AIPGMEE QUERIES

RESPIRATORY MEDICINE

NEPHROLOGY

PATHOLOGY

FMT

GUT SURGERY

PEDIATRIC SURGERY

GENERAL SURGERY

PHARMACOLOGY

ENT

PEDIATRICS

MICROBIOLOGY

PHARMACOLOGY

PSYCHIATRY

BIOCHEMISTRY

RESPIRATORY MEDICINE1. A Lady come with complain of hemoptysis. CxR normal. Next best Investigation

Bronchoscopy or HRCT

Can u explain protocol? In somebooks bronchoscopy given and in some HRCT.According to harrison flowchart, i think it shd be bronchoscopy but i'm confused.

2. Ca lung metastasite most commonly to

Brain / Liver / Adrenal / Bone

Diff answer in all books but i found adrenal >50% in robbins, but some books says liver/brain.3. Pancoast tumor isAdenoCa / Squmous Ca

4. Type 1 Respiratory FailureNormal PCOo2 & less PO2Decreased PCO2 & less PO2

5. Sequestration of lung best diagnosed byCT scan / Angiography

What to mark is best asked and wht if definitive

NEPHROLOGY1. 60 yr old DM & HT male patient with secondary prostatism admitted for prostetectomy developed MI. Now Treatment-Finasteride-Terazocin-Both 2. CNS manifestation in CRF caused by all excepthypocalcemiahyponatremiaHyperosmolalityAcidosis 3. Macroproteinuria<350<400<500<350>500 4. Kidney normally doesnt allows transglomerular passage of

B2 microglobulinlysozymeIgMicroglobulin 5. Most specific marker of renal functionCr. ClearanceInulin clearanceS.CreatitinineBlood Urea 6. Most Rapid onset of action in t/t of hyperkalemiaInsulin + GlucoseIV Ca gluconateHemodialysisResin Similar question For lifethreatening hyperkalemia, Most Rapid onset of action in t/t of hyperkalemia?

PATHOLOGY1. How many bands can we find In SCA homozygous & how many in normal individual? 2/1? I'm confused as HbA2 in normaland HbF in SCA homozygous are lower, then will it show in bands or only one band? 2. 21yr old female presents with anemia and mild hepatospleenomegaly. Hb 5gm% H/O single blood transfusion till now. DiagnosisThalesemia intermedia or AIHA 3. Lab diagnosis for chronic myeloproliferative disorder all except Chromosomal evaluationB.M. aspirationFlow cytometryDetermination of RCM 4. Most common cause of post transfusion hepatitisHBV / HCV 5. Serum Ferritin decreased in all exceptIDAVit C deficiencyLiver DiseaseHypothyroidism

6. Case was given with feaure of ET. Features of CNS involvement [thrombosis] were given. Drug of choicehydroxyureaanagrelideIFN alphaRadioactive PO4 7. Cross matching necessary in all except Cryoprecipitate/SDAP Different books have given different answer with valid references. ??? 8. DNA analysis by all exceptLymphocyteFibroblastMonocyteAmniocyte 9. Chromosomal study best to use following nucleated cellLymphocytePolymorphsFibroblastsEpithelial cell 10. All are chromosomal anomalies exceptHemophiliaHypoplastic left heary syndrome

1. 9 month old Sindhi boy with c/o lethargy, severe pallor since 6 months. Hb 3.8, mcv 58fl mch 19.4pg. Osmotic fragility normal. Target cells & normoblasts. Xray shows expansion of bonemarrow. Likely diagnosisIDA / Hb D disease

Thus question was asked in weekly test & answer was Hb D disease & in all mcq books answer is IDA with explaination that Hb D disease won't cause severe anemia. Can u explain what to write plz?

2. 3 yr old child with ALL. Hyperdiploidy , preB type. WBC count 12,000. Radiological evaluation shows only mediastinal mass. Which of following will be most likely of concern treating oncologist Child's ageMediastinal massWBC countHyperdiploidy

I think answer should be mediastinal mass as all other option are good prognosis. This question was told in pediatric lecture & sir mostly told answer was age but I'm not sure as in Surat connection was disconnected for few min that time.Can u plz tell answer & if age, y?

3. 8 yr old boy with h/o swollen gland in neck & groin for 6 months, increasing cough for 2 weeks & fever spl at night & some wt loss. O/E nontender supraclavicular , axillary , inguimal LNpathy, otherwise normal. No hepatospleenomegaly. Next appropriate stepBiopsy of nodeTrial of ATTCBC, DCChest Xray

4.Acid phosphatase stains

B cellT cellMonocytesMyelocyte

5.Acid phosphatase is specific to which cellsSame options as above

6.Coagulative necrosis (aiims 97)TbGangreneWhich one to select from both?

7. Most common ovarian tumor in post menopausal womenDysgerminomsThecomaBrennerSerous cystadenoma

1. Most common cause of post transfusion hepatitis

HBV / HCV

2. MC cause of HCCHBV/HCV

3 Most common ovarian tumor in post menopausal women

Dysgerminoms/Thecoma/Brenner/Serous cystadenoma

I checked in Robbins but couldn't find.

