AP Psychology: Abnormal Quiz Overivew

1. During their lifetime approximately ________ of Americans will experience some type of mental disorder.

A) 40% B) 30% C) 20% D) 50%

2. The conceptualization of psychological abnormalities as diseases that, like biological diseases, have symptoms, causes, and possible cures is known as a:

A) biopsychosocial model. B) medical model. C) DSM model. D) prescriptive model.

3. Currently, psychologists use the ________ to diagnose mental disorders in their clients. A) Diagnosis Status Model B) Diagnostic and Statistical Manual, first edition C) DSM-IV-TR D) Diary of Mental Disorders

4. All of the following were early explanations of strange behavior or bizarre thoughts or emotions except:

A) religion. B) possession by demons. C) witchcraft. D) disease.

5. The DSM is a ________ that describes the features used to diagnose all recognized mental disorders.

A) classification system B) manual for general practitioners C) tool for diagnosing medical problems D) graduate school textbook

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6. Most psychologists believe that the DSM: A) has provided a foolproof system of diagnosing mental illness. B) is better than other alternatives. C) should be used sparingly. D) would have been better if more psychologists had been involved in its development.

7. The DSM-IV-TR focuses on three key elements that must be present for a cluster of symptoms to qualify as a potential mental disorder. These are:

A) personal distress or impairment; disturbances in personality; and reaction to stress. B) internal dysfunction; external dysfunction; and emotional lability. C) disturbances in behavior, thoughts, or emotions; personal distress or impairment; and

internal dysfunction. D) inability to communicate; unusual speech patterns; and periods of mania.

8. Recognizing that mental disorder exists along a continuum from normal to abnormal, the DSM recommends that any diagnosis include a(n):

A) thorough physical examination by a medical doctor. B) assessment of cycles of mania and depression. C) routine blood test. D) global assessment of functioning.

9. The global assessment of functioning is a scale from 0 to 100; lower scores indicate ________, higher scores indicate ________.

A) more severe disorders; more effective functioning B) less severe disorders; more severe disorders C) less severe disorders; less effective functioning D) more effective functioning; less severe disorders

10. The global assessment of functioning scale used by psychologists, along with the DSM, to diagnose mental illness, extends from:

A) 0 to 10. B) 0 to 100. C) 50 to 0. D) 0 to 50.

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11. In the early 1900s psychologists in Europe and North America typically divided disorders into two categories—psychotic and:

A) antipsychotic. B) neuronal. C) neurotic. D) delusional.

12. In the early years of the 20th century, clinicians divided disorders into two categories—neurosis and:

A) antineurosis. B) delusions. C) antipsychosis. D) psychosis.

13. In the early 1900s, psychosis: A) was regarded as essentially a more severe case of neurosis. B) meant experiencing delusions. C) meant hearing voices. D) meant a state of high anxiety.

14. The first edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders was published in:

A) 1942. B) 1952. C) 1962. D) 1972.

15. Desiring to address the problem of reliability in early editions of the DSM and promote better agreement among diagnosticians, developers of more recent editions have done all of the following except:

A) define mental disorders as objectively as possible. B) replace controversial, theoretical concepts with behavioral terms. C) explain theoretical concepts in more detail. D) replace the term neurosis with the classification anxiety disorders.

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16. Although the DSM-IV-TR produces better diagnostic reliability, critics point to areas that need improvement, including all the following except diagnoses:

A) that are based on interpretation-based criteria. B) that focus on patient/client self-reports. C) of patients/clients in which comorbidity may be a factor. D) that are based on observable behavior.

17. The co-occurrence of two or more disorders in a single individual is called: A) comorbidity. B) bimorbidity. C) covariance. D) correlation.

18. People with depression, a mood disorder, very often have a secondary diagnosis of: A) schizophrenia. B) anxiety disorder. C) personality disorder. D) panic disorder.

19. In the biopsychosocial approach to diagnosis of a mental disorder, the biological focus is on all the following except:

A) genetic influences. B) biochemical imbalances. C) reaction to stress. D) brain abnormalities.

20. In the biopsychosocial approach to diagnosis of a mental disorder, the psychological focus is on all the following except:

A) maladaptive coping. B) dysfunctional attitudes. C) interpersonal problems. D) alcohol use or abuse.

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21. In the biopsychosocial approach to diagnoses of a mental disorder, the social, or environmental, focus is on all of the following except:

A) maladaptive learning and coping. B) poor socialization. C) stressful life circumstances. D) cultural and social inequities.

