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Answer of CCNA Discovery : Version 4.1 by -NoNaMeZzz- Note: These answers will give you 87.3%. numbers 3,12,24,25 are incorrect. Please correct if possible 1 Which of the following are functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.) stores the routing table retains contents when power is removed stores the startup configuration file contains the running configuration file stores the ARP table 2 A network technician is attempting to add an older workstation to a Cisco switched LAN. The technician has manually configured the workstation to full-duplex mode in order to enhance the network performance of the workstation. However, when the device is attached to the network, performance degrades and excess collision are detected. What is the cause of this problem? The host is configured in a different subnet from the subnet of the switch. There is a duplex mismatch between the workstation and switch port. The switch port is running at a different speed from the speed of the workstation NIC. The host has been configured with a default gateway that is different from that of the switch.

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Page 1: Answer of CCNA DiscoveryGB

Answer of CCNA Discovery : Version 4.1 by -NoNaMeZzz-

Note: These answers will give you 87.3%. numbers 3,12,24,25 are incorrect. Please correct if possible

1Which of the following are functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.)

stores the routing table

retains contents when power is removed

stores the startup configuration file

contains the running configuration file

stores the ARP table

2A network technician is attempting to add an older workstation to a Cisco switched LAN. The technician has manually configured the workstation to full-duplex mode in order to enhance the network performance of the workstation. However, when the device is attached to the network, performance degrades and excess collision are detected. What is the cause of this problem?

The host is configured in a different subnet from the subnet of the switch.

There is a duplex mismatch between the workstation and switch port.

The switch port is running at a different speed from the speed of the workstation NIC.

The host has been configured with a default gateway that is different from that of the switch.

3What is the correct command sequence to configure a router host name to “LAB_A”?

Router> enableRouter# configure terminalRouter(config)# hostname LAB_A

Router> enableRouter# hostname LAB_A

Router> enableRouter# configure routerRouter(config)# hostname LAB_A

Page 2: Answer of CCNA DiscoveryGB

Router> enableRouter(config)# host name LAB_A

4

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Refer to the exhibit. Which password or passwords will be encrypted as a result of the configuration that is shown?

virtual terminal only

enable mode only

console and virtual terminal only

enable mode and virtual terminal

only the service password

all configured passwords

5

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Which function is a unique responsibility of the DCE devices shown in the exhibit?

transmission of data

reception of data

clocking for the synchronous link

noise cancellation in transmitted data

6How does the SYST LED on the catalyst 2960 switch indicate a POST failure?

blinks rapidly amber

blinks rapidly green

Page 3: Answer of CCNA DiscoveryGB

steady amber

steady green

7Which tasks can be accomplished by using the command history feature? (Choose two.)

View a list of commands entered in a previous session.

Recall up to 15 command lines by default.

Set the command history buffer size.

Recall previously entered commands.

Save command lines in a log file for future reference.

8Which of the following statements are true regarding the user EXEC mode? (Choose two.)

All router commands are available.

Global configuration mode can be accessed by entering the enable command.

A password can be entered to allow access to other modes.

Interfaces and routing protocols can be configured.

Only some aspects of the router configuration can be viewed.

9Which mode will a configured router display at login?

global configuration mode

setup mode

ROM monitor mode

user EXEC mode

10

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Page 4: Answer of CCNA DiscoveryGB

Refer to the exhibit. From the router console, an administrator is unable to ping a Catalyst switch that is located in another building. What can the administrator do from her location to check the IP configuration of the attached switch?

Open an SDM session with the switch from her desktop.

Telnet to the switch from the router console.

Use the show cdp neighbors detail command from the router console.

The administrator must go to the switch location and make a console connection to check these settings.

11

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Refer to the exhibit. Which series of commands will enable users who are attached to Router1 to access the remote server?

Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.129 255.255.255.252Router1(config-if)# clock rate 64000Router1(config-if)# no shutdown

Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.125 255.255.255.252Router1(config-if)# no shutdown

Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.125 255.255.255.252Router1(config-if)# clock rate 64000Router1(config-if)# no shutdown

Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.129 255.255.255.252Router1(config-if)# no shutdown

12

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Page 5: Answer of CCNA DiscoveryGB

Refer to the exhibit. A company always uses the last valid IP address in a subnetwork as the IP address of the router LAN interface. A network administrator is using a laptop to configure switch X with a default gateway. Assuming that the switch IP address is 192.168.5.147/24, what command will the administrator use to assign a default gateway to the switch?

