Ans CSAT Comp Test 2

8/16/2019 Ans CSAT Comp Test 2

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1Vajiram IAS Test Series (2015) – CSAT Comprehensive Test-2

VAJIRAM IAS TEST SERIES

ANSWER KEYS WITH EXPLANATION FOR CSAT COMPREHENSIVE TEST-2

Q. Ans. Explanation

1 D Statement 1 is misleading because the civil disobedience movement itselfwas termed “grammar of anarchy” by Ambedkar.

Statement 2 is wrong because the intention of the people may not be tocreate a nuisance, although the final outcome may be so.

2 A Statement 1 is correct because the third sentence states that “It may betheir own government but people still have the habit of opposing thegovernment”- the use of the words but and still indicates that the practicewas acceptable earlier but is not so now.Statement 2 is wrong because the participants lacked social discipline butcannot be called undisciplined otherwise.

3 D Only Statement 1 is correct- the fourth sentence states that “The fossilendocasts provide direct evidence of brain evolution, but the informationthey provide is only external ”. The other statements cannot be ascertained from the passage.

4 D The first sentence of the passage mentions two sources of evidenceregarding the evolution of primates - fossil endocasts and brains of living

primates, and the subsequent sentences describe the strengths and thelimitations of each one of these sources. In other words, the passageevaluates the two sources of evidence. Hence D.

5 A Statement 1 is correct because the last sentence warns the scientistsagainst drawing wrong inferences about the evolutionary sequence merelyfrom a study of the brains of the living primates because ‘such a study canbe misleading ’.

Statement 2 cannot be inferred.6 D The second and third sentences state that the endocasts are in the nature

of molds of the surface of the brain. Among the choices, such an option thatrefers to a physical surface is similar to deriving information about a foot ofa person from a mold of his footprint .

7 C BC = (65) (63) = 16CD = (65) (56) = 33Width of the street (BC + CD) = 16 + 33 = 49 cm


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8 C

CD = = − =

=

OD = ×

= ×

=

√

OD is radius

r =√ × 24 = √ 3

Area of circle = r 2 = x (43)2 = 48 cm2 The centre O of a circle inscribed in an equilateral triangle divides theattitude in the ratio 2 : 1.

9 B Mr. Sonu Kumar’s income is in A.P.Where A = 6,00,000 i.e. first year’s income

D = 25,000 i.e. yearly incrementTotal amount he received in 10 years

S10 = [2 ×6,00,000 (1 0 1) ×25,000

= 5 [ 12,00,000 + 2,25,000]= 5 [ 14,25,000]= Rs. 71,25,000

10 C Let the deposit of Mr. Shiv Kumar is x

Amount = 3x

S.I. = A – P = 3x – x = 2xR = 8%

As we know,S.I. =

× ×

2 X = × × 8

t =

8 = 25 years

11 C Let the number of horses be xThus the number of men = x


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Number of Horses’ legs = 4x

Number of mens’ legs = × 2

[∵ half of men walk while half sit on the back of horses] 4 × 2 = 70 4x + x = 705x = 70x = 14

12 D Let R, G and B represent the number of balls in red, green and blue boxesrespectively.Then,R + G + B = 108 ………… (i)G + R = 2B …………….. (ii)B = 2R ……………………(iii) From (ii) and (iii) we have G + R = 2 × 2R = 4ROr G = 3R

Putting G = 3 R and B = 2R in (i) above, we getR + 3R + 2R = 108Or 6R = 108Therefore R = 108/6 = 18

Number of balls in green box = G = 3R= 3 x 18 = 54

13 A Piyush’s present age = 10 yearsHis mother’s present age = (10 + 20) yearsPiyush’s father’s present age = 30 + 5 = 35 yearsPiyushs father’s age at the time of Piyush’s birth = (35 – 10) = 25 years

Piyush’s father’s age at the time of marriage = (25 – 2) yearsOr 23 years

14 B

As shown in figure, the river flows eastwards from A towards B, turns leftand follows a semi-circular path to reach C where it turns left and flowseastwards towards D.