22. The ________ model suggests that an individual may be predisposed to a mental disorder that remains unexpressed until triggered by stress.

A) predisposition B) diathesis-stress C) diaphysis-stress D) dissociative-stress

23. Bonita was prescribed medication for her depression that made her feel much better. She reported to her friends that her depression must have been physiological. Bonita is ________; she has fallen prey to the _______.

A) incorrect; biological treatment fallacy B) correct; biological treatment fallacy C) incorrect; intervention-causation fallacy D) correct; intervention-causation fallacy

24. Research studies suggest that approximately ________ of those with diagnosable mental disorders do not seek treatment.

A) 40% B) 50% C) 60% D) 70%

25. All the following are false beliefs about mental disorders except that: A) they have a biological base. B) they are a sign of personal weakness. C) they are a sign of wrongdoing. D) they cause people to be violent.

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26. All the following are anxiety disorders except: A) phobic disorders. B) obsessive-manic disorder. C) obsessive-compulsive disorder. D) generalized anxiety disorder.

27. In generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), chronic excessive worry is accompanied by all the following symptoms except:

A) restlessness. B) fatigue. C) panic attacks. D) concentration problems.

28. Sophie, who lives in low-income housing, worries endlessly about money. She dreads going to the grocery store because she is afraid she will buy something that is too expensive, and she is constantly irritable and fatigued. It is likely that Sophie has:

A) major depression. B) schizophrenia. C) phobic disorder. D) generalized anxiety order.

29. Josh constantly complains about fatigue, muscle tension, and sleep problems. He is irritable, worries incessantly about little things that cause others in his family no concern, and has trouble concentrating. From his symptoms, it is likely that Josh has:

A) generalized anxiety disorder. B) major depression. C) bipolar disorder. D) dissociative disorder.

30. Generalized anxiety disorder is more prevalent in all of the following groups except: A) women. B) people living in rural areas. C) people living in poverty. D) people living in large cities.

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31. Which of the following mental disorders is characterized by marked, persistent, and excessive fear and avoidance of specific objects, activities, or situations?

A) generalized anxiety disorder B) dissociative disorder C) phobic disorders D) major depression

32. Rhonda, a 45-year-old accountant, is deathly afraid of spiders, a fear that she believes is due to an encounter with a black widow spider when she was a child. Her fear is so great now that she insists on walking down the middle of the road rather than getting too close to trees or grass. She refuses to wear clothing in which her arms or legs are exposed, preferring hooded sweatshirts with long sleeves and long pants. It is likely that Rhonda suffers from a(n):

A) obsessive-compulsive disorder. B) panic disorder. C) schizophrenia. D) phobic disorder.

33. Specific phobias may focus on any of the following except: A) foods. B) animals. C) blood, injections, and injury. D) natural environments.

34. An irrational fear of a particular object or situation that markedly interferes with the ability to function is called a(n):

A) obsessive-compulsive disorder. B) specific phobia. C) fear-related phobic disorder. D) paranoid schizophrenic disorder.

35. An irrational fear of public humiliation or embarrassment is called: A) claustrophobia. B) depression phobia. C) social phobia. D) specific phobia.

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36. The preparedness theory of phobia suggests that: A) there is a critical time period in which the body prepares for a phobic episode. B) developmental psychology has prepared humans to fear certain things. C) more women than men experience phobic disorders. D) we are instinctively predisposed toward certain fears.

37. All the following have been implicated as playing a role in vulnerability to phobias except: A) ventricles in the brain that are larger than normal. B) excessive shyness as a child. C) abnormalities in the neurotransmitters serotonin and dopamine. D) abnormally high levels of activity in the amygdala.

38. Twenty-year-old Keri is more uncomfortable in public because she intensely fears situations in which she might be embarrassed. She refuses to eat in public, use public bathrooms, or interact with others. From her symptoms, Keri likely has:

A) paranoid schizophrenia. B) a social phobia. C) a panic disorder. D) a dissociative disorder.

39. All the following symptoms are likely to be experienced in an acute panic attack except: A) shortness of breath. B) heart palpitations. C) sweating. D) paranoia.

40. Over the past year Lauren has repeatedly experienced symptoms that she believes indicate a heart attack, sending her to the emergency room, complaining of dizziness, inability to catch her breath, and heart palpitations. She tells her parents she is afraid she's going to die, although doctors have found nothing physically wrong. From her symptoms, it is likely that Lauren is experiencing:

A) asthma attacks. B) dissociative episodes. C) manic episodes. D) panic attacks.

