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1. Just prior t o ovulation, the preovulatory follicle produces a n d secretes large amounts of which of the fol lowing hormones?
A. H u m a n chorionic gonadotropin 0. ~ ~ t e i n i z i n g hormone C. Progesterone
Androgens Estrogen
2. Protrusion o f the tip of the tongue beyond the opening of the oral cavity is accomplished PRlMARlL Y by which of the following muscles?
A. Mylohyoid
Styloglossus Genioglossus Intrinsic tongue
In a histologic section through the epiphyseal plate of the femur of an 18-year-old male, which of the following is the zone in which cartilage lacunae appear swollen and the chondrocytes are large?
Q proliferation Bone deposition
C. Reserve cartilage D. Cartilage calcification E. Hypertrophy and maturation
Each of the following is an ectomesenchymal derivative EXCEPTine. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
A. Pulp Dentin 8 Enamel
D. Alveolar bone E . periodontal ligament
. . Sensations of pain and temperature are carried by which of the following tracts?
A. Corticospinal Corticobulbar
C. Lateral spinothalamic O Ventral reticulospinal E. Dorsal spinocerebellar
6. In a mature tooth, w h a t is the locatjon of the FIRST dentin that w a s produced during crown formation?
A. Adjacent to t he pulp 0. In the cervical area C. Part of secondary dentin
6 Part of circumpulpal dentin Adjacent to the dentinoenamel ' 1 l n ~ t i o n
7. Enamel spindles migh t represent which o f the following?
A. Areas of organic enamel matrix t h a t are more highly mineralized than o ther areas
@ $z,"t,"?I",z:d processes that ex tend across the DEJ into enamel
C. Areas of more highly mineralized enamel prisms
D. Characteristics o f prismless enamel E. Nerve fibers
8. Which of the following types of epithelium are found in the colon?
Transitional Simple columnar
C. Stratified squarnous D. Pseudostratified ciliated columnar
9. Inability to move the diaphragm is consistent with a total section the following spinal levels?
10. Which of the following supplies sensation to the interior of the larynx (above the vocal fold)?
Recurrent laryngeal nerve Superior laryngeal nerve Glossopharyngeal nerve
D. Pharyngeal plexus E. Mandibular nerve
11. ' i h e middle meningeal artery enters the cranial vault through the
A. foramen ovale. 8. foramen lacerum.
foramen rotundum. & foramen spinosum. E. superior orbita! fissylre.
12. Which of the following structures is likely to be found within the posterior mediastinurn?
A. H e a r t phrenic nerve & Thoracic duct
D. A r c h of the aorta E. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
13. Optic nerve fibers from the nasal half of the retina cross the midline and enter the optic tract of the opposite side by way of Ihe
A, opt ic chiasma. lateral geniculate body. bipolar cells of the retina.
D. brachium of the superior colliculus. E. geniculocalcarine tract (optic radiations).
14. Each o f the following statements regarding the masseter muscle is correct EXCEPTone. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
A. ;I ~e masseter rnuscle possesses two heads of origin. @ The massetenc nerve reaches the masseter muscle by passing through the mandibular foramen.
C. Interdigitations of the masseter and medial
W pterygoid muscles form the pterygomandibular sling.
. D . The vascular supply to the masseter muscle arises trom r n w the maxillary artery.
E. The parotid duct lies superficial to the masseter muscle.
15. Which of the following describes the origin and subsequent spread of the wave of depolarization in the normal human heart?
A. Atria, sino-atrial (SA) node, atrioventricular (AV) node, bundle branches, ventricles Sino-atrial (SA) node, atrioventricular (AV) @ node, bundle branches, atria, ventricles
C. Sino-atrial (SA) node, atria, atrioventricular (AV) node, bundle branches, ventricles
D. Atrioventricular (AV) node, atria, sino-atrial (SA) node, bundle branches, ventricles
E. Atr!oyentricular (AV) node, sino-atrial (SA) node, bundle branches, atria, ventricles
16. Which of the following bones forms the roof of the orbit7
A. Zygomatic 0. Maxilla C. Palatine
17. Which of the following pairs of muscles is innervated exclusively by the trigeminat nerve?
A. Mylohyoid and geniohyoid @ Medial and lateral pterygoid C. Tensor and levator vel~ palatini D. Anlerior a n d poslerior bellies o f the
digastric E. Buccinator a n d superlor pharyngeal
constrictor
18. Intercalated disks connect which of the following cell types?
Schwann Cardiac rnuscle
C. Skeletal m u s c l e D. Transitional epithelial E. Stratified squamous epithelial
19. Which of the following represents t h e anterior boundary of the mandibular fossa o f the temporal bone?
Styloid process & Articular eminence C. Petrotyrnpanic fissure D. External auditory meatus E. Mastoid process of temporal bone
20. Which of the following exhibits phagocytic . . acbv~ty in the centra l nervous system?
Ependymal cell Microglial cell
C. Oligodendrocyte D. Fibrous astrocyte E. Protoplasmic astrocyte
2 < . Whicl, ~f the following nerves innervates the taste buds of t h e anterior two-thirds of the tongue?
C. Trigeminal D. Hypoglossal E. Glossopharyngeal
22. Sensations f r o m the left face and teeth are interpreted in which of the following lobes?
A. Left frontal & Right frontal Left parietal Right parietal
E. Right temporal
23. Which o f the following is the major nerve of the poskrior aspect of the arm and forearm?
U l n a r 0 R a d i a l C. M e d i a n D. Axi l lary E. Musculocutaneous
24. A patient has muscle pain when moving the mandible 10 the left. Which of the following muscles i s MOST likely causing the pain in this situation?
A. Left masseter 6. Left medial pterygoid C. R i g h t medial pterygoid
6 Left lateral pterygoid R i g h t lateral pterygoid
25. Which o f the following is the only part of the gastrointestinal system that has villi, goblet cells. and mucous-secreting glands in the submucosa?
A. I leum
Duodenum Esophagus
26. The branches of the maxillary artery supply each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTIOM
A. Nasal septum B. Mandibular incisors
Hard and soft palate Skin of the forehead Muscles of mastica;io?
27. Which of the following differentiates cementum from enamel?
@ Presence of collagen fibers B. presence of incremental lines C. Presence of hydroxyapatite crystals D. Derived from the dental papilla .
28. Each of the following bones contributes to the formation of the calvaria EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
A. Frontal B. Temporal C. Parietal
Occipital
29. Cutaneous innervation of the chin and lower lip is mediated by w h i c h of the following ?
A. Mental ne rve Facial nerve Inferior a lveolar nerve
D. Buccal ne rve o f V E. Branches o f t he maxillary d i v i s i o n of v
30. If the internal ca ro t id arteries become occluded, then blood can s t i l l reach the arterial circle primarily through wh i ch of the follobving arteries?
Vertebral Middle cerebra l
C. Superior cerebellar D. Anterior infer ior cerebellar E. Posterior infer ior cerebellar
31. A laceration of t h e palatal mucosa in the area of the first molar is MOSTlikely lo d a m a g e which of the following arteries?
