1 AIPTS-CSAT-6 Byju’s Classes:-9873643487

ALL INDIA PRELIMS TEST SERIES - 2017 CSAT-6 (VERBAL ABILITY + REASONING +

DATA INTERPRETATION)

_________________________________________________ DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

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3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.

4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (Qs). Each item is printed in English only. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. More than one response will be treated as wrong answer.

5. In case you find any discrepancy in this test booklet in any Q(s) or the Responses; a written representation explaining the details of such alleged discrepancy, be submitted within three days, indicating the Q No(s) and the Test Booklet Series, in which the discrepancy is alleged. Representation not received within time shall not be entertained at all.

6. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided.

7. All items carry equal marks.

8. For each Q for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one third (-0.33 %) of the marks assigned to that Q will be deducted as penalty. There will be no penalty for a Q which is left blank.

9. Before you proceed to mark in the Response Sheet, the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Response Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admit Card and Instructions.

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11. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Response Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Response Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

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Directions for the following 5 (Five) items: Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only. PASSAGE -1 On the banks of the Thames it is a tremendous chapter of accidents - the London-lover has to confess to the existence of miles upon miles of the dreariest, stodgiest commonness. Thousands of acres are covered by low black houses, of the cheapest construction, without ornament, without grace, without character or even identity. In fact there are many, even in the best quarters, in all the region of Mayfair and Belgravia, of so paltry and inconvenient and above all of so diminutive a type, that you wonder what peculiarly limited domestic need they were constructed to meet. The great misfortune of London, to the eye (it is true that this remark applies much less to the City), is the want of elevation. There is no architectural impression without a certain degree of height, and the London street-vista has none of that sort of pride. All the same, if there be not the intention, there is at least the accident, of style, which, if one looks at it in a friendly way, appears to

proceed from three sources. One of these is simply the general greatness, and the manner in which that makes a difference for the better in any particular spot, so that though you may often perceive yourself to be in a shabby corner it never occurs to you that this is the end of it. Another is the atmosphere, with its magnificent mystifications, which flatters and super fuses, makes everything brown, rich, dim, vague, magnifies distances and minimizes details, confirms the inference of vastness by suggesting that, as the great city makes everything, it makes its own system of weather and its own optical laws. The last is the congregation of the parks, which constitute an ornament not elsewhere to be matched and give the place a superiority that none of its ugliness’s overcome. They spread themselves with such a luxury of space in the centre of the town that they form a part of the impression of any walk, of almost any view, and, with an audacity altogether their own, make a pastoral landscape under the smoky sky. There is no mood of the rich London climate that is not becoming to them - I have seen them look delightfully romantic, like parks in novels, in the wettest winter - and there is scarcely a mood of the appreciative resident to which they have not something to say. The high things of London, which here and there peep over them, only make the spaces vaster by reminding you that you are after all not in Kent or Yorkshire; and these things, whatever they be, rows of 'eligible' dwellings, towers of churches, domes of institutions, take such an effective gray-blue tint that a clever watercolorist would seem to have put them in for pictorial reasons. The view from the bridge over the Serpentine has an extraordinary nobleness, and it has often seemed to me that the Londoner twitted with his low standard may point to it with every confidence. In all the town-scenery of Europe there can be few things so fine; the only reproach it is open to is that it begs the Q by seeming - in spite of its being the pride of five millions of people - not to belong to a town at all. The towers of Notre Dame,

as they rise, in Paris, from the island that divides the Seine, present themselves no more impressively than those of Westminster as you see them looking doubly far beyond the shining stretch of Hyde Park water. Q1) It can be inferred that James would be less likely than Lawrence to- i) Complain about the weather ii) Rejoice on leaving the city iii) Find the English countryside dull Choose the correct answer from the following given options- (a) i and ii (b) i and iii (c) ii and iii (d) i, ii and iii Q2) The contrast between James and Lawrence revealed by the passages involves all of the following except- (a) Appreciation of quiet places and scenic walks versus need for excitement (b) Concern with visual impact versus effect on an individual’s state of mind (c) Concern with architectural impression versus apparent indifference to architecture (d) Taste for the quaint and limited in scale versus dislike of dreariness and pokiness Q3) To counter Lawrence’s charge of ‘one vast complex of

dullness’, James would most likely point out that London- (a) Is bright and vast (b) Offers vistas unmatched in the rest of Europe (c) Is always romantic and pastoral (d) Juxtaposes the ugly and the visually attractive PASSAGE – 2 At the heart of the enormous boom in wine consumption that has taken place in the English-speaking world over the last two decades or so is a fascinating, happy paradox. In the days when wine was exclusively the preserve of a narrow cultural elite, bought either at auctions or from gentleman wine merchants in wing collars and bow-ties, to be stored in rambling cellars and decanted to order by one's butler, the ordinary drinker didn't get a look-in. Wine was considered a highly technical subject, in which anybody without the necessary ability could only fall flat on his or her face in embarrassment. It wasn't just that you needed a refined aesthetic sensibility for the stuff if it wasn't to be hopelessly wasted on you. It required an intimate knowledge of what came from where, and what it was supposed to taste like. Those were times, however, when wine appreciation essentially meant a familiarity with the great French classics, with perhaps a smattering of other wines-like sherry and port. That was what the wine trade dealt in. These days, wine is bought daily in supermarkets and high-street chains to be consumed that evening, hardly anybody has a cellar to store it in and most don't even possess a decanter. Above all, the wines of literally dozens of countries are available on our market. When a supermarket offers its customers a couple of fruity little numbers from Brazil, we scarcely raise an eyebrow. It seems, in other words, that the commercial jungle that wine has now become has not in the slightest deterred people from plunging adventurously into the thickets in order to taste and see. Consumers are no longer intimidated by the thought of