Other pathology queries

1.Acid phosphatase is specific to which of followingT lymphocyte/ monocytes / ?? Other??

2. How many bands on Hb electrophoresis in HbSS ? Sickle cell disease homizygous1/2

FMT

Padmashree award winner sportsperson if arrested need sign document of-1st class magistrate-President of INDIA

What is legal permissible level of alcohol (max) for driving in India30/50

GUT SURGERY

1. Most Characteristic feature of schistosomiasisPseudotubercleSandypatch?? 2. Renal collor to prevent spread of malignancyIVC / Renal Vein / Aorta / Renal Artery 3. B/L VUR in >1 yr old child, t/t Injection of bulking agent / B/L ureteral reimplantation Some books mention, first 2 trial of injection of bulking agent then reimplantation.. but answer is reimplantation in all books??? 4. 60 yr, hematuria, TCC bladder T1N1M0. Best MxTUR

TUR & intravesical chemoimmunotherapyTotal Cystectomy & pelvic LNectomySystemic chemotherapy 5. 60 yr old DM & HT male patient with secondary prostatism admitted for prostetectomy developed MI. Now Treatment-Finasteride-Terazocin-Both

PEDIATRIC SURGERY1. 6 ur old child has urinary retension & constipation. Most probable diagnosisMalignant sacral teratoma / ant sacral menengimyeloceleOne book says sacral teratoma malignant variety can present at later age & sacral meningimyelocele cause incontinence due LMN and no retentionOtherbook says teratoma against age..???

2. Mimp prognostic factor for wilm's tumorSize/histology/stageChecked in diff books, done says stage , some histology.Which one to follow? 3. 3 yr old boy presents with fever, dysuria, gross hematuria. O/E suprapubic area which is dull on percussion. Urinalysis reveals RBC but no proteinuria. This patient is suffering fromUTI / posterior urethral valve? -If gross hematuria not given then, what's answer? 4. Childhood cholelithiasis is seen inHurler syndromeMucopolysacharidosisNeumann pick's diseaseAutoimmune hepatitis 5. Child come with bag & mask ventilation. Intubation done. CxR shows right sided deviation of mediastinum with scaphoid abdoman. Pulse impulse shifted to right, next step?Remove ET tubePut nasogastric tubeCan u tell proper management steps orderly in such condition? Bcz always mcq is same but they change option. If they give following 3 option which one to select

Remove ET & reattmptConfirm position of ET (e.g. End tidal co2)Put nasogastric tube & if only remove ET given, not reattemt as in above question

GENERAL SURGERY1. Free skin graft rejected onmusclefatdermisdeep fascia

2. Prognosis of multiple melanoma depends ongradespreadhistologymetastasis

3. Please tell Site for FTG in descending orderdiff. option combination in diff mcqsAxilla/Groin/EyelidWhich is most common and least commom?

4. Diuretic given or not given in eletrical burn?

5. Least useful in extensive burnsDextran/ Blood / NG intubation / RL

6. Cold water t/t in burn, disadvantageInfectionPainExudationNone

7. Hypotension in gas gangrene best treated byRL / NS / Blood

Explaination??

8. What is follman balanitis [kerala '03]

9. Septic shock in pt treated for colonic necrosis. low bp & low u/o. Txiv fluid only / iv fluid + dopamine

Very confusing as in H'son it's given that vasopressor/inotropic only if patient doesnt responds to iv

fluidswhile in schwartz it's given both if septic shock. ??

10. Assesment of nutritional status, status of muscle protein indicated bymidarm circumfirenceS.AlbuminTriceps skin fold thinknessHb level

11. Indication of thoracotomy all exceptPulmonary contusionmassive pneumothorax

12. Most important in patient with borderline pulmonary function requiring lung resectionAmount of non-functioning removalAmount of functioning lobe removalExperienced Surgical teamElevated pulmonary artery pressure

13. True regarding traumatic pneumothorax

immediate ICDCT to confirm pulmonry leaksealedimmdiate needle aspiration

14. Int.Oblique ,External Oblique & Trans.Abd. retracted laterally inLaproscopySpigelian herniaClassic renal approach

15. 6 ur old child has urinary retension & constipation. Most probable diagnosisMalignant sacral teratoma / ant sacral menengimyeloceleOne book says sacral teratoma malignant variety can present at later age & sacral meningimyelocele cause incontinence due LMN and no retentionOtherbook says teratoma against age..???

16. Removal of L1 in sympethectomyImpotencesterilityretention of urinecausalgia

i think both a & b shd be answer,,single most apprx answer?

17. Popliteal pulse difficult to feel bczit's not superficial

it doesnt cross prominent boneBothWeak pulsaton

one book says b only and other a+b..both hae diff ref.?