Posterior superior alveolar Greater palat ine
C. Lesser palat ine D. Pterygopalatine E. Nasopalatine
32. The pterygoid p lexus is usually fo rmed by veins that are tributaries o f which of the fol lowing?
Maxillary v e i n Anaular vein
C. ~ac ia l vein D. Occipital v e i n E. Anterior jugular vein
33. Which of the fol lowing lingual papillae have the THICKEST layer o f keratin on their surfaces?
Foliate Filiforrn Q Fung,,
D. Circumvallate
34. Which of the following represents the MOST common cartilage found in the embryo and in the adult?
Fibrocartilage & Hyaline cartilage C. Elastic cartilage D. Calcified cartilage
35. Each of the following muscles elevates the hyoid bone EXCEPJone. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
Q Thyrohyoid H ~ O ~ ~ O ~ S U S
C . Geniohyoid D. Anterior belly of the digastric E, posterior belly of the digastric
41. The cell bodies o f proprioce~tive ne r ves carryin information f r o m the periodontal l igament are located in the
A. nucleus ambiguus. trigeminal ganglion.
C. spinal n u c l e u s of V. 0 main senso ry nucleus of V. E. mesencephalic nucleus of V.
36. The sells lurcica lies directly superior to which of 42. The reticular p o r t i o n of the dermis i s classified the following sinuses? as which of the following types o f connective
tissue? A. Frontal & Mastoid A. Loose
Ethmoid 6. Adipose Sphenoid C. Modified elast ic Maxillary Dense regu la r & Dense i r regular
37. The l ingual artery represents a branch of which of the following arteries?
A, Facial 6. Occipital
Maxillary $ External carotid Internal carotid
38. Sensory nerve supply to the facial mucosa and rs travels in which
A. Mental
Inferior alveolar Buccal nerve of V Posterior superior alveolar
39. The: thyrocervical trunk is comprised of the inferior thyroid, the transverse cervical artery. and the
vertebral. suprascapular.
C. dorsal scapular. 0. superior thyroid. E. ascending pharyngeal. . .
43. As a tooth undergoes attrition, i t maintains contact with opposing dentition. T h i s results from the apposit ion of
secondary dentin. apical cementum. coronal enamel .
D. alveolar b o n e . E. fundal b o n e .
3 4 . T l i i u c c a l r n ~ o ~ t y p l c a i l y ~ following epithelia?
A. Simple columnar Pseudostratified columnar Non-keratinized. stratified squamous
D. Parakeratinized, stratified squamous E. Orthokeratinized, stratified squamous
45. Ulcers of recurrent herpes occur o n masticato mucosa. Herpet ic ulcers could occur in which the following locations?
Buccal rnucosa Labial mucosa Hard pa la ta l muwsa
D. Mucosa of the soft palate E. Mucosa o f the floor of the mouth
40. which of the following contains cells that secrete tVpsinogen? 46. During active eruption, the initial epithelial
attachment (junctional epithelium) to the enar A. lieum surface of the tooth results from the fusion of
oral epithelium with which of the following?
Periodontal ligament fibers Gallbladder Reduced enamel epithelium
C. Stratum intermedium D. :itelfate reti:;dlum E. Ginyival fibers
47. The articulating surface of the adult mandibular condyle is covered by which of the following substances?
A. Elas t i c tissue
8 Synovial membrane H yal ine cartilage Typ ica l perichondrium
E. Collagenous connective tissue
48. A blow tha t shatters the coracoid process will have a direct effect on which of the following pairs o f muscles?
A. S e r r a t ~ s anterior and pectoralis major 0. Subscapularis and pectoralis major C. Biceps brachii and pectoralis minor 0. Subscapularis and subclavius p. elt to id and subclavius
49. A patient's tongue markedly deviates to the left during protrusion. Which of the following muscles is unable to contract? & Right ~ Y W I O ~ S U S
Right geniohyoid Left genioglossus Left palatoglossus
E. Left lateral pterygoid
3u. rrote~ns m u i s e c a n be synihesized in which of the following structures?
A. Nucleolemma B. . Mitochondria
Heterochromatin 0 Rough endoplasrnic reticulum E. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
51. Which of the following types of dentin is the MOST highly mineralized?
A. Car ioa B. Predentin C. Intertubular
Interglobular Intra(peri)tubular
52. In a normal adult, which of the following is the location of persistent epithelial rests (of Malassez)?
A. Cementum B. Dental pulp C. Mantle dentin
6 Stellate reticulum Periodontal ligament
53. One lerminal b ranch of the maxillary nerve emerges through which of the following foramina?
A. Mental B. Spinosum
Supraorbital lnfraorbital Stylomastoid
54. Which of the following are included in the mononuclear phagocytic system?
A. Fibroblasts
8 Osteoblasts Kupffer cells Hassall's corpuscles
E. Sheathed arteries of the spleen
55. The sympathetic innervation to structures of the head and neck is distributed via the
A. bloodvessels. B. fascia1 planes. C. lymphatic vessels.
hyoid musculature. cranial nerves Ill, VII, IX, and X.
--
56. What volume of fully mineralized enamel is comprised of organic matrix? p 2%
7% C. 10% D. 20% E. 50%
57. The spleen is in closest relation to which of the following?
A. Duodenum B. Right kidney & Ascending co lon
Right lobe o f the liver Inferior surface of the diaphragm
58. Which of the following cells is multinucleated?
A. Osteocyte B. Osteoblast C. Osteoclast Q Chondrocyte E. Chondroblast
59. l f t h e r e is an organ thal needs to stretch and r e t u r n to its original shape, then which of the f o l l ow ing epithelia would MOSTlikely be assoc ia ted with it?
. Transitional b. Simple cuboidal
C. Simple columnar 0. Simple squamous E . Pseudostratified columnar
60. Calci tonin is produced by which of the following cells?
Thyroid follicular @ Thyroid parafollicular Oxyphil of the parathyroid
0. Principal of the parathyroid E, Pars intermedia of the pituitary
61. Which of the following produce surfactant?
A. Monocytes 8. Clara cells & Goblet cells
Type I pneumocytes Type l l pneumocytes
62. A s tab wound creating a pneumothorax on the lefl s i de will usually result in collapse of which of the following? -
The lefl lung only 9. The right lung only C. Both lungs 0. The rib cage on the left side E. The lefl lung and pericardial sac
63. The nucle0~;lasm is continl:ous with the cytoplasin by hdy of which of the following?
A. Nucleolus Microtubules Nuclear pores
D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum E. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
64. Which of the following can be used. on a histologic level, to distinguish between a section of the arch of the aorta and a section of the brachial ai-tery?
A. Type of endothelium 9. Width of tunica intima
Type of tissue in the tunica adventitia Composition of tissue in the tunica media Type of tissue directly underlying the endothelium
65. Which of the following ligaments is MOST ofler damaged in a n inferior alveolar nerve block?
A. Lateral B. Capsular C. Stylohyoid
Stylomandibular Sphenomandibular
66. Which of the following arteries i s usually the most inferior branch arising from the external carotid artery?
A. Superficial temporal Posterior auricular Superior thymid
D. Maxillary E. Lingual
67. Bone tissue increases in Size by which of the following means?
A. Action o f osteoclasts 6. Mitotic division of osteocytes
Appositional growth by osteoblasts & Interstitial growth by osteoblasts
68. In which of the following structures are
A. Nucleolemma $ Polyribosomes Golgi apparatus Rough endoplasmic reticulum Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
69. Usually, a periapical abscess of a mandibular first premolar dra ins lingually into which of the following spaces?
Q Sublingual Submandibular Parapharyngeal
D. Retropharyngeal E. Pterygomandibular
70. Melanocytes migrate to the lamina propria of tht oral mucosa f r om which of the following?
A. Myotome 8. Dermatome
Scheratome Neural crest
E. Rathke's pouch
82. Each of the fobwing is found In the retrodiscal 88. Endochondral Ossification occurs in the
pad of the TMJ EXCEPT one. Which one is this E X C E P T I O N !