X(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.5.254

X(config)# ip gateway 192.168.5.1

X(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.5.1

X(config)# ip default-route 192.168.5.1

X(config)# ip route 192.168.5.254 255.255.255.0 fastethernet 0/0

13In what two ways does SDM differ from the IOS CLI? (Choose two.)

SDM is used for in-band management only. The IOS CLI can be used for in-band and out-of-band management.

SDM is accessed through a Telnet application. The IOS CLI is accessed through a web browser.

SDM is available for all router platforms. The IOS CLI is available for a limited number of Cisco devices.

SDM utilizes GUI buttons and text boxes. The IOS CLI requires the use of text-based commands.

SDM is used for advanced configuration tasks. The IOS CLI is preferred for initial basic device configuration.

14Which two options must be selected in SDM Express to enable a router serial interface to obtain an IP address automatically? (Choose two.)

Easy IP (IP negotiated)

IP unnumbered

No IP address

HDLC encapsulation

Frame Relay encapsulation

Page 6: Answer of CCNA DiscoveryGB

PPP encapsulation

15What option within Cisco SDM Express must be configured to allow hosts that receive IP address settings from the router to resolve names on the network or Internet?

host name

domain name

DHCP address pool

DNS server IP address

16What three settings can be made in the SDM Express basic configuration screen? (Choose three.)

host name

DHCP options

domain name

interface IP addresses

enable secret password

DNS server IP addresses

17A network administrator needs to configure a router. Which of the following connection methods requires network functionality to be accessible?

console

AUX

Telnet

modem

18A technician has made changes to the configuration of a router. What command will allow the technician to view the current configuration before he saves the changes?

router# show running-config

Page 7: Answer of CCNA DiscoveryGB

router# show startup-config

router# show flash

router# show version

19Which three encapsulation types can be set on a serial interface by an administrator who is using SDM Express? (Choose three.)

ATM

CHAP

Frame Relay

HDLC

PAP

PPP

20Which three pieces of information about a neighbor device can be obtained by the show cdp neighbors command? (Choose three.)

platform

routing protocol

connected interface of neighbor device

device ID

IP addresses of all interfaces

enable mode password

21Which command will display routing table information about all known networks and subnetworks?

Router# show ip interfaces

Router# show ip connections

Page 8: Answer of CCNA DiscoveryGB

Router# show ip route

Router# show ip networks

22

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Refer to the exhibit. Which three sets of commands are required to enable administrators to connect to the Switch1 console over Telnet for configuration and management? (Choose three.)

Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.64 255.255.255.192

Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.66 255.255.255.192

Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.126 255.255.255.192Switch1(config-if)# no shutdown

Switch1(config)# line vty 0 4Switch1(config-line)# enable password ciscoSwitch1(config-line)# login

Switch1(config)# line vty 0 15Switch1(config-line)# password ciscoSwitch1(config-line)# login

Switch1(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.2.65

23To save time, IOS commands may be partially entered and then completed by typing which key or key combination?

Tab

Ctrl-P

Ctrl-N

Up Arrow

Right Arrow

Page 9: Answer of CCNA DiscoveryGB

Down Arrow

24Which command turns on a router interface?

Router(config-if)# enable

Router(config-if)# no down

Router(config-if)# s0 active

Router(config-if)# interface up

Router(config-if)# no shutdown

25Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)

VTY interface

console interface

Ethernet interface

secret EXEC mode

privileged EXEC mode

router configuration mode

Answer of CCNA Discovery : Version 4.1 by -CH6

Note: These answers will give you 91.8%. Please correct wrong answers if possible

1Which command is used to view the RIP routing protocol settings and configuration?

show version

show ip route

show interface

show ip protocols****

Page 10: Answer of CCNA DiscoveryGB

2

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Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum number of RIP routers that could separate HostA and HostB and still leave the hosts with connectivity to each other?