15 C Let the given numbers are a, b, c and d.It is given thata + b + c + d = 64 …………………. (i)alsoa + 3 = b – 3 = c = d/3 …………….. (ii)


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From equation (ii) we change all the numbers in the form of a and puttingthis in equation (i) above, we get

a + a + 6 ++

+ 3a + 9 = 64 5a + 15 +

+ = 64

16a + 48 = 192 16a = 102 – 48

16a = 144= a = 9Now putting the value of a = 9 in the above mentioned relation of a w.r.t. b,c and dWe get b = 15; c = 4 and d = 36

largest – smallest = 36 – 4 = 32

16 B Statement 1 is wrong because the passage does not specify if or how suchskills led to individual self-fulfilment.Statement 2 is correct because such skills are cited as an example of“individual powers placed in service to the community ”.

17 A The egocentrics focus on self-fulfilment while the sociocentrics focus onindividual obligations to society. The author seems inclined towards theposition of the sociocentrics, since he focuses on discussing the rationalebehind individual contributions to society. Further, the last sentence statesthat self-fulfilment is important, even if not equally. Hence, Option A iscorrect and Option B is wrong.Option C is proven wrong by the last sentence while Option D cannot beascertained.

18 D The last sentence states that unfulfilled citizens can be virtuous but cannotperform the duties assigned to them. Hence, Statement 1 is wrong butStatement 2 is correct.Statement 3 is not supported by or mentioned in the passage.

19 A The first sentence says that some modern anthropologists hold that humanbehaviour is shaped by evolution. This implies taking a position on thefoundations of human behaviour.The passage then discusses that what these anthropologists imply by theirtheory is not that evolution dictates human behaviour, but that it imposesconstraints on human behaviour through complicated emotions which havebecome as natural to human beings as their appendixes.

In the last sentence, the author says that we must fully understand theimplications of the origins of these emotions to realise how badly we arenow being guided by them so that we can come out their constraints.Thus, the primary purpose of the passage is to present ‘a position on thefoundations of human behaviour and on what those foundations imply’.Hence A.The passage does not say that human morphology and human behaviourdeveloped parallelly, even though, according to some anthropologists, they


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are both results of evolution. So, Option B is wrong.The second para says that some emotions are also culture-specific inaddition to being evolutionary, but it does not specify any test to classifybehaviour patterns as either evolutionary or culture-specific. So, Option C iswrong.

The last sentence says, “we must then begin to resist the pressure (ofemotions and motives)”, but it does not suggest any practical method forresisting these pressures. So, Option D is wrong.

20 B The second paragraph states that some of these frailties are presentlymaladaptive, hence Statement 1 is wrong.It also states that “We should need to comprehend thoroughly their adaptiveorigins in order to understand how badly they guide us now. And we mightthen begin to resist their pressure”. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

21 D The answer must relate to human ‘morphology’ or ‘physical characteristics’,and not to human emotion or behaviour. Since Option C refers to humanemotions or behaviour, it can straightaway be ruled out.

The first part of Option A relates to evolutionary physical characteristics, butthe second part in it relates to one’s knowledge of the names of the differentcolours, which is a ‘culturally acquired’, and not a physical, characteristic.So, Option A is wrong.The first part of Option B relates to an acquired, and not an evolutionary,skill. So, Option B is wrong.The first part of Option D mentions an evolutionary and beneficial physicalcharacteristic of mountain peoples, while the second part refers to anevolutionary physical constraint of people living in the plains. Hence D.

22 B The second paragraph uses the phrase ‘presently maladaptive’. This

implies that some of the human frailties which were adaptive and thereforebeneficial in a human environment as it existed once upon a time have nowbecome maladaptive in the present human environment. This means thatchanges in total human environment can occur faster than the evolutionarychanges in human emotions and motives. Hence Statement 2 is correct.Statement 1 cannot be ascertained.

23 B

24 D N(p) = = 1

25 C When 5 is kept at hundredth place, it comes at= 1 × 9 × 9 = 81 places

When 5 is kept at ten’s place, it comes at = 2 × 1 × 9 = 18 placesWhen 5 is kept at unit place, it comes at= 2 × 9 × 1 = 18 places

required answer = 81 + 18 + 18 = 117 places.

26 B Let r be the radius of circle and a be the side of squareBy given condition

2r = 4a


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a =r

Area of square = ( ) =

=9.8

= 246 r 2

And area of circle =r

2

= 3.14r

2

Hence, area of the circle is larger than that of square.