A. Elastic fibers 8. A venous plexus C . Collagen fibers D. Hyaline cartilage E. Loose connective tissue
formation of
A. all bones. flat bones. long bones. elastic cartilage.
E. mesenchymal sheels.
83. ~f l oca l anesthetic solution were deposited in the 89. Each of the following cranial nerves is pteryg~palatine fossa, then which of the associated with the cavernous sinus EXCEPT following would be anesthetized? one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
A. V l @ Facial 8. Abducens C. Trochlear D. Trigeminal
Vag us nerve E. Oculomotor
84. The common hepatic artery is a branch of which vessel?
C. Gastric D. Proper hepatic E. Superior mesenteric
85. Which of the following is the motor nerve innervating mast thenar muscles?
Axillary E. Muscubcutaneous
86. Which of the following is a uniqua char&iteristic of a mixed serous and mucous gland?
8 Demilunes Striated ducts
C. Intercalated ducts D. Myoepithelial cells E. Excessive fat throughout the stroma
87. Which of the following statements BEST describes the zygomaticotemporal and zygornaticofacial nerves? They are
A. motor branches of the facial nerve. 8. sensory branches of the frontal nerve. C. motor branches of the mandibular division
of V. D. sensory branches of the maxillary division
of V. .:_ sensory branches cf :kc csh!haln?lc
division of V.
90. Which of the following does a human normally possess before birth but not after?
A. Fossa ovalis 8. Hepatic vein
Ligamenturn teres Ductus arteriosis
E. Crista terminalis
91. Which of the following parts of the hypophysis i the site of oxytocin release?
Q Pars nervosa 8. lnfundibulum C. Pars distalis D. Pars tuberalis E. Pars intermedia
92. The mature dental pulp is composed primarily c which of the following connective tissues?
C. Mucoid D. Adipose E. Elastic
93. The internal thoracic artery gives rise to the
A. costocervical trunk. 8. posterior intercostal arteries.
6 bronchial and esophageal arteries. superior epigastric and rnusculophrenic arteries.
94. Cell b o d i e s of sympathetic fibers in the nerve of (he p l e r y g ~ i d canal come from which of the following?
A. ~ a c i a l nerve
Q supe r i o r cervical ganglion Grea te r petrosal nerve Glossopharyngeal nerve
E. O t i c ganglion
95. Which of the following two muscles prevent food from entering the nasopharynx during swallowing?
Mylohyoid and the palatoglossus styloglossus and the palatoglossus Tensor tympani and the stylopharyngeus
0. Tensor veli palatini and the levator veli palatini
E. Musculus uvulae and the inferior pharyngeal constrictor
99. A tendon consists mainly of
A. reticular f ibers. Q elastic fiber bundles. C. loose collagenous bundles. 0. dense, regular, collagenous bundles. E. dense, irregular, collagenous bundles
100. Lymphatic drainage from mayil13ry teeth initally passes into wh i ch of the following lymph node groups?
Submental Submandibu!ar Jugulodigastric
E. Jugulo-ornohyoid
96. Which o f the following correctly matches a part of the urinary System with its characteristic type of epithelium?
A. Large collecting tubule - stratified columnar
--- . , U. T -- simple columnar -- C. Urinary bladder - stratified squamous
Thick limb of Henle -- stratified cuboidal owm man's capsule - simple squamous
97. Which of the following is the cellular organelle that contains many types of hydrolytic enzymes?
@ L y r ~ a o m e B. Centrosome C. Mitochondrion D. Golgi apparatus E. ~ndoplasmic reticulum
98. Which of the following represents the basis for the topical application of fluorides in dental caries prevention?
A. ~luoride penetrates the enamel through the lamellae.
8. Keratin Content of the enamel is made more insoluble.
C. Fluoride coats the tooth forming a uniform protective barrier.
D. The primary cuticle. being less calcified, abs~&S the fluoride.
E. Acid solubility of the surface enamel is rejuc2d by the !iaori?e.
1 1. Which of the following represents the vitamin J Which of the following clinical manifestations is necessary for coenzyme A synthesis? observed in an adult patient with an adenoma
of the pituitary gland causing hypersecretion of A. Retinol Growth Hormone? B. Pyridoxine C. Folic acid Hypotension
Cobalamine Hyperglycernia 9 ,$.D&Z&. Pantothen~c acid Short stature
0. Decreased urine formation E. Decreased basal metabolic rate .
. Which of the following statements BEST describes vitamin A's function?
A. Prevents oellaara. , . - B. Stimulates collagen synthes~s. Which of the following provides the immediate
Promotes absorption of calcium. Promotes differentiation of epithelial
energy source for the transport of glucose into intes:inal epithelial cells?
cells. E . Maintains the integrity of connective
tissues.
An example of primary active transport is the movement of
glucose into muscle. potassium into a nerve cell.
C. proteins across capillaries. D. sodium into an endothelial cell. E . oxygen across the alveolar wall
A. NADH NADPH & ~ a ' gradient across the luminal membrane
D. H' gradient across the luminal membrane
Which of the following is MOSToften associated with transport of fatty ac~ds and bile acids in blond?
W c t by way o f mbrane-bound enzyme Albumin
Globulin A. glutaminase. 6. phosphatase.
phosphorylase. adenylate cyclase. carbonic anhydrase.
. Which of the following are the mnjzx target tissues of the calcium regu1ati:lg h o r ~ ~ ~ o n e s ?
A. Intestine, lung, kidney 0. Heafl, duodenum, bone
Bone, heart, kidney Bone. intestine, kidney
1106. A dental patient presents with a bluish discoloration of the mucous membranes indicative of cyanosis. This condition is MOST likely the result of
C. Cholesterol D. Sphingolipid E. Mucopclysaccharide
, The extracellular edema in patients with cirrhosis of the liver is caused by which of the following?
Decreased capillary permeability @ Decreased plasma proteins C. Decreased capillary pressure D. lncreased lymphatic return E. lncreased plasma proteins
A. increased Pcoz. y/l. Which of the following vessels contains the
B. a decreased hernoalobin concentration. HlGHESTviscosity blood in the body?
C. a decreased red blood cell Aorta concentration. @ increased levels of reduced
% Vena cava Vasa recta
hemoglobin. D. Pulmonary vein E. decreased blood f l)w to the affected E. FLllmonar;t artery
area.
1 I$ The hyperglycemic effect of glucagon is mediated primarily through
A. the growth hormone. muscle glycolysis. Q liver glycogeno1ysis.
D. inhibition of cortisol action E. enhanced glucose reabsorption by
renal tubules.
11 3. Which of the following characterizes the generator potential of a receptor?
A. An all-or-none response B. Propagated in a non-aecremental
manner Universally present in all nerve tissues Graded according to the strength of the stimulus
114. Methyl xanthines such as caffeine and theophylline enhance lipolysis in adipose tissue by
A. inducing adenylate cyclase synthesis. inducing triglyceride lipase synthesis. & ;;;i$:;yc!icrA:;Ai .
e m a t ty D. directly activating an intracellular
protein kinase. E. enhancing the binding of epinephrine to
an extracellular membrane receptor.
11 5. Which of the following can increase the rate of net flux ar diffusion of oxygen through the alveolar membrane?
A. Decreasing the temperature lncreasing the cross-sectional area 1 Decreasing the concentration gradient
D. lncreasing the path length of diffusion
11 6. At which stage in the process of gene cloning are restriction nucleases used?
A. Isolation of mRNA B. Synthesis of double-stranded cDNA C. Insertion of the cDNA into the vector
DNA
@ Expression of the cloned gene by the bacteria
E. Introduction of recombinant DNA into a bacterial cell
117. Which of the following statements BEST describes the primary role of calcium in the activation of cardiac muscle?
Cause depolarization of the muscle Couple myosin and actin to form actinomyosin.
C. Reduce inhibition of tropomyosin u r the myofilaments.
D. Activate myosin molecules so that can interact with actin filaments.
118. Which of the following represents the princ~ allosteric regulator of pyruvate metabolism the liver?
A. ATP B. NAD C. Citrate
Cyclic AMP Acetyl CoA
11 9. Which of the following compounds is an intermediate in the biosynthesis of cholest~.