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41. Extreme fear of venturing into public places lest a panic attack occur is called: A) agoraphobia. B) claustrophobia. C) arachnophobia. D) homophobia.

42. Which of the following statements about panic disorders is not true? A) They are more prevalent among women. B) A panic disorder may induce an eerie feeling of calm. C) Those who have panic disorders tend to be high in anxiety. D) The symptoms of a panic disorder can mimic a heart attack.

43. Participants in a research study were given sodium lactate, a chemical that produces rapid breathing and heart palpitations. Those with panic disorder were ________ to the chemical than others, with ________ experiencing a panic attack.

A) less sensitive; less than 10% B) less sensitive; between 20% and 50% C) more sensitive; between 60% and 90% D) more sensitive; over 95%

44. What is the mental disorder in which repetitive, intrusive thoughts and ritualistic behaviors designed to fend off those thoughts interfere significantly with functioning?

A) generalized anxiety disorder B) specific phobia C) dissociative disorder D) obsessive-compulsive disorder

45. In obsessive-compulsive disorder the obsessive thoughts ________, and the compulsive behaviors are performed to ________.

A) increase anxiety; reduce it B) decrease anxiety; reduce it C) trigger panic attacks; decrease anxiety D) trigger panic attacks; increase anxiety

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46. Erica is fixated on germs, so much so that she washes her hands over a hundred times daily and refuses to shake hands with anyone. It is likely that she has:

A) panic disorder. B) obsessive-compulsive disorder. C) social phobia D) agoraphobia.

47. All the following relate to obsessive-compulsive disorder except: A) moderate genetic heritability. B) increased neural activity in the caudate nucleus. C) significantly higher occurrence in men than women. D) similar rates across different cultures.

48. What is the condition in which normal cognitive processes are severely disjointed and fragmented, creating significant disruptions in memory, awareness, or personality that can vary in length from a matter of minutes to many years?

A) a mood disorder B) a personality disorder C) a phobic disorder D) a dissociative disorder

49. ________ is characterized by the presence within an individual of two or more distinct identities that at different times take control of the individual's behavior.

A) Dissociative identity disorder B) Dissociative amnesia C) Dissociative fugue D) Schizophrenia

50. In dissociative identity disorder (DID) the host personality is typically ________ and is often ________ of the alternate personalities.

A) dominant; aware B) dominant; unaware C) passive; aware D) passive; unaware

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51. Most patients with dissociative identity disorder: A) have alters with somewhat similar personalities. B) have grown up in functional families. C) have a history of severe childhood abuse. D) are men.

52. Before 1970 dissociative identity disorder was considered ________; since then the reported incidence of DID has ________.

A) rare; decreased slightly B) rare; remained essentially the same C) rare; risen slightly D) rare; exploded

53. The most common explanation for the dramatic increase in cases of DID reported since 1970 is that:

A) psychotherapists have inadvertently suggested to patients that they have it. B) psychotherapists have inadvertently prescribed medications that have precipitated it. C) DID can surface under hypnotism. D) increased stress in our lives today has precipitated it.

54. Which of the following statements about dissociative identity disorder is not true? A) Most patients are diagnosed in their 20s or 30s. B) More frequently prescribed antianxiety medications have caused reactions involving

dissociation. C) Most patients report severe childhood abuse and trauma. D) The number of reported cases has increased dramatically in the past 35 years.

55. The sudden loss of memory for significant personal information is called: A) dissociative identity disorder. B) dissociative fugue. C) dissociative amnesia. D) schizophrenia.

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56. The sudden loss of memory for one's personal history, accompanied by an abrupt departure from home and the assumption of a new identity, is called:

A) schizophrenia. B) dissociative identity disorder. C) dissociative amnesia. D) dissociative fugue.

57. Aaron disappeared from his home in August; his family heard nothing about him until early May when his wife saw his picture in a newspaper; he was in a city 200 miles away. When, with the help of the newspaper, she found him, she was shocked to find that he did not recognize her, nor did he seem to know who he really was. Aaron was likely suffering from:

A) dissociative fugue. B) dissociative amnesia. C) dissociative identity disorder. D) schizophrenia.

58. There are two main forms of mood disorders, ________ and ________. A) depression; panic disorder B) depression; bipolar disorder C) panic disorder; bipolar disorder D) catatonia; bipolar disorder

59. Over the past 9 months, Trisha has become lethargic and has stopped working out at the gym (and as a consequence has gained considerable weight.) Previously full of energy and curiosity, she now shows a lack of interest in virtually everything, even sex. It is likely that Trisha is suffering from a:

A) phobic disorder. B) dissociative disorder. C) mood disorder. D) generalized anxiety disorder.