14

15

16****

17

3In which situation would a company register for its own autonomous system number (ASN)?

when the company’s ISP adds connection points to the Internet

when additional routers are added to the corporate internetwork

when more than one interior routing protocol is used

when the company uses two or more ISPs******

4Consider this routing table entry

R 172.16.1.0/24 [120/1] via 200.1.1.1 00:00:27 Serial0/1

What type of route is this?

a static route

a default route

a RIP route*******

an OSPF route

an EIGRP route

a directly-connected route

Page 11: Answer of CCNA DiscoveryGB

5What is the difference between interior and exterior routing protocols?

Exterior routing protocols are only used by large ISPs. Interior routing protocols are used by small ISPs.

Interior routing protocols are used to route on the Internet. Exterior routing protocols are used inside organizations.

Exterior routing protocols are used to administer a single autonomous system. Interior routing protocols are used to administer several domains.

Interior routing protocols are used to communicate within a single autonomous system. Exterior routing protocols are used to communicate between multiple autonomous systems.********

6What information is included in RIPv2 routing updates that is not included in RIPv1 updates?

metric

subnet mask********

area identification

hop count

autonomous system number

7Which routing protocol is used to exchange data between two different ISPs?

BGP*******

EIGRP

OSPF

RIP v2

8

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Page 12: Answer of CCNA DiscoveryGB

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration command or commands contributed to the output that is shown?

routerA(config-router)# no version 2

routerA(config)# interface fa0/0routerA(config-if)# ip address 172.19.0.0 255.255.0.0

routerA(config-router)# network 192.168.3.0*******

routerA(config)# no ip default-gateway

9

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Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are running RIP and network 10.0.0.0 goes down, when will R3 learn that the network is no longer available?

in 30 seconds

in 60 seconds

in 90 seconds

Immediately******

10What statement is true regarding an AS number?

AS numbers are controlled and registered for Internet use.

Interior routing protocols require registered AS numbers.

ISPs require all customers to have registered AS numbers.

All routers at an ISP must be assigned the same AS number.*********

11What is the purpose of the network command used when configuring RIP?

to specify whether RIPv1 or RIPv2 will be used as the routing protocol

to allow the router to monitor RIP updates that occur on other routers

Page 13: Answer of CCNA DiscoveryGB

to identify which networks on the router will send and receive RIP updates****

to configure the IP address on an interface that will use RIP

to identify all of the remote networks that should be reachable from the router

12Which command would a network administrator use to determine if the routers in an enterprise have learned about a newly added network?

router# show ip address

router# show ip route

router# show ip networks********

router# show ip interface brief

router# debug ip protocol

router# debug rip update

13What is the purpose of a routing protocol?

It is used to build and maintain ARP tables.

It provides a method for segmenting and reassembling data packets.

It allows an administrator to devise an addressing scheme for the network.

It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.*******

It provides a procedure for encoding and decoding data into bits for packet forwarding.

14What device enables an ISP to connect with other ISPs to transfer data?

border gateway router******

DSLAM

web server

interior router

Page 14: Answer of CCNA DiscoveryGB

15Which command will display RIP routing updates as they are sent and received?

show ip route

show ip rip

debug ip rip

show ip protocols

show ip rip database*******

16Which part of an IP packet does the router use to make routing decisions?

source IP address

source MAC address

destination IP address*******

destination MAC address

17What two types of businesses would benefit from registering as their own autonomous systems? (Choose two.)

a home business with one ISP connection

a global business with connections to multiple local ISPs******

a medium-sized nationwide business with Internet connectivity through different ISPs******

a large enterprise with two connections to the same ISP

a small ISP with a single Internet connection through a larger ISP

18Which command will display RIP activity as it occurs on a router?

debug ip rip

show ip route

show ip interface

Page 15: Answer of CCNA DiscoveryGB

show ip protocols

debug ip rip config

show ip rip database*******

19Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols?

Routers will not allow packets to be forwarded until the network has converged.*********

Hosts are unable to access their gateway until the network has converged.

Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged.

Routers will not allow configuration changes to be made until the network has converged.

20Which two statements describe static routes? (Choose two.)

They are created in interface configuration mode.

They require manual reconfiguration to accommodate network changes.*****

They automatically become the default gateway of the router.