27 C Let the number of coins 50 paise, Re.1 and Rs.2 coins are 2x, 3x and 4xrespectivelyValue of 50 paise coins = xValue of Re.1 coins = 3xValue of Rs. 2 coins = 8xTherefore, x + 3x + 8x = 24012x = 240 or x = 20Hence, total number of coins = 2x + 3x + 4x = 9x

= 9 x 20 = 18028 B The order of release of films are as follows:

U, Q, P, T, S, R

29 A

30 A The number of ways 10 numbers can be put in places = 10P3.

31 D As per the given informationIndia and West India both won equal number of matches while NewZealand lost the maximum number of matches. Thereby none of thecountry alone won the maximum number of matches among all thecountries.

32 C Required answer =

=

∟∟

= ∟∟

∟∟

33 A The 39 book from right is the 12 book from the left which is History.

34 C The last book is Psychology is P8 which is at 38 position.

35 D The number is 8 (on dividing by 6, we get 2 as remainder). When wesquare it, it comes to 82 = 64. On dividing by 6, we will get 4 as remainder.

36 C Statement 1 is correct because the fourth sentence state that “this analogysuggests that each nation has a unitary national will ”. Statement 3 is correct because the last sentence states that “theacceptance of these two specious assumptions leads to the seeminginexplicability of reversals in diplomatic negotiations ...”. This implies afailure to anticipate abrupt changes in a nation’s policies because of thechange of government in it.Statement 2 cannot be ascertained.

37 D In the second sentence, the author mentions the analogy between theindividual and the nation state. Then he quotes Woodrow Wilson (who


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believed in this analogy) to clarify/substantiate the analogy. Hence D.Option A is wrong since there is no contradiction mentioned by Wilson.Option B is wrong since the wants of an individual or of a nation are notmentioned.Option C is wrong since the popularity of classical liberalism is not

mentioned.38 D The passage starts by stating that “ A false analogy underlies the philosophy

of classical liberalisers”. It then substantiates this statement in each of thesubsequent sentences. So, the main concern is the ‘rejection of the tenetsof classical liberalism’. Hence, Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is the opposite of what the author believes in while Statement3 is not the focus of the passage.

39 B Statement 1 is wrong because while Wilson’s thought certainly supports theclassical liberal school, this alone does not mean that he was a “vocalproponent”. Statement 2 is substantiated by the second-last sentence.

40 B Statement 1 is wrong because the second paragraph describes in detail themultiple functions of the hormone auxin.Statement 2 is correct because the second paragraph states that each ofthe five plant hormones has more than one effect on the growth of plants-thus, they are not very useful in artificially controlling the growth of crops.

41 C The third and fourth paragraphs state that in animals, hypothalamichormones stimulate the pituitary gland to synthesize and release manydifferent hormones; this process causes hormones from the adrenal cortexto be released. A similar hierarchy of hormones may exist in plants.The pleiotropic plant hormones may activate the enzymes that, in turn,

release oligosaccharins from the cell wall. It is reasonable to infer that, intriggering the action, the plant hormones may act in a way similar to thehypothalamic hormones in animals. Hence C.Option A is wrong because plant cell walls do not activate enzymes as thehypothalamic hormones activate the pituitary gland.Option B is wrong because while the passage does state that all cells of aplant start out with the same complement of genes, this statement is notpart of the analogy.Option D is wrong because while the oligosaccharins are part of thehierarchy, but they are not equivalent to the hypothalamic hormones inreleasing other hormones.

42 B Statement 1 describes a function performed by oligosaccharins since itgives an example of an effect on a specific aspect of plant growth anddevelopment.Statement 2 is wrong because the passage does not discuss suchduplication.Statement 3 is wrong because the oligosaccharins, as more specificchemical messengers, have a specific effect, not multiple effects, on plantgrowth.


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43 D Statement 1 is wrong because the passage discusses the effects ofhormones, not their production.Statement 2 is wrong because the differences among the five majorhormones are not discussed.Statement 3 is correct since the second paragraph explains that each of the

five major pleiotropic hormones, including auxin, has more than one effecton the growth and development of plants it then lists auxin’s multiple effectsas an example of the principle of pleiotropy in plants.

44 D Statement 1 is wrong because the passage does not discuss the dailyfunctioning of a plant’s cells. Statement 2 is wrong because the oligosaccharins themselves arefragments of the cell wall and the specific chemical messengers from thecell wall.

