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Answer Key & Exp for GS Prelim Test-2 held on 25th Nov’ 2018 1. In the context of the prehistoric art forms of India, the Paintings at ‘Bhimbetka’

belong to which of the following period(s)? (1) Upper Palaeolithic (2) Mesolithic (3) Chalcolithic Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) Explanation: Earliest rock paintings in India have been reported from Upper Palaeolithic times (40000-10000 BC). Richest paintings belonging to prehistoric times in India are found in Bhimbetka. Paintings from all periods from Upper Palaeolithic, Mesolithic (10000-7000 BC) and Chalcolithic (Around 3000 BC) are found here. (Thus, all the options are correct). Themes of paintings found here are of great variety ranging from daily life events to sacred and royal images. Bhimbetka rock paintings are located in the Raisen District in the Indian state of Madhya Pradesh about 45 kilometres (28 mi) southeast of Bhopal. It is a UNESCO world heritage site that consists of seven hills and over 750 rock shelters distributed over 10 kilometres Source: XI class NCERT - An Introduction to Indian Art, Chapter 1, Page 3 2. Consider the following pairs:

Artefacts Found At

1. Lion Capital pillar : Dhauli

2. Rock Cut Elephant : Sarnath

3. The Sculpture of Yakshi

: Didarganj

4. Lomas Rishi cave : Barabar hills

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (c) Explanation: Lion Capital pillar is located at Sarnath near Varanasi Uttar Pradesh and not at Dhauli. (Thus, pair 1 is incorrect).

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Rock cut Elephant is located at Dhauli in Odisha. Ashokan major edict is located nearby. (Thus, pair 2 is incorrect). The figure of Yakshis found at Didarganj near Patna. Yakshi or Yakshini are female attendants of Kuber. Yaksha (male counterpart of Yakshi) and Yakshi depict the popular form of sculpture along with court art. (Thus, pair 3 is correct). Lomas Rishi caves are located at Barabar hills near Patna. These are rock-cut caves donated by Ashoka to Ajivika sect. (Thus, pair 4 is correct). Source: XI class NCERT, An Introduction to Indian Art Chapter 3, Page 22-25. 3. Concerning Indian history, who among the following represents one of the past

Buddhas or Manushi Buddha? (a) Shakyamuni (b) Rishabhdeva (c) Maitreya (d) Dipankara

Answer: (d) Explanation: According to Buddhist tradition, there were 24 past Buddhas before Buddha. Out of these 24 Buddhas first one is called as Dipankara. So, option (d) is correct. Shakyamuni was another name of Gautama Buddha. So option (a) incorrect. Rishabhdeva was first Tirthankara of Jainism. Hence, option (b) is incorrect. Maitreya is future Buddha to be born as last Buddha. Hence, option (c) incorrect. Source: XI class NCERT - An Introduction to Indian Art, Chapter 4, Page 30. 4. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

Cave Image

1. Ajanta : Andhakasurvada

2. Ellora : Ravana shaking Mount Kailash

3. Elephanta : Maheshmurti

Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) Explanation: Andhakasurvada belongs to the Shaivite theme. At Ajanta, only Buddhist themes are depicted. In Hindu mythology, Andhaka often refers to a malevolent asura who is killed by Shiva for trying to abduct Parvati despite being their child mentioned in Shivpuran. (Thus, pair 1 is incorrect). We find an image of Ravana shaking Mount Kailash at Ellora caves. (Thus, pair 2 is correct).

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Maheshmurti is located at Elephanta Caves. The Maheshmurti image dates back to sixth century CE. Central head is the main Shiva figure whereas the other two visible heads are of Bhairava and Uma. (Thus, pair 3 is correct). Source: XI class NCERT An Introduction to Indian Art, Chapter 4, Page 43 and 59. 5. Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Nataraja’ Bronze statue of Chola

period: (1) Shiva’s dancing position is associated with destruction and creation of the

cosmic world. (2) Shiva is shown balancing himself on his left leg and suppressing the

apasmara, the demon of ignorance. (3) Shiva’s four arms are outstretched, and the main right hand is posed in

Abhaya hasta. (4) The upper right holds the damru to keep on the beat tala. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (c) Explanation: Shiva is associated with destruction and creation of the cosmic world with which Nataraja’s dancing position is associated. (Thus, statement 1 is correct). In this Chola period bronze sculpture he has been shown balancing himself on his right leg and suppressing the apasmara, the demon of ignorance or forgetfulness, with the foot of the same leg. (Thus, statement 2 is incorrect). At the same time, he raises his left leg in bhujangatrasita stance, which represents tirobhava, that is kicking away the veil of Maya or illusion from the devotee’s mind. His four arms are outstretched, and the main right hand is posed in Abhaya hasta or the gesture suggesting. (Thus, statement 3 is correct). The upper right hand holds the damru, his favourite musical instrument to keep on the beat tala. (Thus, statement 4 is correct). The upper left-hand carries a flame while the main left hand is held in dola hasta and connects with the Abhaya hasta of the right hand. His hair locks fly on both the sides touching the circular jvala mala or the garland of flames which surrounds the entire dancing figuration. Source: XI class NCERT An Introduction to Indian Art, Chapter 7, Page 107. 6. Which of the following is NOT a feature of the ‘Gandhara Style’ of sculpture?

(a) Gandhara sculpture shows ‘Hellenistic’ elements (b) Buddha is shown with thick curly hairs (c) ‘Halo’ behind the head is a prominent element of Gandhara style. (d) Expression of calmness is depicted with half closed eyes

Answer: (c) Explanation:

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Gandhara style of art shows a mix of various styles like Bactria, Parthian and Greco Roman styles. The hellenistic style is a typical style belonging to Greco Roman art. In a Hellenistic art form sculptures are more naturalistic, and also expressive; there is an interest in depicting extremes of emotion. Thus, option (a) is correct. In Gandhara style, we find Buddha with thick curly hairs. In other styles of sculpture like Mathura and Sarnath, we find different hair styles like thin hair with hair knot. Thus, option (b) is correct. Halo behind the head of the image is not a prominent feature of Gandhara style. We find halo behind the head at Mathura and Sarnath school of sculpture making. There is also a difference, at Sarnath we find central part of the halo is plain without any decoration. In Mathura school of sculpture, we find large halo decorated with simple geometric designs. Thus, option (c) is incorrect. Buddha is shown with half-closed eyes feature similar to Sarnath school of sculpture. The half-closed eyes depicts calmness of the image. Thus, option (d) is correct. Source: XI class NCERT An Introduction to Indian Art, chapter 4, Page 48-53. 7. The Harappans procured materials for craft production from various places. Match

the material and the place from which they were sourced:

Material Place

A. Lapis Lazuli 1. Southern Aravali, North Gujarat

B. Carnelian 2. Khetri, Rajasthan

C. Steatite 3. Shortughai, Afghanistan

D. Metal 4. Bharuch, Gujarat

Codes A B C D (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 3 4 1 2 (c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 4 3 1 2

Answer: (b) Explanation: The Harappans procured materials for craft production in various ways and from various places. The Harappans procured materials for craft production in various ways. For instance, they established settlements such as Nageshwar and Balakot in areas where the shell was available. Other such sites were Shortughai, in far-off Afghanistan, near the best source of lapis lazuli, a blue stone that was very highly valued, and Lothal which was near sources of carnelian (from Bharuch in Gujarat), steatite (from southern Aravali, north Gujarat) and metal (from Khetri, Rajasthan). Another strategy for procuring raw materials may have been to send expeditions to areas such as the Khetri region of Rajasthan (for copper) and south India (for gold). These expeditions established communication with local communities. Source: Themes in Indian History Part 1, Theme 1, Page 12. 8. Consider the following statements:

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(1) James Princep first deciphered this script. (2) It was the script used to write in Prakrit language on earliest inscriptions. (3) Most of the scripts used to write modern Indian languages, are derived from

this script. (4) It is the script used in most Ashokan inscriptions. The above statements hold true for which script? (a) Kharoshti (b) Prakrit (c) Devanagri (d) Brahmi

Answer: (d) Explanation: Most scripts used to write modern Indian languages are derived from Brahmi, the script used in most Asokan inscriptions. From the late eighteenth century, European scholars aided by Indian pandits worked backwards from contemporary Bengali and Devanagari (the script used to write Hindi) manuscripts, comparing their letters with older specimens. Scholars who studied early inscriptions sometimes assumed these were in Sanskrit, although the earliest inscriptions were, in fact, in Prakrit. It was only after decades of painstaking investigations by several epigraphists that James Princep was able to decipher Asokan Brahmi in 1838. Source: Themes in Indian History Part 1, Theme 2, Page 46. 9. In Ancient India, ‘Kutagarashala’ referred to:

(a) a place where the debate between philosophers took place (b) a place where the head of a tribe resided. (c) a place where children of high Brahman family were given education (d) a place where grains were stored.

Answer: (a) Explanation: Kutagarashala – literally, a hut with a pointed roof – or in groves where travelling mendicants halted. Debates between philosophers took place here. If a philosopher succeeded in convincing one of his rivals, the followers of the latter also became his disciples. So, support for any particular sect could grow and shrink over time. Buddhist texts, mention as many as 64 sects or schools of thought. Teachers travelled from place to place, trying to convince one another as well as laypersons, about the validity of their philosophy or the way they understood the world. Thus, option (a) is correct. Source: Themes in Indian History Part 1, Theme 4, Page 85. 10. With reference to the Vedic text, the term ‘Satamana’ refers to:

(a) A Group of Ministers (b) Coins (c) An Assembly of village elders (d) Weapons

Answer: (b)

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Explanation: The terms ‘Nishaka’ and ‘Satamana’ in the Vedic text refers to coins. Thus, option (b) is correct). Value Addition The life in the Later Vedic period became sedentary, and the domestication of animals and cultivation increased. Cattle were still the currency and principle movable property. The idea of private possession of lands started taking shape. Ironsmiths, weavers, jewellers, dyers, potters, are the new classes of artisans. Trade was also boosted. The Gold piece of specific weight Satamana was used as a currency rate. Use of Gold as currency is mentioned in Satapatha Brahman. Nishka was another popular currency. The other metallic coins were Suvarna and Krishnala. Barter system still existed. Money lending as the trade was prevalent. Money lenders were called Kusidin. Source: Ancient India, R.S Sharma, 11th class, Old NCERT, Chapter 12, Page 80. 11. Consider the following statements with regards to the Mauryan Empire:

(1) The concentration of power in the king characterised the Mauryan rule. (2) The Mauryans may have maintained a naval force. (3) Chandragupta Maurya established the Mauryan dynasty after defeating

Mahapadma Nanda. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) Explanation: The accounts by Megasthenes and Arthashastra suggest that Chandragupta Maurya was an autocrat and concentrated the power onto kings’ hand. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Megasthenes provides details of administration of armed forces under Mauryas. According to Megasthenes, a board of 30 members were divided into six committees. The six wings of armed forces include – the army, the cavalry, the elephants, the chariots, the navy and transport. But as the original account of Megasthenes is now lost and only its fragments have survived so many historians claim that this source is not beyond dispute. Thus the words “may have” in the statement becomes important and makes the statement correct. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Chandragupta Maurya defeated Dhananand. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Source: Ancient India, R.S Sharma, 11th class, Old NCERT, Chapter 13, Page 86-87. 12. With respect to Ancient Indian History, consider the following pairs:

Title Role

1. Bhojaka : Village Headman

2. Grihapati : Rich Peasant

3. Balisadhakas : Tax Collector

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Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? (a) 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) Explanation: As per Pali texts, Village headmen were called Bhojaka. Hence, pair 1 is correct. Grihapati was the term for rich peasants or Vaisyas. They formed a major taxpaying community. Hence, pair 2 is correct. Balisadhakas collected the Bali, i.e. tax. Hence, pair 3 is correct. Source: Ancient India, R.S Sharma, 11th class, Old NCERT, Chapter 12, Pages 80-83. 13. Which of the following pairs is/are NOT correctly matched?

Traveller Focus of Study

1. Al Biruni : Indian Varna System

2. Ibn Batuta : Poverty in India

3. Francois Bernier : Indian Cities

Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only

Answer: (b) Explanation: Al-Biruni was born in 973 A.D., in Khwarizm in present-day Uzbekistan. In 1017, when Sultan Mahmud invaded Khwarizm, he took several scholars and poets back to his capital, Ghazni; Al-Biruni was one of them. It was in Ghazni that Al-Biruni developed an interest in India. When Punjab became a part of the Ghaznavid empire, contacts with the local population helped create an environment of mutual trust and understanding. He in his book Kitab-ul-Hind tried to explain the caste system by looking for parallels in other societies (Thus 1st option is correctly matched). In spite of his acceptance of the Brahmanical description of the caste system, Al-Biruni disapproved of the notion of pollution. He remarked that everything which falls into a state of impurity strives and succeeds in regaining its original condition of purity. The sun cleanses the air, and the salt in the sea prevents the water from becoming polluted. Thus, pair 1 is correctly matched. Ibn Batuta was a Moroccan traveller born in Tangier. His book of travels, called Rihla, written in Arabic, provides extremely rich and interesting details about the social and cultural life in the subcontinent in the fourteenth century. Ibn Batuta found cities in the subcontinent full of exciting opportunities for those who had the necessary drive, resources and skills. They were densely populated and prosperous, except for the occasional disruptions caused by wars and invasions. It appears from Ibn Batuta’s account that most cities had crowded streets and bright and colourful markets that were

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stacked with a wide variety of goods. Ibn Batuta described Delhi as a vast city, with a great population, the largest in India. Thus, pair 2 is not correctly matched. Bernier’s Travels in the Mughal Empire is marked by detailed observations, critical insights and reflection of Indian Cities. His account contains discussions trying to place the history of the Mughals within some sort of a universal framework. He constantly compared Mughal India with contemporary Europe, generally emphasising the superiority of the latter. His representation of India works on the model of binary opposition, where India is presented as the inverse of Europe. Thus, pair 3 is correctly matched. Source: Themes in Indian History – Part 2, Theme 5, Pages 116-135. 14. The twelfth century India witnessed the emergence of a new movement in

Karnataka known as Virshaivism whose followers were known as Virshaivas or Lingayats. Which of the following statement is incorrect about this movement? (a) The Lingayats worshipped Shiva in his manifestation as a linga. (b) The Lingayats believed that on death the devotee would be united with Shiva

and there will be no rebirth. (c) The Lingayats bury their dead and do not cremate the body. (d) The Lingayats disapproved the post-puberty marriage and the remarriage of

widows. Answer: (d) Explanation: The twelfth century India witnessed the emergence of a new movement in Karnataka, led by a Brahmana named Basavanna (1106-68) who was a minister in the court of a Kalachuri ruler. His followers were known as Virashaivas (heroes of Shiva) or Lingayats (wearers of the linga). Lingayats continue to be an important community in the region to date. They worship Shiva in his manifestation as a linga. (Thus option a is correct), and men usually wear a small linga in a silver case on a loop strung over the left shoulder. Those who are revered include the jangama or wandering monks. Lingayats believe that on death the devotee will be united with Shiva and will not return to this world. They also questioned the theory of rebirth. (Thus option b is correct).Therefore, they do not practise funerary rites such as cremation, prescribed in the Dharmashastras. Instead, they ceremonially bury their dead. (Thus option c is correct). The Lingayats challenged the idea of caste and the “pollution” attributed to certain groups by Brahmanas. These won them followers amongst those who were marginalised within the Brahmanical social order. The Lingayats also encouraged certain practices disapproved in the Dharmashastras, such as post-puberty marriage and the remarriage of widows (Thus option d is incorrect). Our understanding of the Virashaiva tradition is derived from vachanas (literally, sayings) composed in Kannada by women and men who joined the movement. Source: Themes in Indian History – Part 2, Theme 6, Page 147. 15. Which of the following statements regarding Sufism is incorrect?

