16
study guide True/False Indicate whether the statement is true or false. ____ 1. An operating system manages hardware, runs applications, provides an interface for users, and stores, retrieves, and manipulates files. ____ 2. Current versions of Windows use DOS as the operating system. ____ 3. The kernel provides a way for the user to do such things as select music to burn to a CD, install an application, or change the wallpaper on the Windows desktop. ____ 4. The Windows desktop is itself a folder. ____ 5. System Information can be useful when strange error messages appear during startup. ____ 6. A hard disk drive (HDD), most often called a hard drive, comes in two sizes for personal computers: the 1.8" size is used for laptop computers and the 2.5" size is used for desktops. ____ 7. Solid state hard drives cost more and are less rugged than magnetic hard drives. ____ 8. Almost all hard drives sold today for desktop computers are magnetic hard drives. ____ 9. If you are replacing a floppy drive, you must inform BIOS setup by accessing setup and changing the drive type. ____ 10. Hardware problems usually show up at POST, unless there is physical damage to an area of the hard drive that is not accessed during POST. ____ 11. As a PC support technician, you can expect to be faced with installing Windows in a variety of situations. ____ 12. The retail version costs less than the OEM version, but can only be installed on a new PC for resale. ____ 13. Microsoft offers 64-bit versions for all Vista retail editions. ____ 14. Many hardware manufacturers have chosen to not produce Vista drivers for their older devices, so it’s very important to find out if your hardware will be compatible with Vista. ____ 15. Microsoft no longer supports Windows 2000, so you should never be called on to install it on a new PC. ____ 16. Currently, Microsoft offers four service packs for Windows XP. ____ 17. Windows needs free space on the hard drive for normal operation, for defragmenting the drive, for burning CDs and DVDs, and for a variety of other tasks, so it’s important to delete unneeded files occasionally. ____ 18. Depending on how fragmented the drive and how large the drive, defragmenting it can take less than an hour or as long as all night. ____ 19. When a new hard drive is first installed in a system, you must first initialize the disk. ____ 20. You can install an OS on a spanned or striped volume that uses software RAID. ____ 21. You can edit the registry and create a restore point while in Safe Mode. ____ 22. Windows Vista tracks issues that are interfering with performance. ____ 23. The indexing service of Windows indexer has a high priority and takes precedence over other programs.

A+ Software support Study Guide

  • Upload
    saanire

  • View
    817

  • Download
    1

Embed Size (px)

Citation preview

Page 1: A+ Software support Study Guide

study guide

True/False Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

____ 1. An operating system manages hardware, runs applications, provides an interface for users, and stores,

retrieves, and manipulates files.

____ 2. Current versions of Windows use DOS as the operating system.

____ 3. The kernel provides a way for the user to do such things as select music to burn to a CD, install an application, or change the wallpaper on the Windows desktop.

____ 4. The Windows desktop is itself a folder.

____ 5. System Information can be useful when strange error messages appear during startup.

____ 6. A hard disk drive (HDD), most often called a hard drive, comes in two sizes for personal computers: the 1.8" size is used for laptop computers and the 2.5" size is used for desktops.

____ 7. Solid state hard drives cost more and are less rugged than magnetic hard drives.

____ 8. Almost all hard drives sold today for desktop computers are magnetic hard drives.

____ 9. If you are replacing a floppy drive, you must inform BIOS setup by accessing setup and changing the drive type.

____ 10. Hardware problems usually show up at POST, unless there is physical damage to an area of the hard drive that is not accessed during POST.

____ 11. As a PC support technician, you can expect to be faced with installing Windows in a variety of situations.

____ 12. The retail version costs less than the OEM version, but can only be installed on a new PC for resale.

____ 13. Microsoft offers 64-bit versions for all Vista retail editions.

____ 14. Many hardware manufacturers have chosen to not produce Vista drivers for their older devices, so it’s very important to find out if your hardware will be compatible with Vista.

____ 15. Microsoft no longer supports Windows 2000, so you should never be called on to install it on a new PC.

____ 16. Currently, Microsoft offers four service packs for Windows XP.

____ 17. Windows needs free space on the hard drive for normal operation, for defragmenting the drive, for burning CDs and DVDs, and for a variety of other tasks, so it’s important to delete unneeded files occasionally.

____ 18. Depending on how fragmented the drive and how large the drive, defragmenting it can take less than an hour or as long as all night.

