A&P II Exam 1 Online 2016

1) All of the following are true of olfactory pathways except which one?A) They project first to the occipital lobes and then to the thalamus. B) Neurons from the olfactory epithelium synapse in the olfactory bulb. C) Information flows to the olfactory cortex, hypothalamus, and limbic system. D) They reach the forebrain without first synapsing in the thalamus. E) The limbic system-olfactory pathway connection means that there are close ties between experiences and memories with smell.

2) Olfactory receptors send axons through the cribriform plate. They synapse on neurons in theA) medulla oblongata.B) medial geniculate.C) cerebral cortex.D) olfactory bulb.E) olfactory tract.

3) Before an olfactory receptor can detect an odorant, it has toA) contact a basal cell. B) bind to receptors in olfactory cilia. C) open ion channels. D) respond to applied pressure. E) be transported to the olfactory bulbs.

4) A normal, relaxed inhalation carries about ________ of the inhaled air to the olfactory organs. A) 50 percent B) 8 percent C) 2 percent D) 35 percent E) 10 percent

5) Destruction to your left glossopharyngeal nerve would result inA) inability to sense sweetness at the tip of your tongue.B) a reduction in ability to identify sour and bitter foods.C) anosmia, also called nose blindness.D) perceiving taste sensations where is no real stimulus.E) identifying all foods as too salty.

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6) A patient who experienced head trauma has lost the ability to taste spicy food. You should expect damage to cranial nerve A) VII.B) III.C) IX. D) V. E) XII.

7) All of the following are true of the fibrous tunic of the eye except that it A) consists of the sclera, limbus, and cornea. B) provides mechanical support and some protection for the eye. C) produces aqueous humor. D) contributes substantial focusing power. E) is where extrinsic eye muscles insert.

8) The function of gustatory receptors parallels that of A) light receptors in the eye. B) mechanoreceptors in the ear. C) olfactory receptors. D) lamellated corpuscles. E) Meissner corpuscles.

9) The taste sensation that is triggered by the amino acid glutamate is known as A) sweet.B) umami.C) salty.D) peppery.E) sour.

10) The neural tunic of the eyeA) contains ganglion cells. B) contains the photoreceptor cells. C) contains bipolar cells. D) is the deepest layer of the eyeball. E) All of the answers are correct.

11) A structure that is located at the medial canthus and contains glands that contribute to a gritty deposit is the A) palpebra. B) lacrimal caruncle. C) chalazion. D) Meibomian gland. E) conjunctiva.

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12) The ciliary muscle contracts to A) control the amount of light reaching the retina. B) adjust the shape of the lens for distant vision. C) adjust the shape of the lens for near vision. D) control the production of aqueous humor. E) adjust the shape of the cornea and vitreous.

13) Which of the following is true concerning a sty?A) often caused by bacteriaB) is a blocked gland on the eyelidC) may involve a sebaceous glandD) may involve a tarsal glandE) All of the answers are correct.

14) If your vision is 20/15, this means that you can seeA) 20-point type at 15 feet. B) objects at 20 feet that individuals with normal eyesight can see at 15 feet. C) objects at 15 feet that individuals with eye problems see at 20 feet. D) all 15 eye chart letters from 20 feet. E) objects that are 20 feet or less away.

15) Why must accommodation occur to view objects closer than 20 feet from the eye? A) The light rays are convergent and must be bent more. B) It moves the retina into position to focus on the close object. C) The light rays are divergent instead of parallel and require more refraction. D) The iris is too dilated causing the light rays to be out of focus. E) None of the answers are correct. Accommodation occurs when looking at distant objects 20 feet or farther from the eye.

16) During accommodation, the ciliary muscle ________ causing the ciliary body to move ________ and apply ________ tension on the lens. A) relaxes; forward; more B) contracts; forward; less C) contracts; back; more D) relaxes; inward; less E) contracts; back; less

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Figure 17-1 The Sectional Anatomy of the Eye

Use Figure 17-1 to answer the following questions:

17) Identify the space labeled "1." A) posterior cavity B) posterior chamber C) pupil D) anterior chamberE) vitreous chamber

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18) Identify the structure labeled "7." A) choroid B) optic disc C) sclera D) retina E) cornea

19) Identify the structure labeled "9." A) suspensory ligaments B) optic disc C) sclera D) fovea E) pupil

20) In the light-adapted state, A) photoreceptors are much more sensitive to stimulation. B) photoreceptors are much less sensitive to stimulation. C) we can only see color, and not black and white. D) we would see better in the dark. E) colors are dull.