(a) Sufism is an English word, and Tasawwuf is the word used in Islamic text for Sufism.

(b) All the Sufi lineages or Silsilas were named after their founding figures/fathers. (c) Wali or friend of God was a Sufi who claimed proximity to Allah.

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(d) The Sufi verses were incorporated in Guru Granth Sahib, the holy book of Sikhs.

Answer: (b) Explanation: Sufism is an English word coined in the 19th century. The word used for Sufism in Islamic texts is Tasawwuf. Historians have understood this term in several ways. According to some scholars, it is derived from suf, meaning wool, referring to the coarse woollen clothes worn by Sufis. Others derived from suffa, the platform outside the Prophet’s mosque, where a group of close followers assembled to learn about the faith. Thus, option (a) is correct. Most Sufi lineages were named after a founding figure. However, some like the Chisti order were named after their place of origin, in this case, the town of Chishti in Central Afghanistan. Thus, option (b) is incorrect. Wali (plural Auliya) or friend of God was a Sufi who claimed proximity to Allah, acquiring his grace (Barkat) to Perform miracles (Karamat). Thus, option (c) is correct. Sufis such as Baba Farid composed verses in the local language, which were incorporated in the Guru Granth Sahib. Thus, option (d) is correct. Source: Themes in Indian History – Part 2, Theme 6, Page 153. 16. Ulatbansi is a language of poetry. Poems written in it follow a style in which

everyday meanings are inverted. Ulatbansi is a distinct contribution of which Bhakti poet? (a) Surdas (b) Mirabai (c) Kabir (d) Tukaram

Answer: (c) Explanation: Kabir’s poems have survived in several languages and dialects; and some are composed in the special language like Ulatbansi (upside-down sayings), written in a form in which everyday meanings are inverted. These hint at the difficulties of capturing the nature of the Ultimate Reality in words: expressions such as ‘the lotus which blooms without flower’ or the ‘fire raging in the ocean’ convey a sense of Kabir’s mystical experiences. Mirabai is the best-known woman poet within the bhakti tradition. Biographies have been reconstructed primarily from the bhajans attributed to her, which were transmitted orally for centuries. She defied her husband and did not submit to the traditional role of wife and mother, instead of recognising Krishna, the avatar of Vishnu, as her lover. Surdas is best known for his composition the Sur Sagar. Most of the poems in the composition, although attributed to him, seem to be composed by later poets in his name. Sursagar in its 16th-century form contain descriptions of Krishna and Radha as lovers. Tukaram is best known for his devotional poetry called Abhanga and community-oriented worship with spiritual songs known as kirtans. His poetry was devoted to Vitthala or Vithoba, an avatar of Hindu god Vishnu. Source: Themes in Indian History – Part 2, Theme 6, Page 161.

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17. Abdur Razzaq, an ambassador sent by the ruler of Persia to Vijayanagara talked about fortifications of Vijayanagara. Which of the following statements are correct regarding his account of fortification? (1) He mentioned seven lines of forts. (2) Forts encircled not only the city but also its agricultural hinterland and forests. (3) Mortars or cementing agent was employed in the construction of the forts. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) Explanation: Abdur Razzaq, an ambassador sent by the ruler of Persia to Calicut (present-day Kozhikode) in the fifteenth century, was greatly impressed by the fortifications, and mentioned seven lines of forts (Thus, statement 1 is correct). These encircled not only the city but also its agricultural hinterland and forests (Thus, statement 2 is correct). The outermost wall linked the hills surrounding the city. The massive masonry construction was slightly tapered. No mortar or cementing agent was employed anywhere in the construction (Thus, statement 3 is incorrect). The stone blocks were wedge-shaped, which held them in place, and the inner portion of the walls was of earth packed with rubble. Square or rectangular bastions projected outwards. What was most significant about this fortification is that it enclosed agricultural tracts. Abdur Razzaq noted that “between the first, second and the third walls there are cultivated fields, gardens and houses”. Source: Themes in Indian History – Part 2, Theme 7, Page 177. 18. Which of the following types of revenue systems in Mughal State is/are correctly

matched?

1. Kankut : Crops were reaped and stacked and divided by agreement in the presence of parties.

2. Batai : Crops were cut and estimated in 3 lots, the good, the middling, and the inferior to remove any doubt.

3. Khet-Batai : Fields were divided after they were sown

4. Lang-Batai : After harvest, the grains were formed in heaps and divided.

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only

Answer: (c) Explanation: In Mughal State, land revenue was the major source of the income. Akbar had instituted a system of Dahsala/ Bandobast/ Arazi/ the Zabti system. Under which, the average

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produce of different crops and the average prices from the last ten years were calculated. One-third of the average was the share of the state that was mentioned in cash. Land revenue was fixed considering both, continuity and productivity of cultivation. Polaj (land continually cultivated), parauti (fallow lands for a year) paid full prices when under cultivation. After assessing land revenue in kind, the value was converted into cash using price list or Dastur-ul-Amal, prepared at a regional level for various food crops. Various other assessment system were followed under Akbar’s reign. Kankut – Crops were cut and estimated in 3 lots, the good, the middling, and the inferior to remove any doubt; Batai – Crops were reaped and stacked and divided by agreement in the presence of parties; Khet-Batai – Fields were divided after they were sown and Lang-Batai – After harvest, the grains were formed in heaps and divided. In the question, Kankut and Batai were interchanged and thus pairs 1 and 2 are wrong. Source: Themes in Indian History – Part 2, Theme 8, Page 215. 19. In the context of the literary history of India, consider the following pairs:

Book Author

1. Rajatarangini : Kalhana

2. Lilawati : Bhaskar-II

3. Kavirajamarga : Sri Krishna Deva Raya

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) Explanation: Rajatarangini: It is a historical chronicle of early India, written in Sanskrit verse by the Kashmiri Brahman Kalhana in 1148, that is justifiably considered to be the best and most authentic work of its kind. It covers the entire span of history in the Kashmir region from the earliest times to the date of its composition. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched. Lilawati: It is Indian mathematician Bhaskara II's treatise on mathematics, written in 1150. It is the first volume of his main work, the Siddhanta Shiromani, alongside the Bijaganita, the Grahaganita and the Goladhyaya. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched. Kavirajamarga: It is the earliest available work on rhetoric, poetics and grammar in the Kannada language. It was inspired by or written in part by the famous Rashtrakuta King Amoghavarsha. Hence, pair 3 is NOT correctly matched. Source: Class 11th NCERT, Medieval India by Satish Chandra, Chapter 4, Pages 23-33. 20. Chola empire was known for their promotion to local self-government. With

reference to Chola administration, consider the following statements: (1) The affairs of the brahmana village were managed by an executive committee

to which educated persons owning property were elected.

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(2) The Mahasabhas could raise loans for the village and levy taxes but could not settle any new lands under their authority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) Explanation: One of the remarkable features of the Chola administration was their encouragement to local self-government in the villages all over their empire. We know about village government in the Chola empire from some inscriptions. There were two kinds of assemblies, called the ‘ur’ and the ‘sabha’ or ‘Mahasabha’. The ‘ur’ was a general assembly of the village. ‘Mahasabhas’ was the gathering of the adult men in the brahmana villages which were called ‘agraharas’. These villages enjoyed a large measure of autonomy. Statement 1 is correct- The affairs of the brahmana village were managed by an executive committee to which educated persons owning property were elected either by drawing lots or by rotation. These members had to retire every three years. There were other committees for helping in the assessment and collection of land revenue for the maintenance of law and order, justice, etc. One of the important committees was the tank committee which looked after the distribution of water to the fields. Statement 2 is NOT correct- The Mahasabha could settle new lands, and exercise ownership rights over them. It could also raise loans for the village and levy taxes. The self-government enjoyed by these Chola villages was a very fine system. To some extent, this system worked in other villages as well. However, the growth of local intermediaries tended to restrict their autonomy. Source: Class 11th NCERT, Medieval India by Satish Chandra, Chapter 3, Page 18. 21. With reference to early Bhakti saints of southern India, consider the following

statements: (1) Nayanars and Alvars were devotees of Vishnu and Shiva respectively. (2) These saints rejected austerities. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect - A number of popular saints called Nayanars and Alvars who were devotees of Shiva and Vishnu respectively flourished in the Tamil area between the sixth and ninth centuries. They composed their works in Tamil and other languages of the area.

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Statement 2 is correct- These saints rejected austerities. They looked upon religion not as a matter of cold, formal worship but as a living bond based on love between God and the worshipper. These saints went from place to place carrying their message of love and devotion. Many of them belonged to the lower classes. There was also a woman saint, Andal (Alvars). Nayanars were a group of 63 saints devoted to Shiva, whose writings collected into 11 volumes under the name Tirumurais in the early part of the twelfth century and are looked upon the fifth Veda. Later in twelfth-century one more volume was added which was called as Periya Puranam. Alvars were a group of 12 saints devoted to Vishnu flourished between the 5th century and 10th century. Andal is the only female saint among them. The collection of their hymns is known as Divya Prabandha. Source: Class 11th NCERT, Medieval India by Satish Chandra, Chapter 4, Page 33. 22. Which among the following are reasons for defeat of the Rajputs at the hands of the

Turks during medieval times? (1) The Turks had superior weapons as compared to the Indian rulers. (2) The Turks were more organised. (3) The Rajputs have been accused of lacking a strategic vision. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) Explanation: In the late 12th century and early 13th century, leading states of North India suffered defeat within a short span of about 15 years by the Turkish armies. Reasons: Research shows that the Turks did not have any superior weapons at their disposal as compared to the Indians. The iron-stirrup had already spread in India since the 8th century. The Turkish bows could shoot arrows to a longer distance, but the Indian bows were supposed to be more accurate and deadlier, the arrowheads being generally dipped in poison. In hand to hand combat, the Indian swords were considered best in the world. The Indians also had the advantage of elephants, but the Turks’ horses were swifter and sturdier than the horses imported into India. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. The superiority of the Turks was more social and organisational. The growth of feudalism had weakened the administrative structure and military organisation of the Indian states. The rulers had to depend more on the various chiefs who rarely acted in coordination and quickly dispersed to their areas after the battle. On the other hand, the tribal structure of the Turks and the growth of iqta and khalisa systems enabled the Turks to maintain large standing armies which could be kept in the field for a long time. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Regarding fighting spirit, the Rajputs were in no way inferior to the Turks, despite the ghazi spirit of the latter. The Rajputs put up a stout and prolonged resistance to the incursions of Arabs and Turks, but at no time did they take the offensive and try to push the Arabs or Turks from the

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strategic lands they occupied. Thus, they allowed the frontier areas of India, especially Afghanistan and Punjab, which were the outer bastion of the Ganges heartland to remain in the hostile hands. It is in this sense; the Rajputs have been accused of lacking a strategic vision. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Source: Class 11th NCERT, Medieval India by Satish Chandra, Chapter 5, Pages 36-40. 23. With reference to Balban, consider the following statements:

(1) He mandated the ceremony of sijda and paibos. (2) He introduced the system of Turkan-e-Chahalgani. (3) He re-organised the diwan-i-arz. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) Explanation: Balban who ruled India as the Sultan of Delhi from 1265 to 1287 CE was one of the greatest Sultans of the medieval period. He played the role of kingmaker. He held the position of naib or deputy to Nasiruddin Mahmud, a younger son of Iltutmish, whom Balban had helped in securing the throne in 1246. Later, with diplomacy and force usurped the throne in 1265 CE. Statement 1 is correct - He refused to laugh and joke in the court and even gave up drinking wine so that no one may see him in a non-serious mood. To emphasize that the nobles were not his equals, he insisted on the ceremony of sijda and paibos (prostration and kissing the monarch’s feet). Statement 2 is incorrect - Iltutmish introduced the system of Turkan-e-Chahalgani (The Forty). After Iltutmish, there was a power struggle between monarchy and these Turkish chiefs. He determined to finally break the power of Chahalgani and to exalt the power and prestige of the monarchy. Statement 3 is correct - To deal with internal disturbances and to repel Mongols who had entrenched themselves in Punjab and posed a serious danger to the Delhi Sultanate, he needed a strong personalised army. For this purpose, he reorganised the military department (diwan-i-arz) and pensioned off those soldiers and troopers who were no longer fit for service. Source: Class 11th NCERT, Medieval India by Satish Chandra, Chapter 6, Pages 49-51 24. Which of the following statement/s is/are true about Shivaji?

(1) Shivaji’s administrative system was adopted from the pre-existing administrative system of Deccani states.

(2) Shivaji preferred to empower his watandars to strengthen his position in the Deccan.

(3) Cash salaries were preferably given by Shivaji to his soldiers as he tried to minimise giving revenue share.