3 AIPTS-CSAT-6 BYJU’s Classes:-9980837187

needing to know their Pouilly-Fumé from their Pouilly-Fuissé, just at the very moment when there is more to know than ever before. The reason for this new mood of confidence is not hard to find. It is on every wine label from Australia, New Zealand, South Africa and the United States: the name of the grape from which the wine is made. At one time that might have sounded like a fairly technical approach in itself. Why should native English-speakers know what Cabernet Sauvignon or Chardonnay were? The answer lies in the popularity that wines made from those grape varieties now enjoy. Consumers effectively recognize them as brand names, and have acquired a basic lexicon of wine that can serve them even when confronted with those Brazilian upstarts. In the wine heartlands of France, they are scared to death of that trend–not because they think their wine isn't as good as the best from California or South Australia (what French winemaker will ever admit that?) but because they don't traditionally call their wines Cabernet Sauvignon or Chardonnay. They call them Château Ducru-Beaucaillou or Corton-Charlemagne, and they aren't about to change. Some areas, in the middle of southern France, have now produced a generation of growers using the varietal names on their labels and are tempting consumers back to French wine.

It will be an uphill struggle, but there is probably no other way if France is to avoid simply becoming a specialty source of old-fashioned wines for old-fashioned connoisseurs. Wine consumption was also given a significant boost in the early 1990s by the work of Dr. Serge Renaud, who has spent many years investigating the reasons for the uncannily low incidence of coronary heart disease in the south of France. One of his major findings is that the fat-derived cholesterol that builds up in the arteries and can eventually lead to heart trouble can be dispersed by the tannins in wine. Tannin is derived from the skins of grapes, and is therefore present in higher levels in red wines, because they have to be infused with their skins to attain the red colour. That news caused a huge upsurge in red wine consumption in the United States. It has not been accorded the prominence it deserves in the UK, largely because the medical profession still sees all alcohol as a menace to health, and is constantly calling for it to be made prohibitively expensive. Certainly, the manufacturers of anticoagulant drugs might have something to lose if we all got the message that we would do just as well by our hearts by taking half a bottle of red wine every day ! Q4) What according to the author should the French do to avoid becoming a producer of merely old-fashioned wines? (a) Follow the labeling strategy of the English-speaking countries. (b) Give their wines English names. (c) Introduce fruity wines as Brazil has done. (d) Produce the wines that have become popular in the English-speaking world. Q5) The development which has created fear among winemakers in the wine heartlands of France is the (a) Tendency not to name wines after the grape varieties that are used in the wines.

(b) Education' that consumers have derived from wine labels from English-speaking countries. (c) New generation of local winegrowers who use labels that show names of grape varieties. (d) Ability of consumers to understand a wine's qualities when confronted with "Brazilian upstarts". Directions: the following two Qs are based on the following information- P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting round the circle and are facing the centre: 1. P is second to the right of T who is the neighbour of

R and V. 2. S is not the neighbour of P. 3. V is the neighbour of U. 4. Q is not between S and W. W is not between U and

S. Q6) Which two of the following are not Neighbors ? (a) RV (b) UV (c) RP (d) QW Q7) Which one is immediate right to the V ? (a) P (b) U (c) R (d) T Q8) At what time between 5.30 and 6 will the hands of a

clock be at right angles? (a) 43 5/11 min. past 5 (b) 43 7/11 min. past 5 (c) 40 min. past 5 (d) 45 min. past 5 Directions for the following two Qs: Read the following information and answer accordingly: A young girl Rachna leaves home with x flowers, goes to the bank of a nearby river. On the bank of the river, there are four places of worship, standing in a row. She dips all the x flowers into the river. The number of flowers doubles. Then she enters the first place of worship, offers y flowers to the deity. She dips the remaining flowers into the river, and again the number of flowers doubles. She goes to the second place of worship, offers y flowers to the deity. She dips the remaining flowers into the river, and again the number of flowers doubles. She goes to the third place of worship, offers y flowers to the deity. She dips the remaining flowers into the river, and again the number of flowers doubles. She goes to the fourth place of worship, offers y flowers to the deity. Now she is left with no flower in hand. Q9) If Rachna leaves home with 30 flowers; the number of flowers she offers to each deity is- (a) 30 (b) 31 (c) 32 (d) 33 Q10) The minimum number of flowers that could be offered to each deity is- (a) 0 (b) 15 (c) 16 (d) Cannot be determined Q11) Which symbol will be on the face opposite to the face with symbol * ?