C. Cholic acid D. Pregnanediol E. Deoxycholic acid
During oxidative phosphorylation, the hydrogen ion gradisn! is created ~.;ing ene from which of the foll~';ilng?
A. ADP transport ATP synthesis ATP hydrolysiss @ ~educ t ion of NAD'
E. Electron transfers
121. During nuclear processing of hnRNA to mRNA, the portion of the molecule that is removed is the
exon. anticodon. $J intron. codon.
E. 5' c;p.
\ 122. In the biosynthesis of purines, which of the
following is the source of MOST of the nitrogen?
A. Urea 0. Ammonia C. Uric acid
6* Pyrimidines Amino acids
123. Which of the following hormones generally increases the rate of anabolic (biosynthetic) reactions?
C. cortisol D. Epinephrine E. Somatostatin
124. Which of the follawing statements BEST characterizes simple'diffusion?
A. It requires a carrier. B. It is independent of temperature. C. It requires hydrophobic interaction. 0. It requires a semipermeable
membrane. I t moves down its concentration gradient.
125. Which of the following membrane components consists of glycerol, phosphate, fatty acids. and choline?
Cephalin @ Lecithin C. Ganglioside 0 . Cerebroside E. Sphingomyelin
126. Which of the foJlowing amino acids has a hydroxyl group that sometimes participates in enzyme reactions?
C. Glycine D. Proline E. Arginine
127. The enterogastric reflex produces a (an)
increase in gastric motility. &\ ecrease in gastric motility. C. decrease in intestinal motility. D. increase in intestinal motility.
128. Which of the following statements BEST describes the activity of DNA ligase?
A. Seals single-stranded nicks in DNA. 0. Proofreads the DNA proper base-
\ @ pairing. Prevents the polymerase from falling off the DNA.
0 . Removes the RNA primer from thc lagging strand.
129. During the period of isovolumetric contraction, which of the following happew?
The semilunar valves are open. & The left ventricular pressure is rising rapidly.
C . The aortic pressure is slightly less than the left ventricular pressure.
D. The right ventricular pressure is greater than the left ventricular pressure.
130. Linolenic and arachidonic acids serve as precursors to which of the following?
. Steroid hormones D. Cholesterol E. Cholecalciferol
<31. Transmission of impulses from the motor nerve to the muscle cell regularly produces
an action potential in the muscle cell. a graded potential in the muscle cell. hyperpolarization of the muscle cell.
D. hypopolarization of the muscle cell. E. alteration in the threshold potential of
the muscle cell.
132. Each of the following occurs during swallowing EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION,
Larynx is elevated. # Eustacian tubes close.
C. Respiration is inhibited. 0 . Epiglottus covers the trachea.
133. W h ~ c h of the following statements BEST describes the action of antidiuretic hormone?
A. Decrease renal filtration fraction B. Increase storage capacity of the
bladder C. Decrease permeability of
distoconvoluted tubules andlor collecting ducts to water Increase permeability of d~stoconvoluted tubules andlor collecting ducts to water
134. Pernicious ariemia is frequently associated with a deficiency of
A. v~tamins A and D. B. vitamins C and D.
vitamins E and K. & vitamin Bj2 and folic acid E. thiamine and riboflavin.
135. Which of the following usually has an H' concentration greater than 1 x 10" M?
A. Bile 8. Urine
Saliva Gastric juice Pancreatic juice
136. Which of the follmwing statements explains why hypewcfitilattc- often prOd~CeS muscle spasms?
A. There is too much OZ available. B. The respiratory muscles are fatigued. C. There is not enough phosphate
present. Af The loss of CO* has caused alkalosis. The pH of the blood has dropped sharply.
137. After taking part in fat digestion and absorption, the bulk of the bile salts are
A. excreted in the urine. 8. excreted in the feces. C. ~eabsorbed inlo the lymph.
ces t r~yed by bacteria if, the rclon. 1 & rea~sorbed into the portal c~rculation.
138. A dental patient begins to experience acute pain and becomes anxious, begins to hypewentilate, and becomes dizzy and shc signs of loss of consciousness. These symptoms are the result of
A. elevated arterial Pcoz. & decreased H C O ~ .. decreased arlerial PO2. decreased arterial Pco7 elevated arterial Hco3 . .
139. Which of the following compounds IS direct involved In the action of hormones on the~r target cells?
A. ATP 8. UTP C. AMP (adenosine-5'-monophospl~at~
UDPG (uridine diphosphoglucose) & Cyclic AMP (adenosine-?. 5'- monophosphate)
140. Oxaloacetate plays an important role in \he body by
A. participating in transacetylat~on reactions.
B. parlicipating in transmethylation reactions. reacting with acetyl coenzyme A to form citrate.
D. ' reacting with coenzyme A to form acetoacetate.
The first step in the utilization of arnlno a c ~ d for protein synthesis requires 7' i (& aminoacyl I-RNA synthetase. 8. initiation and elongation factors. C. self-assembly of 305 and SOS
ribosomal subunits. D. binding of N-formylmethionyl-tRNA !
the ribosomes.
142. Each of the following is character~st~c of creatinine EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION3
A. Freely filtered Slightly secreted ,$ Slightly reabsorbed
I -\ J . !'icduced endogenously :: 4 ionst,
raie A -
143. Secondary protein structures, such as beta- pleated sheets, are stabillzed by whlch of Ihe following?
Hydrogen bonds Disulf~de bonds
C. van der Waals force D. Hydrophobic interactions E. Electrostatic lnteractlons
144. Which of the following statements describes a property or function of salivary lysozymes?
They have bactericidal activity. J They bind selectrvely to dental enamel.
C. They promote calcium phosphate precipitation.
D. They hydrolyze alpha 1-4 linkages in starch.
145. Reduced serum potassium (hypokalemia) might produce which of the f o l l o ~ ~ ; ~ i g results?
A. Reduced membrane threshold potential Elevated membrane threshold potential Hyperpolarized cell membrane
D. Hypopolarized cell membrane potential E. Hyperactive neuromuscular reflexes
146. Which of the following BEST describes glucose handling by the kidney?
A. Transport is blocked by aldosterone. B. Transport occurs in exchange for H'. C. Reabsorption is largest in the distal
tubule. D. Transport is primarily by active
secretion into the tubular fluid.
@ Transport from the lumen of the -9 nephron depends upon ~ a ' transport.
147. Which of the following represents the sensory organs concerned with maintenance of skeletal muscle tonus?
Sarcomeres B. Muscle spindles C Gamma efferents D. Pacinian corpuscles E. Golgi tendon orsdns
148. A 0.9-percent s0lutlOn of sod~um chloride 1s isotonic wlth blood because
A. blood contains 0.9 percent NaCI. B. the erythrocyte is not permeable to
NaCI. C. has the same surface tension as
blood it exhib~ts the same- as blood.
E. it has the same salt concentration as b\ood.
149. Which of the following statements BEST describes infants with phenylketonuria7
A. Can synthesize tyrosine. B. Cannot,synthesize phenylalanine C. Have to eat a diet high in
phenylalanine. Have a deficiency of the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase.
? 50. Dopamine 1s synthesized in two steps from which of the following compounds?
Choline $ rosined Tryptophan
D. Acetyl CoA E. Arachidonic acid
151. Which of the follc.rling staten,r:nts BEST describes hydroxyapatite?
A. Has an amphiphilic surface. B. Contains 12 ions per unit cell. C. Solubility decreases as [HI] increases.
As found in bone and enamel contams no ion substitutions. Has a higher solubility product constant than fluoroapatite.
Reduced renal blood flow can cause hypertension by which of the following? /?