21) The following steps occur in rods when they are excited by photons of light. What is the proper sequence for these steps? 1. Membrane sodium channels close.2. Increased phosphodiesterase breaks down cGMP.3. Retinal changes from the 11-cis form to the 11-trans form.4. The membrane hyperpolarizes and the rate of neurotransmitter release declines.5. Opsin activates transducin.6. Opsin activation occurs.A) 1, 6, 5, 2, 4, 3 B) 3, 6, 5, 2, 1, 4C) 6, 3, 5, 2, 1, 4 D) 3, 6, 5, 1, 2, 4 E) 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 2

22) Which of the following statements about the retina is true?A) Ganglion cells send axons to the brain as cranial nerve II.B) Axons carrying its output synapse in the thalamus.C) It has photoreceptors that do not respond to dim light.D) Cones and rods are not equally distributed across the retina.E) All of the answers are correct.

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23) Where are the visual pigments located in the rods and cones? A) in the inner segment of photoreceptors B) in mitochondria located in the outer segment C) inside membrane discs stacked in the outer segment D) inside a photosensitive nucleus E) sandwiched in the cell membrane of the photoreceptors

24) A sound with a frequency of 12,000 hertz would A) be very loud. B) be barely audible. C) be high-pitched. D) be low-pitched. E) damage the tympanic membrane.

25) The vibrations received by the tympanic membrane are transferred to the oval window by the A) auditory ossicles. B) cochlea. C) oval window. D) tensor tympani. E) stapedius muscle.

26) Low frequency sounds stimulate hair cells on which part of the basilar membrane? A) area close to the round window B) the entire membrane C) the distal end D) the middle region E) area close to the oval window

27) An infection that damages the vestibular nerve could result in a loss ofA) hearing and equilibrium.B) olfaction.C) visual acuity. D) hearing.E) equilibrium.

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Figure 17-2 The Ear

Use Figure 17-2 to answer the following questions:

28) Identify the structures labeled "8." A) cochlea B) auditory ossicles C) auricle D) tympanic membrane E) vestibule

29) Which structure contains the receptors for hearing? A) 6 B) 8 C) 9 D) 10 E) 11

30) Which structure is known as the vestibule? A) 6 B) 8 C) 9 D) 10 E) 11

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31) Identify the structure that is called the pinna or auricle. A) 1 B) 5 C) 6 D) 8 E) 9

32) Which of the following statements about smell is true?A) Basal cells are the supporting cells for the receptors cells of the olfactory receptor.B) Olfactory epithelium covers the surface of the maxillary bone.C) Olfactory glands produce saliva.D) A high concentration of odorant molecules is required to stimulate olfactory cells.E) None of the statements are true.

33) The membrane structures that respond to chemical stimuli to produce sweet, bitter, and umami sensations are called A) gustatory hairs.B) chemically-gated ion channels.C) voltage-regulated ion channels.D) G proteins.E) papillae.

34) ________ are chemical messengers that are released by cells and transported in the bloodstream to alter the activities of specific cells in other tissues. A) Hormones B) Neuropeptides C) Neurotransmitters D) Humoral antibodies E) Antigens

35) A kinase is an enzyme that performs A) phosphorylation. B) as a membrane channel. C) active transport. D) protein synthesis. E) as an antibody.

36) Calcium ions serve as messengers, often in combination with the intracellular protein A) calcitonin. B) calcitriol. C) calmodulin. D) calcium-binding globulin. E) calcitropin.

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37) Membrane receptors are used by which of the following types of hormones? A) catecholamines B) peptide hormonesC) eicosanoidsD) thyroidE) catecholamines, peptide hormones, and eicosanoids

38) The most complex endocrine responses involve the A) thyroid gland. B) pancreas. C) suprarenal glands. D) hypothalamus. E) thymus gland.

