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A&P II Exam 1 Online 2020

1) All of the following are true of olfactory pathways except which one?

A) They project first to the occipital lobes and then to the thalamus.

B) Neurons from the olfactory epithelium synapse in the olfactory bulb.

C) Information flows to the olfactory cortex, hypothalamus, and limbic system.

D) They reach the forebrain without first synapsing in the thalamus.

E) The limbic system-olfactory pathway connection means that there are close ties between experiences and memories with smell.

2) Olfactory receptors send axons through the cribriform plate. They synapse on neurons in the

A) medulla oblongata.

B) medial geniculate.

C) cerebral cortex.

D) olfactory bulb.

E) olfactory tract.

3) Before an olfactory receptor can detect an odorant, it has to

A) contact a basal cell.

B) bind to receptors in olfactory cilia.

C) open ion channels.

D) respond to applied pressure.

E) be transported to the olfactory bulbs.

4) A normal, relaxed inhalation carries about ________ of the inhaled air to the olfactory organs.

A) 50 percent

B) 8 percent

C) 2 percent

D) 35 percent

E) 10 percent

5) Destruction to your left glossopharyngeal nerve would result in

A) inability to sense sweetness at the tip of your tongue.

B) a reduction in ability to identify sour and bitter foods.

C) anosmia, also called nose blindness.

D) perceiving taste sensations where is no real stimulus.

E) identifying all foods as too salty.

6) A patient who experienced head trauma has lost the ability to taste spicy food. You should expect damage to cranial nerve

A) VII.

B) III.

C) IX.

D) V.

E) XII.

7) All of the following are true of the fibrous tunic of the eye except that it

A) consists of the sclera, limbus, and cornea.

B) provides mechanical support and some protection for the eye.

C) produces aqueous humor.

D) contributes substantial focusing power.

E) is where extrinsic eye muscles insert.

8) The function of gustatory receptors parallels that of

A) light receptors in the eye.

B) mechanoreceptors in the ear.

C) olfactory receptors.

D) lamellated corpuscles.

E) Meissner corpuscles.

9) The taste sensation that is triggered by the amino acid glutamate is known as

A) sweet.

B) umami.

C) salty.

D) peppery.

E) sour.

10) The neural tunic of the eye

A) contains ganglion cells.

B) contains the photoreceptor cells.

C) contains bipolar cells.

D) is the deepest layer of the eyeball.

E) All of the answers are correct.

11) A structure that is located at the medial canthus and contains glands that contribute to a gritty deposit is the

A) palpebra.

B) lacrimal caruncle.

C) chalazion.

D) Meibomian gland.

E) conjunctiva.

12) The ciliary muscle contracts to

A) control the amount of light reaching the retina.

B) adjust the shape of the lens for distant vision.

C) adjust the shape of the lens for near vision.

D) control the production of aqueous humor.

E) adjust the shape of the cornea and vitreous.

13) Which of the following is true concerning a sty?

A) often caused by bacteria

B) is a blocked gland on the eyelid

C) may involve a sebaceous gland

D) may involve a tarsal gland


14) If your vision is 20/15, this means that you can see

A) 20-point type at 15 feet.

B) objects at 20 feet that individuals with normal eyesight can see at 15 feet.

C) objects at 15 feet that individuals with eye problems see at 20 feet.

D) all 15 eye chart letters from 20 feet.

E) objects that are 20 feet or less away.

15) Why must accommodation occur to view objects closer than 20 feet from the eye?

A) The light rays are convergent and must be bent more.

B) It moves the retina into position to focus on the close object.

C) The light rays are divergent instead of parallel and require more refraction.

D) The iris is too dilated causing the light rays to be out of focus.

E) None of the answers are correct. Accommodation occurs when looking at distant objects 20 feet or farther from the eye.

16) During accommodation, the ciliary muscle ________ causing the ciliary body to move ________ and apply ________ tension on the lens.

