through the network

Answer: A, B, and D

Question 158 Which types of ports do new bar code readers use?

A. USB B. UPC C. PS/2 D. Serial

Answer: A and C

Question 159 Which tabs can be found in the Mouse Properties window in the Windows Vista Mouse Control Panel applet? Select all that apply.

A. Speed B. Wheel C. Buttons D. Support E. Pointers F. Hardware

Answer: B, C, E, and F

Question 160 Which is the meaning of the multimedia device MIDI?

A. Machine Interpreter Dual Interface B. Machine Integrate Digital Interface C. Musical Instrument Digital Interface D. Motion Infrared Detection Interface

Answer: C


Question 161 Which is an advantage to using Start printing after last page is spooled?

A. Fewer stalls B. Faster than print immediately C. Each pool can be given a different priority D. The jobs can be paused, restarted, or stopped completely

Answer: A

Question 162 Which option represents the number of wires in a standard parallel cable?

A. 8 B. 12 C. 25 D. 30

Answer: C

Question 163 Which option represents the maximum length of an eSATA cable?

A. 1 meter B. 2 meters C. 6 meters D. 8 meters

Answer: B

Question 164 Which option represents the maximum length of an Ultra SCSI cable?

A. 1.5 meters B. 2.5 meters C. 5 meters D. 9 meters

Answer: A

Question 165 Which option represents the number of pins in a SATA data connector?

A. 4 B. 7 C. 9 D. 11


Answer: B

Question 166 Which option represents the type of data supported by a VGA cable?

A. MIDI B. Digital C. Virtual D. Analog

Answer: D

Question 167 Which option represents the number of pins on an RJ-45 connector?

A. 4 B. 8 C. 12 D. 14

Answer: B

Question 168 Which option is an example of a connector? Select all that apply.

A. RCA B. USB C. DVI-D D. Modem

Answer: A-C

Question 169 Refresh rate is measured in which option?

A. Gbps B. Hertz C. Lumens D. Resolution

Answer: B


Question 170 Which technologies are used to control the electronic beam in a CRT monitor? Select all that apply.

A. Surge filter B. Slotted mask C. Aperture grill D. Shadow mask

Answer: B-D

Question 171 Digital cameras connect to PCs using which type of port?

A. USB B. PS/2 C. RJ-45 D. 5-pin DIN

Answer: A