____ 19. When a new hard drive is first installed in a system, you must first initialize the disk.

____ 20. You can install an OS on a spanned or striped volume that uses software RAID.

____ 21. You can edit the registry and create a restore point while in Safe Mode.

____ 22. Windows Vista tracks issues that are interfering with performance.

____ 23. The indexing service of Windows indexer has a high priority and takes precedence over other programs.

Page 2: A+ Software support Study Guide

____ 24. If you notice that performance slows after a system has been up and running without a restart for some time, suspect a memory leak.

____ 25. Editing the registry can be dangerous, so do this with caution and be sure to back up first!

____ 26. Latency is measured by the round-trip time it takes for a data packet to travel from source to destination and back to source.

____ 27. The Telnet protocol encrypts transmitted data, which therefore cannot be read by others on the network.

____ 28. When connecting to a network, by default Windows assumes static IP addressing and automatically configures the network connection.

____ 29. Wireless networks are either public, unsecured hotspots or private, secured hotspots.

____ 30. When connecting to a private and secured wireless access point, you must provide the information that proves you have the right to use the network.

____ 31. If you can afford it, the best practice is to purchase one machine for one purpose, instead of bundling many functions into a single machine.

____ 32. The last four steps of the laser printing process use the printer components that undergo the most wear.

____ 33. Routine printer maintenance procedures are generally the same from manufacturer to manufacturer and printer to printer.

____ 34. An older PC and printer should never have a problem with bidirectional communication.

____ 35. If loose toner comes out with your printout, the fuser is not reaching the proper temperature and professional service is required.

Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 36. A(n) ____ is software that controls a computer.

a. application c. interface routine b. operating system d. ROM routine

____ 37. In 1986, ____ was introduced and quickly became the most popular OS among IBM computers and IBM-compatible computers using the Intel 8086 processors. a. MS-DOS c. OS/2 b. Windows d. CP/M

____ 38. A ____ interface is an interface that uses graphics as compared to a command-driven interface. a. text c. common user b. menu-based d. graphical user

____ 39. Vista has a new 3D user interface called the ____ user interface. a. Glass c. Air b. Aero d. Shield

____ 40. A(n) ____ is a low-end inexpensive laptop with a small 9- or 10-inch screen and no optical drive. a. nettop c. Internet station b. netbook d. ultralite

____ 41. A ____ makes it possible to boot a computer into one of two installed OSs. a. hypervisor c. dual boot b. virtualization layer d. quick boot

____ 42. A(n) ____ is the portion of an OS that relates to the user and to applications.

Page 3: A+ Software support Study Guide

a. hypervisor c. GUI b. interpreter d. shell

____ 43. The OS ____ is responsible for interacting with hardware. a. kernel c. driver layer b. abstraction layer d. ring

____ 44. The ____ interface between the subsystems in user mode and the HAL. a. application c. primitive b. executive services d. non-privileged services

____ 45. A ____ is a single task, such as the task of printing a file, that the process requests from the kernel. a. fiber c. process b. bundle d. thread

____ 46. ____ are small programs stored on the hard drive that tell the computer how to communicate with a specific hardware device such as a printer, network card, or modem. a. Abstraction layer c. BIOS b. Device drivers d. Input routines

____ 47. The ____ is normally located at the bottom of the Windows desktop, displaying information about open programs and providing quick access to others. a. taskbar c. menu bar b. Windows button d. task ribbon

____ 48. The ____ is usually on the right side of the taskbar and displays open services. a. status tray c. system tray b. display area d. identification area

____ 49. A(n) ____ is a program that runs in the background to support or serve Windows or an application. a. interface c. daemon b. slave d. service

____ 50. A ____ is one or more characters following the last period in a filename, such as .exe, .txt, or .avi. a. filename c. file version b. file extension d. file type

____ 51. The ____ dialog box in Windows Vista appears each time a user attempts to perform an action that can be done only with administrative privileges. a. User Account Confirmation c. User Access Control b. User Account Control d. User Access Confirmation

____ 52. Windows identifies file types primarily by the ____. a. file contents c. file extension b. resource fork d. companion stream

____ 53. Windows offers two ways to sync files: ____. a. Briefcase and Offline Files c. Synchronization Tasks and Online Files b. Network Neighborhood and Offline Files d. Briefcase and Synchronization layer

____ 54. From the ____ window, you can change the read-only, hidden, archive, and indexing attributes of the file. a. Open c. Status b. Attributes d. Properties