18. nerve sacrifised in parotid surgeryfascialauriculotemporalcervicofascialbuccal

18. All can be seen in early post op period except?

Hypokalemia/ Hyponatremia

it's written in book that increase ADH post op so Na conserved so less Na, but K lost, so it shd be hyponatremia isnt it?

PHARMACOLOGY

1. Not a front line antiHT

atenolol / amlodipine

IN CMDT 2010, it's given betablocker not first line line, CCB are first line. is it true ? i havent found in any other book..

2. Urgent t/t of procainamide toxicityCa chelationNitroprussideSodium LactateKCL

3. Biochemical action of digitalis

decrease Ca uptake by SRincrease ATP synthesisIncrease extracellular Ca levelBlock Na/Ca exchange

4. DOC for petitmal seizureValproate / Ethosuximide

I've found valproate in some pharmac books, but in all medicine or pedia books , both mentioned and valproate only if atypical absence seizure.??

5. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome caused byDomperidoneAmantidine

In h'son domperidone is given in table but answer amantidine in amit-aashish mcq books..??Amantidine withdrawl can cause NMS, but in option amantidine, then what can be answer?I'm much confused.

ENT1. In retropharnygeal abscess with trismus, t/t

immediate drainantibiotic

2. child with 3 days history of URTI, presents with stridor which decrease on lying down. DiagnosisLaryngotrachrobronchitisRetropharyngeal abscessAcute epiglotitisFB aspiration

Another option in other book

Retropharyngeal abscessLaryngomalaciaFB aspirationAcute epiglotitis

3. MC sign of acute mastoiditissagging of canal wall or tenderness

4. MC tumor of EACexostosis/osteoma??

PEDIATRICS

1. You are asked to evaluate infant born vaginally 3 hours previously to mother with only complication poorly controlled diabetis. Nursing staff noticed infant breathing abnormally, o/e cyanosis, irregular laboured breathing, decreased breath sound on right, decrease tone on right arm, you provide o2 &

ordet CxR which is normal. Which of following is likely to confirm your diagnosis

Nasal wash for viral cultureFibrooptic bronchodcopyChest CTChest USG

I'm not getting diagnosis even. Plz explain diagnosis & Investigation.

2. 5 yr old male known case of nephrotic syndrome had 4 relapse in last 1 yr. Responded to prednisolone on each occasion. He presents in relapse. After ruling out infection, initial treatment would be

A.Low dose alternate day prednisolone

B.Alternate day prednisolone with levimasole

C.Daily prednisolone 2mg/kg/day in divided doses until urine protein trace or nil for 3 consecutive days followed by further therapy

D.Combination of cyclophosphamide with cyclosporine

Answer in solution is c but in frequent relapse there should be answer a?? Printing mistake or it is right. Plz explain.

=====following was asked in neonate exam & also in notes.

1. Child come with bag & mask ventilation. Intubation done. CxR shows right sided deviation of mediastinum with scaphoid abdoman. Pulse impulse shifted to right, next step?

Remove ET tubePut nasogastric tube

Can u tell proper management steps orderly in such condition? Bcz always mcq is same but they change option.

If they give following 3 option which one to select

Remove ET & reattmptConfirm position of ET (e.g. End tidal co2)Put nasogastric tube

& if only remove ET guven, not reattemt as in above question

2. 3 yr old child with ALL. Hyperdiploidy , preB type. WBC count 12,000. Radiological evaluation shows only mediastinal mass. Which of following will be most likely of concern treating oncologist Child's ageMediastinal massWBC countHyperdiploidy

I think answer should be mediastinal mass as all other option are good prognosis. This question was told in lecture & sir mostly told answer was age but I'm not sure as in Surat connection was disconnected for few min that time.Can u plz tell answer & if age, y?

1. Screening for congenital hypothyroidism , what's latest guidelines? Cord blood at birth or heel pad 3 days later/ else?

2. Cause of seizure in a new born after 16 hours of birth, 3.8kg born to diabetic motherHypocalcemia/hypoglycemia?

3. Drug of choice in petitmal epilepsy / absence seizure

Valproate or ethosuximide if both given in option

4. 8 yrs old boy , routine checkup 1,00,000 cc/ml ecoli on urine culture on mid stream clean catch void, child is asymptomstic, next line of management

No treatment or Treat as acute uti

NNPD article mention klebsiella in both extra & intramural birth as most common cause of neonatal sepsis, but not as early or late onset. What we have to mark if question on early onset?

5. Most common cause of vasculitis in childrenKawasaki disease/ HSP

I found in ghai, Kawasaki , rest all book HSP. But in mcq which one to mark? Mist common in India / world? Is Kawasaki most common in india?

6. Mimp prognostic factor for wilm's tumor

Size/histology/stage

Checked in diff books, done says stage , done histology.Which one to follow?