They are identified in the routing table with the prefix S*****

They are automatically updated whenever an interface is reconfigured or shutdown.

21Which two statements or sets of statements describe differences between link-state and distance vector routing protocols? (Choose two.)

Link-state routing protocols routinely use more bandwidth for updates than do distance vector routing protocols.

Distance vector routing protocols update all routers at one time. Link-state routing protocols update one router at a time.

Link-state routers only know about directly connected routers. Distance vector routers know about every router in the network.***

Link-state routing protocols update when a change is made. A network using distance vector routing protocols only updates at a specific interval.*****

Page 16: Answer of CCNA DiscoveryGB

Distance vector routing protocols have limited information about the entire network. Link state routing protocols know about all routers in the network.

In case of similar topologies, networks using link-state routing protocols typically converge more rapidly than do networks using distance vector routing protocols.

22Which protocol is an exterior routing protocol?

BGP*****

EIGRP

OSPF

RIP

23Hosts on two separate subnets cannot communicate. The network administrator suspects a missing route in one of the routing tables. Which three commands can be used to help troubleshoot Layer 3 connectivity issues? (Choose three.)

Ping****

show arp

Traceroute***

show ip route***

show interface

show cdp neighbor detail

24What term refers to a group of networks that uses the same internal routing policies and is controlled by a single administrative authority?

Internet

intranet

virtual private network

autonomous system****END OF 6

Page 17: Answer of CCNA DiscoveryGB

CCNA CHAPTER 7   VER:4.1

By NoNaMeZzzz   4 Votes

Answer of CCNA Discovery : Version 4.1 by -NoNaMeZzz-

1. Which two statements are true about the OSI and TCP/IP models? (Choose two.)

The two bottom layers of the TCP/IP model make up the bottom layer of the OSI model.The TCP/IP model is a theoretical model and the OSI model is based on actual protocols.• The OSI network layer is comparable to the Internet layer of the TCP/IP model.The TCP/IP model specifies protocols for the physical network interconnection.• The TCP/IP model is based on four layers and the OSI model is based on seven layers.

2. To meet customer expectations, an ISP must guarantee a level of service that is based on what two factors? (Choose two.)

accessibilityadaptability• availability• reliabilityscalability

3. User1 is sending an e-mail to [email protected]. What are two characteristics of the process of sending this data? (Choose two.)

• It utilizes TCP port 110.A TCP connection is established directly between the User1 and User2 client computers in order to send the e-mail message.• It utilizes a store and forward process.The same application layer protocol is used to send the e-mail and retrieve it from the destination server.SMTP is used to send the e-mail message to the mail servers.

4. Refer to the exhibit. Host1 is in the process of setting up a TCP session with Host2. Host1 has sent a SYN message to begin session establishment. What happens next?

Host1 sends an ACK message to Host2.Host1 sends a SYN message to Host2.

Page 18: Answer of CCNA DiscoveryGB

Host1 sends a SYN-ACK message to Host2.Host2 sends an ACK message to Host1.Host2 sends a SYN message to Host1.• Host2 sends a SYN-ACK message to Host1.

5. What are three characteristics of network reliability? (Choose three.)

• Redundant hardware provides enhanced reliability.Reliability is measured as a percent.Reliability is the responsibility of the ISP customers.• Fault tolerance is a measure of reliability.• The longer the MTBF, the greater the reliability.

6. Which two statements describe the FTP protocol? (Choose two.)It uses well-known port 23.

The protocol interpreter is responsible for the data transfer function.• In passive data connections, the FTP client initiates the transfer of data.• It requires two connections between client and server.FTP servers open a well-known port on the client machine.

7. What is the function of the TCP three-way handshake?

• It enables the synchronization of port numbers between source and destination hosts.It immediately triggers the retransmission of lost data.• It synchronizes both ends of a connection by allowing both sides to agree upon initial sequence numbers.It identifies the destination application on the receiving host.

8. What are three characteristics of HTTPS? (Choose three.)

It uses a different client request-server response process than HTTP uses.It specifies additional rules for passing data between the application and data link layers.• It supports authentication.It allows more simultaneous connections than HTTP allows.• It encrypts packets with SSL.• It requires additional server processing time.

