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Dental Mnemonics And Dental Library http://www.facebook.com/dmndl AIIMS NOV 2011 Page 1 P a g e | 1 1. A progressive increase in mandibular length and in mandibular interdental spacing in an adult patient is characteristic a. Hyperpituitarism b. Hypothyroidism c. Periodontosis d. Hypoaldosteronis 2. Nodal metastasis on CT would not be seen a. >5mm b. Round c. Spicular d. Necrotic Node 3. Tuft cells are receptors seen on A. Cell rich zone B. Lining of maxillary sinus C. Excretory duct of salivary gland D. TMJ Capsule 4. Neurotransmitter affected in FREYS syndrome a. Acetylcholine b. Serotonin c. Adrenaline d. Noradrenalin 5. Paralysis of soft palate causes all except a. Separation of cleft palatal arch b. Nasal regurgitation of fluid c. Nasal twang d. Flat soft palatal arch 6. Which of the following associated with mandibular subluxation?? a. Diphenhydramine b. Perchlorperazine c. Carbamezapine d. Ciprofloxacine 7. Associated with vital teeth, aspiration negative, from 36-44, not eroding teeth a. Aneurysmal bone cyst b. Radicular cyst c. CGCG d. Ameloblastoma 8. Melanotic neuroectodermal tumour of infancy mostly occurs in a. Maxilla b. Mandible c. Cervical spine d. Ethmoid 9. Pendulum appliance for 90 degree turn produces a force of a. 125 gms b. 75 gms c. 375 gms d. 250 gm 10. Nasolabial cyst is derived from a. Cell rest of serrae b. Cell rest of mallassez c. Remnant of nasolacrimal duct d. Maxillary Sinus epithelium 11. Ameloblastoma involved and spread by a. p53 b. bcl2 c. MMP 2 d. FGF 12. Nickolsky s sign seen in ? a. Pemphigus b. Lichen Planus c. Psoriasis 13. Depth of pulpal floor for amalgam and inlay class 2 cavity preparation ? a. Same b. More for amalgam c. More for inlay d. None of the above

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1. A progressive increase in mandibular length and in

mandibular interdental spacing in an adult patient

is characteristic

a. Hyperpituitarism

b. Hypothyroidism

c. Periodontosis

d. Hypoaldosteronis

2. Nodal metastasis on CT would not be seen

a. >5mm

b. Round

c. Spicular

d. Necrotic Node

3. Tuft cells are receptors seen on

A. Cell rich zone

B. Lining of maxillary sinus

C. Excretory duct of salivary gland

D. TMJ Capsule

4. Neurotransmitter affected in FREYS syndrome

a. Acetylcholine

b. Serotonin

c. Adrenaline

d. Noradrenalin

5. Paralysis of soft palate causes all except

a. Separation of cleft palatal arch

b. Nasal regurgitation of fluid

c. Nasal twang

d. Flat soft palatal arch

6. Which of the following associated with mandibular

subluxation??

a. Diphenhydramine

b. Perchlorperazine

c. Carbamezapine

d. Ciprofloxacine

7. Associated with vital teeth, aspiration negative,

from 36-44, not eroding teeth

a. Aneurysmal bone cyst

b. Radicular cyst

c. CGCG

d. Ameloblastoma

8. Melanotic neuroectodermal tumour of infancy

mostly occurs in

a. Maxilla

b. Mandible

c. Cervical spine

d. Ethmoid

9. Pendulum appliance for 90 degree turn produces a

force of

a. 125 gms

b. 75 gms

c. 375 gms

d. 250 gm

10. Nasolabial cyst is derived from

a. Cell rest of serrae

b. Cell rest of mallassez

c. Remnant of nasolacrimal duct

d. Maxillary Sinus epithelium

11. Ameloblastoma involved and spread by

a. p53

b. bcl2

c. MMP 2

d. FGF

12. Nickolsky s sign seen in ?

a. Pemphigus

b. Lichen Planus

c. Psoriasis

13. Depth of pulpal floor for amalgam and inlay class 2

cavity preparation ?

a. Same

b. More for amalgam

c. More for inlay

d. None of the above

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14. In case of CSF rhinorrhea with normal CSF finding

all are true except

a. Beta 2 transferrin

b. Tram line pattern

c. High glucose

d. High CSF Protein

15. Which of the following is false about peizoelectric

unit?

a. It works at 40 hz

b. It is worked in figure of eight motion

c. It is worked in moving forth, swish back

motion

d. It produces less heat

[Reference CARANZA P760]