7. 6 ur old child has urinary retension & constipation. Most probable diagnosisMalignant sacral teratoma / ant sacral mrnengimyrlicele

One book says sacral teratoma malignant variety can present at later age & sacral meningimyelocele cause incontinence due to LMN(cauda equina) leison not retention.

Other book says age against sacral teratoma & meningomyelocele is answer.

???

8. Most common cause of pneumonia in India/worldwide 2M to 2 yrs(HiB/pneumococcus), 2 yrs - 20yrs(Pneumococvus/Mrningococcus)

9. child with 3 days history of URTI, presents with stridor which decrease on lying down. DiagnosisLaryngotrachrobronchitisRetropharyngeal abscessAcute epiglotitisFB aspiration

Another option in other book

Retropharyngeal abscessLaryngomalaciaFB aspirationAcute epiglotitis

10. 3 yr old boy presents with fever, dysuria, gross hematuria. O/E suprapubic area which is dull on percussion. Urinalysis reveals RBC but no proteinuria. This patient is suffering fromUTI / posterior urethral valve.Explaination?

11. 3yr old boy is brought to the casulity by his mother with progressive shortness of breath for 1 day. H/o bronchial asthma. On examination, child is blue, gasping, unresponsive. What will you like to do first?

IntubateAdminister 100% O2 by maskVentilate with bag & maskAdminister nebulized salbutamol

12. A blue newborn presents with cyanosis. CxR oligemic lung field & normal sized heart. Likely diagnosis

Pulmonary atresia / TOF

13. Child presents with c/o oliguria, abd distention, diarrhoea. O/E deep jaundice, 4cm hepatomegaly. Conjugated billirubin 38mg/dl & urinary urobillnogen & bile pigments present. Hb 4mg/dl , S.creatinine 3mg/dl. Which of following is least useful for diagnosis

Leptospiral antibody levelSerum ceruloplasminReticulocyte countG-6PD level in blood

14. Developmental examination should be further evaluated in child of 12 weeks if he

Doesn't vocalizeDoesn't hold head at 90 degree

15. All true for Gilbert syndrome except

Mild conjugated hyperbilirubinemiaAutosomal dominantNormal liver histologyNormal liver function

In Harrison table, it's given diconjugated > conjugated in Gilbert, & AR mainly. I'm confused if it's unconjugated

hyperbilirubinemia than how diconjugated form more & vice versa.

16. Childhood cholelithiasis is seen in

Hurler syndromeMucopolysacharidosisNeumann pick's diseaseAutoimmune hepatitis

17. 1.5kg child born at 32wks LSCS presents with moderate respiratory difficulty (RR > 70/min) most appropriate management

CPAPMechanical ventilationWarm O2Surfactant & ventilation

18. Most common cause of sepsis within 2month in IndiaE.ColiCoagulase positive staphylococcus aureus

Klebsiella not given in option & in NNPD after it, staph aureus f/b ecoli given but coagulase positive or negative not mention. ????If early onset(<72hour) sepsis asked then which organism?

19. Child come with bag & mask ventilation. Intubation done. CxR shows right sided deviation of mediastinum with scaphoid abdoman. Pulse impulse shifted to right, next step?

Remove ET tubePut nasogastric tube

Can u tell proper management steps orderly in such condition? Bcz always mcq is same but they change option.

If they give following 3 option which one to select

Remove ET & reattmptConfirm position of ET (e.g. End tidal co2)Put nasogastric tube

& if only remove ET guven, not reattemt as in above question

20. 1.5 kg child born at 32wk LSCS presents with moderate respi diffulty(RR 70/min), management

Surfactant& mech ventilationCPAP

21.All associated with AML exceptDowns syndromeKlinfelter syndromeTurner syndromePatau syndrome

In h'son patau is given in cause while in wintrobe hematology turner is given.which one is rare now??

22. Term infant hasn't passed meconium fir 48 hours. Distension of abdoman & emesis since one day. Most appropriate investigation

ManometryLower bowel contrast enema

23. 3kg full term infant on examination found pale. Mother A positive & baby O positive. HCT 3 months reticulocyte count 5%. Likely cause of anemia

ABO incompatibilityFetomaternal transfusion

Answer was F-M transfusion but I'm confused as fetus is O+ve then how it'll cause anemia? Can it cause by other mechanism or printing mistake in question?

MICROBIOLOGY

1. Highest concentration of carbohydrate in which Ig?IgG/IgM?

2. Binary (secondary) exposure to antigen result in sudden increase inIgG / IgM

In secondary response also IgM is first Ab??

3. Commonest IgG with maximum individual variationIgG1/2/3/4

4. Ag recognition on surface of Ag processing cell is byT cell recognition AgFc portion of IgFAB portion of IgCell surface Ag

I think it shd be FAB but answer in mcq book is Fc??

5. Immunoglobulin found in B lymphocyteIgAIgEIgDIgG

Aren't all Ig found in b cell?

6. Opsonization is byIgM/IgG

In Robbins Fc of IgG written, anantnarayan IgM>IgG while in NMSimmunology IgG, which one to follow??