9. Which DNS zone resolves an IP address to a qualified domain name?

dynamic lookupforward lookupresolution lookup• reverse lookup

Page 19: Answer of CCNA DiscoveryGB

10.

What type of update allows client computers to register and update their resource records with a DNS server whenever changes occur?

• dynamiczone transferlocal recursive queryroot domain querytop-level domain query

11. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about this file? (Choose two.)

If the gateway address changes, the file will be updated dynamically.• The command ping fileserv will use IP address 172.16.5.10.• If the ping http://www.cisco.com command is issued, the file will be checked for the Cisco web server IP address before DNS is queried.The file must be created by the user if it is to be used by a workstation.Name to IP address mappings are added to the file after they are received from DNS.

12. Which two tasks are the responsibility of the local DNS server? (Choose two.)

maintaining a large number of cached DNS entriesmaintaining the ISP server• mapping name-to-IP addresses for internal hosts• forwarding name resolution requests to a caching-only serverforwarding all name resolution requests to root servers on the Internet

13. What are three unique characteristics of UDP? (Choose three.)

connection orientedfull-duplex operation• low overhead• no flow control• no error-recovery functionreliable transmission

14. A manufacturing company is looking into subscribing to services from a new ISP. The company requires hosted world wide web, file transfer, and e-mail services. Which three protocols represent the key application services that are required by the company? (Choose three.)

• FTP• HTTP

Page 20: Answer of CCNA DiscoveryGB

ICMPPPPTelnet• SMTP

15. Which two options correctly match protocol and well-known port number? (Choose two.)

DNS – 25FTP – 110• HTTP – 80POP3 – 25• SMTP – 25

16. Within TCP, what combination makes up a socket pair?

source port with destination portsource IP address with destination portsource IP address and destination IP address• source IP address and port with a destination IP address and port

17. Which protocol is used to send e-mail, either from a client to a server or from a server to another server?

SNMPFTP• SMTPHTTPS

18. Refer to the exhibit. The PC is requesting HTTP data from the server. What is a valid representation of source and destination sockets for this request?

Source – 192.168.1.17:80 ; Destination – 192.168.2.39:80Source – 192.168.1.17:80 ; Destination – 192.168.2.39:1045• Source – 192.168.1.17:1045 ; Destination – 192.168.2.39:80Source – 192.168.1.17:1045 ; Destination – 192.168.2.39:1061

19. What type of DNS server is typically maintained by an ISP?

• caching-onlyrootsecond-leveltop-level

20. A client is communicating with a server on a different segment of the network. How does the server determine what service is being requested by the client?

Page 21: Answer of CCNA DiscoveryGB

The server will apply the default service configured in directory services.The server will use ARP to discover the appropriate service from the local router.The server will send a request to the client asking for the appropriate service.• The server will determine the appropriate service from the destination port field.

21.

When a host is communicating with multiple applications on the same server at the same time, which of the following will have the same value for each session? (Choose two.)

• IP address• MAC addresssession numbersequence number

22.Which three fields do a TCP header and UDP header have in common? (Choose three.)

• checksum• destination port• source port END OF 7

CCNA CHAPTER 8   VER:4.1

  

Answer of CCNA Discovery : Version 4.1 by-NoNaMeZzz-

1Which AAA service reduces IT operating costs by providing detailed reporting and monitoring of network user behavior, and also by keeping a record of every access connection and device configuration change across the network?

*authentication

Page 22: Answer of CCNA DiscoveryGB

accreditation

accounting

authorization

2Which three items are normally included when a log message is generated by a syslog client and forwarded to a syslog server? (Choose three.)

date and time of message

ID of sending device

length of message

message ID

checksum field

community ID

3What is the advantage of using WPA to secure a wireless network?

*It uses a 128-bit pre-shared hexadecimal key to prevent unauthorized wireless access.

It uses an advanced encryption key that is never transmitted between host and access point.

It is supported on older wireless hardware, thus providing maximum compatibility with enterprise equipment.

It requires the MAC address of a network device that is requesting wireless access to be on a list of approved MAC addresses.