____ 55. A(n) ____ is a list of items that is used to speed up a search. a. database c. shortcut b. index d. block

____ 56. An applet has a ____ file extension. a. .ctl c. .cpl b. .crl d. .app

Page 4: A+ Software support Study Guide

____ 57. A ____ drive has one, two, or more platters, or disks, that stack together and spin in unison inside a sealed metal housing that contains firmware to control reading and writing data to the drive and to communicate with the motherboard. a. magnetic optical c. magnetic hard b. floppy d. magnetic image

____ 58. The top and bottom of each disk of a magnetic hard drive have a(n) ____ that moves across the disk surface as all the disks rotate on a spindle. a. read head c. access head b. read/write head d. platter device

____ 59. Each side, or surface, of one hard drive platter is called a ____. a. bubble c. tail b. wing d. head

____ 60. Windows Vista technology that supports a hybrid drive is called ____. a. ReadyRAM c. ReadyDrive b. ReadySpin d. ReadyDisk

____ 61. The total number of ____ on the drive determines the drive capacity. a. sectors c. platters b. wedges d. controllers

____ 62. ____ on a circuit board inside the drive housing is responsible for writing and reading data to these tracks and sectors and for keeping track of where everything is stored on the drive. a. Wetware c. Firmware b. ROM d. Software

____ 63. During the ____ formatting process, you specify the size of the partition and what file system it will use. a. low-level c. medium-level b. high-level d. physical

____ 64. The ATA interface standards are developed by Technical Committee T13 and published by ____. a. ISO c. IETF b. IEEE d. ANSI

____ 65. ____ is a system BIOS feature that monitors hard drive performance, disk spin up time, temperature, distance between the head and the disk, and other mechanical activities of the drive in order to predict when the drive is likely to fail. a. S.M.A.R.T. c. S.T.A.R.T. b. D.A.R.T. d. S.P.I.N.

____ 66. The ____-conductor IDE cable has half the number of pins as it has wires. a. 40 c. 80 b. 60 d. 100

____ 67. ____ transfers data directly from the drive to memory without involving the CPU. a. RMA c. SMA b. DAM d. DMA

____ 68. ____ mode involves the CPU and is slower than DMA mode. a. DMZ c. RMA b. PIO d. PIN

____ 69. With ____, you can connect and disconnect a drive while the system is running. a. wet-swapping c. hot-swapping b. cold-swapping d. block-swapping

____ 70. External ____ is up to six times faster than USB or FireWire. a. SATA c. IDE b. SCSI d. DMA

Page 5: A+ Software support Study Guide

____ 71. ____ is a standard for communication between a subsystem of peripheral devices and the system bus. a. SAS c. SCSD b. SATA d. SCSI

____ 72. A technology that configures two or more hard drives to work together as an array of drives is called ____. a. FLAG c. RAIN b. RAID d. RAISE

____ 73. A drive ____ is a duplication of everything written to a hard drive. a. network c. handle b. array d. image

____ 74. With ____, two hard drives are configured as a single volume. a. binding c. spanning b. bonding d. wrapping

____ 75. The first sector on the disk, called the boot sector or ____ record, contains the information about how the disk is organized and the file system used. a. base c. slave b. interface d. boot

____ 76. When using an 80-conductor cable-select cable, the drive nearest the motherboard is the ____. a. master c. subordinate b. slave d. major

____ 77. If you are mounting a hard drive into a bay that is too large, a ____ kit can help you securely fit the drive into the bay. a. reversal bay c. universal bay b. drive connecting d. bay adapter

____ 78. Upgrading to a better edition of Vista can easily be accomplished by using the ____ feature. a. Windows Anywhere Upgrade c. Windows Anyplace Upgrade b. Windows Anytime Upgrade d. Windows Automatic Upgrade

____ 79. Use a ____-bit OS if you need increased performance and your system has enough resources to support it. a. 8 c. 32 b. 16 d. 64

____ 80. Use ____ to find out which devices are installed in your XP system. a. Computer Manager c. Device Manager b. User Manager d. System Manager

____ 81. A ____ boot allows you to install the new OS without disturbing the old one so you can boot to either OS. a. dual c. controlled b. cross d. selective

____ 82. A(n) ____ server is used to hold the setup files on a Windows CD or DVD on the network and then at each PC, you can execute the Setup program on the server. a. distribution c. software b. image d. file

____ 83. A(n) ____ installation is performed by storing the answers to installation questions in a text file or script that Windows calls an answer file. a. scripted c. unattended b. attended d. replacement

____ 84. A ____ is a copy of the entire volume on which Windows is installed to another bootable media such as CDs or USB drive. a. drive delta c. software image b. drive image d. system drive