Release of renin Reflex vasoconstriction
C. Retent~on of potassium In blood D. Increaser! octput of e1,ivephrine
153. The amino acid inserted ~n a polypept~de chain 159. Which of the following functional groclp
dur~ng protein synthesis is determined by a are essential for a substance lo act as ; complementary relationship between mRNA amphipathic (amphiphilic) molecule? and
DNA. tRNA. amino acids.
n ribosomal RNA
Polar, nonpolar Polar, negatively charged Nonpolar, positively charged
D. Cyclic, hydrophil~c E. Branched, hydrophlllc
154. A dehydrated dental patient, as a result of 160. Which of the following circumstances v. severe vomiting following over-use of a to produce edema? narcotic analgesic, might present with whlch of the following symptoms? G lncreased tissue oncotlc pressu
lncreased plasma oncotlc press @ An increased pulse rate C. ',creased tissue hydrostat~c pre
B. An increased blood pressure D. Decreased plasma hydrostatic C. Facial edema pressure D. Distended neck veins E. Decreased venous pressure E. Desire to constantly urinate
161. Which of the following is the major stor 155. Spasticity is BEST characterized by which of form of carbohydrates in the liver?
the following? A. Dextran
A. Failure of recruitment Depressed stretch reflexes Exaggerated stretch reflexes
D. Presence of fibrillary contractions
-- Lcl
collagen?
A soluble fiber of ground substance & The most abundant protein in the body C. A fibrous protein with a high content of
tryptophan D. A globular protein with a high content of
hydroxyproline
157. Destruction of the left spinocerebellar tract at T2 would be expected to eliminate positional sense on the
A. right side of the body above T2 B. right side of the body below T2.
left side of the body above T2. @ left side of the body below T2.
158. Which of the following substances is responsible for initiating cross-bridge cycllng in smooth muscle?
Myosin ATPase Myosin kinase
C. Myosin reductase D. Myosin phosphatase
B. Glucose Amylose Glycogen
E. Fructose
measured clinically as a predictor of glomerular filtration rate?
A. Renin B. lnulin
Fructose Creatinine
E. Angiotensin
163. Which of the following fatty acids has t greatest number of double bonds?
A. Oleic 8. Stearic
Palmitic & Arachidonic
164. Which of the following is a component coenzyme required for a transaminal~c process?
A. Niacin Thiamine Folic acid Pyr~doxine Riboflavin
176. Tapping on the slde of the face elicits a conlraction of the masseler muscle. T h ~ s IS an example of which of the following kinds of reflex?
Stretch 8. Polysynaptic C. Cross extensor D Withdrawal E. Inverse stretch
177. Thyroid secretion is stimulated by which of the followinn?
A. Hypoxia 8. Propylthiouracil C. Exogenous thyroid hormone
High serum iodide concentration & Prolonged exposure to a cold environment
178. A dental patient is a Type I diabetic and is scheduled for extractions. Which of the following potential clinical complications should MOST concern the dentist?
A. Excessive bleeding Frequent desire to urinate & Increased potential for infection
D. Inability to obtain anesthesia E. Probability of seizure
179. Sodium permeability (conductance) of an axon membrane is maximal during the
A. negative after-potential. positive after-potential. & ascending limb of the action potential.
D. descending limb of the action potential.
180. The conversion of a circulating vitamin D metabolite to its MOST active form takes place in the
A. bone.
intestinal mucosa
181. Voluntary overventilation of lungs r e s ~ ~ l t s in which of the following?
Decreased hydrogen ion concentratlr in blood
B. lncreased hydrogen ion concentrallo in blood
C. Marked Increase ln pulmonary uplakt of oxygen
D. lncreased oxygen carrylng capac~t) c venous blood
E. Decreased oxygen concentrat~on In arterial blood
182. Which of the following rned~ates d~ssolut~ori the f~brin clot during vessel repa~r'/
Plasmin Factor ll (thrombin) Factor Ill (tissue thromboplastin)
D. Factor Xlll (fibrin stabilizing factor)
183. Which of the following represents the compound that contains an active (lab~le) methyl group?
A. Serine B. Creatine
S-adenosvl meth~onine . 5,10-methylene tetrahydrofolate
184. Production of phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase is stimulated by
(g z;;;;;,, C. aldosterone. C . somat~tropin.
185. Which of the following molecules is commo NAD' and FAD?
Arginine $ Adenine C. Aspartic acid 0. Asparagine E. Alan~ne
186. Oxytocin is responsible for which of the following actions?
A. Regulating blood calcium levels B. Preventing formation of golters
Preventing release of insul~n Causing contract~ons of uterine srnl muscle during labor
187. Which of the following represents the pressure change when the diaphragm and external ~ntercostal rnuscles simultaneously contract?
A. Alveolar volume decreases
6 Alveolar pressure increases lntrapleural pressure decreases lntrapleural pressure increases
188. Sucrose will MOST directly contribute to the a d d ~ t ~ o n of wh~ch of the following to dental plaque?
A. Mucins Calcium ions & Polysaccharides
D. Salivary protein E. Glycolytic enzymes
189. Reverse transcri~tase is used in vitro to make
A. tRNA from cDNA. 8. rRNA from cDNA. C. cDNA from rRNA. ,R, mRNA from cDNA. @ cDNA from mRNA.
190. The primary defect in myopia is related to which of the following?
-
A. Unequal curvature of refracting material of the cornea Eyeball length relative to refractive power of the lens
C . Deficiency of vitamin A for conversion to rhodopsin
D. Loss of elasticity of crystalline lens E. Detachment of the retina
191. The basic principles for sequencing DNA by the Sanger procedure derive from which of the following processes?
@ Translation B. Transcri~tion C. ~ e ~ l i c a t i o n D. Reverse Transcription
192. Which of the following represents a bleeding disorder due to lack of Factor VIII?
Thrombosis & Hemophilia A C. Thrombocytopenia D. Von Willebrand disease
193. Each of the following condlt~ons alters the rate of product formation by an enzyme EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
A. pH 8 . Temperature
Ionic strength & lsoelectric po~nt E. Substrate concp-' -',on
194. Polypeptide hormones generally exert the11 effect by binding to whlch of the follow~ng?
A. lntracellular receptors and stimulating biotein synthesis
B. Receptors on the cell membrane and stimulating protein synthesis
C. lntracellular receptors and altering the specific activity of certain enzymes Receptors on the cell membrane and altering the specific activity of certain enzymes
195. A dental patient with left heart failure might show signs of dyspnea when placed in the supine position for which of the following reasons'
A. Edema caused by excessive pulmonary capillary oncotic pressure
B. Edema caused by excessive systemic capillary oncotic pressure Edema caused by excessive pulmonary capillary hydrostatic pressure
D. Edema caused by excessive systemic capillary hydrostatic pressure
E. Ineffective pulmonary lymphatic function
196. In evaluating an EKG of a patient, it was observed the PR interval was increased. This observation represents
A. slow conduction of impulses through the S-A node.
B. rapid conduction of impulses through the ventricle.
@ slow conduction of impulses through the A-V node.
D, rapid conduction of impulses through the atria.
E. slow repolarizat~on of the atria
1. Which of the following represents the MOST 6. Each of the following is necessary for viral reliable criterion for pathogenicity of antigen recognition by CD4' T-helper cells staphylococci? EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
@ Hemolysis 6. Pigment production C. Coagulase production D. Mannitol fermentation E. Liquefaction of gelatin
2. Which of the following forms of bacterial gene transfer is the LEASTsusceptible to DNase and does NOT require ce:'-to-cell contact?
A. Transition 6. Conjugation 0 Transduction D. Transformation
A. Viral replication in host cells 6. Cleavage of viral proteins into small
peptides C. Transport of viral peptides to a cell surface
by MHC Class II molecules D. Binding of the T cell's TCR to a MHC Clas
II bound viral peptide Internalization of the virus (or viral protein) by an antigen presenting cell
7. Which of the following produces a bacterial toxi that attaches to presynaptic nerves and blocks the release of acetylcholine?