4A company wants to configure a firewall to monitor all channels of communication and allow only traffic that is part of a known connection. Which firewall configuration should be deployed?

*packet filtering

proxy

stateful packet inspection

stateless packet inspection

Page 23: Answer of CCNA DiscoveryGB

5A server log includes this entry: User student accessed host server ABC using Telnet yesterday for 10 minutes. What type of log entry is this?

authentication

authorization

accounting

accessing

6What two measures help to verify that server backups have been reliably completed? (Choose two.)

reviewing backup logs

performing trial backups

performing full backups only

replacing tape backup with hard disk-based backup

using an autoloader when backups require more than one tape

7Which means of communication does an SNMP network agent use to provide a network management station with important but unsolicited information?

query

broadcast

ICMP ping

trap

*poll

8Which three protocols are used for in-band management? (Choose three.)

FTP

HTTP

Page 24: Answer of CCNA DiscoveryGB

*SNMP

*Telnet

*TFTP

DHCP

9A hacker has gained access to sensitive network files. In analyzing the attack, it is found that the hacker gained access over a wireless segment of the network. It is further discovered that the only security measure in place on the wireless network is MAC Address Filtering. How is it likely that the hacker gained access to the network?

The hacker used a software tool to crack the shared hexadecimal wireless key.

*The hacker obtained the MAC address of a permitted host, and cloned it on his wireless laptop NIC.

The attacker mounted a denial of service attack to overwhelm the firewall before penetrating the wireless LAN.

The hacker gained wireless access to the MAC address database and added his own MAC address to the list of permitted addresses.

10A network administrator is assigning network permissions to new groups of users and employing the principle of least privilege. Which two actions should the administrator take? (Choose two.)

Provide users with only the access to resources required to do their jobs.

Provide the minimum level of permissions required for users to do their jobs.

Remove all permissions from the users and grant permissions as they are requested.

Allow users to decide how much permission they need to accomplish their job tasks.

Provide full access to the users and gradually remove privileges over time.

11Which three protocols describe methods that can be used to secure user data for transmission across the internet? (Choose three.)

SMTP

*IPSEC

Page 25: Answer of CCNA DiscoveryGB

*SSL

*HTTPS

FTP

TFTP

12Which benefit does SSH offer over Telnet when remotely managing a router?

*encryption

TCP usage

authorization

connection using six VTY lines

13Which of the following does SNMP use to hold information collected about the network?

network management station

*network management database

management information base

database information agent

14What are two potential problems with using tape media to back up server data? (Choose two.)

*Tape is not a cost-effective means of backing up data.

Data tapes are difficult to store offsite.

Data tapes are prone to failure and must be replaced often.

*Tape drives require regular cleaning to maintain reliability.

Backup logs are not available with tape backup solutions.

15What is the term for the public network between the boundary router and the firewall?

Page 26: Answer of CCNA DiscoveryGB

“clean” LAN

intranet

*DMZ

extranet

16Which two characteristics of network traffic are being monitored if a network technician configures the company firewall to operate as a packet filter? (Choose two.)

applications

physical addresses

packet size

*ports

*protocols

17When is the use of out-of-band network management necessary?

when a server needs to be monitored across the network

when the management interface of a device is not reachable across the network

when enhanced monitoring features are required to gain an overall view of the entire network

when it is desirable to use the information that is provided by SNMP

18What network layer security protocol can secure any application layer protocol used for communication?

HTTPS

IMAP

FTPS

*IPSEC

TLS

Page 27: Answer of CCNA DiscoveryGB

19Before a technician upgrades a server, it is necessary to back up all data. Which type of backup is necessary to ensure that all data is backed up?

daily

differential

full

incremental

partial

20What AAA component assigns varying levels of rights to users of network resources?

auditing

accounting

authorization

access control

*authentication

acknowledgement

END OF 8

CCNA CHAPTER 9   VER:4.1

  

Page 28: Answer of CCNA DiscoveryGB

Answer of CCNA Discovery : Version 4.1 by -ahou-

1

Reportez-vous à l’illustration. Quelle est l’adresse IP mal configurée qui est à l’origine des problèmes de connectivité entre les hôtes et les serveurs ?HôteAHôteBServeur1Serveur2R1 Fa0/0R1 Fa0/1