A) relaxes; forward; more

B) contracts; forward; less

C) contracts; back; more

D) relaxes; inward; less

E) contracts; back; less

Figure 17-1 The Sectional Anatomy of the Eye

Use Figure 17-1 to answer the following questions:

17) Identify the space labeled "1."

A) posterior cavity

B) posterior chamber

C) pupil

D) anterior chamber

E) vitreous chamber

18) Identify the structure labeled "7."

A) choroid

B) optic disc

C) sclera

D) retina

E) cornea


A) suspensory ligaments

B) optic disc

C) sclera

D) fovea

E) pupil

20) In the light-adapted state,

A) photoreceptors are much more sensitive to stimulation.

B) photoreceptors are much less sensitive to stimulation.

C) we can only see color, and not black and white.

D) we would see better in the dark.

E) colors are dull.

21) The following steps occur in rods when they are excited by photons of light. What is the proper sequence for these steps?

1. Membrane sodium channels close.

2. Increased phosphodiesterase breaks down cGMP.

3. Retinal changes from the 11-cis form to the 11-trans form.

4. The membrane hyperpolarizes and the rate of neurotransmitter release declines.

5. Opsin activates transducin.

6. Opsin activation occurs.

A) 1, 6, 5, 2, 4, 3

B) 3, 6, 5, 2, 1, 4

C) 6, 3, 5, 2, 1, 4

D) 3, 6, 5, 1, 2, 4

E) 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 2

22) Which of the following statements about the retina is true?

A) Ganglion cells send axons to the brain as cranial nerve II.

B) Axons carrying its output synapse in the thalamus.

C) It has photoreceptors that do not respond to dim light.

D) Cones and rods are not equally distributed across the retina.


23) Where are the visual pigments located in the rods and cones?

A) in the inner segment of photoreceptors

B) in mitochondria located in the outer segment

C) inside membrane discs stacked in the outer segment

D) inside a photosensitive nucleus

E) sandwiched in the cell membrane of the photoreceptors

24) A sound with a frequency of 12,000 hertz would

A) be very loud.

B) be barely audible.

C) be high-pitched.

D) be low-pitched.

E) damage the tympanic membrane.

25) The vibrations received by the tympanic membrane are transferred to the oval window by the

A) auditory ossicles.

B) cochlea.

C) oval window.

D) tensor tympani.

E) stapedius muscle.

26) Low frequency sounds stimulate hair cells on which part of the basilar membrane?

A) area close to the round window

B) the entire membrane

C) the distal end

D) the middle region

E) area close to the oval window

27) An infection that damages the vestibular nerve could result in a loss of

A) hearing and equilibrium.

B) olfaction.

C) visual acuity.

D) hearing.

E) equilibrium.

Figure 17-2 The Ear


28) Identify the structures labeled "8."

A) cochlea

B) auditory ossicles

C) auricle

D) tympanic membrane

E) vestibule

29) Which structure contains the receptors for hearing?

A) 6

B) 8

C) 9

D) 10

E) 11

30) Which structure is known as the vestibule?

A) 6

B) 8

C) 9

D) 10

E) 11

31) Identify the structure that is called the pinna or auricle.

A) 1

B) 5

C) 6

D) 8

E) 9

32) Which of the following statements about smell is true?

A) Basal cells are the supporting cells for the receptors cells of the olfactory receptor.

B) Olfactory epithelium covers the surface of the maxillary bone.

C) Olfactory glands produce saliva.

D) A high concentration of odorant molecules is required to stimulate olfactory cells.

E) None of the statements are true.

33) The membrane structures that respond to chemical stimuli to produce sweet, bitter, and umami sensations are called

A) gustatory hairs.

B) chemically-gated ion channels.

C) voltage-regulated ion channels.

D) G proteins.

E) papillae.

34) ________ are chemical messengers that are released by cells and transported in the bloodstream to alter the activities of specific cells in other tissues.

A) Hormones

B) Neuropeptides

C) Neurotransmitters

D) Humoral antibodies

E) Antigens

35) A kinase is an enzyme that performs

A) phosphorylation.