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Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) Explanation: Shivaji, during his coronation, instituted the Ashta-Pradhan Mandal which acted as his council of minister. It was inspired by the Deccani model of administration. (Thus, statement 1 is correct). In the case of watandars (landholders), Shivaji actually tried to curb their powers and limit their privileges in order to increase centralisation and minimise the exploitation of common peasant (raiyats). (Thus, statement 2 is incorrect). In the same vein, to reduce power of brokers and increase the efficiency of administration, he always tried to give cash salaries. (Thus, statement 3 is correct). Source: Class 11th NCERT, Medieval India by Satish Chandra, Chapter 19, Pages 245 and 246 25. The ‘Mughal-Sikh’ relations in medieval north India are known to be have

experienced a lot of ups and downs. Which of the following statements are correct in this regard? (1) Sikh architecture is heavily influenced by Mughal architecture (2) Jahangir had gotten Guru Arjan Singh executed. (3) Akbar donated land for the building of Harmandir Sahib (Golden Temple) to

the Sikh Guru Ram Das. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) Explanation: The Sikh architecture has matured while facing certain factors such as climate, availability of materials, the religious purposes, and the dominant cultures (Mughals and Rajputs) of that time in the surrounding areas. Like water as a design element has been commonly used in Mughal architecture. It also became an integral part of the Sikh architecture. Influence of Mughal architecture, especially of Shah Jahan's period on the Sikh Architecture can be summed by the use of the following architectural elements by the Sikhs in their shrines - Onion-shaped domes, Cusped arches, Pilasters, In lay work, Frescoes, etc. Thus, statement 1 is correct. Many Mughal Emperors didn’t like the increasing power clout and power of Sikh Gurus which challenged their sovereignty and thus tried to control them. Two of the ten Sikh Gurus were killed by Mughal Emperors – Jahangir executed Arjan Singh while Aurangzeb executed Guru Tegh Bahadur. Thus, statement 2 is correct.

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The third statement – that land to Golden Temple was donated by Akbar is a legend for which there are no strong contemporary and corroborating proofs. The legend says that Akbar donated the land to the wife of Guru Ram Das. Thus, statement 3 is incorrect. Source: Class 11th NCERT, Medieval India by Satish Chandra, chapter 17, Pages 212-220 26. ‘Zawabit’ in the context of north Indian medieval empires means

(a) Secular laws/decrees promulgated by the sultans and padshahs to aid the governance.

(b) Answers provided by the maulavis to the questions posed to them by the faithful inquisitive people.

(c) Unit of land measurement to determine land revenue. (d) Songs of devotion sung by Sufis of Chishti Silsilahs.

Answer: (a) Explanation: Zawabits were secular decrees promulgated by the sultans. They aided their administration along with the religious laws provided by Sharia and Hadis. Both Muhammad Bin Tughalaq and Alauddin Khilji are known for their zawabits. Aurangzeb Padhshah’s zawabits are compiled in a book named Zawabit-i-Alamgiri. His religious firmans are also composed in a compendium called fatwah-i-alamgiri. Thus he indulged in both secular laws as well as attempted to modify Sunni mazhab as per his understanding of piety. He was also referred to as Zinda Pir for his simple living and pious religious adherence to orthodox Sunni Islam. Units of land measurement kept evolving over the medieval times with changing reigns. The basics used were either length of rope (zarb) or length of the stick (e.g.gaj-e-sikandari, gaj-e-ilahi). Songs of devotion sung by the Sufis are of various types – dervish sung their songs while revolving around themselves, Chishtis chanted meditatively, but in communion, some dancing rituals were called raqs while individual confinement in solitude with songs was called chilla. Source: Class 11th NCERT, Medieval India by Satish Chandra, Chapter 18, Page 229. 27. Following statements are about a traveller who visited India during the Mughal

times. (1) He visited India during the era of Shah Jahan and Aurangzeb. (2) He was a doctor, historian and a philosopher. (3) He was associated as a physician to Dara Shikoh. (4) He stayed in the Mughal Empire for 12 years. (5) He was also associated with an Armenian noble Danishmand Khan. Which of the following traveller fits the description given above? (a) Francois Bernier (b) Jean-Baptiste Tavernier (c) Jean Chardin (d) Peter Mundy

Answer: (a) Explanation:

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Bernier was a French physician and traveller. He was the personal physician to Mughal prince Dara Shikoh for a brief period. He came to Mughal Empire in search of opportunities. He stayed in India from 1656-1668. He has compared the then East with West. He dedicated his writing to the king of France Louis XIV. All statements provided here regarding him are true. Tavernier was a 17th-century French gem merchant and traveller. He made six voyages to Persia and India between the years 1630 and 1668. In 1675, Tavernier, at the behest of his patron Louis XIV, published Les Six Voyages de Jean-Baptiste Tavernier. Chardin was a French jeweller and traveller whose ten-volume book The Travels of Sir John Chardin is regarded as one of the finest works of early Western scholarship on Persia and the Near East in general. Peter Mundy was a seventeenth-century British merchant trader, traveller and writer. He was the first Briton to record, in his Itinerarium Mundi ('Itinerary of the World'), tasting Chaa (tea) in China and travelled extensively in Asia, Russia and Europe. He visited Surat, Agra and Bengal while dealing with East India Company in the 17th century. Source: general – information spread across Class 11th NCERT, Medieval India by Satish Chandra. 28. Calligraphy was a very important art form in the medieval Indo-Islamic culture.

Various scripts were used to embellish the manuscripts, and some calligraphers even achieved fame and respect for their beautiful artwork. Which among the following are the names of scripts that were used to adorn the manuscripts? (1) Nastaliq (2) Tughra (3) Naqsh (4) Kufic Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (d) Explanation: These are all the names of various fonts used by calligraphers to adorn their books. The work was done in two phases – initially in tasweerkhana; the miniature paintings were done. Then the book illumination took place in kitabkhana where naqqashikars applied their art. They used various fonts as per the demand of the book and wishes of the Padshah. Akbar was known to like the Kufic script very much. Nastaliq is a straightforward script with all the nuqtas in place. Tughra is a very complicated form, which was initially used in some mosques and mausoleums but soon became relatively more prominent in Deccan sultanates and got confined to royal seals. Naqsh was a variation of Nastaliq, but it was somewhat more complicated. Source: Class 11th NCERT, Medieval India by Satish Chandra, Chapter 17, Pages 212-224. 29. Which of the following statement/statements is/are true about Tipu Sultan?

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(1) He showed a keen interest in the French Revolution. (2) He planted a ‘Tree of Liberty’ at Srirangapatnam. (3) He became a member of Jacobin Club. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) Explanation: Tipu Sultan had a keen interest in the French Revolution. Thus, statement 1 is correct. Historians document that to commemorate the commencement of the French Revolution he planted a tree in Srirangapatnam and joined the Jacobin Club which remained the motive force behind that epoch-making revolution. Thus, statements 2 and 3 are correct. He also called himself “Citizen Tipu”. Tipu Sultan exchanged numerous correspondences with Napoleon who warmly responded to him, and both had a plan to come together based on strategic affinity and interest. Source: Old Modern India NCERT by Bipan Chandra, Chapter 1, Page 15. 30. Arrange the following events related to Raja Ram Mohan Roy in chronological order:

(1) Establishment of a Vedanta College (2) Foundation of Hindu College (3) Foundation of Brahmo Samaj (4) Wrote 'Gift to Monotheists.' Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1-2-3-4 (b) 2-4-1-3 (c) 3-1-4-2 (d) 4-2-1-3

Answer: (d) Explanation: In 1809, he wrote in Persian his famous work Gift to Monotheists in which he put forward weighty arguments against belief in many gods and for the worship of a single God. In 1829, he founded a new religious society, the Brahma Sabha, later known as the Brahmo Samaj, whose purpose was to purify Hinduism and to preach monotheism or the worship of one God. The new society was to be based on the twin pillars of reason and the Vedas and Upanishads. It was also to incorporate the teachings of other religions. The Brahmo Samaj laid emphasis on human dignity, opposed idolatry, and criticised such social evils as the practice of Sati. He spent his entire life in the promotion of modern education in the country. In 1817, assisted David Hare in foundation Hindu college. In 1825, he established a Vedanta College in which courses both in Indian learning and in Western social and physical sciences were offered. Source: Old Modern India NCERT by Bipan Chandra, Chapter 5, Page 95.

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31. Several localised rebellions had occurred before the Revolt of 1857. Which of the following is the correct ascending chronological order of the events? (1) Santhal Rebellion (2) Kol Uprising (3) Barrackpore Mutiny (4) Vellore Mutiny Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 3-4-2-1 (b) 2-4-3-1 (c) 2-3-1-4 (d) 4-3-2-1

Answer: (d) Explanation: Revolt of 1857 was a no sudden occurrence. Hundreds of uprisings had taken place before 1857.

In 1806, sepoys at Vellore mutinied due to discrimination in the ranks but were crushed with terrible violence.

In 1824, 47th regiment of sepoys at Barrackpore refused to go to Burma by the sea route. The regiment was disbanded, and the leaders were hanged.

In 1831, Kol tribesmen rebelled against the British rule for imposing on them outsiders as moneylenders and landlords.

In 1855, Santhals proclaimed a government of their own in the area between Bhagalpur and Rajmahal.

Source: Old Modern India NCERT by Bipan Chandra, Chapter 6, Pages 103-108 32. The Revolt of 1857 was much more than a product of sepoy discontent. It was a

product of accumulated grievances. Which among the following can be considered as the causes for the Revolt of 1857? (1) Corruption at lower levels of administration (2) The policy of Subsidiary Alliance by Lord Dalhousie (3) Reverses suffered by the British in wars like Afghan War and Crimean War. (4) Middle and upper classes excluded from high posts in the administration. (5) Annexation of Hyderabad by Lord Dalhousie. (6) Humanitarian measures taken by the British government on the advice of

reformers. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 3, 4 and 6 only (b) 4, 5 and 6 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

Answer: (a) Explanation: Economic exploitation of the country, dislike for company’s administration and foreignness of the regime together had led to the outburst of discontent against British rule. Revolt of

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1857 began with a mutiny of the sepoys but soon engulfed major sections and regions. The following are considered to be the reasons:

The impoverishment of peasants, artisans and handicrafts owing to British land and revenue policies and withdrawal of patronage to art.

Corruption at a lower level of administration and complex judicial system.

Foreign nature of rule with the British not establishing any social connections.

Middle and upper classes exclusion from well paid higher posts in the administration.

Annexation of Awadh by Lord Dalhousie under the pretext of mal-governance.

The doctrine of Lapse policy by Lord Dalhousie put to use in case of Jhansi and Peshwa

Reverses suffered by British in foreign wars like Afghan war and Crimean war.

Conservative sentiments aroused by humanitarian measures taken up by the British on the advice of Indian reformers, in issues like Sati, Widow Remarriage, Education etc.

Source: Old Modern India NCERT by Bipan Chandra, Chapter 6, Pages 103-108. 33. Which of the following is correct about the post-1857 policy changes by British

Government? (a) Authority of India was transferred from the Secretary of State assisted by a

Council to the Board of Control and the Court of Directors. (b) An Executive Council was established to assist the Governor-General whose

members would head different departments. (c) An Imperial Legislative Council was established in 1861 in which there was no

provision for inducting Indian members. (d) The Act of 1861 further strengthened centralisation in legislation.

Answer: (b) Explanation: The Revolt of 1857 gave a severe jolt to the British administration in India and made its re-organization inevitable. The Government of India’s structure and policies underwent significant changes in the decades following the Revolt. By the Act of Parliament of 1858, the power to govern India was transferred from the East India Company to the British Crown. The authority over India, wielded by the Directors of the Company and the Board of Control, was now to be exercised by a Secretary of State for India aided by a Council. The Act of 1858 provided that the Governor-General would have an Executive Council whose members were to act as heads of different departments and as his official advisers. The Indian Council Act of 1861 enlarged the Governor’s Council to make laws, which was known as the Imperial Legislative Council. The Governor-General was authorized to add to his Executive Council between six and twelve members of whom at least half had to be non-officials who could be Indian or English. The Act of 1861 marks the turning point for this wave of centralisation when Legislative councils were to be established in Bombay, Madras and Bengal. After 1883, the administration was strictly centralized. But the extreme centralization proved to be harmful to the Government especially in the field of finance. Value Addition: Feature of Indian Councils Act, 1861

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It transformed the India's executive council into a cabinet run on the portfolio system.

The Executive Council was enlarged by addition of fifth member.

The Viceroy was allowed, under the provisions of the Act, to overrule the council on affairs if he deemed it necessary

The Viceroy was allowed to issue ordinances lasting six months if the Legislative Council is not in session in an emergency.

It restored the legislative powers of Bombay and Madras Presidencies taken away by the Charter Act of 1833.

The legislative council at Calcutta was given extensive authority to pass laws for British India as a whole, but the legislative councils at Bombay and Madras were given the power to make laws for the "Peace and good Government" for only their respective presidencies.

The Governor General was given the power to create new provinces for legislative purposes and could appoint Lieutenant Governors for the provinces.

Source: Old Modern India NCERT by Bipan Chandra, chapter 7, Pages 121-125. 34. Which of the following was given the name Damin-i-koh or was simply called

Damin? (a) Land of Santhals (b) Land of Tribals (c) Land of Farmers (d) Land of Britishers

Answer: (a) Explanation: East India Company wanted to increase the agricultural land and revenue. First, they tried to pacify Paharias of Rajmahal Hills to achieve their objectives. But having failed to subdue the Paharias and transform them into settled agriculturists, the British turned to the Santhals. The Paharias refused to cut forests, resisted touching the plough, and continued to be turbulent. The Santhals, by contrast, appeared to be ideal settlers, clearing forests and ploughing the land with vigour. The Santhals were given land and persuaded to settle in the foothills of Rajmahal. By 1832 a large area of land was demarcated as Damin-i-Koh. This was declared to be the land of the Santhals. They were to live within it, practise plough agriculture, and become settled peasants. The land grant to the Santhals stipulated that at least one-tenth of the area was to be cleared and cultivated within the first ten years. The territory was surveyed and mapped. Enclosed with boundary pillars, it was separated from both the world of the settled agriculturists of the plains and the Paharias of the hills. After the demarcation of Damin-i-Koh, Santhal settlements expanded rapidly. From 40 Santhal villages in the area in 1838, as many as 1,473 villages had come up by 1851. Over the same period, the Santhal population increased from a mere 3,000 to over 82,000. As cultivation expanded, an increased volume of revenue flowed into the Company’s coffers. Source: Themes in Indian History – Part 3, Theme – 10, Page 271. 35. With respect to the British rule in India, what does the term ‘Imperial Preferences’

imply?