Page 6: A+ Software support Study Guide

____ 85. The Windows utility ____ is used to remove configuration settings, such as the computer name that uniquely identifies the PC. a. msconfig.exe c. w32prep.exe b. msprep.exe d. sysprep.exe

____ 86. For some brand-name computers, the hard drive contains a ____ partition that can be used to reinstall Windows. a. hidden resolution c. visible recovery b. hidden recovery d. visible rebuild

____ 87. A ____ computer is software that simulates the hardware of a physical computer. a. real c. virtual b. logical d. functional

____ 88. The ____ partition is the active partition of the hard drive. a. system c. recovery b. data d. logical

____ 89. A Windows ____ is a logical group of computers and users that share resources, where administration, resources, and security on a workstation are controlled by that workstation. a. domain c. task group b. workgroup d. work unit

____ 90. A Windows domain is a type of ____ network, which is a network where resources are managed by a centralized computer. a. time-sharing c. server/server b. virtual d. client/server

____ 91. An example of a network operating system is Windows Server 2008, which controls a network using the directory database called ____. a. Net Directory c. Active Directory b. Win Directory d. Open Directory

____ 92. The ____ command is used to copy the information from the old computer to a server or removable media. a. getstate c. setstate b. loadstate d. scanstate

____ 93. The ____ command is used to copy the information to the new computer. a. getstate c. setstate b. loadstate d. scanstate

____ 94. Product ____ is a method used by Microsoft to prevent unlicensed use of its software so that you must purchase a Windows license for each installation of Windows. a. activation c. enablement b. entitlement d. installation

____ 95. During a normal Windows XP installation, setup causes the system to reboot ____ times. a. one c. three b. two d. four

____ 96. To convert a FAT32 volume to an NTFS volume, first back up all important data on the drive and then use this command at a command prompt: ____, where D: is the drive to be converted. a. convntfs D: c. convfs D: /FS:NTFS b. convert D: /FS:NTFS /OFS:FAT d. convert D: /FS:NTFS

____ 97. For an always-up broadband connection (such as cable modem or DSL), select ____ when you configure updates. a. Never b. Notify me but don’t automatically download or install them c. Automatic d. Automatically download but do not install them

Page 7: A+ Software support Study Guide

____ 98. When you configure updates, if the PC doesn’t have an always-up Internet connection (such as dial-up), you might want to select ____. a. Never b. Notify me but don’t automatically download or install them c. Automatic d. Automatically download but do not install them

____ 99. For Windows XP, use the ____ to see which service packs are installed. a. Computer Properties box c. System Properties box b. Computer manager box d. System Manager box

____ 100. To view and manually install updates, click ____, and then follow the directions on-screen. a. Start and Windows Updates b. Start, Windows, and Windows Updates c. Start, All Programs, Accessories, and Windows Updates d. Start, All Programs, and Windows Updates

____ 101. To protect a system against malicious attack, you need to verify that ____ software is configured to scan the system regularly and that it is up-to-date. a. antispyware c. prevention b. firewall d. antivirus

____ 102. Files can end up in ____ segments all over the drive. a. blocks c. contiguous b. fragmented d. detached

____ 103. By default, Vista automatically defrags a drive every ____. a. Wednesday at 1:00 AM c. Friday at 1:00 AM b. Monday at 3:00 AM d. Tuesday at 4:00 AM

____ 104. Use the ____ command to defrag the drive from a command prompt window. a. Optimize c. Defrag b. Analyze d. Chkdsk

____ 105. To make sure the drive is healthy, you need to search for and repair file system errors using the Windows ____ utility. a. Defrag c. Analyze b. Chkdsk d. Optimize

____ 106. A snapshot of the system settings and configuration is called a ____. a. rollback point c. rollback unit b. restore unit d. restore point

____ 107. ____ creates restore points at regular intervals and just before you install software or hardware. a. System Activation c. System Restoration b. System Protection d. System Prevention

____ 108. When you back up the system state, the registry is also backed up to the folder ____. a. %SystemRoot%\repair\RegBack c. %SystemRoot%\win32\repair\RegBack b. %SystemRoot%\repair\Hives d. %SystemRoot%\wind32\RegBack

____ 109. Besides backing up user data or system files, you can also back up the entire hard drive using Windows Vista ____. a. Automated System Backup c. Automated System Recovery b. Complete PC Recovery d. Complete PC Backup