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(a) @ (b) $ (c) 8 (d) + Q12) Select a suitable figure from the four alternatives that would complete the figure matrix

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 Directions for the following 7 (Seven) items: Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only. PASSAGE -1 The stubborn resistance of child malnutrition in India is one of the tragedies of our time. Many of us have long agonized over this preventable problem and we continue to ask- why do half of our children not get enough or the right food or adequate care? Even in Sub-Saharan Africa, only 30 percent of the children are malnourished, versus fifty percent in South Asia. And this gap exists despite our higher levels of per capita income, education and even safer water access. One-third of the babies in India are born with low birth weight compared to one-sixth in Sub-Saharan Africa. This is heartbreaking given the dramatic improvements in agriculture, advances in literacy and great strides in economic growth. For more than 20 years India has even sustained the greatest effort in history to improve nutritional standards according to UNICEF, through its Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) Programme. So it is not for lack of effort nor is it due to poverty which has been steadily declining by a percent a year for two decades. What accounts for this puzzle? In 1996, India’s famous physician nutritionist wrote a ground-breaking article on this called ‘The Asian Enigma’. After considering different factors, including access to food and income and our vegetarianism, he concluded that the lower status of women might be the reason. The link between women’s status and child nutrition seems plausible. In many Indian homes, men eat first; women have to make

do with left over. This is perhaps why 83 percent of women in India suffer from iron-deficiency-anemia versus forty percent in Sub-Saharan Africa. A malnourished mother will give birth to a baby with low birth weight. Moreover, domestic work often forces a mother to delegate the chore of feeding solid food to her

baby to other siblings. If women had more control over family income and decisions, they would devote them to better pre and post natal care and to their children. So far this was the theory. But now a study by the International Food Policy Research Institute and Emory University seems to confirm this hypothesis. It brought together data from thirty-six developing countries, spanning over one hundred thousand children under the age of three and an equal number of women. It measured a woman’s position in the home-whether she works for cash her age at marriage and the difference in age and education between spouses. The study concludes that the lowly position of women in the family is the single most important reason for the gap in children’s nutrition between South Asia and Sub-Saharan Africa, followed by sanitation and urbanization. Q13) According to the author- (a) Child malnutrition can be reduced with the help of child nutrition schemes (b) Increased family income would result in better pre and post-natal care (c) Men should play more involved role in children’s well-being (d) India has not put sustained efforts to improve nutritional standards

Q14) Consider the following- i) Women are not getting sufficient food ii) More women eating only vegetarian food iii) Women not eating balanced food iv) Lack of proper medical check-up Which of the above is the major reason for a large number of women in India suffering from iron-deficiency? (a) Only i (b) Only ii (c) Only iii (d) Only iv Q15) According to the author, the crux is- (a) Women have lower status everywhere as compared to men (b) Improvement of sanitation and slum conditions (c) That in India, the per capita income and education level of women is very low (d) Low status of women has horrifying result on child nutrition Q16) Consider the following statements- i) Child development schemes indicate that there was no lack of efforts in India for the last two decades to improve the situation. ii) A hypothesis related to low birth weight has now confirmed that the major reason for this state is status of women. Which of the above statement/s is/are correctly stated? (a) Only i (b) Only ii (c) Both i and ii (d) Neither i nor ii PASSAGE -2 All the sound reasons ever given for conserving other natural resources apply to the conservation of wildlife – and with three-fold power. When a spendthrift squanders his capital it is lost to him and his heirs; yet it goes somewhere else. When a nation allows any one kind of natural resource to be squandered it must suffer

5 AIPTS-CSAT-6 BYJU’s Classes:-9980837187

a real, positive loss; yet substitutes of another kind can generally be found. But when wildlife is squandered it does not go elsewhere, like squandered money; it cannot possibly be replaced by any substitute, as some inorganic resources are: it is simply an absolute, dead loss, gone beyond even the hope of recall. The public still has a hazy idea that Nature has an overflowing sanctuary of her own, somewhere or other, which will fill up the gaps automatically. The result is that poaching is commonly regarded as a venial offence, poachers taken red-handed are rarely punished, and willing ears are always lent to the cry that rich sportsmen are trying to take the bread out of the poor settler's mouth. The poor settler does not reflect that he himself, and all other classes alike, really have a common interest in the conservation of any wildlife that does not conflict with legitimate human development. Q17) The author of paragraph one probably uses the expression ‘three-fold power’- (a) Because there are three-times as many reasons for conserving wildlife (b) To be more dramatic that saying “double-power” (c) To emphasize the contrast between loss of money, loss of other resources, and loss of wildlife (d) To stress the need for saving money, resources and

time Q18) From the context, the word ‘venial’ most nearly means- (a) Major (b) Criminal (c) Frequent (d) Trivial Q19) Both paragraphs apparently imply that- (a) There is no source from which wildlife, once exterminated, can be replaced (b) Poachers must be punished (c) Wildlife has much in common with other natural resources (d) Conservation is in conflict with human development Q20) A boat having a length 3 m and breadth 2 m is floating on a lake. The boat sinks by 1 cm when a man gets on it. The mass of the man is: (a) 12 kg (b) 60 kg (c) 72 kg (d) 96 kg Directions for Qs 21-24: Read The Following Information And Answer The 4 (Four) Items That Follow:

Sixteen teams have been invited to participate in the ABC Gold Cup cricket tournament.