45 C The second paragraph establishes that the pleiotropic hormones are notuseful in artificially controlling crop growth because of their multiple, diverseeffects. Oligosaccharins are contrasted with the hormones because they

have specific effects. Thus it is reasonable to infer that oligosaccharinsmight be used to control specific aspects of crop growth. Hence C.Option A is wrong because the passage of chemicals through cell walls isnot discussed.Option B is wrong because the oligosaccharins are not said to alter thecells’ complement of genes. Option D is wrong because The passage does not show thatoligosaccharins alter the hormones’ effects.

46 C

47 D

48 B49 C Relative speed = (70-50) km/hr

= 20 × 8 m/sec = 9 m/sec. Length of Jharkhand Express train = 9 ×10 m=

9 = 55 9 m.

50 D A : BEfficiency 2 : 1Time 1x : 2x2x-1x= 40 days

So 2x = 80 days means A will take 40 days, B will take 80 days for thatwork

Let’s assume total work is 80 Units A’s per day work = 2units/day B’s per day work = 1 unit / day Both 3 units per day

Hence8 days

51 B Jan + Feb = 104550


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Feb + Mar = 105550Mar + Jan = 1051002 ( Jan + feb + Mar ) = 315200Jan + Feb + Mar = 157600Jan = 157600-105550= 52050

52 D

53 D ( × × ) – ( × × )( × × ) of the weight of original cube

54 D

55 B L.C.M. of 14, 15, 16 and 20 is 1680X – 15 = 1680X = 1695

56 D Statement 1 is wrong because the second sentence states that even lowdoses can have serious, not insignificant, effects.Statement 2 is wrong because the second-last sentence states that themost common source is lead-based paint.

57 B Statement 1 is wrong because poor academic performance is linked to lowdoses.Statement 2 is correct because if children living in older houses are more at


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risk, it can be inferred that such paints were used more often in the past.

58 C The premise is that microwave ovens are not completely safe. This isfollowed by a conclusion by the consumer advocates that microwave ovensshould not be accepted as standard appliances. Since there is nothing inthe passage that provides an explicit link between the safety of microwave

ovens and their acceptability as standard appliances, the consumeradvocates’ conclusion is based on an assumption that “an appliance shouldbe accepted as standard only if it is found to be completely safe.” The mosteffective way to strengthen such a conclusion is to show that such anassumption is indeed true. Hence C.Option A is wrong because the strength of the consumer advocates’argument hinges upon the link between the level of safety of microwaveovens and the rationale for their acceptance in the home- a lack of joy inmicrowave cooking is not relevant to the argument.Option B is wrong because providing a specific example of how a personmight be injured, even seriously, by a microwave oven may provide

emotional support for the consumer advocates’ position, but does little tostrengthen the argument logically: the possibility of injury has already beenstipulated as a premise.Option D is wrong because If no appliance is completely safe, then theconsumer advocates’ argument is absurd- no appliance is, or ever will be,acceptable as “standard” in a modern kitchen. This option weakens theconclusion.

59 A The director has concluded that the one-time doubling of costs for the rawmaterial caused the steady decline, over two years, of profit margins. Thedirector's conclusion rests on the assumption that there is a connection

between the one-time raw material price increase and the two-year steadydecline in profit margins. Alternatively, something else could have causedeither a steady two-year decline in revenues or a steady two-year increasein costs; if so, this event is more likely to be the cause of a steady decline inprofit margins over the same two-year period. As a result, this wouldweaken the director's conclusion that finding a new source for the rawmaterial will improve profit margins.Option A is correct because new competitors have caused a steady two-year decline in revenues. This weakens the director's contention that theone-time doubling of costs for the raw material is the cause of the steadytwo-year decline in profit margins.

Option B is wrong because the fact that the region's mines are producingless than they did before the earthquake does not indicate anything aboutthe cost of the raw material; it would be necessary to show that cost is notreduced in order to weaken the director's conclusion.Option C is wrong because the amount of raw material produced by otherregions does not indicate anything about the cost of the raw material; itwould be necessary to show that cost is not reduced in order to weaken thedirector's conclusion.Option D is wrong because the use of a different raw material does not


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indicate anything about the cost of that raw material; it would be necessaryto show that cost is not reduced in order to weaken the director'sconclusion.