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(a) The system of nominating Indian princes to Imperial Legislative Council (b) Special privileges given to British imports (c) British expenditure on Military expeditions outside the territory of India (d) The system of exempting some territories from land revenue by the Secretary

of State. Answer: (b) Explanation: Under the British rule, the Indian owned Industries such as cement, iron and steel and glass were denied protection while foreign dominated industries were given the protection they desire. Moreover, British imports were given special privileges under the system of ‘Imperial Preferences’ which Indian vehemently protested. Source: Old Modern India NCERT by Bipan Chandra, Chapter 8, Page 149 36. Which of the following statements regarding the ‘Summary Settlement’ of 1856 are

correct? (1) It was introduced in the Awadh region. (2) It was based on the assumption that the taluqdars had a permanent stake in

the land, but they had established their hold over land through force and fraud. (3) It proceeded to remove the taluqdars wherever possible. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) Explanation: The annexation of Awadh displaced not just the Nawab. It also dispossessed the taluqdars of the region. The countryside of Awadh was dotted with the estates and forts of taluqdars who for many generations had controlled land and power in the countryside. Before the coming of the British, taluqdars maintained armed retainers, built forts, and enjoyed a degree of autonomy, as long as they accepted the suzerainty of the Nawab and paid the revenue of their taluqs. The British were unwilling to tolerate the power of the taluqdars. Immediately after the annexation, the taluqdars were disarmed and their forts destroyed. The British land revenue policy further undermined the position and authority of the taluqdars. After annexation, the first British revenue settlement, known as the Summary Settlement of 1856 (Thus, statement 1 is correct), was based on the assumption that the taluqdars were interlopers with no permanent stakes in the land (Thus, statement 2 is incorrect) they had established their hold over land through force and fraud. The Summary Settlement proceeded to remove the taluqdars wherever possible. (Thus, statement 3 is correct) British land revenue officers believed that by removing taluqdars, they would be able to settle the land with the actual owners of the soil and thus reduce the level of exploitation of peasants while increasing revenue returns for the state. But this did not happen in practice: revenue flows for the state increased, but the burden of demand on the peasants did not decline. Officials soon found that large areas of Awadh were heavily over

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assessed: the increase of revenue demand in some places was from 30 to 70 per cent. Thus neither taluqdars nor peasants had any reasons to be happy with the annexation. Source: Themes in Indian History – Part 3, Theme 11, Page 298. 37. The Permanent Settlement of Bengal was brought into effect by the East India

Company headed by the Governor-General Lord Cornwallis in 1793. Which of the following objectives did the British want to achieve by introducing this revenue system? (1) Encouraging investment in agriculture. (2) Securing regular flow of revenue. (3) Ensuring surety of profit on investment to entrepreneurs. (4) Building a new class of rich landowners who would be loyal to the Company. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (d) Explanation: In introducing the Permanent Settlement, British officials hoped to resolve the problems they had been facing since the conquest of Bengal, i.e. crisis in the rural economy, recurrent famines and declining agricultural output. Officials felt that agriculture, trade and the revenue resources of the state could all be developed by encouraging investment in agriculture. This could be done by securing rights of property and permanently fixing the rates of revenue demand. If the revenue demand of the state was permanently fixed, then the Company could look forward to a regular flow of revenue, while entrepreneurs could feel sure of earning a profit from their investment, since the state would not syphon it off by increasing its claim. The process, officials hoped, would lead to the emergence of a class of yeomen farmers and rich landowners who would have the capital and enterprise to improve agriculture. Nurtured by the British, this class would also be loyal to the Company. Hence, all the statements are correct. Source: Source – Themes in Indian History – Part 3, Theme 10 Page 258 38. In the context of the Revolt of 1857, what is the importance of ‘Azamgarh

Proclamation’ of 25 August 1857? (a) Through this Proclamation, the British disposed the Mughal Emperor Bahadur

Shah II. (b) The Proclamation declared the Mutiny to be against Islam by Muslim loyalists. (c) It stated the demand of the rebels and was addressed to the civilian

population. (d) It declared Queen Victoria as the Queen of India.

Answer: (c) Explanation:

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Azamgarh Proclamation was a remarkable document which was published in the town of Azamgarh in Eastern Uttar Pradesh during the Revolt. This declaration was issued (most probably) by Firoz Shah, a grandson of the Mughal Emperor who fought in Awadh and aims to set out a manifesto for what the rebels were fighting for. This Proclamation, also called ishtahar, was secular and largely democratic in tone, appealing to “both Hindoos and Mahommedans” who were “being ruined under the tyranny and oppression of the infidel and treacherous English”. Moreover, its main appeal was to economic sentiment, laying out in great details how the British had ruined each class of citizen - zamindar, merchant, civil servants, soldiers, artisans and even the clergy - and promised them a better deal after the revolution. Source: Themes in Indian History – Part 3, Theme 11, Page 301 39. The ‘Salt March’ of Gandhiji in 1930 had a great importance in the Indian Freedom

Movement. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Salt March? (1) It was this event that first brought Mahatma Gandhi to world attention. (2) It was the first nationalist activity in which women participated in large

numbers. (3) It was the Salt March which forced upon the British the realisation that their

Raj would not last forever, and that they would have to devolve some power to the Indians.

Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) Explanation: The Salt March began on March 12, 1930, and continued till April 6, 1930. It was a 24-day non-violent march led by Mahatma Gandhi. During that time, the British had prohibited Indians from collecting or selling salt. Indians were also forced to buy the staple diet ingredient from the British, who, not only exercised a monopoly over its manufacture and sale but also levied a heavy salt tax. The salt monopoly was a fourfold curse – 1. It deprived the people of a valuable, easy village industry, 2. It involved wanton destruction of property that nature produces in abundance, 3. The destruction itself means more national expenditure, 4. An unheard-of tax of more than 1,000 per cent is exacted from starving people. The Salt March was a collective beginning of a mass resistance movement against the British tyranny. Upon reaching the seashore in Dandi, Mahatma Gandhi broke the law by producing illegal salt. This later turned into a mass civil disobedience movement throughout India as millions broke salt laws by either making salt or buying illegal salt. The Salt March began with around 80 people, but as more and more people joined in for the 390 km-long journeys, it grew into a strong force of 50,000 people. The Salt March was notable for at least three reasons. First, it was this event that first brought Mahatma Gandhi to world attention. The European and American press widely covered the march (Thus, statement 1 is correct). Second, it was the first nationalist

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activity in which women participated in large numbers. The socialist activist Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay had persuaded Gandhiji not to restrict the protests to men alone. Kamaladevi was herself one of the numerous women who courted arrest by breaking the salt or liquor laws (Thus, statement 2 is correct). Third, and perhaps most significant, it was the Salt March which forced upon the British the realisation that their Raj would not last forever, and that they would have to devolve some power to the Indians (Thus, statement 3 is correct). Source: Themes in Indian History – Part 3, Theme – 13, Page 360. 40. The Lahore Resolution popularly known as Pakistan Resolution was passed on 23rd

March 1940. Which of the following statements regarding the Resolution is/are correct? (1) Sikandar Hayat Khan, the Punjab Premier and leader of the Unionist Party,

played a role in drafting the Resolution but he was totally against the idea of Pakistan.

(2) The Resolution for the first time formally mentioned the word ‘Pakistan’, the idea which was first stated by Choudhry Rehmat Ali.

Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) Explanation: The name Pakistan or Pak-stan (from Punjab, Afghan, Kashmir, Sind and Baluchistan) was coined by a Punjabi Muslim student at Cambridge, Choudhry Rehmat Ali, who, in pamphlets written in 1933 and 1935, desired a separate national status for this new entity. No one took Rehmat Ali seriously in the 1930s, least of all the League and other Muslim leaders who dismissed his idea merely as a student’s dream. The Lahore Resolution was prepared by the Muslim League Working Committee and was presented by A. K. Fazlul Huq, the Prime Minister of Bengal, was a formal political statement adopted by the All-India Muslim League on the occasion of its three-day general session in Lahore on 22–24 March 1940. On 23 March 1940, the Muslim League moved a resolution demanding a measure of autonomy for the Muslim majority areas of the subcontinent. This ambiguous resolution never mentioned partition or Pakistan (Thus, statement 2 is incorrect). Sikandar Hayat Khan, Punjab Premier and leader of the Unionist Party, played a part in drafting the resolution, declared in a Punjab assembly speech on 1 March 1941 that he was opposed to a Pakistan that would mean “Muslim Raj here and Hindu Raj elsewhere ... If Pakistan means unalloyed Muslim Raj in Punjab, then I will have nothing to do with it.” He reiterated his plea for a loose (United), confederation with considerable autonomy for the confederating units (Thus, statement 1 is correct). Source: Themes in Indian History – Part 3, Theme – 14, Page 386. 41. The phrase ‘Breakwaters in the storm’ in the context of modern Indian history has

been used for:

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(a) Modern educated Indian intelligentsia (b) Landlords and Moneylenders (c) Princely States (d) The Upper castes and the Conservatives

Answer: (c) Explanation: After the Revolt of 1857 the British reversed their policy towards the Indian states. Most of the Indian princes had not only remained loyal to the British but had actively aided the latter in suppressing the Revolt. In this context, Lord Canning had given them the epithet of ‘Breakwaters in the storm’. Their loyalty was now rewarded with the announcement that their right to adopt heirs would be respected and the integrity of their territories guaranteed against future annexation. The experience of the 1857 Revolt had made them decided to use the princely states as firm props of British rule in India. However, the British made it clear that the princes ruled their states merely as agents of the British crown. The princes accepted this subordinate position and willingly became junior partners in the empire because they were assured of their continued existence as rulers of their states. Source: Old Modern India NCERT by Bipan Chandra, chapter 7, Page 127. 42. Which of the following statements hold true for ‘Government of India Act, 1919’?

(a) It introduced dyarchy at the Central government. (b) Under it, finance and law & order were declared transferred subjects. (c) Some of the Congress leaders were in favour of accepting the proposal. (d) It introduced some restrictions on Central government over the Provincial

governments. Answer: (c) Explanation: In line with the Government policy, Montagu’s statement in 1917 resulted in further constitutional reforms in 1918, known as Montagu-Chelmsford reforms or Montford reforms. Based on these, the Government of India Act 1919 was enacted. The main provisions were the following: The Central Legislature would comprise of two chambers- The Council of State and the Indian Legislative Assembly. The Central Legislature could enact laws on any matter for the whole of India. The Governor-General was empowered to summon, prorogue, dissolve the Chambers, and to promulgate Ordinances. The number of Indians in Viceroy's Executive Council would be three out of eight members. Establishment of unicameral Provincial Legislative Councils. Dyarchy was introduced in the Provinces (Makes option a wrong). Subjects were divided into - Reserved subjects like Finance, Law and Order, army, police etc. (Makes option b wrong). Transferred subjects like Public Health, Education, agriculture, local self-government etc. The central government had unrestricted control over provincial governments (Makes option d wrong). Some of the veteran Congress leaders led by Surendranath Banerjee were in favour of accepting the government proposals. They left the Congress at this time and founded Indian Liberal Federation (Thus option c is correct). Source: Old Modern India NCERT by Bipan Chandra, Chapter 12, Page 221.

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43. Consider the following statements regarding Communist politics in pre-independent

India: (1) M.N. Roy became the first Indian to be elected to the leadership position at

the Communist International. (2) Muzaffar Ahmed and S.A. Dange were tried in the Kanpur Conspiracy Case. (3) In 1925, the Communist Party of India came into existence. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) Explanation: In 1920, Roy was invited to Moscow to attend the second conference of the Communist International. Roy had several meetings with Lenin before the Conference. He differed with Lenin on the role of the local bourgeoisie in nationalist movements. On Lenin's recommendation, the supplementary thesis on the subject prepared by Roy was adopted along with Lenin's thesis by the second conference of the Communist International. The following years witnessed Roy's rapid rise in the international communist hierarchy. By the end of 1926, Roy was elected as a member of all the four-official policy-making bodies of the Comintern - the praesidium, the political secretariat, the executive committee and the world congress. (Thus, statement 1 is correct). In 1924, the Government had tried to cripple the nascent communist movement by trying S.A. Dange, Muzaffar Ahmed, Nalini Gupta and Shaukat Usmani in the Kanpur Bolshevik Conspiracy Case. All four were sentenced to four years of imprisonment. (Thus, statement 2 is correct), The Communist Party of India was formed on 26 December 1925 at the first Party Conference in Kanpur, then Cawnpore. The founding members of the party were M.N. Roy, Evelyn Trent Roy (Roy's wife), Abani Mukherji, Rosa Fitingof (Abani's wife), Mohammad Ali (Ahmed Hasan), Mohammad Shafiq Siddiqui, Rafiq Ahmed of Bhopal and M.P.B.T. Acharya, and Sultan Ahmed Khan Tarin of North-West Frontier Province. (Thus, statement 3 is correct) Source: Old Modern India NCERT by Bipan Chandra, Chapter 13, Pages239-240 44. Consider the following statements regarding the ‘All India States People’s

Conference’ in the Princely States? (1) The All India States People’s Conference was founded in 1927 to coordinate

political activities in different States. (2) Subhash Chandra Bose became the President of All India States People’s

Conference in 1939. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Answer: (a) Explanation: In many Princely States, during the first quarter of 20th century, Praja Mandals or States’ People’s Conferences were organised e.g. in Mysore, Hyderabad, Baroda, the Kathiawad States, the Deccan States, Jamnagar, Indore, and Nawanagar. This process came to a head in December 1927 with the convening of the All India States’ People’s Conference (AISPC) which was attended by 700 political workers from the States and All India States People’s Conference was founded (Thus, statement 1 is correct). The men chiefly responsible for this initiative were Balwant Rai Mehta, Maniklal Kothari and G.R. Abhyankar. Jawaharlal Nehru was invited to become the President of the All-India body in 1935, became the President in 1939 and remained so until 1946. (Thus, statement 2 is incorrect) Source: Old Modern India NCERT by Bipan Chandra, Chapter 13, Page 257. 45. Which of the following statements regarding the text of ‘The Pledge of

Independence’ of 26 January 1930 is/are correct? (1) It talked about the fourfold disasters – Economic, Political, Cultural and Social,

that the British rule over India had caused. (2) It stated that the most effective way of gaining independence was non-

violence. (3) It mentioned freedom as an inalienable right for full opportunities to grow. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) Explanation: The Indian National Congress met in Lahore in December 1929. The pledge was approved by the Congress just before midnight on December 31, 1929. The pledge was taken by the public on January 26, 1930. One option before the Congress was to demand Dominion Status, under which India would have still remained at least nominally under British rule. The Congress rejected this option and instead asked for Purna Swaraj, which means Full Independence. It talked about the fourfold disaster – Economic, Political, Cultural and Spiritual, that the British rule over India has caused. (Thus, statement 1 is incorrect). It stated that it is the inalienable right of the Indian people, as of any other people, to have freedom and to enjoy the fruits of their toil and have the necessities of life, so that they may have full opportunities of growth (Thus, statement 3 is correct). It recognized that the most effective way of gaining our freedom is through non-violence (Thus, statement 2 is correct). Source: Old Modern India NCERT by Bipan Chandra, Chapter 13, Page 246. 46. In the context of Modern Indian history, the famous ‘Younghusband expedition’ is

related to which of the following incident?