B) as a membrane channel.

C) active transport.

D) protein synthesis.

E) as an antibody.

36) Calcium ions serve as messengers, often in combination with the intracellular protein

A) calcitonin.

B) calcitriol.

C) calmodulin.

D) calcium-binding globulin.

E) calcitropin.

37) Membrane receptors are used by which of the following types of hormones?

A) catecholamines

B) peptide hormones

C) eicosanoids

D) thyroid

E) catecholamines, peptide hormones, and eicosanoids

38) The most complex endocrine responses involve the

A) thyroid gland.

B) pancreas.

C) suprarenal glands.

D) hypothalamus.

E) thymus gland.

39) Which of the following hormones is/are water soluble and therefore bind(s) to extracellular receptors?

A) insulin

B) epinephrine

C) cortisol

D) calcitriol

E) insulin and epinephrine

40) Destruction of the supraoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus would have which of the following results?

A) loss of ADH secretion

B) loss of GH secretion

C) loss of melatonin secretion

D) loss of emotional response

E) loss of loss of regulatory factor secretion

41) The main action of antidiuretic hormone is

A) increased water conservation by kidneys.

B) to stimulate kidney cells to secrete renin.

C) increase urine output to remove excess fluid.

D) increased blood pressure by increased Na+ reabsorption.

E) inhibition of aldosterone.

42) A ray of light entering the eye will encounter the following structures in which order?

A) conjunctiva → cornea → aqueous humor → lens → vitreous body → retina

B) vitreous body → retina → choroids → aqueous humor → lens → conjunctiva → cornea

C) cornea → aqueous humor → vitreous body → lens → conjunctiva → choroids → retina

D) conjunctiva → cornea → lens → aqueous humor → vitreous body → retina

E) cornea → aqueous humor → conjunctiva → lens → vitreous body → retina → choroid

43) Which of the following hormones may lead to acromegaly if hypersecreted after closure of the epiphyseal plates?

A) cortisol

B) parathyroid hormone

C) insulin

D) growth hormone

E) epinephrine

Figure 18-1 Pituitary Hormones and Their Targets


44) Identify the hormone labeled "4."

A) thyroid-releasing hormone

B) thyroid-stimulating hormone

C) thyroxin

D) thyrotropin

E) calcitonin


A) mineralocorticoid

B) cortisol

C) dopamine

D) ACTH

E) aldosterone

46) A deficiency of which hormone can lead to diabetes insipidus?

A) 3

B) 7

C) 2

D) 8

E) 14


A) thyroid-releasing hormone

B) thyroid-stimulating hormone

C) thyroxine

D) thyrotropin

E) parathyroid hormone (PTH)

48) Where does the chemical reaction between thyroglobulin and iodine take place?

A) in lysosomes

B) in rough endoplasmic reticulum

C) in the lumen of the thyroid follicle

D) in pinocytotic vesicles

E) in apical microvilli

49) Parathyroid hormone does all of the following except

A) stimulate osteoclast activity.

B) inhibit osteoblast activity.

C) build up bone.

D) stimulate the formation and secretion of calcitriol at the kidneys.

E) enhance the reabsorption of calcium at the kidneys.

50) Damage to cells of the zona fasciculata of the suprarenal cortex would result in

A) the loss of axillary and pubic hair.

B) increased volume of urine formation.

C) decreased levels of sodium ion in the blood.

D) decreased ability to convert amino acids to glucose.

E) increased water retention.

51) If a patient is administered a powerful glucocorticoid (such as prednisone) to suppress the immune system, what unintended effects might this have on blood chemistry?

A) increase of insulin

B) decrease of insulin

C) increase of blood glucose

D) decrease of blood glucose

E) both an increase in insulin and an increase in glucose

52) Which of the following hormones increases and prolongs effects of the sympathetic nervous system?

A) cortisol

B) parathyroid hormone

C) insulin

D) growth hormone

E) acetylcholine

53) Which group of hormones cause an anti-inflammatory action?