The tournament is conducted in two stages. In

the first stage, the teams are divided into two groups.

Each group consists of eight teams, with each team playing every other team in its group exactly once.

At the end of the first stage, the top four teams from each group advance to the second stage

while the rest are eliminated.

The second stage comprises of several rounds. A round involves one match for each team. The winner of a match in a round advances to the next round, while the loser is eliminated.

The team that remains undefeated in the second stage is declared the winner and claims the Gold Cup. The tournament rules are such that each match results in a winner and a loser with no possibility of a tie.

In the first stage a team earns one point for each

win and no points for a loss.

At the end of the first stage teams in each group are ranked on the basis of total points to determine the qualifiers advancing to the next stage.

Ties are resolved by a series of complex tie-

breaking rules so that exactly four teams from each group advance to the next stage.

Q21) What is the total number of matches played in the tournament? (a) 28 (b) 55 (c) 63 (d) 35 Q22) The minimum number of wins needed for a team in the first stage to guarantee its advancement to the next stage is- (a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 4 Q23) What is the highest number of wins for a team in the first stage in spite of which it would be eliminated at the end of first stage? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 Q24) What is the number of rounds in the second stage of the tournament? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 Q25) There is a shift in our economy from a manufacturing to a service orientation. The increase in service sector will require the managers to work more with people rather than with objects and things from the assembly line. The passage best supports the statement that- (a) Managers should have a balanced mind (b) Assembly line will exist in service organizations (c) Interpersonal skills will become more important in the future work place (d) Manufacturing organization ignore importance of people Direction: The Q given below has a problem and two statements numbered I and II giving certain information. You have to decide if the information given in the statement is sufficient for answering the problem. Indicate your answer as- (a) If data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the Q; (b) If data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the Q; (c) If data in statement I and II both are required to answer the Q; and

(d) If data in statement I and II both are insufficient to answer the Q Q26) A, B, C, D and E are sitting in the row. B is between A and E. Who among them is in middle?

6 AIPTS-CSAT-6 BYJU’s Classes:-9980837187

I. A is left of B and right of D II. C is at the right end Q27) What is the area of a right-angled triangle? i) The perimeter of the triangle is 30 cm ii) The ratio between the base and the height of the triangle is 5 : 12. iii) The area of the triangle is equal to the area of a rectangle of length 10 cm (a) i and ii only (b) ii and iii only (c) i and iii only (d) iii, and either i or ii only Directions: The following five Qs (28-32) are based on the following Q: In an Exhibition seven cars of different companies - Cadillac, Ambassador, Fiat, Maruti, Mercedes, Bedford and Fargo are standing facing to east in the following order: 1. Cadillac is next to right of Fargo. 2. Fargo is fourth to the right of Fiat. 3. Maruti car is between Ambassador and Bedford. 4. Fiat which is third to the left of Ambassador is at

one end. Q28) Which of the cars are on both the sides of cadillac

car? (a) Ambassador and Maruti (b) Maruti and Fiat (c) Fargo and Mercedes (d) Ambassador and Fargo Q29) Which of the following statement is correct? (a) Maruti is next left of Ambassador (b) Bedford is next left of Fiat (c) Bedford is at one end (d) Fiat is next second to the right of Maruti Q30) Which one of the following statements is correct? (a) Fargo car is in between Ambassador and Fiat (b) Cadillac is next left to Mercedes car (c) Fargo is next right of Cadillac (d) Maruti is fourth right of Mercedes Q31) Which of the following groups of cars is to the right of Ambassador? (a) Cadillac, Fargo and Maruti (b) Mercedes, Cadillac and Fargo (c) Maruti, Bedford and Fiat (d) Bedford, Cadillac and Fargo Q32) Which one of the following is the correct position of Mercedes? (a) Next to the left of Cadillac (b) Next to the left of Bedford (c) Between Bedford and Fargo (d) Fourth to the right of Maruti Directions for the following 3 (Three) items: Read the following passage and answer the items that follow after passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only. PASSAGE -1