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(a) Indo-Bhutan settlement of 1865 (b) The Second Anglo-Afghan war (c) The British invasion of Tibet (d) Annexation of Assam ‘duars’

Answer: (c) Explanation: The British expedition to Tibet, also known as the British invasion of Tibet or the Younghusband expedition to Tibet began in December 1903 and lasted until September 1904.The expedition was intended to counter Russia's perceived ambitions in the East and was initiated largely by Lord Curzon, the head of the British India government. At Lhasa, the Commission forced remaining Tibetan officials to sign the Treaty of Lhasa (1904), before withdrawing to Sikkim in September, with the understanding the Chinese government would not permit any other country to interfere with the administration of Tibet. Tibet was to pay Rs 25 lakhs as indemnity, Chumbi valley was to be occupied by the British for three years, and a British trade mission was to be stationed at Gyantse. Source: Old Modern India NCERT by Bipan Chandra, chapter 10, Page 179 47. Consider the following statements with respect to the Industrial development under

British rule in India: (1) Most of the modern industries were owned or controlled by British capital. (2) In cotton textile Industry, India had a large share from the beginning in the

international market. (3) Industrial progress in India was confined to sugar and cement in the 19th

century and tea and coffee plantations in the 1930s. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 only

Answer: (a) Explanation: The machine age in India started with cotton textile, jute and coal mining industries in the 1850s. But all these industries had very stunted growth. Most of the modern industries were owned or controlled by British capital.(Thus, statement 1 is correct). For many products like tea, jute and manganese, India had a ready demand the world over. In cotton textile Industry, India had a large share from the beginning in the international market. (Thus, statement 2 is correct) On the whole industrial progress in India was exceedingly slow and painful. It was mostly confined to cotton, jute industries and tea plantations in the 19th century and sugar and cement in the 1930s. (Thus, statement 3 is incorrect.) Source: Old Modern India NCERT by Bipan Chandra, chapter 11, Pages 146-151 48. Which of the following statements regarding the Theosophical Society are correct?

(1) Blavatsky and Olcott originally founded it at Adyar near Madras.

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(2) Annie Besant became its President in 1907. (3) It advocated the revival and strengthening of ancient religions like

Zoroastrianism. (4) They recognised the doctrine of the transmigration of the soul. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (c) Explanation: Some western origin individuals were attracted to Indian thought and culture. Madam H.P. Blavatsky and Colonel M.S. Olcott originally founded the Theosophical society in 1875 in the United States of America (Thus, statement 1 is Incorrect). They later came to India and founded the headquarters of the society at Adyar in 1886. The movement gained some popularity after the election of Annie Besant as its president in 1907 when Olcott died. (Thus, statement 2 is Correct). The society advocated the revival and strengthening of the ancient religions of Hinduism, Zoroastrianism, and Buddhism. (Thus, statement 3 is Correct). The society believed in reincarnation and Karma. (Thus, statement 4 is Correct).Their beliefs were based on the philosophy of Upanishads and Samkhya, Yoga and Vedanta school of thoughts. Although rooted in traditional beliefs they aimed to work for the benefit of humanity with the spirit of brotherhood without any distinction based on caste, race, sex or colour. Source: Old Modern India NCERT by Bipan Chandra, Chapter – 10, Page 175. 49. Consider the following statements regarding the participation of different sections of

the society in the Swadeshi Movement of 1905: (1) Students played a prominent part in the movement. (2) Women for the first time registered mass participation in a national movement. (3) There was no Muslim participation in the movement. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) Explanation: The Swadeshi Movement with its multi-faceted programme and activity was able to draw for the first time large sections of society into active participation in modern nationalist into the ambit of modern political ideas. The social base of the national movements now extended to include a certain zamindari section, the lower middle class in the cities and small towns and school and college students on a massive scale. (Thus, statement 1 is correct). Women came out of their homes for the first time in large numbers and joined processions and picketing. (Thus, statement 2 is correct). Though, the main drawback of the Swadeshi Movement was that it was not able to garner the support of the mass of Muslims and especially of the Muslim peasantry. But some of

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the Muslims like Barrister Abdul Rasul, Liaqat Hussain, Guznavi, Maulana Azad (who joined one of the revolutionary terrorist groups) participated in the movement. (Thus statement 3 is incorrect) Source: Old Modern India NCERT by Bipan Chandra, Chapter 11, Page 195-197 50. Match the following political organisations before the formation of Indian National

Congress with their founders:

Organisation Founder

A. East India Association 1. Pherozeshah Mehta

B. Indian Association of Calcutta 2. Justice Ranade

C. Poona Sarvajanik Sabha 3. Dadabhai Naoroji

D. Bombay Presidency Association 4. Surendranath Banerjee

Codes A B C D (a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 2 4 1 3 (c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 1 2 3 4

Answer: (a) Explanation: East India Association was an organization established by some Indian students in London on 1 October 1866 on the initiative of Dadabhai Naoroji. Its stated objective was to advocate for and promote the public interest. It worked towards presenting the correct information about India to the British Public and voice Indian grievances in the British press. Indian Association of Calcutta was founded in Bengal in 1876 by Surendranath Banerjea and Ananda Mohan Bose; it soon displaced the Indian League, which had been founded the year before, and rivalled the long-standing British Indian Association, which it regarded as a reactionary body of landlords and industrialists. It was the most important pre-Congress Nationalist organisation. Poona Sarvajanik Sabha was founded by MG Ranade in 1870 to represent the aspirations of the people to government. It published a quarterly journal to put forth the problems of people before the government. The Bombay Presidency association was founded by Pherozeshah Mehta, Badruddin Tyabji, and K.T. Telang in 1885. Source: Old Modern India NCERT by Bipan Chandra, Chapter 9, Pages 158 and 159 51. Consider the following statements about Mahatma Gandhi National Rural

Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA), 2005. (1) The Act provides legal guarantee of 100 days of wage employment to every

person, male or female in rural areas in order to ensure livelihood security. (2) It has an inbuilt component of sustainable development and durability. (3) MGNREGA works can even be taken up on private land only if the landowner

is also a job cardholder.

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Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) Statement 1 is incorrect. MGNREGA 2005 provides a legal guarantee of at least 100 days of wage employment to every household (at least one able-bodied person in each rural household), not every eligible person to ensure livelihood security in rural areas. Statement 2 is correct. It is also aimed at sustainable development to address the cause of drought, deforestation and soil erosion. Only those components of admissible works that lead to creation of durable assets may be taken up under MGNREGA. Statement 3 is correct. For works to be taken up on private land and homestead, the individual landowner shall be a job card holder and also work in the project. Additional Information: All works shall be approved by the Gram Sabha and the Gram Panchayat. Items of expenditure that are recurring in nature and/or do not lead to creation of durable assets, are not permitted under MGNREGA. Source: IX NCERT Economics Chapter 3; Poverty as a Challenge Page 39 http://nrega.nic.in/Circular_Archive/archive/guidelines_for_New_works.pdf 52. Which of the following pairs is/are matched correctly?

Price Meaning

1. Minimum Support Price : Prices at which Food Corporation of India procures food grains.

2. Issue Price : Prices at which the government supplies food grains to poor.

3. Fair and Remunerative Price

: Prices for purchase of sugarcane from the farmers by sugar mills.

Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) Explanation: Pair 1 is correctly matched. The Food Corporation of India (FCI) purchases wheat and rice from the farmers in states where there is surplus production. The MSP is declared by the government every year before the sowing season to provide incentives to farmers for raising the production of these crops. Pair 2 is correctly matched. In order to distribute foodgrains in the deficit areas and among the poorer strata of the society, a price lower than the market price also known as Issue Price is used.

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Pair 3 is correctly matched. The Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) is applicable for purchase of sugarcane from the farmers in the sugar season by the sugar mills. Additional Information: Both MSP and FRP are recommended by Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) and declared by Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA). Source: IX NCERT: Economics: Chapter 4: Food Security in India Page 47 http://www.pib.nic.in/Pressreleaseshare.aspx?PRID=1539078. 53. Consider the following statements about ‘National Food Security Act, 2013’:

(1) It aims to provide nutritional security along with food security. (2) Its targeted beneficiaries are the people living below poverty line in India. (3) It has special focus on women, children and elderly. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. National Food Security Act 2013 was enacted with the objective to provide food and nutritional security at affordable prices to people. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Act aims to cover up to 75% of the rural population and upto 50% of the urban population with subsidized food grains under Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS), thus covering about two-thirds of the population. Thus, it is not restricted only to people living BPL. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Act has a special focus on the nutritional support to women and children only. Besides meal to pregnant women and lactating mothers during pregnancy and six months after the child birth, such women are also be entitled to receive maternity benefit of not less than Rs. 6,000. Children up to 14 years of age are entitled to nutritious meals as per the prescribed nutritional standards. No special focus on elderly is provided for in the Act. Source: IX NCERT: Economics: Chapter 4: Food Security in India Page49 http://dfpd.nic.in/nfsa-act.htm 54. Which of the following statements about ‘Antyodaya Anna Yojana’ is/are correct?

(1) It is targeted towards all the people living below poverty line. (2) It aims to provide 35kg of subsidized food grains to households irrespective of

their size. (3) It includes all primitive tribal households. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

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Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Under this scheme only the poorest among the BPL families are covered under the targeted public distribution system. Statement 2 is correct. 35 Kg of food grains are given to each eligible family at a highly subsidised rate of Rs 2 per kg for wheat and Rs 3 per kg for rice. This quantity is irrespective of the size of the household. Statement 3 is correct. In order to identify the households following criteria is adopted: -

Landless agriculture labourers, marginal farmers, rural artisans/craftsmen, such as potters, tanners, weavers, blacksmiths, carpenters, slum dwellers.

Persons earning their livelihood on daily basis in the informal sector like porters, coolies, rickshaw pullers, hand cart pullers, fruit and flower sellers, snake charmers, rag pickers, cobblers, destitute and other similar categories in both rural and urban areas.

Household headed by Widows or terminally ill persons or disabled persons or persons aged 60 years or more or single women or single men with no family or societal support or assured means of subsistence.

All primitive tribal households are included as beneficiaries under AAI.

All eligible BPL families of HIV positive persons in the AAY list of on priority. Source: IX NCERT: Economics: Chapter 4: Food Security in India Page 50 http://www.pib.nic.in/newsite/mbErel.aspx?relid=95141 55. Which of the following dimensions is not considered while calculating Human

Development Index by United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)? (a) Standard of living (b) Knowledge (c) Gender equality (d) Long and healthy life

Answer: (c) Explanation: The Human Development Index is a statistic composite index of life expectancy, education, and per capita income indicators, which are used to rank countries into four tiers of human development. A country scores a higher HDI when the lifespan is higher, the education level is higher, and the GDP per capita is higher. Source: X NCERT: Understanding Economic Development: Chapter 1: Development: Page 13.

http://www.hdr.undp.org/en/humandev

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56. Which of the following statement correctly defines ‘Under-employment’? (a) A situation when a group of population is not adequately represented in the

labour force. (b) A situation when workers are underpaid due to slowdown of the economy. (c) A situation when labour market is unable to provide jobs for everyone who

wants one. (d) A situation when the marginal productivity of some workers is zero.

Answer: (d) Explanation: Option (a) is incorrect. This is called under-representation of that group in the labour force. For ex. Women are under-represented in the Indian labour force. Option (b) is incorrect. Underemployment is not related to slowdown of economy. Option (c) is incorrect. This is called Structural Unemployment. It happens because there is a mismatch between the skills of the unemployed workers and the skills needed for the available jobs. Option (d) is correct. The marginal productivity of an input (factor of production) is the change in output resulting from employing one more unit of a particular input. Underemployment is a situation when even if you move a few people out, production will not be affected. Thus, the marginal productivity of some workers is zero. Additional Information: In case of underemployment, everyone is working, no one remains idle, but in actual fact, their labour effort gets divided. Each one is doing some work but no one is fully employed. This is the situation of underemployment, where people are apparently working but all of them are made to work less than their potential. This kind of underemployment is hidden in contrast to someone who does not have a job and is clearly visible as unemployed. Hence, it is also called disguised unemployment. Source: X NCERT: Understanding Economic Development: Chapter 2: Sectors of Indian Economy: Page26. 57. Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Self Help Groups’ (SHG):

(1) These are non-profit organizations working for a number of social issues. (2) The members of SHG include people of civil society volunteering for

development of underprivileged sections of society. (3) These help borrowers overcome the problem of lack of collateral for bank

loans. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) None of the above

Answer: (c) Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. SHGs are not necessarily non-profit organizations. Statement 2 is incorrect. SHGs are organizations of rural poor usually belonging to one neighbourhood, who pool their resources in order to take up loans from banks for a

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number of purposes like releasing mortgaged land, for meeting working capital needs (e.g. buying seeds, fertilisers, raw materials like bamboo and cloth), for housing materials, for acquiring assets like sewing machine, handlooms, cattle, etc. Statement 3 is correct. Most of the important decisions regarding the savings and loan activities are taken by the group members. Also, it is the group which is responsible for the repayment of the loan. Any case of non-repayment of loan by any one member is followed up seriously by other members in the group. Because of this feature, banks are willing to lend to the poor women when organized in SHGs, even though they have no collateral as such. Thus, the SHGs help borrowers overcome the problem of lack of collateral. Source: X NCERT: Understanding Economic Development: Chapter 3: Money and Credit Page51. 58. Which of the following does not include liberalization of foreign trade for any

country? (1) Domestic content requirements (2) Removal of custom duties (3) Removal of excise duties (4) Easing up of trade sanctions Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer: (a) Explanation: Removing barriers or restrictions set by the government is known as liberalization. Statement 1 is correct. Domestic content requirement means that some firm has to mandatorily source some percentage of its input from local sources. This will increase restrictions on import and hence does not include liberalization. Statement 2 is incorrect. Customs duties are a type of tax charged on goods from outside the country. Removal of custom duties will remove restrictions and hence is included in liberalization. Statement 3 is correct. An excise duty is a type of tax charged on goods produced within the country. Their removal will not cause liberalization as these are not related to foreign trade. Statement 4 is incorrect. Sanctions are a type of Non-tariff barrier to trade. Easing up of sanctions will lead to liberalization. Source: X NCERT: Understanding Economic Development: Chapter 4: Globalization and Indian Economy Page 64 + general economics concepts. 59. Which of the following include the intended/potential benefits of Special Economic

Zones (SEZs)? (1) Generation of additional economic activity (2) Promotion of exports of goods and services (3) Promotion of imports of goods and services

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(4) Promotion of investment from domestic sources (5) Promotion of investment from foreign sources Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only (b) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only (c) 1, 2 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: (b) Explanation: After extensive consultations, the SEZ Act, 2005, came into effect in2006, providing for drastic simplification of procedures and for single window clearance on matters relating to central as well as state governments. The main objectives of the SEZ Act are:

generation of additional economic activity

promotion of exports of goods and services

promotion of investment from domestic and foreign sources

creation of employment opportunities

development of infrastructure facilities

Promotion of imports is not an objective of SEZs. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Source: X NCERT: Understanding Economic Development: Chapter 4: Globalization and Indian Economy Page 67

http://sezindia.nic.in/cms/introduction.php. 60. Which of the following is incorrect about ‘Consumers International’?