A) thyroglobulins

B) mineralocorticoids

C) pancreatic hormones

D) antidiuretic hormones

E) glucocorticoids

54) The condition known as seasonal affective disorder (SAD) may be caused by

A) increased levels of melanin.

B) increased levels of melatonin.

C) increased levels of melanocyte-stimulating hormone.

D) increased levels of gonadotrophins.

E) decreased levels of testosterone.

55) If a diabetic patient received too much insulin, the low blood sugar could be corrected by injecting

A) glucagon.

B) GHIH.

C) thyroid hormone.

D) aldosterone.

E) antidiuretic hormone.

56) Which of the following might occur in an overdose of insulin?

A) glycosuria

B) ketoacidosis

C) high blood glucose

D) low blood glucose

E) polyuria

57) Which of the following statements is true about the pancreas?

A) The pancreas is tucked into the curvature of the small intestine, underneath the stomach.

B) The pancreas produces enzymes for breakdown of foods.

C) The main hormonal function of the pancreas is control of blood sugar.

D) The pancreas affect's the functions of the liver.


58) Increased aggressive and assertive behavior is associated with an increase in which of the following hormones?

A) somatostatin

B) thyroxine

C) growth hormone

D) sex hormones

E) insulin

59) You have just become the nurse manager of a nursing home and you are reminding yourself about what problems your nursing home population might have by studying your old pathophysiology books from nursing school. Many of the residents are tired and have problems with blood glucose levels. Which hormones might be related?

A) insulin

B) cortisol

C) GH

D) thyroid hormones


60) Receptors for ________, peptide hormones, and eicosanoids are found in the cell membranes of target cells.

A) catecholamines

B) carbohydrates

C) kinases

D) genes

E) acetylcholine

61) Cells that respond to a hormone are called ________ cells.

A) stem

B) pluripotent

C) germ

D) target

E) peripheral

62) Hormones produced by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland that regulate the male and female reproductive organs are collectively called

A) tropic hormones.

B) androgens.

C) somatotropins.

D) immunogens.

E) gonadotropins.

63) The specific target cells of the thyroid hormones, thyroxine and triiodothyronine are

A) the cells of the parathyroid glands.

B) the cells of the pituitary gland.

C) all cells of the body.

D) the cells of the ovaries and testes.

E) the cells of the thymus gland.

64) Adipocytes produce a peptide hormone called ________ that acts on the hypothalamus.

A) leptin

B) grehlin

C) lipase

D) glucagon

E) adipocin

65) Two hormones that have opposing effects are called

A) antagonists.

B) agonists.

C) resistors.

D) synergists.

E) adjuvants.

66) The hormone that dominates the alarm phase of the stress response is

A) epinephrine.

B) acetylcholine.

C) steroids.

D) androgen.

E) glucagon.

67) Which of the following is a function of the blood?

A) transport of nutrients and wastes

B) transport of body heat

C) transport of gases

D) defense against toxins and pathogens


68) Formed elements make up about what percentage of blood?

A) 55 percent

B) 30 percent

C) 60 percent

D) 45 percent

E) 20 percent

69) Consider the following results from a blood lab test. Which value is most likely abnormal?

A) RBCs—5.2 million/µl

B) platelets—280,000/µl

C) leukocytes—8600/µl

D) hemoglobin—10.7 g/100 ml

E) hematocrit—44 percent

70) A typical adult hematocrit is

A) 85.

B) 75.

C) 65.

D) 45.

E) 25.

71) You are caring for an adult patient who weighs 48 kg. What would her approximate blood volume be?

A) 6.6 L

B) 6.0 L

C) 5.6 L

D) 4.8 L

E) 3.8 L

72) Transferrin is an example of which kind of plasma protein?

A) metalloprotein

B) steroid-binding protein

C) hormone-binding protein

D) apolipoprotein

E) transport albumin

73) Which organ secretes most of the plasma proteins?

A) pancreas

B) heart

C) kidney

D) brain

E) liver

74) Plasma proteins essential in body defense are the

A) albumins.