7. C3 convertase in C4B2B or C4B2A? I've 7th basic Robbins & oldanantnarayan , both says C4B2A but in jawetz & IAMS notes C4B2B??

PHARMACOLOGY

1.A diabetic female on INH & Rifampicin for TB developed DVT. She was started warfarin but PT not raised. Next step

Increase dose of warfarinSwitch to ethambutol for rifampicinUse LMW heparinReplace warfarin with acecoumarin

2. Therapeutic blood range of theophyline in mcg/ml

5-105-155-20

Confusion between 5-15 & 5-20 as some book mention 5-15 in asthma & some 10-20 & >20 toxic.?? KDT figure is Aldo in between?

3. Heparin therapy is monitoring by

PTBTCTAll of above

aPTT isn't in option.In mcq book, answer is CT with katzung pn 598 ref, but I'm not getting it. ??

4. Antipeptic ulcer drug that can be given safe in CRF

Al hydroxideMg HydroxideSucralfateNone

5. Drug of choice in theophyline poisoning

CortisonePropranololThyroxinePhenytoin

Same question with 4th option phenobarbitone instead of phenytoin

Plz explain both answer & management of theophyline poisoning.

6. Which PG keep ductus arteriosus patent & which is used to keep duct patent?In some books, it's given pge2 & pgi2 keep it patent & then they write pge1 & pgi2 used to keep ductus patent. Is it right? Pge2 keep patent & pge1 given to keep patent?

Same thing for peptic ulcer, misoprodtol PGE1 used & normally PGE2 & PGI2 decrease acid secretion & increase mucous production.

7. Which of following statement mostly apply characteristics of ibuprofen vis a vis other NSAIDs

It's less effective in migraine compared to other NSAIDsIt's more effective in dysmenorrhea than other NSAIDsIt's less effective than other NSAIDs in t/t of food hypersensitivityLike other NSAIDs, it can cause aseptic meningitis.

Can u explain all option?

8. 60 yr old DM & HT male patient with secondary prostatism admitted for prostetectomy developed MI. Now Treatment-Finasteride-Terazocin-Both

9. Which of following drug shouldn't be given in pt with acute angle closure glaucoma

PilocarpineClozapineFluphenazineDuloxetine

Clozapine & fluphenazine both have anti Ch. & duloxetine is SNRI so all can cause mydriasis, which one to choose then?

10. Histamine blocker in stomach act through

Decrease cAMP in stomachIncrease cAMP in stomachDecrease IP3 in stomachIncrease IP3 in stomach

Does is mean h2 blocker-decrease ip3, isn't it? Or H3-->H1 smooth muscle?? So decrease cAMP?

11. Plz tell location of various intracellulat receptor - nuclear & cytoplasmicAs diff mcq book, diff location for vitaminD , androgen & estrogen,progesterone.

12. cAMP is second messanger for all exceptThyroxineInsulinLHFSH

I'm confused between insulin & thyroxine.

13. All of following cross plasma membrane exceptEpinephrineThyroxineAndrostenedioneMethydopa

I'm confused between a & d.

14. Old man come with MI & arrhythmia. Anti arrhythmic drug choosen has narrow TI. Minimum toxic conc is 1.5 times minimum therapeutic conc. Half life 6hr. It's essential to maintain plasma conc above minimum therapeutic level to prevent lethal arrhythmia. Most app disingenuous regimen

Once dailyTwice dailyFour times dailyConstant IV infusion

Confused in last 2 options.

15. Drug having t1/2 of 12 hour & loading dose 600mg. For constant level in blood, what would be BD dose?

100mg600mg300mg

1200mg

16. What will be maintainance dose for oral administration of drug every 8hrly if calculated dose rate were 20mg/hr & bioavailability were 0.5?40mg110mg75mg320mg

17. Imatinab MOA

Block action of chimeric fusion protein of BCR-ABLCompetitive inhibition of ATP binding site

Aren't both options correct?

18. Which of following chemotherapeutic agent a/w secondary leukemia (AIIMS-M-06)

CisplatinEtoposide

Both cause leukemia, then which one to choose?

19. All of following reason increase drug toxicity in elderly exceptDecreased volume of distributionIncreased receptor sensitivity

Confused with these 2 option as Vd for lipid soluble increase & water soluble increase & receptor sensitivity increase & decrease for different receptor as in katzung, what to choose between both?Vd increase or decrease both increase toxicity?

20. Interstitial nephritis is seen in all exceptIsoniazidBetalactamase inhibitors

Isoniazid is given in some ref in cause & betslactamase inhibitor itself doesn't cause interstitial nephritis isn't it- beta lactam antibiotic cause it- then which option to choose? All mcq book give different answers.

21. DOC for Chloroquine resistant uncomplicated P.Falciparum malaria & DOC for severe complicated P.Falciparum malaria?According to Harrision & PSM also (not sure) it's Artesunate & in KDT it's quinine??