A. Helicobacter pylon Closfridium djfticile
&) Clostridium botulinum 0. Staphylococcus aureus E. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
3. Which of the following organisms is acid-fast'?
Mycobactenurn avium 9 Treponems pallidurn C. Borreliarecurrentis 8. Which of the following is the PRIMARY site of z D. Staphylococcus aureus E. Streptococcus pneumoniae
4. Which of the following conditions is characterized by a reduction in size and a condensation of nuclear material?
@ Pyknosis 8. Apoptosis C. Karyolysis 0. Hypoplasia E. Karyorrhexis
5. An important early event in the chemotactic process is cellular adherence to vascular endothelium. The upregulation of endothelial adhesion molecules (ICAM-1 and VCAM-1) is in part a response to
@ cytokine stimulation. 8. lysozyme production. C. mast cell degranulation. D. antibody binding to endothelial Fc
receptors. E. protease inhibition Sy serua
anti-proteases.
Ghon complex? -
A. Trachea and bronchus Parenchyma of the lower lobes & Parenchyma of the upper lobes
D. Trachea and hilar lymph nodes E. Subpleural parenchyma and hilar lymph
nodes
9. Bactericl iipopc:ysaccharide contains each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
A. Lipid A 8. Teichoic acid C. Core polysaccharide
0-specific side chain & Keto-deoxy-octanoate
10. Which of the following is an example of naturally-acquired passive immunity in human.
A. Tetanus immunization B. Injection of gamma globulin a Placental transfer of antibody D. Antibody produced during recovery from
measles
23. Which of the following is characterized by individual, blister-like lesions affecting specific dermatomes and usually causing intense, burning pain?
A. Variola Measles & Herpes zoster
D. Infectious mononucleosis E. Hand-foot-and-mouth disease
24. Collagen degradation that is observed in chronic periodontal disease can result directly from the action of collagenase enzymes of oral microbial origin. Such enzymes have been demonstrated as component systems of
Porphyroplonas species. ' $ Lepthothrix bucca,js. C. Entamoelja gingivalis. D. Enterococcus faecalis. E. Veillonellaspecies.
25. Hepatitis C virus infection is MOSTofien transmitted through
A. sexual contact. B. oral secretions.
blood transfusions. the fecai-oral route.
E. respiratory droplets.
26. The microflora of the healthy gingival sulcus is predominantly
A. spirochetes and yeasts. B. gram-positive facultative rods and
spirochetes. C. gram-positive facultative cocci and
filamentous bacteria. @ gram-negative anaerobic rods and
fusobacteria. E. gram-negative anaerobic cocci and gram-
positive facultative cocci.
27. lrnmunologic injury that involves the activation of complement as an important event in producing damage to tissue is found in which of the following reactions?
A. Delayed type hypersensitivity B Anaphylactic type hypersensitivity
@ Immune-complex mediated hypersensitivity C. .&.ntibod;-dependent cell-modiated
cytotoxicity
28. Which of the following represents the MOST numerous leukocytes found in gingival crevicular fluid?
'Q Monocytes 6. Neutrophils C. Plasma cells D. 8-lymphocytes E. T-lymphocytes
29. Which of the following groups of cells are characteristic of a chronic inflammatory process?
A. Neutrophils, mast cells, and basophils B. Neutrophils, eosinophils, and histiocytes
@ Lymphocytes, plasma cells. and macrophages
D. Basophils, eosinophils, and Reed- Stemberg cells
E. Histiocytes, Reed-Sternberg cells, and mast cells
30. Which unique aspect of cariogenic strains of Streptococcus mutans sets them apart from other oral acidogenic organisms?
Tendency to form chains Secretion of proteolytic enzymes Extracellular polysaccharide made from glucose Formation of water insoluble glucans from sucrose Four equivalents of acid formed per mole of glucose
31. Which of the following is chiefly an extravascular event?
A. Stasis H yperemia Chemotaxis
D. Margination E. Pavementing
32. Spontaneous gingival bleeding seen in acute leukemia is MOST likely a result of which of the following?
Thrombocytopenia Q von Willebrand disease C. Hypoprothrombinernie u. Vascular fragility E. Factor VII deficiency
45. A bone lesion with radiopaque structures radiating from the periphery suggests which of the following?
A. Osteosarcoma Osboblastoma Multiple myeloma
D. Giant cell tumor E. Osteitis deformans
46. A virus associated with the induction of cervical carcinoma is which of the following?
A. Adenovirus B. C-type virus C. Varicella zoster virus
Epstein-Bar virus E. Human papillomavirus 6
47. Which of the following types of necrosis is particularly characteristic of pyogenic infections?
Q Caseous B. Gummatous C. Coagulative D. Liquefactive E. Enzymatic fat
4 4 h
associated with Epstein-Barr virus?
T-cell lymphoma Kaposi's sarcoma Hepatocellular carcinoma Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
E. Squamous cell carcinoma of the uterine cervix
49. Which of the following conditions might be an initial manifestation of early, acute HIV infection?
A. Kaposi's sarcoma 8. Wasting syndrome C. Oral hairy leukoplakia
Mononucleosis-like syndrome ~neumocystis cannii pneumonia
50. Rough pneumococci grown in the presence of DNA from dead smooth pneumococci develop capsules. This is an example of bacterial
A. mutation. B. dominance. C. conjugation.
transduction. transformation.
51. Each of the following denotes a malignant neoplasm EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
($ Adenoma Hepatoma
C. Lymphoma D. Melanoma E. Seminoma
52. Secondary syphilis is characterized by each of the following EXCEPTone. Which one is this EXCEPTION7
A. Cutaneous lesions Positive VDRL test Development of a gumma
D. Mucous membrane lesions E. Presence of spirochetes in lesions
53. Most cases of encephalitis are caused by which of the following?
A. Fungi @ Viruses C. Protozoa v. Bxtena E. Rickettsia
54. Primary tissue transplants, such as allogeneic skin, kidney or heart, are MOST commonly rejected because of
A. induction of armed host macrophages. B. immediate hypersensitivity ritactions. C. humoral immune responses to cell-surface
alloantigens.
@ cell-mediated immune responses to cell- surface alloantigens.
E. humoral and cell-mediated responses to intracellular tissue-specific antigens.
55. An 18-year-old male patient sustains a compound fracture of the femur. Twenty-four hours later the fragments are manipulated in order to better align before splinting. The patient dies suddenty. The most likely reason for his sudden death is
A. hypovolemic shock. myocardial infarction. 6 fat embolism.
D. pulmonary thromboem~o!ism. E. air embolism.
56. Prevotella intermedia is first detectable in the oral cavity
A. at birth. by adolescence.
. in the presence of dental caries. D. immediately before periodontal disease
appears. E. long after periodontal disease appears.
57. A patient has oral candidiasis but otherwise is in good health. Which of the following drugs is the BEST choice for treating this patient?
@ Nystatin 8. Vancomycin C. Penicillin D. Tetracycline E. Streptomycin
58. The newly formed. highly vascularized connective tissue associated with inflammation is known as which of the following?
A. Scar B. Angioma C. Granuloma D. Purulent exudate
@ Granulation tissue
59. Vasodilation and increased vasopermeability lasting f?r several days in an area of inflammati?n indicate which of the following?
A. Thrombosis B. Release of bradykinin C. Hageman factor activation
Formation of granulation tissue Endothelial cell damage and disruption
60. A patient with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus presents with nasal obstruction, proptosis, and palatal perforation. These clinical findings are MOSTconsistent with which of the following?