39) Which of the following hormones is/are water soluble and therefore bind(s) to extracellular receptors?A) insulinB) epinephrineC) cortisolD) calcitriolE) insulin and epinephrine

40) Destruction of the supraoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus would have which of the following results?A) loss of ADH secretionB) loss of GH secretionC) loss of melatonin secretionD) loss of emotional responseE) loss of loss of regulatory factor secretion

41) The main action of antidiuretic hormone isA) increased water conservation by kidneys. B) to stimulate kidney cells to secrete renin.C) increase urine output to remove excess fluid. D) increased blood pressure by increased Na+ reabsorption.E) inhibition of aldosterone.

42) A ray of light entering the eye will encounter the following structures in which order?A) conjunctiva → cornea → aqueous humor → lens → vitreous body → retina B) vitreous body → retina → choroids → aqueous humor → lens → conjunctiva → corneaC) cornea → aqueous humor → vitreous body → lens → conjunctiva → choroids → retinaD) conjunctiva → cornea → lens → aqueous humor → vitreous body → retina E) cornea → aqueous humor → conjunctiva → lens → vitreous body → retina → choroid

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43) Which of the following hormones may lead to acromegaly if hypersecreted after closure of the epiphyseal plates?A) cortisolB) parathyroid hormoneC) insulinD) growth hormoneE) epinephrine

Figure 18-1 Pituitary Hormones and Their Targets

Use Figure 18-1 to answer the following questions:

44) Identify the hormone labeled "4." A) thyroid-releasing hormone B) thyroid-stimulating hormone C) thyroxin D) thyrotropin E) calcitonin

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45) Identify the hormone labeled "1." A) mineralocorticoid B) cortisol C) dopamine D) ACTHE) aldosterone

46) A deficiency of which hormone can lead to diabetes insipidus? A) 3 B) 7 C) 2 D) 8 E) 14

47) Identify the hormone labeled "5." A) thyroid-releasing hormone B) thyroid-stimulating hormone C) thyroxine D) thyrotropin E) parathyroid hormone (PTH)

48) Where does the chemical reaction between thyroglobulin and iodine take place?A) in lysosomesB) in rough endoplasmic reticulumC) in the lumen of the thyroid follicleD) in pinocytotic vesiclesE) in apical microvilli

49) Parathyroid hormone does all of the following except A) stimulate osteoclast activity. B) inhibit osteoblast activity. C) build up bone. D) stimulate the formation and secretion of calcitriol at the kidneys. E) enhance the reabsorption of calcium at the kidneys.

50) Damage to cells of the zona fasciculata of the suprarenal cortex would result in A) the loss of axillary and pubic hair. B) increased volume of urine formation. C) decreased levels of sodium ion in the blood. D) decreased ability to convert amino acids to glucose. E) increased water retention.

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51) If a patient is administered a powerful glucocorticoid (such as prednisone) to suppress the immune system, what unintended effects might this have on blood chemistry? A) increase of insulin B) decrease of insulinC) increase of blood glucoseD) decrease of blood glucoseE) both an increase in insulin and an increase in glucose

52) Which of the following hormones increases and prolongs effects of the sympathetic nervous system?A) cortisolB) parathyroid hormoneC) insulinD) growth hormoneE) acetylcholine

53) Which group of hormones cause an anti-inflammatory action?A) thyroglobulins B) mineralocorticoids C) pancreatic hormones D) antidiuretic hormones E) glucocorticoids

54) The condition known as seasonal affective disorder (SAD) may be caused byA) increased levels of melanin. B) increased levels of melatonin. C) increased levels of melanocyte-stimulating hormone. D) increased levels of gonadotrophins. E) decreased levels of testosterone.

55) If a diabetic patient received too much insulin, the low blood sugar could be corrected by injectingA) glucagon.B) GHIH.C) thyroid hormone.D) aldosterone.E) antidiuretic hormone.

56) Which of the following might occur in an overdose of insulin? A) glycosuriaB) ketoacidosis C) high blood glucose D) low blood glucose E) polyuria

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57) Which of the following statements is true about the pancreas?A) The pancreas is tucked into the curvature of the small intestine, underneath the stomach.B) The pancreas produces enzymes for breakdown of foods.C) The main hormonal function of the pancreas is control of blood sugar.D) The pancreas affect's the functions of the liver.E) All of the answers are correct.