Neo-tropical coastal mangrove forests are usually “zonal,” with certain mangrove species found predominantly in the seaward portion of the habitat and other mangrove species on the more landward portions of the coast. The earliest research on mangrove forests produced descriptions of species distribution from shore to land, without exploring the causes of the distributions. The idea that zonation is caused by plant succession was first expressed by J. H. Davis in a study of Florida mangrove forests. According to Davis’ scheme, the shoreline is being extended in a seaward direction because of the “land-building” role of mangroves, which, by trapping sediments over time, extend the shore. As a habitat gradually becomes more inland as the shore extends, the “land-building” species are replaced. This continuous process of accretion and succession would be interrupted only by hurricanes or storm flushings. Recently the universal application of Davis’s succession paradigm has been challenged. It appears that in areas where weak currents and weak tidal energies allow the accumulation of sediments, mangroves will follow land formation and accelerate the rate of soil accretion; succession will proceed according to Davis’s scheme. But on stable coastlines, the distribution of mangrove species results in other patterns of zonation; “land building” does not occur. To find a principle that explains the various distribution patterns, several

researchers have looked to salinity and its effects on mangrove. While mangroves can develop in fresh water, they can also thrive in salinities as high as 2.5 times that of seawater. However, those mangrove species found in freshwater habitats do well only in the absence of competition, thus suggesting that salinity tolerance is a critical factor in competitive success among mangrove species. Research suggests that mangroves will normally dominate highly saline regions, although not because they require salt. Rather, they are metabolically efficient (and hence grow well) in portions of an environment whose high salinity excludes plants adapted to lower salinities. Tides create different degrees of salinity along a coastline. The characteristic mangrove species of each zone should exhibit a higher metabolic efficiency at that salinity than will any potential invader, including other species of mangrove. Q33) The primary aim of the purpose of the passage is to- (a) Refute the idea that the zonation exhibited in mangrove forests is caused by adaption to salinity (b) Describe the pattern of zonation typically found in Florida mangrove forests (c) Argue that Davis’ succession paradigm cannot be successfully applied to Florida mangrove forests (d) Discuss hypotheses that attempt to explain the zonation of coastal mangrove forests Q34) According to the passage, the earliest research on mangrove forest produced which of the following? (a) Data that implied random patterns of mangrove species distribution (b) Descriptions of species distributions suggesting zonation (c) Descriptions of the development of mangrove forests over time (d) Reclassification of species formerly thought to be identical

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Q35) It can be inferred from the passage that Davis’ paradigm does NOT apply to which of the following? (a) The shoreline of Florida mangrove forests first studies by Davis (b) A shoreline in an area with weak currents (c) A shoreline in an area with weak tidal energy (d) A shoreline in which few sediments can accumulate Q36) How many dots lie opposite to the face having three dots, when the given figure is folded to form a cube?

(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 Q37) Choose the box that is similar to the box formed from the given sheet of paper (X).

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 4 only Q38) Which number is on the face opposite to 6?

(a) 4 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3 Q39) Which one will replace the Q mark ?

(a) L10 (b) K15 (c) I15 (d) K8

Q40) According to the survey of 2000 educated unemployed persons in which 1200 were men and 800 were women, the following data were collected:

Qualification Unemployed

Men Women

Doctors 12.5% 15%

Engineers 20% 7.5%

Trained Teachers 15% 22.5%

Post-Graduates 22.5% 25%

Graduates 30% 30%

On the basis of the above table what is the difference in the number of unemployed men and women doctors? (a) 20 (b) 30 (c) 40 (d) None of these Q41) In Arun's opinion, his weight is greater than 65 kg but less than 72 kg. His brother doest not agree with Arun and he thinks that Arun's weight is greater than 60 kg but less than 70 kg. His mother's view is that his weight cannot be greater than 68 kg. If all are them are correct in their estimation, what is the average of different probable weights of Arun? (a) 67 kg. (b) 68 kg. (c) 69 kg. (d) Data inadequate Directions: In the following Q given below, a statement followed by three assumptions numbered I, II and III are given. You have to consider the statement and the assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Then decide which of the answers is the correct one and indicate it on the answer sheet. Q42) Statement: To make the company commercially viable there is an urgent need to prune the staff strength and borrow money from the financial institutions-Opinion of a consultant. Assumptions: i) The financial institutions lend money for such proposals. ii) The product of the company has a potential market. iii) The employees of the company are inefficient. (a) Only i is implicit (b) Only ii is implicit (c) i and ii is implicit (d) ii and iii are implicit Q43) Six children A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a

straight line. E and D have two children between them. There are three children between B and F. A is to the left of E. Fis to the left of D. C is not on either extreme ends. Which one of them are on the extremes? (a) EF (b) BD (c) DC (d) AB Q44) In a group of five persons, A, B, C, D and E, one is farmer, one is physicist, one is a journalist, one is an industrialist and one is doctor. A, C and the one who is doctor, prefer tea to coffee and two of them, B and Journalist prefer coffee to tea. Industrialist, D and A are friends but two of these prefer tea to coffee. The farmer is C's brother. Who is a farmer? (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D Q45) Consider the following matrix-

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Select a suitable figure from the four alternatives that would complete the figure matrix-

Q46) The petrol consumption rate of a new model car 'Palto' depends on its speed and may be described by the graph below