A. Candidiasis @ Mucormycosis C. Blastomycosis D. Histoplasmosis E. Coccidioidomyccsis
61. Certain staphylococci. Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Escherichia coli and streptococci share as a property the fact that they
A. are gram-positive. B, are strict anaerobes. C. fail to ferment glucose.
do not grow on nutrient agar. are common in hospital-acquired infections.
62. B-cell immunodeficiency can be treated with injections of
A. activated complement components. 6. T-helper cell adjuvants. C. natural killer cells.
gamma+lobulin.
63. Which of the following cells are INCREASED in number in the bloodstream in the case of allergy or parasitic infection?
A. . Basophils Eosinophils Neutmphils
D. Atypical lymphocytes E. Nucleated erythrocytes
- 1 U-t .
sterilization method for a heat-labile item to be used in a surgical procedure?
Dry heat Autoclaving
C. Ethylene oxide D. Saturated chemical vapor E. Immersion in chemical sterilant
65. The MOST effective means of preventing disease transmission in the dental office is based on which of the following concepts?
A. Asepsis B. Disinfection @ Sterilization D. Barrier techniques E. Universal precautions
66. Which of the following conditions is diagnosed by karyotyping?
A. Gout B. Cystic fibrosis
Tay-Sach disease Neurofibromatosis Turnets syndrome
99. Each of the following is a feature of acute pancreatitis EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTIOW
Fibrosis Hemorrhage
C. lnflammatibn D. Fat necrosis E. Parenchymal necrosis
100. Each of the following statements concerning malignant hypertension is correct EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTIOK!
@ Patients will live a normal life span if untreated.
B. Patients have markedly elevated levels of plasma renin.
C. Fatients are generally younger than those with benign hypertension.
D. The corresponding renal lesion is known as malignant nephrosclerosis.
E. It may arise de novo or appear -- -
hypertension.
11
- - - . - - -;--- nantxl Association Joint Commission on National Denlal Examinations All rinh'c -^"^"""
~ l l test i tems refer to permanent teeth unless "primary" is specified.
AII test i tems relating to occlusion refer to Class I canine and molar relationship unless otherwise specified. Terms such as "normal" or "ideal" are synonymous with the above definition.
101. The maxillary canine is MOST likely to €A,
which of the following anomalies? & Agenesis A dwarfed root A lingual tubercle A peg crown form
E. Root bifurcation
102. In the intercuspal position, the distal marginal ridge of a maxillary first premolar is in contact with which of the following mandibular structures?
A. The distal cusp ridge of the facial cusp on a first premolar
@ The mesial cusp ridge of the facial cusp . on a second premolar
C. The distal cusp ridge of the facial cusp on a second premolar
D. The mesial cusp ridge-of the lingual cusp on a second premolar
E. The mesial cusp ridge of a canine
103. In an ideal intercuspal position, the distoincisal aspcct of a mandibular central incisor opposes which structure of which maxillary incisof?
A. Lingual fossa of a lateral B. Mesial marginal ridge of a lateral C. Distal marginal ridge of a central
Mesial marginal ridge of a central & Lingual fossa of a central
104. The erupted dentition of a normally developed 7-year-old child usually consists of
A. 8 primary and 8 permanent teeth. B. 10 primary and 10 permanent teeth.
12 primary and 8 permanent teeth. 18 primary and 6 permanent teeth. 20 primary teeth.
105. Which of the following represents the tooth in the primary dentition that normally erupts immediately after the maxillary lateral incisor?
A. Mandibular lateral incisor B. Mandibular canine
Maxillary canine 4 Maxillary first molar Mandibular first molar
106. The mandibular molars normally exhibit the same number of root branches as which of the following?
Max~llary first premolars B. Maxillary second premolars C. Mandibular first premolars D. Mandibular second premolars E. Maxillary molars
107. Which of the following is normally exhibited by maxillary second premolars?
A. Two roots B. A mesial concavity of the crown C. A facial crown contour that is greatly
\ inclined to the lingual
- . - D. A lingual height of contour in the cervical third of the crown
@ A crown that is wider faciolingually thz- mesiodistally
108. Which of the following primary teeth is MOST likely to have an oblique ridge?
A. Maxllaty canine Maxillary first molar Maxillary second molark- Mandibular first molar Mandibular second molar
109. The GREATEST influence of Bennett movement is potentially on the . ,.
A. posterior teeth during prottISi0n. B. posterior teeth in the retruded contact
position. C. posterior teeth during maximum
intercuspation.
@ working side teeth during lateal excursion. .
110. During endodontic therapy, one will usually find two pulp canals in which of the following?
A. Mandibular canine 5. Distofacial root of a maxillary molar
Distal root of a mandibular first molar Mesial root of a mandibular first molar Lingual root of a maxillary first molar
111. Which of the following represents the developmental groove between the distofacial cusp and the distal cusp of a mandibular first molar'?
A. Facial Distal
Mesiofa.cial
112. Which of the foliowing anatomic structures effectively divides the temporomandibular joint into two separately functioning compartments?
@ Disc 0. - Capsule C. Condylar head D. Glenoid fossa E. Articular eminence
11 3. Which of the following are notable differences between primary and permanent dentitions?
A. Cervical ridges of permanent teeth a:a more pronounced:
8. Crowns of primary incisors are longer compared with mesiodistal diameters.
%C. Root trunks of primary teeth are less pronounced.
@, Roots of pemanent teeth are longer . and slimmer.
11 4. In the intercuspal position, which of the following anterior teeth has the potential of contacting both anterior and posterior - .- - antagonists?
A. Maxillary lateral incisor Mandibular lateral incisor Maxillary canine Mandibular canine
11 5. During an endodontic procedure on Tooth #21. clinical symptoms lead the dentist to suspect the presence of a second pulp canal. Which direction is the MOST likely location for the suspected canal?
A. Facial Distal Lingual
D. Mesial
11 6. When compared to the maxillary central incisor, the maxillary lateral incisor normally has a root which
A. is more blunt at its apex. 8. tapers less toward the apex. C. is more triangular shaped in cross
section at the neck.
@ is relatively longer in relation to its incisogingival crown length.
117. On the crown of the mandibular canine, the height of contour of the labial surface is normally located in the same horizontal third as which of the following?
Q Cingulum 8. Labial developmental depressions C. Mesial contact area of the same tooth D. Distal contact area of the same tooth E. Mesial height of contour of the
maxillary canine
118. Which of the following is a distinguishing characteristic of a mandibular lateral incisor?
@ The incisal edge follows the arch curvature in relation to the faciolingual axis.
8. The incisal edge IS perpendicular to the faciolingual axis.
C. The cervical line curvature is greater distally than mesially.
- ' D The incisal edge is lingual to the root bisector.
E. The mesiodistal dimension of the facial surface is narrower than that of a mandibular central incisor.
11 9. Which of the following features is found on a maxillary first premolar but not on a maxillary second prewolaf?
-- A. A single pulp canal
A short central groove @ A long central groove A short lingual cusp
120. In a normal occlusion, the distolingual cusp of a maxillary second molar occludes with which of the following molars?
A. Central fossa of a mandibular second 6. Central fossa of a mandibular third C. Marginal ridges of a mandibular first
and a mandibular second
@ Marginal ridges of a mandibular second and a mandibular third
E. Mesial fossa of a mandibular third
121. Which of the following muscles has an important influence on the function of the mandible, although it is not generally considered a muscle of mastication?
A. Omohyoid 6. Geniohyoid C. Mylohyoid D. Digastric E. Sternocleidomastoid
122. When examining a patient for the first time, the dentist notices that there is an abnormally wide mandibular incisor. On further examination, only three mandibular incisors, including the abnormally wide one, are.evident. This condition is BEST described as which of the following?