58) Increased aggressive and assertive behavior is associated with an increase in which of the following hormones? A) somatostatin B) thyroxineC) growth hormoneD) sex hormones E) insulin

59) You have just become the nurse manager of a nursing home and you are reminding yourself about what problems your nursing home population might have by studying your old pathophysiology books from nursing school. Many of the residents are tired and have problems with blood glucose levels. Which hormones might be related?A) insulinB) cortisolC) GHD) thyroid hormonesE) All of the answers are correct.

60) Receptors for ________, peptide hormones, and eicosanoids are found in the cell membranes of target cells.A) catecholaminesB) carbohydratesC) kinasesD) genesE) acetylcholine

61) Cells that respond to a hormone are called ________ cells.A) stem B) pluripotent C) germ D) target E) peripheral

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62) Hormones produced by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland that regulate the male and female reproductive organs are collectively called A) tropic hormones.B) androgens.C) somatotropins.D) immunogens.E) gonadotropins.

63) The specific target cells of the thyroid hormones, thyroxine and triiodothyronine are A) the cells of the parathyroid glands.B) the cells of the pituitary gland.C) all cells of the body.D) the cells of the ovaries and testes.E) the cells of the thymus gland.

64) Adipocytes produce a peptide hormone called ________ that acts on the hypothalamus. A) leptinB) grehlinC) lipaseD) glucagonE) adipocin

65) Two hormones that have opposing effects are called A) antagonists.B) agonists.C) resistors.D) synergists.E) adjuvants.

66) The hormone that dominates the alarm phase of the stress response is A) epinephrine.B) acetylcholine.C) steroids.D) androgen.E) glucagon.

67) Which of the following is a function of the blood? A) transport of nutrients and wastes B) transport of body heat C) transport of gases D) defense against toxins and pathogens E) All of the answers are correct.

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68) Formed elements make up about what percentage of blood?A) 55 percentB) 30 percentC) 60 percentD) 45 percentE) 20 percent

69) Consider the following results from a blood lab test. Which value is most likely abnormal?A) RBCs—5.2 million/µlB) platelets—280,000/µlC) leukocytes—8600/µlD) hemoglobin—10.7 g/100 mlE) hematocrit—44 percent

70) A typical adult hematocrit is A) 85. B) 75. C) 65. D) 45. E) 25.

71) You are caring for an adult patient who weighs 48 kg. What would her approximate blood volume be? A) 6.6 L B) 6.0 L C) 5.6 L D) 4.8 L E) 3.8 L

72) Transferrin is an example of which kind of plasma protein? A) metalloprotein B) steroid-binding protein C) hormone-binding protein D) apolipoprotein E) transport albumin

73) Which organ secretes most of the plasma proteins? A) pancreas B) heart C) kidney D) brain E) liver

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74) Plasma proteins essential in body defense are the A) albumins. B) fibrinogens. C) immunoglobulins. D) metalloproteins. E) lipoproteins.

75) The disease sickle cell anemia is an example of what can happen if A) the diet is deficient in iron. B) there is insufficient heme in the hemoglobin. C) a gene for adult hemoglobin is abnormal. D) red blood cells bind too much oxygen. E) hemolysis is prevented by a mutated gene.

76) Surgical removal of the stomach could cause A) hemophilia. B) pernicious anemia. C) thrombocytopenia. D) leukocytosis. E) jaundice.

77) An obstruction in blood flow to the kidneys would ultimately result inA) pernicious anemia. B) renal anemia. C) increased erythropoiesis. D) decreased erythropoiesis. E) increased sensitivity to vitamin K.

78) Eileen is a strict vegan and therefore eats no animal products. She develops an anemia that her doctor thinks is caused by a nutritional deficiency. Which of the following is the likeliest candidate? A) aplastic anemiaB) vitamin B12 deficiency C) lack of intrinsic factorD) vitamin K deficiencyE) vitamin B6 deficiency

79) In which of the following situations would you expect the blood level of bilirubin to be elevated? A) during coagulation B) an alcoholic with a damaged liver C) iron-deficient dietD) low hematocritE) low blood volume

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80) Which of the following would you expect to see in increased numbers in a peripheral blood sample after donating a unit of blood? A) fibrocytes B) platelets C) reticulocytes D) lymphocytes E) neutrophils

81) A bruise appears as a greenish spot in the skin because A) hemoglobin has leaked from the blood into the injury and hemoglobin has a green color. B) the heme group in the hemoglobin has broken down into biliverdin. C) bilirubin from iron recycling has built-up in the bruise. D) red blood cells are green when they leave circulation. E) dead white blood cells accumulate at the site of injury.