(a) It was formerly known as International Organisation of Consumers Unions. (b) Its members include independent consumer organizations from many

countries. (c) It is a body formed under the UN Guidelines for Consumer Protection, 1985. (d) It is working globally as a champion of consumer’s rights.

Answer: (c) Explanation: Statement a, b and d are correct. Statement c is incorrect. It is not formed under the guidelines. Instead the adoption of these guidelines by UN is an achievement of the organization. Consumers International, formerly known as the International Organization of Consumers Unions (IOCU), was started in 1960 by a group of five consumer organizations from the US, Western Europe and Australia. Originally it was established as a global information exchange between the increasing number of consumer product-testing organizations that had sprung up in the post-war years. However it quickly established a reputation as an agent for change on the consumer issues of the day. In 1985 United Nations adopted the UN Guidelines for Consumer Protection (Consumer International was formed before these were adopted). This was a tool for

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nations to adopt measures to protect consumers and for consumer advocacy groups to press their governments to do so. At the international level, this has become the foundation for consumer movement. Today, Consumers International has become an umbrella body to over 220 member organizations from over 115 countries. Source: X NCERT: Understanding Economic Development: Chapter 5: Consumer Rights Page 78 https://www.consumersinternational.org/who-we-are/our-history/ https://www.consumersinternational.org/ 61. With reference to the Consumer Protection Act 1986 which of the following

statements is/are correct? (1) The Act provides redress only in cases of products or services for personal

use; and not in cases where products are used for commercial purposes. (2) Under the Act, a three-tier quasi-judicial machinery at the district, state and

national levels was set up for redressal of consumer disputes. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Explanation: Consumer Protection Act, 1986 is an Act of the Parliament of India enacted in 1986 to protect the interests of consumers in India. This Act is applicable on all the products and services, until or unless any product or service is especially debarred out of the scope of this Act by the Central Government. This Act is applicable to all the areas whether private, public or cooperative. However, the Act provides redress only in cases of products or services for personal use; and not in cases where products are used for commercial purposes. This Act provides many rights to consumers. These rights are related to safety, information, choice, representation, redressal, education etc. Consumer courts have been established so that the consumers can enjoy their rights. This Act presents Three- tier Grievances Redressal Machinery:

At District Level-District Forum At State Level -State Commission At National Level – National Commission.

Source: NCERT: Understanding Economic Development: Chapter 5: Consumer Rights Page 78 https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Consumer_Protection_Act,_1986. 62. Which of the following correctly explains "OPERATION BARGA"?

(a) It was a police action launched against the princely state of Hyderabad. (b) It was a land reform programme by CPI led West Bengal government. (c) It was the first all India anti-Naxalite operation by the Central government. (d) It is a recently launched mission to increase jute protection.

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Answer: (b) Explanation: After promising land reforms and getting elected to power in West Bengal in 1977, the Communist Party of India (Marxist) kept its word and initiated gradual land reforms, such as Operation Barga. The result was a more equitable distribution of land among the landless farmers, and enumeration of landless farmers. This has ensured an almost lifelong loyalty from the farmers and the communists retained the power till 2011 assembly election. Source: XI NCERT: Indian Economic Development: Chapter 2: Indian Economy 1950-1990 Page 22-23. 63. ‘Karve Committee’ played an important role in post independent planning of Indian

economy. With which of the following subjects was it related? (a) Poverty estimates (b) Village and small scale industries (c) Framing the plan of Green Revolution (d) Community Development Programme

Answer: (b) Explanation: In 1955, the Village and Small-Scale Industries Committee, also called the Karve Committee, noted the possibility of using small-scale industries for promoting rural development. In 1950, a small-scale industrial unit was one which invested a maximum of rupees five lakh; at present the maximum investment allowed is Rs 1 crore. It is believed that small-scale industries are more ‘labour intensive’ i.e., they use more labour than the large-scale industries and, therefore, generate more employment. But these industries cannot compete with the big industrial firms; it is obvious that development of small-scale industry requires them to be shielded from the large firms. For this purpose, the production of a number of products was reserved for the small-scale industry. They were also given concessions such as lower excise duty and bank loans at lower interest rate. Source: XI NCERT: Indian Economic Development: Chapter 2: Indian Economy 1950-1990 Page 29. 64. The policy of ‘import substitution’ was based on the notion that

(1) Industries of the developing countries are not in a position to compete with goods imported from the developed world.

(2) It was assumed that if domestic industries are protected they will learn to compete in due course of time.

(3) Our planners feared the possibility of foreign exchange being spent on imports.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

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Answer: (d) Explanation: The industrial policy that we adopted was closely related to the trade policy. In the first seven plans, trade was characterized by what is commonly called an inward looking trade strategy. Technically, this strategy is called import substitution. This policy aimed at replacing or substituting imports with domestic production. For example, instead of importing vehicles made in a foreign country, industries would be encouraged to produce them in India itself. In this policy the government protected the domestic industries from foreign competition. Protection from imports took two forms: tariffs and quotas. Tariffs are a tax on imported goods; they make imported goods more expensive and discourage their use. Quotas specify the quantity of goods which can be imported. The effect of tariffs and quotas is that they restrict imports and, therefore, protect the domestic firms from foreign competition. The policy of protection is based on the notion that industries of developing countries are not in a position to compete against the goods produced by more developed economies. It is assumed that if the domestic industries are protected they will learn to compete in the course of time. Our planners also feared the possibility of foreign exchange being spent on import of luxury goods if no restrictions were placed on imports. Source: XI NCERT: Indian Economic Development: Chapter 2: Indian Economy 1950-1990 Page 30. 65. The poor who regularly move in and out of poverty are called

(a) Chronic poor (b) Churning poor (c) Occasionally poor (d) None of the above

Answer: (b) Explanation: People who are always poor and those who are usually poor but who may sometimes have a little more money (example: casual workers) are grouped together as the chronic poor. Another group are the churning poor who regularly move in and out of poverty (example: small farmers and seasonal workers) and the occasionally poor who are rich most of the time but may sometimes have a patch of bad luck. They are called the transient poor. And then there are those who are never poor and they are the non-poor. Source: XI NCERT: Indian Economic Development: Chapter 4: Poverty Page 64. 66. Consider the following statements about ‘Organic Farming’:

(1) Organic agriculture is a whole system of farming that restores, maintains and enhances the ecological balance.

(2) Organic agriculture offers a means to substitute costlier agricultural inputs (such as HYV seeds, chemical fertilizers, pesticides etc.) with locally produced organic inputs that are cheaper and thereby generate good returns on investment.

(3) In January 2016, Kerala became India’s first organic state. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

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(a) 1 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) None of the above

Answer: (b) Explanation: Organic agriculture is a whole system of farming that restores, maintains and enhances the ecological balance. Organic agriculture offers a means to substitute costlier agricultural inputs (such as HYV seeds, chemical fertilisers, pesticides etc.) with locally produced organic inputs that are cheaper and thereby generate good returns on investment. Organic agriculture also generates incomes through international exports as the demand for organically grown crops is on a rise. Studies across countries have shown that organically grown food has more nutritional value than chemical farming thus providing us with healthy foods. Since organic farming requires more labour input than conventional farming, India will find organic farming an attractive proposition. Finally, the produce is pesticide-free and produced in an environmentally sustainable way. In January 2016, Sikkim became the first organic state of India. Recently, Sikkim has won FAO’s Future Policy Gold Award. Source: XI NCERT: Indian Economic Development: Chapter 6: Rural Development Page 110. 67. Consider the following statements regarding subsidies by government:

(1) Subsidies do not allow prices to indicate the actual supply of a good. (2) The benefits of subsidies are disproportionately appropriated by well-off

sections of the society. (3) The agricultural subsidies in India have given rise to unscientific cropping

patterns. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) Explanation: Subsidies do not allow prices to indicate the actual supply of a good. E.g., when electricity and water are provided at a subsidized rate or free, they will be used wastefully without any concern for their scarcity. The Economic Survey 2015-16 estimated that the benefits for the small savings schemes and the tax/subsidy policies on cooking gas, railways, power, aviation turbine fuel, gold and kerosene, provide disproportionate benefits to the well-off. The survey found that together these schemes and policies provide a bounty to the well-off of about Rs 1 lakh crore. In context of cropping pattern as fertilizer, irrigation and price subsidy allows the farmer to grow a crop which is not grown in the region before, however the disproportionate price subsidy gives rise to skewed distribution of cropping pattern as the rainfed states are

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growing water-intensive crops because of their high MSPs. Thus, it gives rise to unscientific cropping pattern. Source: XI NCERT: Indian Economic Development: Chapter 2: Indian Economy 1950-1990 Page 27 https://www.indiabudget.gov.in/es2015-16/echapvol1-06.pdf 68. Since 1991, liberalisation in India has led to

(1) Reduction in the role of the RBI from facilitator to regulator of financial sector. (2) Industrial licensing not being abolished for drugs and pharmaceuticals. (3) FIIs being allowed to invest in Indian financial markets. (4) Market determined exchange rates based on the demand and supply of

foreign exchange. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (c) Explanation: Statement (1) is incorrect-Reforms during liberalization were to reduce the role of RBI from regulator to facilitator of financial sector. This means that financial sector may be allowed to take decisions on many matters without consulting the RBI. Source: XI NCERT: Indian Economic Development: Chapter 3: Liberalization, Privatization and Globalization: An Appraisal Page 41-41. 69. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:

List-I List-II

A. Maharatnas 1. Airport Authority of India

B. Navratnas 2. Steel Authority of India

C. Miniratnas 3. Oil India Ltd.

Codes A B C (a) 2 3 1 (b) 1 2 3 (c) 2 1 3 (d) 3 2 1

Answer: (a) Explanation: Navratna was the title given originally to 9 Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs) identified by the Government of India in 1997 as "public sector companies that have comparative advantages", giving them greater autonomy to compete in the global market so as to "support [them] in their drive to become global giants". PSU companies are divided into three categories:

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Maharatna Navratna Miniratna (Category I and Category II) The eligibility criteria laid down by the Government for grant of Maharatna, Navratna and Miniratna status to Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) are following: Criteria for grant of Maharatna status:- The CPSEs fulfilling the following criteria are eligible to be considered for grant of Maharatna status.

(i) Having Navratna status. (ii) Listed on Indian stock exchange with minimum prescribed public shareholding

under SEBI regulations. (iii) Average annual turnover of more than Rs. 25,000 crore, during the last 3 years. (iv) Average annual net worth of more than Rs. 15,000 crore, during the last 3 years. (v) Average annual net profit after tax of more than Rs. 5,000 crore, during the last 3

years. (vi) Should have significant global presence/international operations.

Criteria for grant of Navratna status:- The Miniratna Category – I and Schedule ‘A’ CPSEs, which have obtained ‘excellent’ or ‘very good’ rating under the Memorandum of Understanding system in three of the last five years, and have composite score of 60 or above in the six selected performance parameters, namely,

(i) net profit to net worth, (ii) manpower cost to total cost of production/services, (iii) profit before depreciation, interest and taxes to capital employed, (iv) profit before interest and taxes to turnover, (v) earning per share and (vi) inter-sectoral performance.

Criteria for grant of Miniratna status:- The CPSEs which have made profits in the last three years continuously and have positive net worth are eligible to be considered for grant of Miniratna status. There are currently 8 Maharatnas, 16 Navratnas and 60 Miniratnas-I and 15 Miniratna-II. Source: XI NCERT: Indian Economic Development: Chapter 3: Liberalization, Privatization and Globalization: An Appraisal Page44. https://dpe.gov.in/about-us/management-division/maharatna-navratna-miniratna-cpse 70. Regarding the International Monetary Fund, which of the following statement is

correct? (a) It can grant loan to any country. (b) It can grant loan to only developed countries. (c) It grants loans only to member states. (d) It can grant loan to the central bank of a country

Answer: (c) Explanation: IMF is an international organization, consisting of 189 countries working to foster global monetary cooperation, secure financial stability, facilitate international trade, promote high employment and sustainable economic growth, and reduce poverty around the world. The

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IMF is mandated to oversee the international monetary and financial system and monitor the economic and financial policies of its member countries and thus, grants loan to member states only. Source: XI NCERT: Indian Economic Development: Chapter 3: Liberalization, Privatization and Globalization: An Appraisal Page 40 URL: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/International_Monetary_Fund#Benefits 71. The Government adopted the 'Disinvestment Policy', an active tool to reduce the

burden of financing the PSUs. Which of following is/are main objectives of the disinvestment policy? (1) To reduce the financial burden on the Government (2) To improve public finances (3) To encourage wider share of ownership (4) To introduce competition and market discipline Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (d) Explanation: The new economic policy initiated in July 1991 clearly indicated that PSUs had shown a very negative rate of return on capital employed. PSUs had become inefficient and were continuing to be a drag on the Government, turning to be more of liabilities to the Government than being assets. Thus, to reform PSU, disinvestment was started to raise funds for meeting general/specific needs and diversify shareholding. Source: XI NCERT: Indian Economic Development: Chapter 3: Liberalization, Privatization and Globalization: An Appraisal Page 50. http://www.bsepsu.com/importance-disinvestment.asp 72. Which of the following is not a ‘poverty alleviation scheme’ in India?