60. A diagnosis of major depressive disorder requires evidence of a severely depressed mood that has lasted:

A) at least 4 weeks. B) at least 2 months. C) at least 6 months. D) at least 2 weeks.

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61. Major depressive disorder is also known as: A) unipolar depression. B) manic depression. C) dysthymia. D) catatonia.

62. ________, which is ________ than major depressive disorder, lasts ________. A) Dysthymia; more severe; at least 2 years B) Dysthymia; less severe; at least 2 years C) Dysthymia; more severe; at least 2 weeks D) Dysthymia; less severe; at least 2 weeks

63. Juan has been moderately sad for over 2 years, and every few months he hits a period of major depression. He feels worthless, has trouble sleeping, and claims that nothing seems to taste good anymore. He is likely suffering from:

A) dysthymic disorder. B) unipolar depression. C) double depression. D) bipolar disorder.

64. Depression in women is diagnosed ________ than men. A) slightly less often B) slightly more often C) dramatically less often D) dramatically more often

65. All the following have been implicated as factors in the high rate of depression in women except:

A) women's lower levels of endorphins after exercise. B) women's greater risk for living in poverty. C) women's hormones. D) women's tendency to ruminate on their negative emotions.

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66. Brain research has suggested that depressed people exhibit increased activation in the ________ and decreased activation in the ________.

A) left temporal lobe; right temporal lobe B) left prefrontal cortex; right prefrontal cortex C) left temporal lobe; right prefrontal cortex D) left prefrontal cortex; left temporal lobe

67. Depressed people tend to attribute their negative experiences to causes that are internal, stable, and global. This pattern supports:

A) diathesis-stress theory. B) external cause theory. C) helplessness theory. D) personal bias theory.

68. Ann has experienced depression many times in her life. She is now unhappy because a close friend no longer calls her. According to helplessness theory, she would be likely to respond to the situation with any of the following statements except:

A) “I never keep friends for long.” B) “I may never find another close friend.” C) “This must be my fault.” D) “If he can't take the time to call, he wasn't much of a friend in the first place.”

69. What is the mental disorder that is characterized by cycles of abnormal, persistent high mood and low mood?

A) bipolar disorder B) phobic disorder C) unipolar disorder D) double depression

70. Gisela feels good about herself; in fact, she feels powerful. She tells her family she can solve the problems of world hunger and the AIDS epidemic. Artistic by nature, she believes her painting is in the same league as Picasso's. She is sleeps very little; she says that she doesn't need sleep because she's superhuman. It is likely that Gisela is suffering from:

A) unipolar disorder. B) bipolar disorder. C) phobic disorder. D) elevated emotional disorder.

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71. An individual in the manic phase of bipolar disorder sometimes may have hallucinations or delusions, and therefore the disorder may be misdiagnosed as:

A) paranoia. B) hypermania. C) schizophrenia. D) generalized anxiety disorder.

72. All the following are symptoms of bipolar disorder, manic phase, except: A) irritability. B) grandiosity. C) talkativeness. D) increased need for sleep.

73. Bipolar disorder has two cycles, depression and: A) mania. B) anxiety. C) fear. D) amnesia.

74. A small number of highly accomplished people (among them Winston Churchill, Abraham Lincoln, and Vincent Van Gogh) are thought to have had:

A) unipolar disorder. B) bipolar disorder. C) dysthymic disorder. D) double depression.

75. The mental disorder with the highest heritability rate is: A) schizophrenia. B) phobic disorder. C) bipolar disorder. D) borderline personality disorder.

76. All of following symptoms may be signs of schizophrenia except: A) delusion. B) hallucination. C) disorganized speech. D) positive emotions.

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77. Which of the following examples does not describe someone with schizophrenia who is experiencing delusions?

A) Etienne, who believes he will always be depressed B) John, who believes that demons have taken over his mind C) Kevin, who believes he is Jesus Christ D) Kathie, who believes the CIA is spying on her

78. Schizophrenic hallucinations can include all the following except: A) hearing voices that no one else can hear. B) believing that you are Napoleon. C) seeing things that are not there. D) feeling as if you're being touched when there is no one there.

79. Some people with ________ have disorganized speech in which they jump from one thought to another without any connection or coherence.

A) bipolar disorder B) panic disorder C) schizophrenia D) schizoid disorder

80. A marked decrease in all movement or an increase in muscular rigidity and overactivity is called:

A) paranoid behavior. B) a negative symptom. C) manic behavior. D) catatonic behavior.