16. How to diff between periapical cemental dysplasia

and periapical granuloma ?

a. Smear after RCT Sample

b. Vitality test

c. Histo

d. X ray

17. Compression osteogenesis first used in

a. Non union or fibrous union

b. Bone reduction by campy plate

c. Osteosynthesis

d. Over growth of distraction osteogenesis

18. Latency period of distraction osteogenesis in 8

month old child

a. 5-7 days

b. 0-2days

c. 10- 12 days

d. 4-6 week

19. Histologically and morphologically similar to TMJ is

a. 5th costochondral

b. Sternoclavicular

c. Distration regenerate

d. 3rd Metatarsal bone

20. In Lefort I osteotomy blood supply maintained by:

a. Post. Sup. alveolar artery

b. Ascending pharyngeal artery

c. Greater palatine artery

d. Ant. sup. alveolar artery

21. In severe "Maxillofacial injury" dangerous space is:

a. Carotid sheath

b. Space post to carotid sheath in the post

triangle

c. Post to pre vertebral area

d. Between the alar plate and pre vertebral

fascia

22. Class 3 development with mandibular deviation,

developing crossbite, enlargement of condyle with

increased radioopacity pointing towards lateral

pterygoid muscle, most likely:

a. Osteoma

b. Osteoid osteoma

c. Osteochondroma

d. Condylar hyperplasia

23. Least used solution for avulsed tooth

a. Water

b. Saliva

c. Milk

d. Hanks Balance Solution

24. With which of the techniques used for the

treatment of angle fracture , most complications

are seen

a. IMF

b. Champy's plating

c. Compression Osteogenesis

d. 2 AO plates

25. Patient comes to your clinic within 20 minutes of

avulsion of incisor without fracture, covered with

durt . What is the treatment

a. Clean it with saline and reimplant

b. Scrub and curettage and reimplant

c. Sterilize and reimplant

d. Scrub and rinse in hypotonic solution

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26. GNAS 1 gene

a. Mccuee Jafnee syndrome

b. Caffy's syndrome

c. Hyperparathyroidism

a. Albright Syndrome

27. In a class 1 cavity the pulpal floor is made

perpendicular to the long axis of the tooth. Which

of the following tooth most likely to show

perforation ?

a. Mandibular 1st premolar

b. Maxillary 1st premolar

c. Mandibular 1st molar

d. Maxillary 2nd premolar

28. Distraction osteogenesis in children

a. Increased rate

b. Increased rhythm

c. Latency period longer

d. Consolidation period longer

29. Patient reports with brown teeth, brittle enamel,

pulp obliterated, short roots. What’s the diagnosis

a. Amelogenesis imperfecta

b. Dentinogenesis imperfecta

c. Fluorosis

d.

30. Cavernous sinus thrombosis infection spread

through

a. Pterygoid plexus of veins

b. Ethmoid sinus

c. Maxillary Sinus

d.

31. Most common fracture in children

a. Downward and forwards

b. Downward and backwards

c. Single line superoinferior

d. Zig zag due to tooth buds

32. In case of class 2 div1 malocclusion extraction case,

tooth analysis used is

a. Ponts

b. Ashley howe

c. Boltons

d. Pecks n pecks

33. Cyst associated with vital tooth

a. Dentigerous, Lateral periodntal, OKC,

Globulomaxilry cyst

b. Dentigerous , Radicular cyst , OKC, Lateral

Periodontal cyst

c. Dentigerous , Radicular Cyst, OKC,

Globulomaxillary cyst

d. Dentigerous cyst, OKC, Globulomaxillary

cyst

34. All muscles attach to oblique line of thyroid

cartilage EXCEPT

a. Superior constrictor

b. Middle constrictor

c. Thyroihyoid

d. Sternothyroid

35. In case of zygomatic arch fracture, most common

site is

a. Zygomatico temporal suture

b. Front of suture

c. Behind the suture

d. No specific location

36. Facial root of maxillary first premolar appears to be

distal to the lingual root when

a. Rays are directed from mesial side

b. Rays directed from distal

c. Rays detected from facial

d. Rays detected from palatal

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37. Histologically and radiologically resembling giant

cell granuloma is ?

a. Hyperparathyroidism

b. Fibrous dysplasia

c. Paget diseases

d. Albright Diseases

38. Which of the following fracture of condyle requires

ORIF

a. Displaced #

b. Angulation 20 degree

c. Lateral displacement of condyle

d. Condyle doesn’t touch the stump.