(a) National Maternity Benefit Scheme (b) Annapurna Yojana (c) Valmiki Ambedkar Aawas Yojana (d) UDAY

Answer: (d) Explanation: Ujwal DISCOM Assurance Yojana (UDAY) is the financial turnaround and revival package for electricity distribution companies of India (DISCOMs) initiated by the Government of India with the intent to find a permanent solution to the financial mess that the power distribution is in. Source: XI NCERT: Indian Economic Development: Chapter 4: Poverty Page 72 URL: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ujwal_DISCOM_Assurance_Yojana

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73. Consider the following statements regarding the Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana-National Rural Livelihood Mission (DAY-NRLM): (1) Under the scheme at least one-woman member from each identified rural poor

household, is to be brought under the Self-Help Group (SHGs) network in a time bound manner.

(2) Skill development for wage employment as well as self-employment is an important component of this scheme.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Explanation: Aajeevika - National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM) was launched by the Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD), Government of India in June 2011. Aided in part through investment support by the World Bank, the Mission aims at creating efficient and effective institutional platforms of the rural poor, enabling them to increase household income through sustainable livelihood enhancements and improved access to financial services. NRLM set out with an agenda to cover 7 Crore rural poor households (at least one-woman member from each identified rural poor household), across 600 districts, 6000 blocks, 2.5 lakh Gram Panchayats and 6 lakh villages in the country through self-managed Self-Help Groups (SHGs) and federated institutions and support them for livelihoods collectives in a period of 8-10 years. In November 2015, the program was renamed Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana (DAY-NRLM). NRLM focuses on stabilizing and promoting existing livelihood portfolio of the poor through its three pillars –

vulnerability reduction

livelihoods enhancement through deepening/enhancing and expanding existing livelihoods options and tapping new opportunities in farm and non-farm sectors;

‘employment’ - building skills for the job market outside; and ‘enterprises’ - nurturing self-employed and entrepreneurs (for micro-enterprises).

Source: XI NCERT: Indian Economic Development: Chapter 4: Poverty 74. https://aajeevika.gov.in/ 74. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) has recently launched

the ‘Jaivik Bharat’ logo for Organic foods. Organic foods in India are regulated under which of the following Act? (a) Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 (b) Agricultural Produce (Grading and Marking) Act of 1937 (c) Bureau of Indian Standards Act, 1986 (d) Agricultural Produce Market Committee Act

Answer: (a) Explanation:

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The unified logo introduced by FSSAI is an identity mark to distinguish organic products from non-organic ones, supported with the tagline “Jaivik Bharat” at the bottom, for easy identification of organic food from India. FSSAI has the mandate to regulate manufacture, distribute, sell or import “organic foods” as per the provisions laid under Section 22 of the Food Safety Standards Act, 2006. Organic foods are regulated by Food Safety and Standards (Organic Foods) Regulations, 2017 notified under the provisions of the Act. AGMARK is a certification mark employed on agricultural products in India, assuring that they conform to a set of standards approved by the Government. The AGMARK is legally enforced in India by the Agricultural Produce (Grading and Marking) Act of 1937. Source: XI NCERT: Indian Economic Development: Chapter 6: Rural Development Page 111. URL: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/policy/fssai-launches-logo-for-organic-food-products/article9949389.ece 75. Consider the following statements regarding a 'Scheme':

(1) It is a women-oriented community-based poverty reduction program. (2) It is being implemented in Kerala. (3) It was inaugurated by the Prime Minister in 1998 at Malappuram. The statements given above correspond to which of the scheme given below? (a) Kudumbashree (b) SEWA (c) Annapurna (d) Nai Roshni

Answer: (a) Explanation: Kudumbashree, the Kerala State Poverty Eradication Mission was launched on 17 May 1998 and inaugurated by the Prime Minister, Shri Atal Bihari Vajpayee. The Mission aims to eradicate absolute poverty within a definite time frame of 10 years under the leadership of Local Self Governments formed and empowered by the 73rd and 74th Amendments of the Constitution of India. The Mission launched by the State Government with the active support of Government of India and NABARD has adopted a different methodology in addressing poverty by organizing the poor into community-based organizations. The Mission follows a process approach rather than a project approach. Source: XI NCERT: Indian Economic Development: Chapter 6: Rural Development Page 102. 76. In national income calculation, the sum total of gross value added of all the firms in

the economy is known as (a) National Disposable Income (b) Gross National Product (c) Gross Domestic Product (d) National Income

Answer: (c) Explanation:

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Value added of a firm = Value of Production of the firm – Value of intermediate goods used by the firm. The value added of a firm is distributed among its four factors of production, namely, labour, capital, entrepreneurship and land. If we include depreciation in value added then the measure of value added that we obtain is called Gross Value Added. If we sum the gross value added of all the firms of the economy in a year, we get a measure of the value of aggregate amount of goods and services produced by the economy in a year. Such an estimate is called Gross Domestic Product (GDP). Source: XII NCERT: INTRODUCTORY MACROECONOMICS: Chapter 2 National Income Accounting Page 25. 77. Which of the following statement is correct regarding the ‘Paradox of Thrift’?

(a) It states that as people become thriftier, they end up saving less or same as before.

(b) It states that as people become thriftier, they end up having high standard of living.

(c) It states that as people become thriftier, they end spending on luxurious items. (d) It states that as people become thriftier, economy booms.

Answer: (a) Explanation: The paradox of thrift (or paradox of saving) is a paradox of economics. The paradox states that an increase in autonomous saving leads to a decrease in aggregate demand and thus a decrease in gross output which will in turn lower total saving. Source: XII NCERT: INTRODUCTORY MACROECONOMICS: Chapter 2 National Income Accounting Page13. https://www.investopedia.com/terms/p/paradox-of-thrift.asp 78. What do you understand by ‘Fiat Money’?

(a) Money which is based on an actual, fixed item which is considered valuable. (b) Money that a government has declared to be legal tender, but it is not backed

by a physical commodity. (c) Money whose value comes from the value of resource used for the purpose. (d) None of the above

Answer: (b) Explanation: Option (a) is related to ‘hard money’. Example: Gold. Option (c) is talking about barter system. Fiat money is currency that a government has declared to be legal tender, but it is not backed by a physical commodity. The value of fiat money is derived from the relationship between supply and demand rather than the value of the material that the money is made of. Historically, most currencies were based on physical commodities such as gold or silver, but fiat money is based solely on the faith and credit of the economy. E.g. Modern day Indian Rupees.

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Source: XII NCERT: INTRODUCTORY MACROECONOMICS: Chapter 3: Money and Banking Page 48. 79. Consider the following pairs:

List-I List-II

1. Gross National Product : GDP + Net Factor Income from abroad

2. National Income : NNP at market cost

3. Net National Product : GNP – Depreciation

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) Explanation: Gross National Product (GNP) is Gross Domestic Product (GDP) plus net factor income from abroad. GNP measures the monetary value of all the finished goods and services produced by the country’s factors of production irrespective of their location. When depreciation is deducted from the GNP, we get Net National Product (NNP). (Hence, pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched). National Income is NNP at factor cost, not market price. (Hence, second pair is not correctly matched). Source: XII NCERT: INTRODUCTORY MACROECONOMICS: Chapter 2 National Income Accounting Page 24. 80. Consider the following statements:

(1) GDP deflator is the ratio of real GDP to nominal GDP. (2) Consumer Price Index (CPI) is the index of prices of a given basket of

commodities which are bought by the representative consumer. (3) The index for wholesale prices is called Wholesale Price Index (WPI), the

price at which goods are traded in bulk. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: GDP deflator:

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The GDP deflator (implicit price deflator) is a measure of the level of prices of all new, domestically produced, final goods and services in an economy. Statement 2 is correct: The Consumer Price Index (CPI) is a measure that examines the weighted average of prices of a basket of consumer goods and services, such as transportation, food and medical care. It is calculated by taking price changes for each item in the predetermined basket of goods and averaging them. Statement 3 is correct: The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) is the price of a representative basket of wholesale goods. Some countries use WPI changes as a central measure of inflation. But now India has adopted new CPI to measure inflation. The Wholesale Price Index focuses on the price of goods traded between corporations, rather than goods bought by consumers, which is measured by the Consumer Price Index. The purpose of the WPI is to monitor price movements that reflect supply and demand in industry, manufacturing and construction. This helps in analyzing both macroeconomic and microeconomic conditions. Source: XII NCERT: INTRODUCTORY MACROECONOMICS: Chapter 2 National Income Accounting Page26. 81. What is meant by 'liquidity trap'?

(a) The situation wherein the currency is trapped in foreign accounts (b) The situation in which the current interest rates are low and savings rates are

high, rendering monetary policy ineffective (c) A state of economy when too much liquidity leads to high inflation (d) None of the above

Answer: (b) Explanation: If the market rate of interest is already low enough so that everybody expects it to rise in future, causing capital losses, nobody will wish to hold bonds. Everyone in the economy will hold their wealth in money balance and if additional money is injected within the economy it will be used up to satiate people’s craving for money balances without increasing the demand for bonds and without further lowering the rate of interest below the floor rate. Such a situation is called a liquidity trap. Source: XII NCERT: INTRODUCTORY MACROECONOMICS: Chapter 3 Money and Banking Page 37. 82. Consider the following statements:

(1) Broad money consists of total deposits from post office savings organizations, net time deposits, currency and demand deposits.

(2) Narrow money consists of currency and demand deposits only. (3) M1 is most liquid and M4 is least liquid of all. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

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Answer: (b) Explanation: Money supply, like money demand, is a stock variable. The total stock of money in circulation among the public at a particular point of time is called money supply. RBI publishes figures for four alternative measures of money supply, viz. M1, M2, M3 and M4. They are defined as follows M1 = CU + DD M2 = M1 + Savings deposits with Post Office savings banks M3 = M1 + Net time deposits of commercial banks M4 = M3 + Total deposits with Post Office savings organizations (excluding National Savings Certificates) where, CU is currency (notes plus coins) held by the public and DD is net demand deposits held by commercial banks. The word ‘net’ implies that only deposits of the public held by the banks are to be included in money supply.

The interbank deposits, which a commercial bank holds in other commercial banks, are not to be regarded as part of money supply. M1 and M2 are known as narrow money. It typically covers the most liquid forms of money.

M3 and M4 are known as broad money. These gradations are in decreasing order of liquidity.

M1 is most liquid and easiest for transactions whereas M4 is least liquid of all.

M3 is the most commonly used measure of money supply. It is also known as aggregate monetary resources.

Source: XII NCERT: INTRODUCTORY MACROECONOMICS: Chapter 3 Money and Banking Page38. 83. Consider the following statements:

(1) The currency deposit ratio (CDR) is the ratio of money held by the public in currency to that they hold in bank deposits.

(2) Reserve deposit ratio (RDR) is the proportion of the total deposits which commercial banks keep as reserves.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Explanation: Money Creation by the Banking System: Money supply will change if the value of any of its components such as CU, DD or Time Deposits changes. The preference of the public for holding cash balances vis-a-vis deposits in banks also affects the money supply. These influences on money supply can be summarized by the following key ratios. Statement 1 is correct: The Currency Deposit Ratio: The currency deposit ratio (CDR) is the ratio of money held by the public in currency to that they hold in bank deposits. CDR = CU (currency)/DD (net demand deposits).

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It reflects people’s preference for liquidity Statement 2 is correct: The Reserve Deposit Ratio: Reserve money consists of two things – vault cash in banks and deposits of commercial banks with RBI. Banks use this reserve to meet the demand for cash by account holders. Reserve deposit ratio (RDR) is the proportion of the total deposits which commercial banks keep as reserves. Keeping reserves is costly for banks, as, otherwise, they could lend this balance to interest earning investment projects. Source: XII NCERT: INTRODUCTORY MACROECONOMICS: Chapter 3 Money and Banking Page 39. 84. Consider the following statements:

(1) The RBI purchases (or sells) government securities from (or to) the financial institutions in a bid to increase (or decrease) the stock of high powered money in the economy. This is known as open market operation.

(2) Bank rate is the rate of interest which the RBI has to pay commercial banks – if it borrows money from them in case of shortage of reserves.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Open Market Operations: RBI purchases (or sells) government securities from (or to) the general public in a bid to increase (or decrease) the stock of high powered money in the economy. If RBI wishes to reduce the supply of high powered money it undertakes an open market sale of government securities of its own holding in just the reverse fashion, thereby reducing the monetary base. Statement 2 is incorrect: Bank Rate Policy: As RBI can affect the reserve deposit ratio of commercial banks by adjusting the value of the bank rate – which is the rate of interest commercial banks have to pay RBI – if they borrow money from it in case of shortage of reserves. A low (or high) bank rate encourages banks to keep smaller (or greater) proportion of their deposits as reserves, since borrowing from RBI is now less (or more) costly than before. As a result, banks use a greater (or smaller) proportion of their resources for giving out loans to borrowers or investors, thereby enhancing (or depressing) the multiplier process via assisting (or resisting) secondary money creation Source: XII NCERT: INTRODUCTORY MACROECONOMICS: Chapter 3 Money and Banking Page44. 85. Consider the following statements:

(1) Cash Reserve Ratio specifies the fraction of their deposits that banks must keep with the RBI.

(2) Statutory Liquidity Ratio requires the banks to maintain a given fraction of their total demand and time deposits in the form of specified liquid assets.