B) fibrinogens.

C) immunoglobulins.

D) metalloproteins.

E) lipoproteins.

75) The disease sickle cell anemia is an example of what can happen if

A) the diet is deficient in iron.

B) there is insufficient heme in the hemoglobin.

C) a gene for adult hemoglobin is abnormal.

D) red blood cells bind too much oxygen.

E) hemolysis is prevented by a mutated gene.

76) Surgical removal of the stomach could cause

A) hemophilia.

B) pernicious anemia.

C) thrombocytopenia.

D) leukocytosis.

E) jaundice.

77) An obstruction in blood flow to the kidneys would ultimately result in

A) pernicious anemia.

B) renal anemia.

C) increased erythropoiesis.

D) decreased erythropoiesis.

E) increased sensitivity to vitamin K.

78) Eileen is a strict vegan and therefore eats no animal products. She develops an anemia that her doctor thinks is caused by a nutritional deficiency. Which of the following is the likeliest candidate?

A) aplastic anemia

B) vitamin B12 deficiency

C) lack of intrinsic factor

D) vitamin K deficiency

E) vitamin B6 deficiency

79) In which of the following situations would you expect the blood level of bilirubin to be elevated?

A) during coagulation

B) an alcoholic with a damaged liver

C) iron-deficient diet

D) low hematocrit

E) low blood volume

80) Which of the following would you expect to see in increased numbers in a peripheral blood sample after donating a unit of blood?

A) fibrocytes

B) platelets

C) reticulocytes

D) lymphocytes

E) neutrophils

81) A bruise appears as a greenish spot in the skin because

A) hemoglobin has leaked from the blood into the injury and hemoglobin has a green color.

B) the heme group in the hemoglobin has broken down into biliverdin.

C) bilirubin from iron recycling has built-up in the bruise.

D) red blood cells are green when they leave circulation.

E) dead white blood cells accumulate at the site of injury.

82) People with type AB blood are considered the "universal recipient" for transfusions because

A) their blood cells lack A and B antigens.

B) their blood lacks A or B agglutinins.

C) their blood is plentiful in A and B agglutinins.

D) they usually have very strong immune systems.

E) they are usually Rh negative.

83) Type AB blood has which of the following characteristics?

A) RBCs have the Rh positive antigens and the anti-D plasma antibodies.

B) RBCs have no surface antigens and both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in the plasma.

C) RBCs have both the A & B surface antigens and no ABO plasma antibodies.

D) RBCs have the A and the B surface antigens and the plasma has anti-A and anti-B antibodies.

E) RBCs have the A antigen and the plasma has the anti-B antibody.

84) Antigens of the surface of red blood cells are also called ________ and antibodies in the blood plasma are also called ________.

A) agglutinins; agglutinogens

B) agglutinogens; agglutinins

C) T-cells; B-cells

D) erythrogens; antibiotics

E) serum; plasma

85) Which of these descriptions best matches the term T lymphocytes?

A) adhere to collagen beneath endothelium

B) are involved in cell mediated immunity

C) produce antibodies in response to antigens

D) kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide

E) often elevated in allergic individuals

86) During a bacterial infection you would expect to see increased numbers of

A) neutrophils.

B) eosinophils.

C) basophils.

D) reticulocytes.

E) thrombocytes.

87) Non-specific immunity, such as phagocytosis, is a function of which blood cells?

A) basophils and eosinophils

B) neutrophils, eosinophils, and monocytes

C) lymphocytes and monocytes

D) platelets

E) lymphocytes

88) A patient has an infected puncture wound to her foot. Which type of white blood cell would you expect to be elevated in a differential white cell count?

A) neutrophils

B) eosinophils

C) basophils

D) lymphocytes

E) monocytes

Figure 19-1 The Origins and Differentiation of Formed Elements


89) Identify the cell labeled "5."