____ 110. The user folder for an account contains a group of subfolders called the user ____. a. namespace c. profile namespace b. directory namespace d. controlled namespace

____ 111. If you enter a command and want to terminate its execution before it is finished, you can press ____ to do so.

Page 8: A+ Software support Study Guide

a. Ctrl+Break c. Ctrl+B b. Ctrl+V d. Ctrl+X

____ 112. The ____ command creates a subdirectory under a directory. a. RD c. CD b. MD d. AD

____ 113. A file with a .bat file extension is called a ____ file. a. script c. batch b. block d. binary

____ 114. A dynamic disk requires ____ MB of storage for the disk management database. a. 1 c. 3 b. 2 d. 4

____ 115. You can use ____ to convert two or more basic disks to dynamic disks. a. Disk Management c. System Management b. Windows Management d. Computer Management

____ 116. When a hard drive is first sensed by Windows, it is assigned the ____ disk status. a. Primary c. Automatic b. Dynamic d. Basic

____ 117. A disk marked as dynamic can be used with other dynamic disks in a spanned or ____ volume. a. blocked c. striped b. checkered d. lined

____ 118. If you are having problems with a hard drive, volume, or mounted drive, check ____ for events about the drive that might have been recorded there. a. Event Viewer c. Event Log b. Windows Event Log d. Event Log Manager

____ 119. Windows Vista Ultimate offers language packs through ____. a. Microsoft Update c. Language Update b. Windows Update d. System Update

____ 120. The ____ tab of Task Manager lists system services and other processes associated with applications, together with how much CPU time and memory the process uses. a. Applications c. Processes b. Services d. Performance

____ 121. To stop a process using Task Manager, select the process and click ____. a. New Process c. Terminate Process b. End Process d. Close Process

____ 122. If your desktop locks up, you can use ____ to refresh it. a. Task Manager c. Task List Manager b. Process Manager d. Task and Process Manager

____ 123. The ____ tab in Task Manager provides details about how a program uses system resources. a. Application c. Processes b. Services d. Performance

____ 124. The ____ tab in Task Manager lets you monitor network activity and bandwidth used. a. Application c. Networking b. Processes d. Services

____ 125. The ____ tab in Task Manager shows all users currently logged on the system. a. Users c. Networking b. Processes d. Applications

____ 126. You can use the ____ to find out what processes are launched at startup and to temporarily disable a process from loading.

Page 9: A+ Software support Study Guide

a. System Access Utility c. System Stability Utility b. System Management Utility d. System Configuration Utility

____ 127. ____ is a Windows utility that can be used to build your own customized console windows. a. Microsoft Management Console c. Microsoft Management Components b. Microsoft Manager Console d. Microsoft Manager Controls

____ 128. A(n) ____ is a single window that contains one or more administrative tools such as Device Manager or Disk Management. a. snap-in c. view b. add-in d. console

____ 129. In a console, the individual tools are called ____. a. consoles c. snap-ins b. add-ins d. views

____ 130. A console is saved in a file with an ____ file extension. a. .mscx c. .mmc b. .msc d. .mmcx

____ 131. Device Manager reads data from the ____ key to build the information it displays about hardware configurations. a. HKLM\HARDWARE c. HKLM\CONFIG b. HKLM\SYSTEM d. HKU\HARDWARE

____ 132. ____, under Windows Vista, is a summary index designed to measure the overall performance of a system. a. Windows Rating c. Windows Experience Index b. Windows Reliability Index d. Windows Performance Index

____ 133. To make sure that all hardware or software installed on the system is compatible with Windows Vista, use the ____. a. Vista Upgrade Toolkit c. Vista Crossgrade Advisor b. Vista Upgrade Advisor d. Vista System Advisor

____ 134. You can use the ____ to find information about the installed processor and its speed, how much RAM is installed, and free space on the hard drive. a. System Management Utility c. System Configuration Utility b. Computer Management Utility d. System Information Utility

____ 135. The ____ is responsible for maintaining an index of files and folders on a hard drive to speed up Windows searches. a. Windows performance monitor c. Windows indexer b. Windows reliability monitor d. Windows database

____ 136. The ____ box can protect your system against users making unauthorized changes and against malware installing itself without your knowledge. a. UAC c. UAN b. AAC d. UAK

____ 137. To find out if programs and services are slowing down Windows startup, boot the system in ____ and watch to see if performance improves. a. Restoration Mode c. Safe Mode b. Recovery Mode d. Stability Mode

____ 138. You can use the ____ utility to zero in on the service or other program that is slowing down startup. a. gpupdate c. MSrebuild b. MSconfig d. MSrefresh

____ 139. Most programs written for Windows have a(n) ____ routine which can be accessed from the Vista Programs and Features applet in the Control Panel, the XP Add Remove Programs applet in the Control Panel, or a utility in the All Programs menu.