22. Please tell safe drugs in pregnancy for ChQ resistant / sensitive & complicated / uncomplicated malaria in descending order

MCQ Karnataka 07DOC for ChQ resistant malaria in pregnancy

QuinineSD+TMZMefloquinArtemisin

23. DOC for generalized anxiety disorderBZD/SSRISome books mention it was BZD but now SSRI, but mostly in all mcq books it's BZD?? Plz tell latest DOC.

24. Which drug produce dramatic response in type 2 lepra reaction - (MH-05)ThalidomideSteroidClofazimineDapsone

Confusion between thalidomide & steroid.

25. In patient on cisplatin, which diuretic is preferredMannitolAcetazolamideThiazideFurosemide

Some ref write loop diuretic, some mannitol.

26. Which diuretic cause hypercalcemia & renal stone formation - UP 07

SpironolavtoneChlorthiazideMannitolFurosrmide

Is this question wrongly framed bcz thiazide cause hypercalcemia but used in renal stone as decrease Ca excretion according to kdt

27. All true about phenytoin except

Anti seizure activity closely resembles plasma conc.Doesn't depress CNSCerebellar degeneration on long term administration.

28. Can u tell list of drugs to be stopped before how many days of surgery?

29. All of these uses cAMP as second messenger except (AIIMS-N-09)DopamineVasopressin

30. AntiTNF not used in

RA with HIVRA with Hepatitis B

31. COX2 functionCell adhesionCell migrationCell proliferationCell differentiation

32. Increase prolactin associated withIncreased estradiolIncreased libidoIncreased FSHIncreased testosterone

PSYCHIATRY

1. Best therapy to teach daily life skill to mentally challenged child

CBTContingencyCognitive reconstrubctionSelf reconstruction

2. A man taking 20 cigarettes daily started coughing, his family suggested quit smoking & he's ready but he think quitting smoking will make him irritable. Best health planning model followed is

Cost & survivalPersuasionPrecontemplatiom & preparationBelief

3. Which isn't included in personality triat?

Sensation seekingProblem solvingOpenness to experienceNeuroticism

4. 20 yrs female c/o nausea, vomiting & pain in leg. Physical examination & investigation normal. Most probable diagnosis

Somatization pain disorder

Conversion disorderGeneralized anxiety disorderSomatization disorder

5. 30 old male erectile dysfunction first line of evaluation

Sidenafil citrate testCarvernosometryPenile colour dopplar testIntercavernous inj of papaverine

6. 30 yr old male presents with erectile dysfunction. Basic screening unremarkable. The next step in evaluation/management shd be

Oral sildenafil trialCavernosometryDopplar studyNeurological testing

7. Which of following excludes painful stimuli from awareness

RepressionReaction formationProjectionRationalization

8. Organic mental disease is indicated byincoherenceDelusionFlight of ideasPerservation of speech

9. PGI QuestionWhich is appropriate in a case of schizophreniaLow socioeconomic groupIn adolescentsCommon in primitive societyAffluent society influence incidence

10. Characteristic Symptom of organic psychosisHallucinationDelusionTransient delusionAnxiety

11. DOC for rapid cycling MDP & DOC for Li resistant MDPCarbamazepine /Valproate

12. In korsakoff psychosis all seen exceptLoss of remote memoryLoss of intellectual function but preservation of memoryLack of insight, unable to understand disabilityReversible state

Confusion between a,c,d

13. Not seen in korsakoff psychosisClear consciousnessHallucination

14. Suggestibility is increased following intake ofBarbiturateCannabisAlcoholAll of above

15. Fear least commonly seen inAnxiety neurosisHypochondriasisParanoid schizophreniaDepressive psychosis

16. Fugue state seen inSchizophreniaHysteriaEpilepsyAll of above

Should it none of above??

17. Please tell Age wise phobia.Phobia typically develops at age of 8 yrThanatophobiaAnimal phobiaFear of darknessFear of contamination

18. TOC for OCDBehaviour therapyDrug therapyBoth

19. True about social phobiaIrrational Fear of situationIrrational fear of activities

20. Peptic ulcer is uncommon inObsessive compulsivesSchizophreniaDepressivesAlcoholics

21. Delusion isComprehensibleReasonableNoneBoth

22. A boy attempts suicide & brought to the doctor/private practitioner, next stepInfom policeNot required to informReffer to psychiatrist

23. Fixation of hysteria isPhallicGenital

24. DOC for night terrorClonazepam/Imipramine

25. Patient's death in childhood responded by all exceptIdealizationDenial of deathMourningUnconscious identification

Is it D?

26. Which drug is used to bring back large number of memories for events just before a traumatic eventKetamineThiopentonePiracetamVitamin B1

27. All are features of hallucinations except?a)it is independent of will of observerb)sensory organs are not involved.c)it is as vivid as that in a true sense perception.d)it occurs in absence of a perceptual stimulus.