82) People with type AB blood are considered the "universal recipient" for transfusions becauseA) their blood cells lack A and B antigens.B) their blood lacks A or B agglutinins.C) their blood is plentiful in A and B agglutinins.D) they usually have very strong immune systems.E) they are usually Rh negative.

83) Type AB blood has which of the following characteristics?A) RBCs have the Rh positive antigens and the anti-D plasma antibodies. B) RBCs have no surface antigens and both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in the plasma. C) RBCs have both the A & B surface antigens and no ABO plasma antibodies. D) RBCs have the A and the B surface antigens and the plasma has anti-A and anti-B antibodies. E) RBCs have the A antigen and the plasma has the anti-B antibody.

84) Antigens of the surface of red blood cells are also called ________ and antibodies in the blood plasma are also called ________. A) agglutinins; agglutinogens B) agglutinogens; agglutinins C) T-cells; B-cells D) erythrogens; antibiotics E) serum; plasma

85) Which of these descriptions best matches the term T lymphocytes?A) adhere to collagen beneath endotheliumB) are involved in cell mediated immunity C) produce antibodies in response to antigensD) kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxideE) often elevated in allergic individuals

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86) During a bacterial infection you would expect to see increased numbers of A) neutrophils. B) eosinophils. C) basophils. D) reticulocytes. E) thrombocytes.

87) Non-specific immunity, such as phagocytosis, is a function of which blood cells? A) basophils and eosinophils B) neutrophils, eosinophils, and monocytes C) lymphocytes and monocytes D) platelets E) lymphocytes

88) A patient has an infected puncture wound to her foot. Which type of white blood cell would you expect to be elevated in a differential white cell count? A) neutrophils B) eosinophils C) basophils D) lymphocytes E) monocytes

Figure 19-1 The Origins and Differentiation of Formed Elements

Use Figure 19-1 to answer the following questions:

89) Identify the cell labeled "5." A) erythrocyte B) lymphocyte C) eosinophil D) basophil E) monocyte

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90) Identify the cell labeled "6." A) erythrocyte B) lymphocyte C) eosinophil D) basophil E) monocyte

91) Identify the cell labeled "4." A) neutrophil B) lymphocyte C) platelet D) basophil E) monocyte

92) Identify the cell labeled "3." A) eosinophil B) lymphocyte C) erythrocyte D) basophil E) monocyte

93) Identify the cell labeled "2." A) lymphocyte B) eosinophil C) basophil D) neutrophil E) monocyte

94) ________ involves a cascade of reactions leading to the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin. A) Vascular spasm B) The platelet phase C) Retraction D) Coagulation E) Fibrinolysis

95) The extrinsic pathway of coagulation is initiated by the A) sticking of platelets to damaged tissue. B) activation of Factor VII exposed to collagen. C) release of tissue factor (Factor III) by damaged endothelium. D) release of heparin from the liver. E) conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.

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96) A substance that activates plasminogen might be useful to A) cause clots to form faster. B) cause clot dissolution to proceed faster. C) initiate clot formation.D) mimic heparin.E) recruit neutrophils to an infection.

97) Areas in a vessel wall where large quantities of lipid accumulate are called A) thrombi. B) emboli. C) plaques. D) clots. E) occlusions.

98) Which of the following are common sources of vitamin K? A) green vegetables B) organ meats C) whole grains D) intestinal bacteria E) All of answers are correct.

99) A digestive disorder that impairs a person's ability to absorb vitamin K will result in A) low levels of prothrombin. B) low levels of Factor X. C) low levels of thromboplastin.D) prolonged bleeding. E) All of the answers are correct.

100) Plasma extenders are used toA) maintain the normal osmotic pressure of blood.B) carry oxygen to the tissues.C) maintain the normal blood pH.D) keep blood volume normal.E) keep blood volume normal and maintain osmotic pressure.

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