A) erythrocyte

B) lymphocyte

C) eosinophil

D) basophil

E) monocyte


A) erythrocyte

B) lymphocyte

C) eosinophil

D) basophil

E) monocyte


A) neutrophil

B) lymphocyte

C) platelet

D) basophil

E) monocyte


A) eosinophil

B) lymphocyte

C) erythrocyte

D) basophil

E) monocyte


A) lymphocyte

B) eosinophil

C) basophil

D) neutrophil

E) monocyte

94) ________ involves a cascade of reactions leading to the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.

A) Vascular spasm

B) The platelet phase

C) Retraction

D) Coagulation

E) Fibrinolysis

95) The extrinsic pathway of coagulation is initiated by the

A) sticking of platelets to damaged tissue.

B) activation of Factor VII exposed to collagen.

C) release of tissue factor (Factor III) by damaged endothelium.

D) release of heparin from the liver.

E) conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.

96) A substance that activates plasminogen might be useful to

A) cause clots to form faster.

B) cause clot dissolution to proceed faster.

C) initiate clot formation.

D) mimic heparin.

E) recruit neutrophils to an infection.

97) Areas in a vessel wall where large quantities of lipid accumulate are called

A) thrombi.

B) emboli.

C) plaques.

D) clots.

E) occlusions.

98) Which of the following are common sources of vitamin K?

A) green vegetables

B) organ meats

C) whole grains

D) intestinal bacteria

E) All of answers are correct.

99) A digestive disorder that impairs a person's ability to absorb vitamin K will result in

A) low levels of prothrombin.

B) low levels of Factor X.

C) low levels of thromboplastin.

D) prolonged bleeding.


100) Plasma extenders are used to

A) maintain the normal osmotic pressure of blood.

B) carry oxygen to the tissues.

C) maintain the normal blood pH.

D) keep blood volume normal.

E) keep blood volume normal and maintain osmotic pressure.

101) Tetanic muscle contractions don't occur in a normal cardiac muscle because

A) cardiac muscle tissue contracts on its own.

B) neural stimulation is lacking.

C) the refractory period lasts until the muscle relaxes.

D) the refractory period ends before the muscle reaches peak tension.

E) potassium channels outnumber sodium channels.

102) Which of the following descriptions matches the term near the left fifth intercostal space?

A) pericardial cavity

B) visceral pericardium

C) apex of heart

D) aorta

E) right atrium

103) The interventricular sulci and coronary sulcus

A) contain fat.

B) contain arteries.

C) contain veins.

D) are grooves on the surface of the heart.


104) Cardiac muscle cells and skeletal muscle cells differ in a few ways. Which of the following is not one of them?

A) Cardiac muscle cells are smaller in size.

B) Cardiac muscle cells have a single, centered nucleus.

C) Cardiac muscle cells branch.

D) Skeletal muscle cells lack intercalated discs.

E) Cardiac muscle cells lack transverse tubules.

105) Most of the middle layer in the heart wall is composed of

A) cardiac muscle cells.

B) chondrocytes.

C) epitheliocytes.

D) fibrocytes.

E) smooth muscle cells.

106) In order to perform a coronary artery bypass graft, a cardiac surgeon must

A) open the pericardial sac.

B) open the myocardium to see the AV valves.

C) visualize the pulmonary valve.

D) visualize the carotid arteries.


107) When the left ventricle contracts, the distance from the apex to the base

A) increases.

B) decreases.

C) remains unchanged.

108) Cardiac cells damaged by infarction will show which of the following?

A) switch to anaerobic metabolism

B) release of enzymes into the circulation

C) release of troponin T and I into the circulation

D) release of CK-MB into the circulation


109) When the semilunar valves close, the AV valves then

A) close.

B) open.

C) make the third heart sound.

D) contract.

E) prolapse.

110) The right pulmonary veins carry ________ blood to the ________.

A) deoxygenated; left atrium

B) oxygenated; right lung

C) deoxygenated; superior vena cava

D) deoxygenated; right atrium

E) oxygenated; left atrium

111) The foramen ovale in the fetal heart is located in the

A) right atrium.