All of the following are true about hallucinations except?a)it is as vivid as sense perception.b)it is independent of the will of the observer.

c)occurs in inner subjective space.d)it occurs in the absence of perceptual stimulus

Can u summerize positive point for hallucination?Confusion with following 3 lines, please tell if these are right/wrong-It is as vivid as true perception-Sensory organ not involved-Occurs in inner subjective space

--Hypothesis of SchizophreniaSkew-skismBreeder hypotgesis, drift hypothesis

--Risk factor for suicide , specially in endogenous depression - old age is good or bad? Across on 656

--MC substance of abuse & MC used ilicit drugCannabis/tobacco

--D/D anhedonia, avolition, apathy, amotivation -defination

--D/D of body dysmorphic disorder vs hypochondriasis vs somatic delusion disorder

--D/D between schizophrenia vs Delusional disorder Q AI-2000 across pn 625

--D/D Grief Vs psychosis

--D/D grief vs psychosisStressor alone or other features too?

BIOCHEMISTRY

1. All of the following techniques can be used to detect mutativechanges except

RFLPDNA sequencingHetero Duplex Migration AnalysisWhole Genome Amplifucation

D.Whole genome amplification. This is a technique used for

amplification of DNA. It is not useful for the detection of mutativechanges. Areas where whole genome amplification (WGA) is necessaryinclude molecular cloning, single cell analysis, and genome-wideanalysis of single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNP).In this technique, primers attach randomly to the template addingcomplementary base pairs to one strand, while displacing the other DNAstrand. Primary products initiate secondary priming on the displacedDNA strand and continue displacing to create multiple branches. If theinitial sample of genomic DNA is high quality, it can be amplified onemillion-fold while maintaining accurate loci and allele representation.

Phi29 DNA is a high processivity polymerase (processivity refers tothe average number of bases the polymerase adds to a DNA strand beingsynthesized before the polymerase detaches from the template nucleicacid), which is used for WGA.

Heteroduplex migration analysis, also called conformationsensitive gel electrophoresis (CSGE), reveals the presence ofmutations, by altered electrophoretic mobility of a double-strandedDNA fragment, that contains one or more mismatched bases(heteroduplex) versus one that is perfectly matched (homoduplex).Heteroduplexes usually tend to migrate more slowly than homoduplexesduring electrophoresis. The ability of this technique to detectpolymorphisms is relatively good, & the presence of a singlenucleotide polymorphism in a fragment as large as600bp can be detected.=====3. Can u tell I'm Sickle cell anemia homozygous individual how manybands seen on electrophoresis?1/2In patho lecture, sir told that in India & some other countries, moreHbF is seen, so double band, in western countries 1 band. But inbooks, it's written 1 only. ???

1. In a homozygous individual, having sickle cell disease(HbSS),electrophoresis at both alkaline and acidic pH shows a single largeband in the HbS position, with smaller bands at the HbA2 and HbFpositions. In HbS trait, electrophoresis shows bands in the A and Spositions.======

9. Prenatal diagnosis of hemophiliaDNA sequence polymorphism

Linkage analysisMicroarrayCytogenetic/cytometry analysis

Prenatal diagnosis of hemophilia is done by linkage analysis. Alinkage map is a genetic map of a species or experimental populationthat shows the position of its known genes or genetic markers relativeto each other in terms of recombination frequency, rather than asspecific physical distance along each chromosome. Linkage mapping iscritical for identifying the location of genes that cause geneticdiseases. A genetic map is a map based on the frequencies ofrecombination between markers during crossover of homologouschromosomes. The greater the frequency of recombination (segregation)between two genetic markers, the farther apart they are assumed to be.Conversely, the lower the frequency of recombination between themarkers, the smaller the physical distance between them. Genetic mapshelp researchers to locate other markers, such as other genes bytesting for genetic linkage of the already known markers.

Restriction fragment length polymorphisms (RFLPs) within or close tothe factor VIII locus are very useful for genetic linkage analysis.Such RFLPs allow a mutant allele to be tracked in a family,segregating haemophilia A even when, as is usually the case, theprecise mutation causing failure to synthesise factor VIII is unknown.To date two markers tightly linked to the factor VIII locus have beendescribed, one of which is highly polymorphic and thereforeinformative in most kindreds. A significant crossover rate, however,does not make diagnosis absolute. Three intragenic RFLPs have beendefined, which, taken together, are informative in about 70% of women,providing virtually deterministic genetic diagnosis.

====

12. Which of following is correct

Chemouminescence is energy emitted when electron comes from highenergy state to low energy state

Bioluminescence is energy emitted by photon

Phosphorence is energy emitted following radiation absorbed

Electrochemiluminscence is energy emitted by photons

Phosphoresence is energy emitted following radiation

Correct option: chemiluminescence is the emission of light when anelectron returns from an excitedor high energy level to a lower energylevel. The excitation event is caused by a chemical reaction andinvolves the oxidation of an organic compound like luminol,isoluminol, acridinium esters or luciferin, by an oxidant (hydrogenperoxide, oxygen etc); light is emitted from the excited productformed during oxidation.