39. Interdental papillae are seen protruding beneath

the rubber dam mostly when:

a. Holes are placed too far apart

b. Gingival enlargement due to inflammation

c.

d. Holes are placed too close

40. In case of winged rubber dam retainers which in

not its advantage

a. Radiographs are good showing full length of

canals

b. Stability

c. Provide extra bucco-lingual retraction

d. Dam, clamp and frame placed in one operation

41. In case of treated cleft palate case what will

happen

a. Anterior Open bite

b. Maxillary cross bite

c. Anterior deep bite

d. Posterior Cross Bite

42. CBCT used in diagnosis of which malocclusion

a. Bilateral Impacted Maxillary canines

b. Class 2 div 1

c. Mandibular retrognathism with severe anterior

crowding

d. Mandibular Prognathism

43. Pain senstivity least in

a. Buccal mucoas

b. Labial mucosa

c. Gingiva

d. Dorsolingual mucosa

44. Discrepancy between CR and CO or freedom of

centric relation

a. 0.15 - 0.25mm

b. 0.20 - 0.40

c. 0.5 - 1.5 mm

d. 1 - 2 mm

45. In case of juvenile periodontitis patient shows

initially

a. Migration of 1st molar and central incisors

b. Constant dull radiating Pain

c. Root sensitivity

d. Periodontal pocket

46. Which is not a theory of TMJ ankylosis ?

a. Fractured segment moves backward and

fuses with the zygomatic arch

b. Synovial fluid leakage attracts calcium ions

c. Burst theory

d. Calcification Of Soft tissue

47. <2 cm bony swelling associated with pain and pain

responding to salicylates is?

a. Osteoma

b. Osteoid osteoma

c. Ostoechondroma

d. Chondrosarcoma

48. Blurring and narrowing of the inferior alveolar

canal is due to

a. Nerve perforating the apex

b. Nerve superimposes the root

c. Nerve traverses between the root

d.

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49. Xray affecting soft tissue

a. Central rays

b. Penetrating rays

c. Short wavelength

d. Aluminium Filtered Rays

50. Patient with prosthetic valve is under surgery to

avoid sub-acute endocarditis which regimen should

be given

a. 2 mg amoxy 1hr before surgery

b. 2mg amoxy 1hr before surgery

c. 500 gm penicillin 1 hour before surgery

d. 1 gm amoxy 2 hour before

51. In a MO in maxillary first premolar . Special

attention is paid to the mesial surface because

a. It falls in an aesthetic area

b. Cervical constriction on mesial surface of

crown

c. Facio – lingual width of mesial marginal

ridge

d. Length Of lingual cusp

52. Gunshot penetrating injury with periosteal

disruption and communited mandible fracture,

treatment is?

a. Bag of bones and grafting

b. Debridement, load bearing and grafting

c. Reconstruction Plates

d. External Splint

53. In xray cortical border of mandibular canal diffuse

and canal obliterated

a. Superimposition

b. Nerve passing btw roots

c. Nerve thru root

54. Bony plateau like margins

a. Exostosis

b. Ledge

c. Osseous crater

d. Lipping

55. In patient having major oral surgery suffering from

haemophilia B, which of the following to be given

a. 80-100units/kg every 6 hrs

b. 80-100units /kg every 24hrs

c. 80-100 units/kg every 12hr

d. 60kg/body weight

56. Does not cross blood brain barrier

a. Penicillin

b. Netlimycin

c. Ceftazidine

d. Clindamycin

57. Blue black pigmentation seen in gingiva with pre-

existing inflammation seen in toxicity of:

a. Bismuth

b. Lead

c. Mercury

d. Arsenic

58. Contrast agent is used to study joint space,

procedure is called as

a. Arthroscopy

b. Arthrography

c. Orthopantomogram

d. Arthroplasty

59. All of following has increased alkaline phosphatase

except

a. Fibrous dysplasia

b. Pagets diseases

c. Hyperparathyroidism

d. Osteomyelitis

60. Hyper extensibility of tongue ?

a. Ehler danlos syndrome

61. Osteoradionecrosis

a. Endarteritis of blood vessels

b. Infection

c. Inflammation

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62. Most important factor in Root Canal Irrigant.