Page 10: A+ Software support Study Guide

a. installer c. packaging b. packing d. uninstall

____ 140. If a system is giving repeated startup errors or you have just removed several programs, you might want to search through ____ for processes left there by uninstalled or corrupted software that might be giving startup problems. a. registry keys c. folders b. files d. menus

____ 141. Delays in network transmissions are called ____. a. fragmentation time c. latency b. propagation delay d. overhead

____ 142. To connect to the Internet, a network first connects to an ____. a. Internet Survey Provider c. Interconnection Service Provider b. Internet Service Provider d. Instant Service Provider

____ 143. For almost all networks today, including the Internet, the communication protocol used is called ____. a. TCP/IP c. OSI b. UDP d. HTTP

____ 144. ____ technology uses a dedicated line from your ISP to your place of business or residence. a. Fiber optic c. Dial-up b. DSL d. Cable-modem

____ 145. Apple Computer calls 802.11b ____. a. AeroNet c. AirPort Extreme b. AirNet d. AirPort

____ 146. The three main protocols for encryption for 802.11 wireless networks are ____. a. AES, DES, and TKIP c. WEP, WPA, and TKIP b. WEP, WPA, and WPA2 d. WPA, AES, and TKIP

____ 147. The ____ for a cellular network is a fixed transceiver and antenna. a. mobile station c. base station b. intermediate station d. reference station

____ 148. All wireless phone systems, including cellular, use ____ transmission, which means both people in a conversation can talk or transmit at the same time. a. half-duplex c. chain-duplex b. full-duplex d. cross-duplex

____ 149. ____ is a standard for short-range wireless communication and data synchronization between devices. a. Bluetooth c. 802.11G b. 802.11X d. BlueNet

____ 150. ____ is the most popular cabling method for local networks. a. Fiber optic c. Coaxial cable b. Wireless d. Twisted-pair cable

____ 151. A ____ is a device that manages traffic between two networks. a. bridge c. converter b. router d. transceiver

____ 152. A(n) ____ is a 32-bit string used to identify a computer on a network. a. port number c. IP address b. protocol number d. IP version

____ 153. The IP addresses available to the Internet are called ____ IP addresses. a. public c. non-routable b. private d. standard

____ 154. A ____ IP address is assigned for the current connection only.

Page 11: A+ Software support Study Guide

a. default c. static b. dynamic d. configured

____ 155. The ____ command tests connectivity by sending an echo request to a remote computer. a. pong c. lightnt b. tstcon d. ping

____ 156. The ____ command can display TCP/IP configuration information and refresh the IP address. a. msconfig c. ipconfig b. netcnfg d. netcfg32

____ 157. A____ application means one computer (the remote computer) is running the Telnet server and another computer (the local computer) runs the Telnet client. a. monolithic c. service-oriented b. cloud-based d. client/server

____ 158. To use ____, you can create user accounts using the Control Panel. a. Telnet c. Remote Assistance b. RSH d. Remote Desktop

____ 159. The solution for securing private data traveling over a public network is a ____. a. virtual protected network c. virtual privacy network b. virtual private network d. virtual prevention network

____ 160. A(n) ____ is a group of four dotted decimal numbers such as 255.255.0.0 that tells TCP/IP if a computer’s IP address is on the same or a different network. a. subnet mask c. MAC address b. IP address d. port number

____ 161. A ____ is the gateway a computer uses to access another network if it does not have a better option. a. static route c. default gateway b. dynamic route d. local hub

____ 162. ____ printers work by placing toner on an electrically charged rotating drum and then depositing the toner on paper as the paper moves through the system at the same speed the drum is turning. a. Inkjet c. Dye-sublimation b. Thermal d. Laser

____ 163. A laser printer can produce better-quality printouts than a dot matrix printer, even when printing at the same dpi, because it can vary the size of the dots it prints, creating a sharp, clear image using a technology called ____. a. REt c. VART b. REx d. eRT

____ 164. ____ printers tend to smudge on inexpensive paper, and they are slower than laser printers. a. Laser c. Thermal b. Dye-sublimation d. Inkjet