Bioluminescence is a special form of chemiluminescence found inbiological system. Luciferase and aequorin are examples of biologicalcatalyst.

Electrochemiluminescence differs in that, here, the reactive speciesthat produce the chemiluminescent reaction, are electrochemicallygenerated from stable precursors on the surface ofan electrode. Aruthenium, tris(bipyridyl) chelate is most commonly used.

Phosphorescence is the luminescence produced by certain substancesafter absorbing radiant energy or other types of energy.=====15. Does melting leads to denaturation of DNA?

DNA denaturation, also called DNA melting, is the process by whichdouble-stranded deoxyribonucleic acid unwinds and separates intosingle-stranded strands through the breaking of hydrogen bondingbetween the bases. Both terms are used to refer to the process as itoccurs when a mixture is heated, although "denaturation" can alsorefer to the separation of DNA strands induced by chemicals like urea.

Answers to questions from Dr Vitrag, Surat.

1. D.Whole genome amplification. This is a technique used for amplification of DNA. It is not useful for the detection of mutative changes. Areas where whole genome amplification (WGA) is necessary include molecular cloning, single cell analysis, and genome-wide analysis of single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNP).

In this technique, primers attach randomly to the template adding complementary base pairs to one strand, while displacing the other DNA strand. Primary products initiate secondary priming on the displaced DNA strand and continue displacing to create multiple branches. If the initial sample of genomic DNA is high quality, it can be amplified one million-fold while maintaining accurate loci and allele representation. Phi29 DNA is a high processivity polymerase (processivity refers to the average number of bases the polymerase adds to a DNA strand being synthesized before the polymerase detaches from the template nucleic acid), which is used for WGA. Heteroduplex migration analysis, also called conformation sensitive gel electrophoresis (CSGE), reveals the presence of mutations, by altered electrophoretic mobility of a double-stranded DNA fragment, that contains one or more mismatched bases (heteroduplex) versus one that is perfectly matched (homoduplex). Heteroduplexes usually tend to migrate more slowly than homoduplexes during electrophoresis. The ability of this technique to detect polymorphisms is relatively good, & the presence of a single nucleotide polymorphism in a fragment as large as600bp can be detected.

3. In a homozygous individual, having sickle cell disease(HbSS), electrophoresis at both alkaline and acidic pH shows a single large band in the HbS position, with smaller bands at the HbA2 and HbF positions. In HbS trait, electrophoresis shows bands in the A and S positions.

9. Prenatal diagnosis of hemophilia is done by linkage analysis. A linkage map is a genetic map of a species or experimental population that shows the position of its known genes or genetic markers relative to each other in terms of recombination frequency, rather than as specific physical distance along each chromosome. Linkage mapping is critical for identifying the location of genes that cause genetic diseases. A genetic map is a map based on the frequencies of recombination between markers during crossover of homologous chromosomes. The greater the frequency of recombination (segregation) between two genetic markers, the farther apart they are assumed to be. Conversely, the lower the frequency of recombination between the markers, the smaller the physical distance between them. Genetic maps help researchers to locate other markers, such as other genes by testing for genetic linkage of the already known markers.

Restriction fragment length polymorphisms (RFLPs) within or close to the factor VIII locus are very useful for genetic linkage analysis. Such RFLPs allow a mutant allele to be tracked in a family, segregating haemophilia A even when, as is usually the case, the precise mutation causing failure to synthesise factor VIII is unknown. To date two markers tightly linked to the factor VIII locus have been described, one of which is highly polymorphic and therefore

informative in most kindreds. A significant crossover rate, however, does not make diagnosis absolute. Three intragenic RFLPs have been defined, which, taken together, are informative in about 70% of women, providing virtually deterministic genetic diagnosis.

12. Correct option: chemiluminescence is the emission of light when an electron returns from an excitedor high energy level to a lower energy level. The excitation event is caused by a chemical reaction and involves the oxidation of an organic compound like luminol, isoluminol, acridinium esters or luciferin, by an oxidant (hydrogen peroxide, oxygen etc); light is emitted from the excited product formed during oxidation.

Bioluminescence is a special form of chemiluminescence found in biological system. Luciferase and aequorin are examples of biological catalyst.

Electrochemiluminescence differs in that, here, the reactive species that produce the chemiluminescent reaction, are electrochemically generated from stable precursors on the surface ofan electrode. A ruthenium, tris(bipyridyl) chelate is most commonly used.

Phosphorescence is the luminescence produced by certain substances afterabsorbing radiant energy or other types of energy.

15. DNA denaturation, also called DNA melting, is the process by which double-stranded deoxyribonucleic acid unwinds and separates into single-stranded strands through the breaking of hydrogen bonding between the bases. Both terms are used to refer to the process as it occurs when a mixture is heated, although "denaturation" can also refer to the separation of DNA strands induced by chemicals like urea.