a. Quantity of irrigant

b. Needle Size

c. Depth of penetration Of Needle

d. Chelation capacity of irrigation material

63. Efferent nerve ending in pulp

a. Motor

b. Sympathetic Postganglionic

c. Parasympathetic Postganglionic

d. Motor n autonomic postganglionic

64. Etching time for Fluorosis affected teeth

a. 10-15 sec

b. 15-30 sec

c. 60- 90 sec

d. Can not be etched

65. Which instrument is most prone to fracture

a. Triangular bock file

b. Rectangular block reamer

c. H file

d. Rhomboid block file

66. After intracoronal bleaching if acid etching is

required for an aesthetic composite restoration

immediately

a. Rinse with catalase for 3 min

b. Rinse with triple distilled water

c. Cannot be done without waiting for Minimum

7 days

d. Irrigation with H2O2 and ultrasonic

67. Retentive terminal of clasp is seen facing toward

a. Occlussaly

b. Gingivally

c. Facially

d. Buccally

68. Supragingival calculus

a. Hydroxyapatite and Whitlockite

b. Hydroxyapaptite n Octacalcium phosphate

c. Brushite n Octacalcium phosphate

d. Whitlokite and Octacalcium phosphate

69. Grooves in class 5 cavity for dental amalgam are

prepared on

a. Axial wall

b. Mesial and distal wall

c. Occlusal and gingival wall

70. Gingiva not involved in

a. Recurrent apthous

b. Primary Herpes

c. Pyogenic granuloma

d. Erythema Multiforme

71. Most modern pre capsulated dental amalgam

formulated with

a. 50 - 55% Hg by wt

b. 42 - 45% Hg by wt

c. 25 - 35% Hg by wt

d. 15 - 25% Hg by wt

72. Diagnosis of primary herpes

a. Giemsa staining

b. Florescent staining

c. Routine cytology

d. Wright Stain

73. Metal oxides used in porcelin

a. Strength

b. Bonding

c. Color

d. All

74. If p< 0.001 then

a. Significant for 99.99%

b. Not significant

c. 1% occurrence by chance

75. Leukemia with dermal And oral manifestation

a. Monocytic

b. Myelocytic

c. Lymphocytic

d. Aleukemic Leukemia

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76. Where do the Three walled defect most commonly

seen on?

a. Furcation Area in Molars

b. Interdental

c. Buccally

d. Lingually

77. Patient with splenectomy are more susceptible to

infection with

a. Gram positive bacteria

b. Gram negative bacteria ---

c. Non encapsulated organisms

d. Encapsulated organisms

78. In clampshell technique what is used:

a. Illiac cortico-cancellous graft

b. Illiac cancellous graft

c. Illiac Medullary

d. Posterior Illiac

79. Clicking sound in TMJ is due to

a. Irregular articular eminence

b. Protruded condyle in respect to articular disc

c. Internal derangement

d. Retruded Condyle

80. Squamous cell carcinoma of lateral border of

tongue T2 No. treatment

a. SOHND

b. Level 1-2 lymph node excision

c. Level 1-5

d. Level 1-3

81. Infection from lower lip first reaches through blood

stream through?

a. Inferior labial artery

b. Inferior labial vein

c. Brachiocephalic vein

d. Pterygoid plexus

82. Osteosarcoma can arise from:

a. Cherubism and osteopetrosis

b. Paget and Cherubism

c. Paget and polyostotic fibrous dysplasia

d. Polyostotic and Cherubism

83. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy is contraindicated in all

except:

A. Spherocytosis

B. Thalassemia trait

C. Recurrence of tumour

D. Glaucoma

84. Fovia palatine situated in hard palate signifies

what:

a. Palatal termination of max. denture

b. Opening of orifice of minor salivary gland duct

c.

85. Exogenous organisms are considered to be

etiological agent in causing caries

a. Capability to produce dextran like glucan

86. Measure to minimize fracture amalgam in a class 2

amalgam restoration

a. Axiopulpal line angle is bevelled

b. Gingival cavosurface enamel

c. Retentive pins placed in dentin

d. Dovetail in preparation

87. White and Yellow colour coating seen on the lesion

of ANUG is called as

a. Pseudo membrane

b. Pyogenic

c. Materia alba

d. None

88. Bells palsy

a. Upper motor neuron disease

b. Lower motor neuron disease

c. Upper motor involving cervicofacial segment of

7th nerve

d. Lower motor involving crevicofacial segment of

7th nerve

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89. A young patient comes to your clinic with infection

in left lateral incisor with 102 degree body

temperature, unable to masticate. Swelling on the

left side on face and tooth is tender. How will you

treat the patient ?

a. Incision and drainage

b. Aspiration

c. Antibiotics and heat

d. Antibiotics, heat n fluid

90. Effect of radiation

a. Ionisation

b. Precipitation

c. Agglutination

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