____ 165. ____ printers use wax-based ink that is heated by heat pins that melt the ink onto paper. The print head containing these heat pins is as wide as the paper. a. Inkjet c. Thermal b. Laser d. Dye-sublimation

____ 166. A(n) ____ printer uses solid dyes embedded on different transparent films. a. thermal c. laser b. dye-sublimation d. inkjet

____ 167. Automatically printing on both sides of the page is called ____ printing. a. duplex c. duo b. simplex d. complex

Page 12: A+ Software support Study Guide

____ 168. A ____ printer connects directly to a computer by way of a USB port, parallel port, serial port, wireless connection (Bluetooth, infrared, or Wi-Fi), IEEE 1394 (FireWire) port, SCSI port, PC Card, or ExpressCard connection. a. network c. remote b. shared d. local

____ 169. A dedicated device or computer called a print ____ can control several printers connected to a network. a. queue c. manager b. server d. client

____ 170. When you print to the Microsoft XPS Document Writer printer, it creates a(n) ____ file. a. .xps c. .xml b. .pdf d. .doc

____ 171. To know the IP address of a network printer, direct the printer to print a ____ page. a. consumables c. menu map b. configuration d. device

____ 172. ____ is a language used to communicate how a page is to print and was developed by Adobe Systems. a. PCL c. PostScript b. JCL d. GDI

____ 173. Several print jobs can accumulate in the queue, which you can view in the Vista Printers window or the XP Printers and Faxes window in a process called ____. a. banking c. storing b. spooling d. pooling

____ 174. Manufacturers of high-end printers provide ____ kits, which include specific printer components, step-by-step instructions for performing maintenance, and any special tools or equipment you need to do maintenance. a. toner maintenance c. imaging management b. printer development d. printer maintenance

____ 175. To find out how many pages a printer has printed so that you know if you need to do the maintenance, you need to have the printer give you the ____ count since the last maintenance. a. page c. coverage b. sheet d. image

____ 176. In a laser printer, the fuser should last for about ____ pages. a. 450 c. 45,000 b. 4500 d. 450,000

____ 177. When cleaning a printer, to prevent the inkjet nozzles from drying out, don’t leave the ink cartridges out of their cradle for longer than ____ minutes. a. 15 c. 45 b. 30 d. 60

____ 178. Printer ____ is updated by replacing the printer’s DIMM that contains the code or by downloading the update from the manufacturer’s Web site. a. BIOS c. firmware b. logic d. controller

____ 179. A printer ____ page generally prints some text, some graphics, and some information about the printer, such as the printer resolution and how much memory is installed. a. menu map c. configuration b. test d. management

____ 180. Check ____ for recorded events that have to do with the printer or the port it is using. a. Event Log c. Resource Monitor b. System Monitor d. Event Viewer

Page 13: A+ Software support Study Guide

____ 181. If symbols or other special characters don’t print correctly on a laser printer, try using ____ printing rather than asking the printer to interpret the characters. a. binary c. image b. text d. decimal

____ 182. Do not use less than ____-LB paper in any type of printer, unless the printer documentation specifically says that a lower weight is satisfactory. a. 14 c. 20 b. 16 d. 24

Matching

Match each term with the correct statement below. a. Briefcase f. Parent folder b. Virtual machine g. Legacy c. Desktop h. File attributes d. Service pack i. Patches e. Compressed folder

____ 183. The initial screen that is displayed when an OS has a GUI interface loaded

____ 184. A major update or fix to an OS occasionally released by Microsoft

____ 185. Minor updates or fixes that are released frequently

____ 186. Older hardware and software

____ 187. An environment created by software that works as though it is a standalone computer system

____ 188. Contains the child folder

____ 189. Creates a folder with a .zip extension

____ 190. Creates a folder that can be used to sync up files in this folder with its corresponding folder on another computer

____ 191. Properties assigned to a file

Match each term with the correct statement below. a. Hybrid hard drive f. Cluster b. FAT g. Actuator c. File system h. NTFS d. Block mode i. Basic disk e. Solid state drive

____ 192. Has no moving parts

____ 193. Moves the read/write heads across the disk surfaces in unison

____ 194. Uses both solid state and magnetic technologies

____ 195. A single hard drive that works independently of other hard drives

____ 196. The overall structure an OS uses to name, store, and organize files on a drive

____ 197. The smallest unit of space on a disk for storing a file and is made up of one or more sectors

____ 198. A table on a hard drive or floppy disk that tracks how space on a disk is used to store files

____ 199. Designed to provide greater security and to support more storage capacity than the older file system

____ 200. Speeds up access time by allowing blocks of data to be read from the drive at one time

Match each term with the correct statement below. a. Windows Vista Business f. Windows Vista Starter b. Windows XP Tablet PC g. Windows Vista Enterprise