Mansi makes the 200 km trip Mumbai to Pune at a steady speed of 60 km per hour. What is the amount of petrol consumed for the journey? (a) 12.5 litres (b) 13.33 litres (c) 16 litres (d) 19.75 litres Directions: Qs 47-49 are based on the situation given below- Ten coins are distributed among four people P, Q, R, S such that one of them gets one coin, another gets two coins, the third gets three coins and the fourth gets four coins. It is known that Q gets more coins than P and S gets fewer coins than R. Q47) If the number of coins distributed to Q is twice the number distributed to P then which one of the following is necessarily true? (a) R gets an even number of coins. (b) R gets an odd number of coins. (c) S gets an even number of coins. (d) S gets an odd number of coins. Q48) If R gets at least two more coins than S, then which one of the following is necessarily true? (a) Q gets at least two more coins than S. (b) Q gets more coins than P. (c) P gets more coins than S. (d) P and Q together get at least five coins. Q49) If Q gets fewer coins than R, then which one of the following is not necessarily true?

(a) P and Q together get at least four coins. (b) Q and S together get at least four coins. (c) R and S together get at least five coins. (d) P and R together get at least five coins. Q50) Consider the following matrix-

Select a suitable figure from the four alternatives that would complete the figure matrix-

Directions for the following 5 (Five) items: Examine the information given and answer the items that follow. Number of Different Types of Batteries Sold by a Company Over the Years (Numbers in Thousands)

Year Types of Batteries

4AH 7AH 32AH 35AH 55AH Total

1992 75 144 114 102 108 543

1993 90 126 102 84 126 528

1994 96 114 75 105 135 525

1995 105 90 150 90 75 510

1996 90 75 135 75 90 465

1997 105 60 165 45 120 495

1998 115 85 160 100 145 605

Q51) What was the approximate percentage increase in the sales of 55AH batteries in 1998 compared to that in 1992? (a) 28% (b) 31% (c) 33% (d) 34% Q52) The total sales of all the seven years is the maximum for which battery? (a) 4AH (b) 7AH (c) 32AH (d) 35AH Q53) What is the difference in the number of 35AH batteries sold in 1993 and 1997? (a) 24000 (b) 28000

9 AIPTS-CSAT-6 BYJU’s Classes:-9980837187

(c) 35000 (d) 39000 Q54) The percentage of 4AH batteries sold to the total number of batteries sold was maximum in the year? (a) 1994 (b) 1995 (c) 1996 (d) 1997 Q55) In case of which battery there was a continuous decrease in sales from 1992 to 1997? (a) 4AH (b) 7AH (c) 32AH (d) 35AH Q56) Three candidates contested an election and received 1136, 7636 and 11628 votes respectively. What percentage of the total votes did the winning candidate get? (a) 57% (b) 60% (c) 65% (d) 90% Directions for the following 5 (Five) items: Examine the information given in the following paragraph and answer the items that follow. To sum up the whole, we should say that the aim of the Platonic philosophy was to exalt man into a God. The aim of the Baconian philosophy was to provide man with what he requires while he continues to be a man. The aim of Platonic philosophy was to raise us far above the

vulgar wants. The aim of Baconian philosophy was to supply our vulgar wants. The former aim was noble; but the latter was attainable. Plato drew a good bow; he aimed at the stars; and therefore, though there was no want of strength or skill, the shot was thrown away. His arrow was indeed followed by a track of dazzling radiance; but it struck nothing. Bacon fixed his eye on a mark which was placed on earth and hit it in the white. The philosophy of Plato began with words and ended in words, noble words indeed, words such as were to be expected from me finest of human intellects exercising boundless dominion over the fittest of languages. Q57) The above passage presents Platonic philosophy as- (a) Giving rise to vulgar wants (b) Too idealistic in terms of a realistic assessment of a man (c) No more than mere words (d) Being pragmatic Q58) The author in the above passage- (a) Praises Platonic philosophy (b) Explains the drawbacks of Baconian philosophy (c) Balances opposite views in order to arrive at a just definition of each (d) Compares and contrasts two systems towards which he is impartial Q59) Which one of the following best reflects the underlying tone of the passage’? (a) All ideas regarding man are couched in noble words (b) Man when exalted into a God comes to nothing. (c) It is better for man to continue to the man (d) It is the image of man conceived differently that makes the basic distinction between different systems Q60) Which of the following words in the passage confirm the exalted notions of man according to Plato- (a) Exercising boundless dominion

(b) He aimed at the stars {c) Fixed his eye on the mark and hit it in the white’ (d) There was no want of strength or skill, the shot was thrown away’ Q61) The reference to a bow and an arrow in the passage- (a) Serves as an example of Platrfs strength (b) Teaches us to stay focused on target (c) Shows us a track of dazzling brilliance in 1nan’s history (d) Shows us the comparative strengths and weaknesses of Platonic and Baconian systems Q62) In the following Q, there are three sentences given as 1, 2 and 3. Find out whether any two/three sentences convey the same meaning or they are different. Choose your answer from the given options- i) The Judge remarked that not all the accused were guilty. ii) The Judge remarked that some of the accused were guilty and some were not. iii) The Judge remarked that all those who were accused include some who are not really guilty. (a) i and ii (b) ii and iii (c) i, ii and iii