81. Shirin sits for hours with her head in her hands and doesn't move a muscle. When a nurse tries to pull her head up, she resists. Her disorder has been diagnosed as schizophrenia; her behavior suggests that the type is:

A) catatonic. B) disorganized. C) manic. D) depressed.

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82. The best evidence clinicians have that schizophrenic individuals with auditory hallucinations are actually hearing voices in their heads is that:

A) the individuals can mimic the voices they hear. B) there is activity in Broca's area when the voices are heard. C) there is activity in the right frontal lobe of the brain when the voices are heard. D) the individuals follow the instructions of the voices, exhibiting observable behavior.

83. In a patient with schizophrenia, lack of emotion is a ________, whereas hallucinating is a ________.

A) flat affect; manic expression B) medial symptom; positive symptom C) negative symptom; positive symptom D) negative symptom; manic expression

84. Which of the following is not one of the five subtypes of schizophrenia identified in the DSM?

A) paranoid B) catatonic C) disorganized D) schizotypal

85. The catch-all diagnosis for schizophrenia that cannot easily be categorized is: A) undifferentiated type. B) catatonic type. C) paranoid type. D) disorganized type.

86. The average risk for developing schizophrenia is highest for which of the following? A) a dizygotic twin whose sibling has schizophrenia B) the sibling of someone with schizophrenia C) a monozygotic twin whose sibling has schizophrenia D) children both of whose parents have schizophrenia

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87. A number of factors have been suggested as possibly raising the risk of schizophrenia, including all the following except:

A) toxins in the mother's blood during pregnancy. B) bacterial infection in the mother during the first trimester of pregnancy. C) viral exposure during a critical period of prenatal brain development. D) contraction of influenza during the second trimester.

88. A certain type of negative communication pattern in families has been associated with higher relapse for schizophrenia. This pattern is called:

A) overprotection. B) withheld affection. C) expressed emotion. D) emotional underinvolvement.

89. Disorders characterized by deeply ingrained and inflexible patterns of thinking, feeling, or relating to others or impulses that cause distress or impaired functioning are called:

A) schizophrenic disorders. B) phobic disorders. C) mood disorders. D) personality disorders.

90. The most controversial classifications in the DSM-IV-TR are ________ disorders. A) personality B) phobic C) mood D) generalized anxiety

91. Which of the following statements is not a reason that the DSM-IV-TR classification of personality disorders is so controversial?

A) Given that almost 15% of Americans have a personality disorder that fits a DSM description, it might be better to leave this category out entirely.

B) Research on personality disorders leaves little doubt that these disorders are diagnosed less frequently than their actual occurrence.

C) It might be more feasible to understand personality disorders in terms of extreme values on trait dimensions.

D) Definitions of many personality problems share characteristics with the major disorders and so may be mild versions of more severe disorders.

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92. Individuals with antisocial personality disorder (APD) are often characterized as all of the following except:

A) sociopathic. B) psychopathic. C) having comorbid depression. D) having no regard for other people.

93. Adults with antisocial personality disorder typically have a history of ________ before the age of 15.

A) obsessive-compulsive disorder B) bipolar disorder C) panic attacks D) conduct disorder

94. In August 1969 Charles Manson directed his followers to kill nine people. Described as impulsive and oblivious of others' rights, he shows no remorse for his actions in these murders. His behavior is consistent with the characteristics of:

A) antisocial personality disorder. B) paranoid schizophrenia. C) disorganized schizophrenia. D) narcissistic personality disorder.

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Answer Key - Untitled Exam-3

1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. A 6. B 7. C 8. D 9. A 10. B 11. C 12. D 13. A 14. B 15. C 16. D 17. A 18. B 19. C 20. D 21. A 22. B 23. C 24. D 25. A 26. B 27. C 28. D 29. A 30. B 31. C 32. D 33. A 34. B 35. C 36. D 37. A 38. B 39. C 40. D 41. A

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42. B 43. C 44. D 45. A 46. B 47. C 48. D 49. A 50. B 51. C 52. D 53. A 54. B 55. C 56. D 57. A 58. B 59. C 60. D 61. A 62. B 63. C 64. D 65. A 66. B 67. C 68. D 69. A 70. B 71. C 72. D 73. A 74. B 75. C 76. D 77. A 78. B 79. C 80. D 81. A 82. B 83. C 84. D

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85. A 86. C 87. B 88. C 89. D 90. A 91. B 92. C 93. D 94. A

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