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Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Explanation: Both are correct statement. Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is a specified minimum fraction of the total deposits of customers, which commercial banks have to hold as reserves either in cash or as deposits with the central bank. CRR is set according to the guidelines of the central bank of a country. Apart from CRR, banks have to maintain a stipulated proportion of their net demand and time liabilities in the form of liquid assets like cash, gold and unencumbered securities. It is known as Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) Treasury bills, dated securities issued under market borrowing programme and market stabilisation schemes (MSS), etc. also form part of the SLR. Source: XII NCERT: INTRODUCTORY MACROECONOMICS: Chapter 3 Money and Banking Page39. https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/c/cash-reserve-ratio/articleshow/19339693.cms 86. The RBI undertakes an open market sale of government securities of an amount

equal to the amount of foreign exchange inflow in the economy, thereby keeping the stock of high-powered money and total money supply unchanged. This is an example of (a) Quantitative easing (b) Sterilization (c) Liquidity trap (d) Deficit financing

Answer: (b) Explanation: Option a: QUANTITATIVE EASING The introduction of new money into an economy by a central bank. Option b: STERILISATION RBI often uses its instruments of money creation for stabilising the stock of money in the economy from external shocks. Suppose there is increased money supply in the economy and the volume of goods and services produced in the economy remains unchanged, the extra money will lead to increase in prices of all commodities. As too much money is now chasing the same old quantities of output, the process ends up in inflation. RBI often intervenes with its instruments to prevent such an outcome. In the above example, RBI will undertake an open market sale of government securities of an amount equal to the amount of foreign exchange inflow in the economy, thereby keeping the stock of high-powered money and total money supply unchanged. Thus, it sterilises the economy against adverse external shocks. This operation of RBI is known as sterilisation. Option c: LIQUIDITY TRAP

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The liquidity trap is the situation in which the current interest rates are low and savings rates are high, rendering monetary policy ineffective. In a liquidity trap, consumers choose to avoid bonds and keep their funds in savings because of the prevailing belief that interest rates will soon rise. Option d: DEFICIT FINANCING Government funding of expenditure by borrowing. Source: XII NCERT: INTRODUCTORY MACROECONOMICS: Chapter 3 Money and Banking Page45. 87. Consider the following statements:

(1) Capital expenditure relates to those expenses incurred for the normal functioning of the government departments and various services, interest payments on debt incurred by the government, and grants given to state governments and other parties.

(2) Revenue Expenditure includes expenditure on the acquisition of land, building, machinery, equipment, investment in shares, and loans and advances by the central government to state and union territory governments, PSUs and other parties.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Explanation: Statement 1 is denoting revenue expenditure while statement 2 is denoting capital expenditure. An expenditure which either creates an asset (e.g., school building) or reduces liability (e.g., repayment of loan) is called capital expenditure. (a) expenditure on purchase of land, buildings, machinery, (b) investment in shares, loans by Central government to state government, foreign governments and government companies, cash in hand and (c) acquisition of valuables. Such expenditures are incurred on long period development programmes, real capital assets and financial assets. This type of expenditure adds to the capital stock of the economy and raises its capacity to produce more in future. An expenditure that neither creates assets nor reduces a liability is categorised as revenue expenditure. e.g., salaries of employees, interest payment on past debt, subsidies, pension, etc. These are financed out of revenue receipts. Source: XII NCERT: INTRODUCTORY MACROECONOMICS: Chapter 5 Government Budget and the Economy Page 61 88. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:

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List-I List-II

A. Gross fiscal deficit 1. Fiscal deficit – interest payments

B. Primary deficit 2. Revenue expenditure – revenue receipts

C. Revenue deficit 3. Total expenditure – (revenue receipts + non-debt creating receipts)

Codes A B C (a) 1 2 3 (b) 1 3 2 (c) 3 1 2 (d) 3 2 1

Answer: (c) Explanation: Measures of Government Deficit When a government spends more than it collects by way of revenue, it incurs a budget deficit. There are various measures that capture government deficit and they have their own implications for the economy. Revenue deficit = Revenue expenditure – Revenue receipts The revenue deficit refers to the excess of government’s revenue expenditure over revenue receipts. This situation means that government will have to borrow not only to finance its investment but also its consumption requirements. Since a major part of revenue expenditure is committed expenditure, it can’t be reduced. Often the government reduces productive capital expenditure or welfare expenditure. This would mean lower growth and adverse welfare implications. Fiscal Deficit: Fiscal deficit is the difference between the government’s total expenditure and its total receipts excluding borrowing Gross fiscal deficit = Total expenditure – (Revenue receipts + Non-debt creating capital receipts) Non-debt creating capital receipts are those receipts which are not borrowings and, therefore, do not give rise to debt. Examples are recovery of loans and the proceeds from the sale of PSUs. The fiscal deficit will have to be financed through borrowing. Primary Deficit: To obtain an estimate of borrowing on account of current expenditures exceeding revenues, we need to calculate what has been called the primary deficit. It is simply the fiscal deficit minus the interest payments. Source: XII NCERT: INTRODUCTORY MACROECONOMICS: Chapter 5 Government Budget and the Economy Page 64. 89. Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): ‘Proceeds from sale of Telecom Spectrum’ are classified under Non-tax Revenue Receipt in the General Budget of the Government of India. Reason (R): Telecom companies do not ‘own’ the Spectrum that they buy, but only get the ‘license to use’ the Spectrum. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

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(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

(c) Assertion is true but Reason is wrong (d) Assertion is wrong but Reason is true.

Answer: (a) Explanation: Revenue receipts do not create any liability on the Government. Capital receipts either create a liability (to pay back) on the Government or reduce an asset (like land, spectrum) owned by the Government. It would appear that the sale of Spectrum reduces the asset owned by the Government. But the Government only provides a license to use the Spectrum to the Telecom companies. The ownership of the Spectrum continues to remain with the Government. Hence there is no reduction in asset ownership. Thus ‘Proceeds from sale of Telecom Spectrum’ are classified under Non-Tax Revenue Receipts under the head “Other Communication Services”. Source: XII NCERT: INTRODUCTORY MACROECONOMICS: Chapter 5 Government Budget and the Economy Page68-69. 90. The direct impact of Debt owned by the Government is visible in which of the

following components of the General Budget of Government of India? (1) Revenue Receipts (2) Revenue Expenditure (3) Capital Receipts (4) Capital Expenditure Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 and 4 only

Answer: (c) Explanation: Acquisition of Debt means that the Government has a liability to pay back the loans. This liability is recorded under Capital Receipts. Additionally, the Government has to pay interest on the accumulated debt. Payment of interests is classified under Revenue expenditure. Thus, Debt has a direct impact on Revenue Expenditure and Capital Receipts. Of course, the Government will prepare the Budget with a proper consideration of long-term debt levels and accordingly decide tax rates and spending on capital projects. Thus, debt level can have an indirect impact on Capital Expenditure and Revenue Receipts. Source: XII NCERT: INTRODUCTORY MACROECONOMICS: Chapter 5 Government Budget and the Economy Page78. 91. Consider the following pairs:

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List-I (Item)

List-II (Component)

1. Loan acquired by Tata Sons from Bond Market in London

: Current Account

2. Investment made by POSCO in a Steel Plant in Odisha

: Capital Account

3. Export of Petroleum Products by Reliance Industries Limited

: Both Current and Capital Account

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only

Answer: (b) Explanation: Acquisition of loan from abroad comes under ‘External Commercial Borrowing’ which is classified under Capital Account. Investment in a Steel Plant by a foreign company in India comes under Foreign Direct Investment which is a component of Capital Account. Export of goods comes under Balance of Trade which is a component of Current Account. Source: XII NCERT: INTRODUCTORY MACROECONOMICS: Chapter 6 Open Economy Macroeconomics Page 86-87. 92. Which of the following are the features of depreciation of domestic currency?

(1) The price of foreign currency in terms of domestic currency increases (2) The demand for domestic currency in exchange market decreases (3) The price of foreign currency in terms of domestic currency decreases (4) The exports from domestic economy become more competitive Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: (c) Explanation: The depreciation of a currency means that the value of domestic currency has fallen or the value of foreign currency has risen. This is result of decrease in demand of domestic currency or increase in demand of foreign currency. Depreciation results in increase in competitiveness of domestic goods. Consider the case where Rupee depreciates from Rs. 50/USD to Rs. 60/USD. Rs. 6000 worth of goods initially cost USD 120 but cost only USD 100 after depreciation. This makes the Indian exports more competitive.

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Source: XII NCERT: INTRODUCTORY MACROECONOMICS: Chapter 6 Open Economy Macroeconomics Page 92-93. 93. Which of the following are the determinants of exchange rate of two currencies?

(1) Income (2) Interest rate difference in the two economies Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Explanation: Rise in income may result in rise in demand; some part of which may have to be met by imports. This causes a rise in demand of foreign goods and hence foreign currency, thus impacting exchange rate. If interest rates are different, then there might be inflow of capital into economy with higher interest rate. This inflow of capital will impact demand of currency and thus the exchange rate. Source: XII NCERT: INTRODUCTORY MACROECONOMICS: Chapter 6 Open Economy Macroeconomics Page 92-93. 94. The concept of ‘Opportunity Cost’ exists because of which of the following reasons?

(1) Limited Resource base (2) Mutual Exclusivity of alternatives, choice has to be made between various

options Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Explanation: Opportunity cost arises due to missing out on one alternative. The resource base is limited. Utilization of an amount of resource for production of a particular item eliminates the possibility of using that amount of resource on production of another item. Thus, the requirement of making a choice of utilizing limited resources in an efficient manner gives rise to Opportunity Cost. Source: XII NCERT: Introductory Microeconomics: Chapter 1: Introduction Page4. 95. Which of the following statements about ‘Law of demand’ are correct?

(a) The demand curve is downward sloping because of the law of diminishing marginal utility

(b) At lower prices the consumer is willing to buy more of a product (c) The marginal utility is always positive

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(d) Both a and b Answer: (d) Explanation: Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility states that marginal utility from consuming each additional unit of a commodity declines as its consumption increases. Therefore, the individual will not be willing to pay as much for each additional unit and it results in a downward sloping demand curve. Since the curve is downward sloping, the consumer is willing to buy more of a product at lower prices and vice versa. The marginal utility of a product becomes negative after consumption of a certain amount of that product. Source: XII NCERT: Introductory Microeconomics: Chapter 2: Theory of Consumer Behaviour Page 10. 96. Which of the following statements about ‘Giffen goods’ is incorrect?

(a) Rise in purchasing power results in reduction in consumption of Giffen goods (b) The demand curve for Giffen goods is upward sloping (c) Income effect is stronger than substitution effect (d) Substitution effect and income effect work in tandem

Answer: (d) Explanation: A Giffen good is a good for which demand increases as the price increases, and falls when the price decreases. A Giffen good has an upward-sloping demand curve, which is contrary to the fundamental law of demand which states that quantity demanded for a product falls as the price increases, resulting in a downward slope for the demand curve.

The substitution effect is the change in consumption patterns due to a change in the relative prices of goods. The income effect is the change in consumption patterns due to the change in purchasing power.

The demand for a good can be inversely or positively related to its price depending on the relative strengths of two opposing effects i.e. the substitution effect and the income effect. If the substitution effect is stronger than the income effect, the demand for the good and the price of the good would be inversely related. However, if the income effect is stronger than the substitution effect, the demand for the good would be positively related to its price which is the case with Giffen good. For Example: Irish potato famine of 1845-49. During the famine, as the price of potatoes rose, impoverished consumers had little money left for more nutritious but expensive food items like meat (the income effect). So even though they would have preferred to buy more meat and fewer potatoes (the substitution effect), the lack of money led them to buy more potatoes and less meat. Source: XII NCERT: Introductory Microeconomics: Chapter 2: Theory of Consumer Behaviour Page 24.

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97. Which of the following is not a feature of a ‘Perfectly Competitive Market’? (a) The product sold by various firms is heterogeneous and can be easily

differentiated. (b) The entry and exit from market is free for firms. (c) The average revenue curve for a firm is a horizontal line. (d) The price of the product is equal to its marginal cost.

Answer: (a) Explanation: Features of Perfectly Competitive Markets

The market consists of a large number of buyers and sellers.

Each firm produces and sells a homogenous product. i.e., the product of one firm cannot be differentiated from the product of any other firm.

Entry as well as exit into/from the market is free for firms.

Information is perfect. Source: XII NCERT: Introductory Microeconomics: Chapter 4: The Theory of the Firm under Perfect Competition Page 53-56. 98. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:

List-I List-II

A. One firm and large number of buyers 1. Monopolistic Competition

B. Small number of large firms 2. Oligopoly

C. Many firms selling differentiated products 3. Monopoly

Codes A B C (a) 1 2 3 (b) 3 2 1 (c) 1 3 2 (d) 3 1 2

Answer: (b) Explanation: A market with only one firm and many buyers is called a monopoly. A market that has a small number of large firms is called an oligopoly. Monopolistic competition is a type of imperfect competition such that many producers sell products that are differentiated from one another. The goods produced by firms are close substitutes, but not perfect substitutes for each other. Source: XII NCERT: Introductory Microeconomics: Chapter 6: Non-competitive Markets Page 88. 99. ‘Brundtland Commission’ is related to which of the following?

(a) To study the world's environmental problems and propose agenda for addressing them.

(b) To study the problem of bad debts in banks worldwide.

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(c) To study the problems related to unskilled labour migration and recommend how to ensure smooth migration.

(d) To study the problems of poor HDI in Africa. Answer: (a) Explanation It was a commission established by United Nations Organization in 1983 to study the world's environmental problems and propose agenda for addressing them. The Brundtland Commission officially dissolved in December 1987 after releasing” Our Common Future”, also known as the Brundtland Report, in October 1987, a document which coined, and defined the meaning of the term ‘Sustainable Development’. It is also known as the World Commission on Environment and Development (WCED). Source: XI NCERT: Indian Economic Development: Chapter 9: Environment and Sustainable Development Page172. http://www.un-documents.net/our-common-future.pdf 100. The Global Financial Stability Report is released by:

(a) The International Monetary Fund (IMF) (b) The World Bank (c) UNCTAD (d) The World Trade Organization (WTO)

Answer: (a) Explanation: Important reports: 1. IMF

Global Financial Stability Report World Economic Outlook

2. The World Bank The Ease of Doing Business Report The World Development Report The Global Economic Prospects Report

3. UNCTAD The World Investment Report

4. WTO Intellectual Property Rights Report

Source: XII NCERT: Introductory Macroeconomics: Chapter 6: Open Economy Macroeconomics Page 85. https://www.imf.org/external/pubs/ft/ar/2016/eng/wwd-eco-surv.htm