(d) All the statements are different Direction: The following Q is followed by three statements. You have to study the Q and the statements and decide which of the statement/s is/are necessary to answer the Qs. Choose the correct answer from the given options- Q63) How many workers are required for completing the construction work in 10 days? i) 20% of the work can be completed by 8 workers in 8 days ii) 20 workers can complete the work in 16 days iii) One-Eighth of the work can be completed by 8 workers in 5 days (a) i and iii (b) ii and iii (c) i and ii (d) Either i or ii or iii Q64) Two numbers are in the ratio 3:5. If 9 is subtracted from each, the new numbers are in the ratio 12:23. The smaller number is: (a) 27 (b) 33 (c) 49 (d) 55 Q65) Choose the box that is similar to the box formed from the given sheet of paper (X).

(a) i and ii only (b) ii and iii only (c) ii and iv only (d) i, ii, iii and iv only Directions for the following 8 (Eight) items:

10 AIPTS-CSAT-6 BYJU’s Classes:-9980837187

The following eight items (Qs 66 to 73) are based on three passages in English to test the comprehension of English language. Read each passage and answer the item that follows. PASSAGE -1 Economic liberalization and globalization have put pressures on Indian industry, particularly on the service sector, to offer quality products and services at low costs and with high speed. Organizations have to complete with unequal partners from abroad. It is well recognized that developing countries like India are already behind other countries technologically in many areas, although some of them, particularly India, boast of huge scientific and technical manpower. In addition to this, if an entrepreneur or industrialist has to spend a lot of his time, money and energy in dealing with unpredictable services and in negotiating with the local bureaucracy, it can have a significant dampening effect on business. Q66) Foreign companies are more equipped than domestic companies to provide quality service in good time. (a) The inference is ‘definitely true’, i.e., it properly follows from the statement of facts given (b) The inference is ‘probably true’ though not ‘definitely true’, in light of the facts given

(c) The ‘data is inadequate’ i.e., to from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false (d) The inference is ‘probably false’ though not ‘definitely false’ in the light of the facts given Q67) Official formalities are less cumbersome in almost all the countries except India. (a) The inference is ‘definitely true’, i.e., it properly follows from the statement of facts given (b) The inference is ‘probably true’ though not ‘definitely true’, in light of the facts given (c) The ‘data is inadequate’ i.e., to from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false (d) The inference is ‘probably false’ though not ‘definitely false’ in the light of the facts given Q68) India at present is to some extent on par with developed countries in terms of technological development. (a) The inference is ‘definitely true’, i.e., it properly follows from the statement of facts given (b) The inference is ‘probably true’ though not ‘definitely true’, in light of the facts given (c) The ‘data is inadequate’ i.e., to from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false (d) The inference is ‘probably false’ though not ‘definitely false’ in the light of the facts given PASSAGE -2 Piqued by some philistine, who thought of him as an arrogant literary bloke of no use to anybody, Oscar Wilde uttered the epigram "All Art is useless". In this phrase he summed up the whole quarrel of more than a century in western Europe, when the middle classes were busy making money and regarded everything which did not bring back profits as useless. In most of the early

civilizations when man had hardly any tools for the making of things, the primitive would go and splash colour on the walls, draw the contours of the beats he haunted, including himself in the picture as a successful hunter. He would make lovely terracotta toys for his children and shape the posts, delicately into coherent forms and engrave lyrical lines on them. How is it primitive man did something which was not merely functional, but he put 'something of so' into making of an object? Q69) What does the author mean when he uses the word 'philistine' in the context of the passage? (a) A member of a people opposing Israelites in ancient Palestine (b) An uncultured person (c) A person who thinks himself to be superior (d) None of the above Q70) What would be an appropriate title for his passage? (a) Art and Essence: Life’s richness lost under utilitarian microscope (b) Art and Soul: The hidden connection (c) Art today: The domain of sycophants (d) Art: Its evolution over the ages Q71) What does the author mean when he says that pre-

historic man put ‘something of his soul’ in making an object? (a) It is a pun on the word ‘soul’ and is actually referring to the souls of pre-historic man’s feet which were used to make objects. (b) It refers to the instinct and inclination that the pre-historic man had towards art and although he wasn’t refined he could still incorporate art in his day-to-day life. (c) It shows the effect that the pre-historic man put in to everything he made, i.e. he used not only his body but also his soul. (d) It was his way of venting his frustration and highlighting the lack of extra-curricular activities. PASSAGE -3 Under Reservation in India a percentage of seats are reserved in the public sector units, union and state civil services, union and state government departments and in all public and private educational institutions, except in the religious/ linguistic minority educational institutions, for the socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or the Scheduled Castes and Tribes who were inadequately represented in these services and institutions. The reservation policy is extended for the SC and STs in representing the Parliament of India & state legislative assemblies. Caste is the predominant factor used for reservation in India, though reservation is also offered based on other parameters like religion, state of domicile, etc. The central government of India reserves 27% of government jobs and proposes to do similarly in higher education but certain Indian states like Tamil Nadu, which currently reserves 69% seats, have followed caste-based reservations since 1921.In 2006, Indian education minister Arjun Singh announced extension of reservation benefits to the "Other Backward Castes" (OBCs) in central government educational institutions. There are ongoing disputes about statistical data used by Government of India and Indian states for