B) left atrium.

C) right ventricle.

D) left ventricle.

E) interatrial septum.

Figure 20-1 The Heart



A) tricuspid valve

B) pulmonary semilunar valve

C) aortic semilunar valve

D) bicuspid valve

E) ligamentum arteriosum

113) Identify the structure(s) labeled "8."

A) moderator band

B) pectinate muscles

C) papillary muscles

D) trabeculae carneae

E) chordae tendineae


A) cusp of tricuspid valve



D) bicuspid valve

E) ligamentum arteriosum

115) Which chamber receives oxygenated blood from the pulmonary circuit?

A) 5

B) 10

C) 16

D) 13

E) both 5 and 16


A) bicuspid valve



D) ligamentum arteriosum

E) tricuspid valve

117) As a result of the long refractory period in the cardiac action potential, cardiac muscle cannot exhibit

A) tonus.

B) treppe.

C) tetany.

D) recruitment.

E) fatigue.

118) Pacemaker cells in the SA node

A) have a well-defined resting potential.

B) can spontaneously depolarize.

C) also contract with the rest of the cells in the heart wall.

D) are special neurons that convey signals from the brain to the heart.


119) ________ is to slow heart rate as ________ is to fast heart rate.

A) Tachycardia; bradycardia

B) Bradycardia; cardiomyopathy

C) Bradycardia; tachycardia

D) Cardiac tamponade; bradycardia

E) Angina; infarction

120) The phase in the cardiac cycle when the mitral valve is closed and the aortic valve is open is the

A) atrial systole.

B) early diastolic filling phase.

C) late diastolic filling phase.

D) systolic ejection phase.

E) dicrotic phase.

121) During ventricular systole, the

A) atria are contracting.

B) blood is entering the ventricles.

C) AV valves are closed.

D) pressure in the ventricles remains constant.

E) pressure in the aorta remains constant.

Figure 20-2 Cardiac Cycle


122) What occurs at the area labeled "D" on the graph?

A) AV valve opens.

B) Semilunar valve opens.

C) Diastolic filling begins.

D) AV valve opens and filling of ventricles begins.

E) Ventricle contracts.

123) What volume is labeled "G" on the graph?

A) cardiac output

B) stroke volume

C) end-systolic volume

D) end-diastolic volume

E) ejection fraction

124) What occurs at "A" on the graph?

A) Semilunar valve opens.

B) Semilunar valve closes.

C) AV valve opens.

D) AV valve closes.

E) end systolic volume

125) What volume is labeled "E" on the graph?

A) cardiac output

B) stroke volume

C) end-diastolic volume

D) end-systolic volume

E) total cardiac volume

126) Cardiac output can be increased by all of the following except

A) decreasing ejection fraction.

B) decreasing end systolic volume.

C) increasing stroke volume.

D) increasing ejection fraction.

E) increasing heart rate.

127) Heart rate is controlled by neurons of the cardiovascular center located in the

A) pons.

B) thalamus.

C) medulla oblongata.

D) hypothalamus.

E) higher centers.

128) End-systolic volume is defined as the

A) amount of blood a ventricle ejects per cycle.

B) amount of blood which backflows into a ventricle.

C) amount of blood remaining in an atrium after atrial systole.

D) amount of blood remaining in a ventricle after contraction.

E) stroke volume multiplied by the heart rate.

129) Calculate cardiac output if the heart rate is 125 beats/minute, the end-diastolic volume is 130 ml, and the end-systolic volume is 40 ml.

A) 21,250 ml / min

B) 16,250 ml / min

C) 11,250 ml / min

D) 195 ml / min

E) 200 ml / min

130) ________ is the symptom generally brought on by coronary ischemia.

A) Angina pectoris

B) Shortness of breath

C) A rash

D) Hematuria

E) Fluid in the lungs

1

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anatomyphysiology2russoonline.files.wordpress.com… · Web view2 days ago · A&P II Exam 1 Online 2020. 1) All of the following are true of olfactory pathways except which one?