2Les hôtes sur deux sous-réseaux ne communiquent pas. L’administrateur réseau soupçonne une route manquante dans l’une des tables de routage. Quelles sont les trois commandes qui peuvent servir à dépanner les problèmes de connectivité de couche 3 ? (Choisissez trois réponses.)pingshow arptracerouteshow ip routeshow controllersshow cdp neighbor

3Un utilisateur éprouve des difficultés à accéder à Internet. Un administrateur réseau commence par vérifier si l’adresse IP de l’ordinateur est correctement configurée. L’administrateur envoie ensuite une requête ping à la passerelle par défaut. Sur base de ces informations, quel est le type de méthode de dépannage utilisée par l’administrateur ?Méthode descendanteMéthode ascendante

Page 29: Answer of CCNA DiscoveryGB

Méthode diviser et conquérirImpossible à déterminer sur base de ces informations

4Un technicien réseau a isolé un problème au niveau de la couche transport du modèle OSI. Quelle question apporterait des informations complémentaires sur le problème ?Un pare-feu est-il configuré sur votre PC ?Votre carte réseau est-elle dotée d’un voyant de liaison ?Votre PC est-il configuré pour obtenir des informations d’adressage à l’aide de DHCP ?Quelle adresse de passerelle par défaut est configurée dans vos paramètres TCP/IP ?Pouvez-vous envoyer une requête ping au site http://www.cisco.com ?

5Un ordinateur est capable d’accéder à des périphériques internes et externes au réseau. Toutefois, lorsqu’il tente d’accéder à un serveur FTP situé sur le même sous-réseau, l’ordinateur ne parvient pas à se connecter. L’administrateur dispose de plusieurs autres ordinateurs, situés sur le même sous-réseau, qu’il tente de connecter au serveur FTP. Cette connexion aboutit. Quel outil de dépannage doit-on utiliser pour déterminer le problème entre l’ordinateur et le serveur FTP ?Testeur de câbleMultimètre numériqueAnalyseur de protocoleAnalyseur réseau

6Un utilisateur peut accéder à une page Web sur Internet mais pas à sa messagerie. Quelle est la méthode de dépannage recommandée pour résoudre ce problème ?Méthode descendanteMéthode ascendanteMéthode diviser et conquérirImpossible à déterminer sur base de ces informations

7Combien d’adresses d’hôtes le sous-réseau 192.168.1.0/25 offre-t-il ?2541281271266462

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8

Reportez-vous à l’illustration. Les utilisateurs du réseau 10.12.10.0/24 ne peuvent pas accéder aux éléments du réseau 10.10.10.0/24. Quels sont les problèmes de ce réseau ? (Choisissez deux réponses.)R2 utilise une version différente de RIP.Il manque une instruction réseau pour R2.R1 contient une instruction réseau incorrecte.R3 contient une instruction réseau incorrecte.Il existe une boucle de routage entre les trois routeurs.

9

Reportez-vous à l’illustration. Au démarrage, un routeur passe automatiquement en mode ROMMON. L’administrateur exécute la commande dir flash: et peut accéder au résultat affiché. Quelles opérations l’administrateur doit-il effectuer ensuite ?Charger un nouveau système IOS dans le routeur, via TFTPCharger un nouveau système IOS dans le routeur, via XMODEM.Démarrer le routeur, en exécutant la commande reset dans ROMMON.Effacer le fichier dans flash et redémarrer le routeur.

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Reportez-vous à l’illustration. L’ordinateur tente d’envoyer une requête ping au routeur B sur 192.168.2.2, sans résultat. Quel est le problème ?L’ordinateur ne se trouve pas dans le sous-réseau approprié.La passerelle par défaut de l’ordinateur doit être 192.168.1.1.La passerelle par défaut doit être 192.168.2.2.Le serveur DNS est incorrect.L’adresse IP de Fa0/0 du routeur A est incorrecte.

11

Reportez-vous à l’illustration. L’hôte H1 du réseau local ne peut accéder au serveur FTP sur Internet. Quels sont les éléments de configuration à l’origine du problème ? (Choisissez deux réponses.)Il n’existe aucune route vers Internet.L’adresse IP de Fa0/0 est incorrecte.L’adresse IP de S0/0/0 est incorrecte.