11 AIPTS-CSAT-6 BYJU’s Classes:-9980837187

offering reservation benefits to the socially and economically backward communities as identified by caste. Consider the following Qs related with the above passage and answer them accordingly: Q72) Reservations are intended to – (a) Mean of accommodating certain groups in the system (b) Another method of political parties to gain stronghold among the lower classes. (c) Increase the social diversity in campuses and workplaces (d) A form of affirmative action Q73) Consider the following Qs and accordingly choose your answer – i) The framers of the Constitution believed that, due to the caste system, SCs and the STs were historically oppressed and denied respect and equal opportunity in Indian society and were thus under-represented in nation-building activities. ii) The stipulated time limit for reservations was not revisied for the fear of losing votes. iii) It is a well-known fact that the so-called backward communities are active in politics and their people vote. iv) The majority of highly educated Indians do not vote during the general elections.

Which of the above statements are correct in regard to the paragraph given- (a) i, ii and iv (b) i, ii and iii (c) ii, iii and iv (d) All of the above Directions for the following 4 (Four) items: Given below are seven items. Each item describes a situation and is followed by four possible response. Indicate the response you find most appropriate. Choose only one response for each item. The response will be evaluated based on the level of appropriateness for the given situation. Q74) Suppose your friend has just left the home on a scooter along with his son, immediately you hear the news that they met a road accident. What will you do in this case? (a) You will mock at him because you have poor relations with him (b) You will rush immediately and extend all possible help keeping in mind that this is not the time of personal enmity (c) You will leave the place immediately so that nobody can blame you latter on (d) You will visit them next day and give an impression that you knew it just now from neighbourhood. Q75) Now-a-days the Government has given priority to social welfare schemes, therefore it has launched various schemes like Old-age pensions scheme, Widow Pension scheme etc. Your personal opinion towards all these schemes is- (a) These schemes are fruitful to raise the standard and support the economy of backward sections of the society. (b) It is a kind of governmental obligation for the weaker sections (c) These schemes deprive the beneficiaries from social sympathy

(d) These people live a dignified life like others along with 'A'. Q76) You are on an official tour to a remote village. Suddenly you saw that a villager’s house get fire. The immediate action of yours under such circumstance should be- (a) Inform the fire station (b) Ask and help the villagers to throw water on the fire (c) Grant some financial help (d) Set up an enquiry after the incident Q77) You meet with an accident while you were going to accomplish a very important task for your Administrative Office. Inspite of this, your office insists that you complete the task. You would- (a) Ask for some more days for the completion of the task. (b) Inform Administrative Office of your inability to finish on time. (c) Suggest some other person to Administrative Office who may complete the task. (d) Stay away from the Administrative Office till you recover. Direction: The following 2 (items) are based on the following information.

Study the following table and answer the Qs based on it. Expenditures of a Company (in Lakh Rupees) per Annum Over the given Years.

Year

Item of Expenditure

Salary Fuel and Transport

Bonus Interest on Loans

Taxes

1998 288 98 3.00 23.4 83

1999 342 112 2.52 32.5 108

2000 324 101 3.84 41.6 74

2001 336 133 3.68 36.4 88

2002 420 142 3.96 49.4 98

Q78) What is the average amount of interest per year which the company had to pay during this period? (a) Rs. 32.43 lakhs (b) Rs. 33.72 lakhs (c) Rs. 34.18 lakhs (d) Rs. 36.66 lakhs Q79_ If a quarter kg of potato costs 60 paise, how many paise will 200 gm cost? (a) 48 paise (b) 54 paise (c) 56 paise (d) 72 paise Q80) The Company's coffee crop for 1998-99 totalled 8079 tons, an all-time record. The increase over the previous year’s production of 5830 tons was 38.58%. The previous highest crop was 6089 tons in 1970-71. The company had fixed a target of 8000 tons to be realized by the year 2000-01, and this has been achieved

12 AIPTS-CSAT-6 BYJU’s Classes:-9980837187

two years earlier, thanks to the emphasis laid on the key areas of irrigation, replacement of unproductive coffee bushes, intensive refilling and improved agricultural practices. It is now our endeavour to reach the target of 10000 tons in, the year 2001-02. Which one of the following would contribute most to making the target of 10000 tons in 2001-02 unrealistic? (a) The potential of the productivity enhancing measures implemented up to now has been exhausted. (b) The total company land under coffee has remained constant since 1969 when an estate in the Nilgiri Hills was acquired. (c) The sensitivity of the crop to climatic factors makes prediction about production uncertain. (d) The target-setting procedures in the company have been proved to be sound by the achievement of the 8000 tonne target.