Page 14: A+ Software support Study Guide

c. Windows Vista Ultimate h. Windows XP Home Edition d. Windows Vista Home Basic i. Windows Vista Home Premium e. Windows XP Media Center Edition

____ 201. Has the most limited features and is intended to be used in developing nations

____ 202. Designed for low-cost home systems that don’t require full security and networking features

____ 203. Includes additional features such as the Aero user interface

____ 204. Intended for business users

____ 205. The major additional security feature is BitLocker

____ 206. Includes every Windows Vista feature

____ 207. Includes additional support for digital entertainment hardware such as video recording integrated with TV input

____ 208. Supports 4 GB of memory in the 32-Bit version and does not support the 64-Bit version

____ 209. Designed for laptops.

Match each term with the correct statement below. a. Dynamic volumes f. Chkdsk utility b. Virtual memory g. Pagefile.sys c. Defragmenting h. Basic disk d. Backup i. System state data e. Mounted drive

____ 210. Rearranges files on the drive into as few segments as possible

____ 211. Searches for bad sectors on a volume and recovers the data from them if possible

____ 212. Used to enhance the amount of RAM in a system

____ 213. A hidden file stored in the root directory of drive C

____ 214. An extra copy of a data or software file that you can use if the original file becomes damaged or destroyed

____ 215. The files critical to a successful operating system load

____ 216. A volume that can be accessed by way of a folder on another volume so that the folder has more available space

____ 217. Can span more than one hard drive

____ 218. Can be partitioned and formatted as a stand-alone hard drive

Match each term with the correct statement below. a. Task Scheduler f. Safe Mode b. Event Viewer g. Gadgets c. Windows Vista ReadyBoost h. Computer Management d. Task Manager i. Service e. Registry

____ 219. Lets you view the applications and processes running on your computer as well as information about process and memory performance, network activity, and user activity

____ 220. A program that runs in the background and is called on by other programs to perform a background task

____ 221. A window that consolidates several Windows administrative tools that you can use to manage the local PC or other computers on the network

____ 222. A Windows tool useful for troubleshooting problems with Windows, applications, and hardware

____ 223. A database designed with a treelike structure that contains configuration information for Windows, users, software applications, and installed hardware devices

____ 224. Miniapplications

____ 225. Uses a flash drive or secure digital (SD) memory card to boost hard drive performance

Page 15: A+ Software support Study Guide

____ 226. Loads a minimum configuration of hardware and software

____ 227. Can be set to launch a task or program at a future time, including at startup

Match each term with the correct statement below. a. WLAN f. Data throughput b. Broadband g. WAN c. Bandwidth h. LAN d. MAN i. Gateway e. PAN

____ 228. Consists of personal devices at close range such as a cell phone, PDA, and notebook computer in communication

____ 229. Covers a small local area such as a home, office, other building, or small group of buildings

____ 230. Covers a limited geographical area, and is popular in places where networking cables are difficult to install, such as outdoors, in public places, and in homes that are not wired for networks

____ 231. Covers a large campus or city

____ 232. Covers a large geographical area and is made up of many smaller networks

____ 233. The theoretical number of bits that can be transmitted over a network at one time

____ 234. The actual speed of a network

____ 235. Refers to a networking technology that carries more than one type of signal, such as DSL and telephone

____ 236. A computer or other device, such as a router, that allows a computer on one network to communicate with a computer on another network

Match each term with the correct statement below. a. Windows GDI f. Extension magnet brush b. Defragmenter g. Laser printer c. Inkjet printer h. Impact printer d. Raw data i. Chkdsk e. Ghosted images

____ 237. A type of electrophotographic printer that can range from a small, personal desktop model to a large, network printer capable of handling and printing large volumes continuously

____ 238. Popular because it is small and can print color inexpensively

____ 239. Creates a printed page by using some mechanism that touches or hits the paper

____ 240. Builds the page and then sends it to the printer

____ 241. Text data that contains no embedded control characters is sent to the printer as is, and the printer can print it without any processing

____ 242. Long-handled brush made of nylon fibers that are charged with static electricity

____ 243. Used to verify that the hard drive does not have errors

____ 244. Used to optimize the hard drive

____ 245. Are usually caused by a problem with the image drum or toner cartridge

Page 16: A+ Software support Study Guide