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La commande NAT de l’interface Fa0/0 n’est pas appliquée dans le bon sensLa commande NAT de l’interface S0/0/0 n’est pas appliquée dans le bon sens

12Quel problème est associé à la couche 4 du modèle OSI ?Un pare-feu bloque les paquets Telnet sur un hôte.L’adresse IP d’un hôte est incorrecte.Un routeur ne possède pas de route pour accéder à un hôte.Un hôte a envoyé une requête HTTP mal formulée.

13

Reportez-vous à l’illustration. Quelle est l’affirmation vraie relative à la configuration de l’adresse IP ?Les interfaces Fa0/0 et Fa0/1 peuvent être situées dans le même sous-réseau.Les interfaces Fa0/0 et RéseauA peuvent être situées dans le même sous-réseau.Les interfaces Fa0/0 et RéseauB peuvent être situées dans le même sous-réseau.Les interfaces Fa0/1 et RéseauB peuvent être situées dans le même sous-réseau.

14Un administrateur réseau procède à la mise à niveau d’un routeur Cisco 1841 en ajoutant une carte module WIC-2T. Quelle commande show l’administrateur peut-il utiliser pour vérifier si le module est correctement reconnu par le routeur ?show flash:show versionshow ip routeshow running-configuration

15 Un administrateur crée des travaux pratiques pour simuler une connexion de réseau étendu (WAN). Lors du processus de configuration, l’administrateur remarque qu’il existe plusieurs types d’encapsulation à chaque extrémité de la connexion série. Sur quelle couche du modèle OSI le problème trouve-t-il son origine ?Couche 2Couche 4Couche 5Couche 6

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Reportez-vous à l’illustration. Quelles sont les deux causes possibles de l’état de l’interface ? (Choisissez deux réponses.)L’adresse de bouclage n’est pas définie.Le type d’encapsulation présente un défaut de concordance.Un câble n’est pas relié à l’interface.Les messages de test d’activité ne sont pas reçus.L’interface a été désactivée par l’administrateur.

17

Reportez-vous à l’illustration. Un administrateur réseau procède à la transmission d’un fichier texte préconfiguré vers un routeur. Lorsque l’administrateur colle la configuration dans le routeur, un message d’erreur apparaît. Quelle peut-être la cause du problème concernant le schéma d’adressage IP ?Serial0/0 est configuré avec une adresse réseau.L’adresse IP de FastEthernet0/0 chevauche l’adresse IP sur FastEthernet0/1.Serial0/1 est configuré avec une adresse de diffusion.L’adresse IP de FastEthernet0/0 chevauche l’adresse IP sur Serial0/1.

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18Un administrateur réseau connecte un nouvel ordinateur à un port de commutateur. Le voyant lumineux de ce port s’allume en vert de manière continue. Quelle est l’affirmation qui décrit correctement l’état du port ?Le mode duplex présente un défaut de concordance.Une erreur de liaison défectueuse est survenue. Le transfert de trames par ce port est impossible.Le port est opérationnel et prêt à transmettre des paquets.Ce port a été désactivé par l’administrateur et ne peut plus transférer de trames.La mémoire flash est occupée.

19 Quels sont les éléments qui identifient des problèmes réservés à la couche 1 ? (Choisissez deux réponses.)Câbles dépassant la longueur maximaleErreurs d’encapsulationVirus et vers générant un trafic de diffusion excessifMauvaise terminaison de câblageRéception de messages « line protocol down » (protocole de ligne défaillant) sur la console du routeur

20

Reportez-vous à l’illustration. Quelles sont les affirmations correctes à propos des résultats de la commande show ip interface brief ? (Choisissez trois réponses.)FastEthernet0/0 fonctionne correctement.La commande shutdown a été appliquée à l’interface Serial0/0.FastEthernet0/0 a été configuré par la commande startup-config au démarrage.Serial0/0 rencontre un problème réseau de couche 1.FastEthernet0/1 rencontre un problème réseau de couche 2.Le port étant désactivé, Serial0/1 possède une adresse IP non présentée dans le résultat.