60 C The conclusion is that renewable sources of energy, chiefly solar and wind,will be less risky for certain utilities than non-renewable sources, such as oil

and gas. The basis for this claim is that the renewable sources will providestable, low-cost supplies of energy, whereas the prices for non-renewablesources will fluctuate according to availability. For this argument to be valid,it must in fact be true that these renewable sources of energy will providestable, low-cost supplies.Hence, Option C is correct- if weather patterns are consistent andpredictable, then with the stated premises, we can conclude that solar andwind power will be less risky than oil and gas. If, on the other hand, weatherpatterns are not consistent and predictable, then solar and wind power arenot reliable and thus will not provide "stable energy supplies at low cost."Thus, the argument's conclusion directly depends on this assumption.

Option A is wrong because the utility companies' claim has to do with thesupply risk of the new energy sources, not with how these sources arereceived by the public.Option B is wrong because if no new supplies of traditional energy sourcesare found, then it is true that perhaps these non-renewable supplies willcontinue to fluctuate in price in a risky manner. However, the argumentdoes not depend upon any assumption about the future discovery of oil andgas supplies.Option D is wrong because to reach the required conclusion, it is notnecessary to assume that the conversion technology for new sources is not

more expensive than the present technology.61 D Out of given answer options, only 64, 80 are having 16 as H.C.F.

62 A 21 is composite number, remaining are prime numbers.

63 A Ranbaxy : Glaxo : CiplaInvestment 600 : 450 : 600Time period 6 months : 12 months : 12 monthsProfit Ratio 600 × 6 : 450 × 12 : 600 × 12

3600 : 5400 : 72002 : 3 : 4

So share of Glaxo out of 45 Millions is9 × 45= 15 millions

64 D

65 B Due to stoppages, it covers 8 km less.

Time taken to cover 8 km =8

8 hour


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= × 60 minutes

= 10 minutes

66 B Statement 1 is wrong because the moon does NOT show negative gravityanomalies.Statement 2 is correct because the passage tries to determine how, despitemany lunar impact basins, the moon does not show any negative gravityanomalies.

67 D The passage states that “Scientists

speculate that early in lunar history,when large impactors struck the moon's surface, causing millions of cubickilometers of crustal debris to be ejected, denser material from the moon'smantle rose up beneath...”. This implies that the material that rose upwards,compensated for the ejected material and therefore, created nogravitational anomaly. Hence D.Option A is wrong because such a deficit is expected in general but was not

witnessed in the case of the moon.Option B is wrong because debris is not discussed in the passage.

Option C is wrong because cooling and stiffening are related tolater/present conditions, not the circumstances when the gravitationalcompensation occurred.

68 A If large impacts happened in the early stages, the impact areas would havequickly been covered with mass ejected from the mantle. Therefore theinference that can be made is that these ring shaped craters were formedmuch later. Hence A.

69 C

70 D If all three years in between normal years then 3 years will give 3 odd days.

30 days gives 2 odd days so total odd days 5Then Monday + 5 odd days = SaturdayBut if there is one leap year in between then 1 extra odd day due to leapyear so total 6 odd daysThen Monday + 6 odd days = Sunday, no other possibilities

71 C 11, 13 prime number their sum 11 + 13 = 24 (3rd term)29 and 31 are the prime numbers just after 24 and 29 + 31 = 60 ( 6 th term)Next prime numbers 61 then 67 so answer is 67.

72 B Pattern is 52 – 42 = 972 – 32 = 40

8

2

– 1

2

= 63Similarly 102 - 22 = 96

73 A

74 C Let 2n number is 15 so two-third is 10 then 10 is equal to 40% of 1s number then 1st number will be 25Hence ratio 25 :15

5 : 3


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75 C

Ranking from left end + Ranking from Right end = Total boys + 1

9 + 15 = total boys + 1Total boys = 23

76 D

77 D

78 C Statements 1 and 3 are wrong because they are not supported ormentioned in the passage.Statement 2 is correct and constitutes the primary focus of the passage.

79 B Statement 1 is wrong because the fifth sentence states that there are

attempts being made to discover the cultural norms that exist in a modernnation state.Statement 2 is correct because the last sentence states that it is difficult tomake a reliable comparison between the national characters of twocountries, implying that national characters are different.

80 B Statement 1 is wrong because the very first sentence states that thedifficulty lies not in creating such models but only in including anunderstanding of national character in them.Statements 2 and 3 are supported by the second sentence.

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Ans CSAT Comp Test 2