Mesiodens $ Fusion Concrescence
D. ' Gemination E. Dilaceration
123. Which of the fol!swing anatomic features of a maxillary late~al inc ix r will MGST likely complicate root planing?
Root convexity Mesial concavity Distolingual groove
D. Root bifurcation E. Extreme distal cervical line curvature
124. The contact areas of anterior teeth are incisal to the middle thirds in each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION!
Distal contact of the maxillary canine B. Mesial contact of the maxillary canine C. Mesial contact of the maxillary lateral
incisor D. Mesial contact of the mandibular lateral
incisor E. Distal con:acl of the mandibl~lar lateral
incisor
125. In a normal Class I relationship, in which of the following ways is each maxillary posterior tooth positioned in relation to its corresponding mandibular tooth?
End to end More facially and distally More facially and mesially
D. More linguaily and distally E. More lingually and mesially
126. Each of the following factors affects heights of cusps and depths of fossae on restorations EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION!
A. Curve of Spee 6. Intercondylar distance C. Vertical overlap of anterior teeth D. Horizontal overlap of anterior teeth E. Steepness of the articular eminence
127. On which surface would one expect to see the first evidence of resorption on the root of a primary incisor?
Facial @ Lingual Mesial
D. ' Distal
128. When viewing mandibular border movements in the frontal plane, which number in the illustration below represents the postural position?
129. In a protrusive movement, the contacting surfaces of the incisors are
A. the lingual of the mandibular and the incisal edge of the maxillary.
0. the facial of the maxillary and the incisal edge of the mandibular.
@ the lingual of the maxillary and the incisal edge of the mandibular.
Dr the facial of the mandibular and the incisal edge of the maxillary.
130. Which of the following represents the structure on the Grown of a maxillary canine that is located immediately to the mesial of the rnesiolingual fossa?
Lingual ridge Mesial marginal ridge Distal marginal ridge
D. Distolinal~al fossa E. Mesial developmental groove
131. Which of the following muscles of mastication is primarily responsible for synchronizing the movement of the condyle and the articular disc?
A. Masseter 6. Ternporalis
Medial pterygoid Lateral pterygoid
132. When compared to a maxillary first molar, the roots of a maxillary second molar
A. are longer. 0. are more divergent. C. are fewer in number.
have less potential for fusion. & are greater in distal inclination.
133. When compared to the primay mandibular first molar, the primay mandibular second molar norrrially exhibits a GREATER number of which of the following'?
A. Oblique ridges Roots @ Cusps Cervical ridges
E. Trans.rerse ridcas
134. Where is the distal contact area of a maxillary canine usually located? a
In the middle third 8. In the incisal third C. In the cervical third D. At the junction of the incisal and middle
thirds
135. Regarding actions of the TMJ, rotation of the condyle primarily occurs in which of the following joint spaces?
A. posterior
136. ~ h i c h ' o f the following describes the contact relationship between a maxillary central incisor and a maxillary lateral incisor?
@ Contact is offset to the lingual. Contact is centered incisocervically.
C. Lingual embrasure is larger than the facial embrasure.
D. lncisal embrasure is the largest of all the embrasures.
137. Which of the following describes the roots of the mandibular first premolars? & Often bifurcated
Flattened faciolingually Broader facially than lingually Frequently sharply curved distally
138. The presence of inamelons in a 10-year-old patient suggests which of the following conditions?
A. Fluorosis
& Malnutrition Malformation Anterior open bite Retained primary teeth
139. In a normal occlusion, the lingual cusp of the maxillary second premolar occludes with which fossa of which mandibular tooth?
Tooth - Fossa
0 Second premolar Distal B. Second oremolar Mesial C. First moiar Central D. First molar Mesial
140. Which of the following teeth is MOST likely to exhibit 3 pulp canals?
Tooth #4
D. . Tooth #27
141. On which of the following surfaces of permanent teeth is pit and fissure caries MOST likely to occur?
Facial surfaces of maxillary first molars Lingual surfaces of maxillary first molars
C. Facial surfaces of mandibular first premolars
D. Lingual surfaces of mandibular first molars
E. Proximal surfaces of mandibular incisors
142. Moving the mandible from a maximum intercuspal position to a retruded contact position usually results in
8 increased occlusal vertical dimension. decreased occlusal vertical dimension.
C. decreased horizontal overlap: D. increased vertical' overlap. E. increased rest position.
143. The facial cusp tip of a mandibular second premolar has the potential to contact which of the following maxillary cuspal inclines in a protrusive movement?
@ Distofacial of first premolar B. Mesiofacial of second premolar C. Distofacial of second prernolur D. Mesiofacial of first molar E. Distofacial of first molar
144. When e&rnining the normal mandibular arch from a sagittal view, what inclination of the teeth can be observed?
A. Anterior teeth are distally inclined; posterior teeth are mesially inclined.
8. Both anterior and posterior teeth are distally inclined.
@ Both anterior and posterior teeth are mesially inclined.
D. Anterior teeth are mesially inclined; posterior teeth are distally inclined.
E. Anterior and posterior teeth are straight.
145. Which of the following represents the incisor crown for which, from the facial aspect, it is MOST difficult to distinguish right from left?
A. Maxillary central 8. Maxillary lateral
Mandibular central & Mandibular lateral
146. A mandibular first molar usually has how many roots and canals?
Roots Canals ' I
Two Three Two
D. Three Three
147. Which of the following roots of teeth would MORE frequently contain a single root canal?
Maxillary incisors Mandibular incisors
C. Maxillary first premolars D. Mesiobucca: root, maxillary molars E. Mesial root, mandibular molars
148. A linguogingival groove is MOST likely to be present on the crown of which of the following incisors?
A. Maxillary central B. Maxillary lateral C. Mandibular central D. Mandibular lateral
149. Each of the following muscles elevates the mandible U(CEPTone. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
A. Temporalis Masseter 6 Medial pterygoid Lateral pterygoid
150. In a normal occlusion, the lingual cusps of the mandibular teeth oppose which landmark of the maxillary dentition?
A. Lingual groovg and/or central fossae B. Lingual grooves and/or marginal ridges C. Lingual grooves and/or occlusal
embrasures Lingual grooves andor lingual @ embrasures
151. The central groove of a maxillary molar crosses the oblique ridge to connect which of the following pits?
A. Distal and distofacial 6. Central and distofacial
Q Central and facial Central and distal Central and lingual
152. In a faciolingual section of the pulp chamber. two pulp horns are normally visible in specimens of which of the following teeth?
A. Maxillary incisors 8. Mandibular incisors C. Maxillary canines
Mandibular canines Maxillary premolars
7 -
153. Which of the following mandibular mola~ proximal crown surfaces normally exhibits the LARGEST size?
@ Mesial of the first Distal of the first
C. Mesial of the second D. Distal of the second E. Mesial of the third
154. In primary first molars, which portion of the crown is shorter occlusogingivally?
A. Mesial 6. Distal C. Midfacial 3. :didlingual
155. Wqch of the following developmental grooves is a distinguishing characteristic of the maxillary first premolar?
A. Central
& Distofacial Mesiolingual Mesial marginal
156. Which primary molar has a crown resembling a permanent premolar, but the root form is typical of a permanent molar?
@ Maxilary first Maxillary second
C. Mandibular first D. Mandibular second
157. On the crown of a mandibular first premolar, which of the following grooves extends acros, the marginal ridge and onto the mesial surface?
A. Mesial 6. Mesial marginal C. Mesiofacial triangular
6 Mesiolingual triangular Mesiolingual developmental
158. Which of the following ridgestrepresents the linear elevation that extends from the distoincisal angle to the cingulum?
A. Distal 8. Lingual
Cervical Distolingual
. Distal marginal
159. When Tooth #9 is in lingual crossbite, which the following would BEST indicate the locatic of facets due to attrition?
A. Linguoincisal #9, labiolingual#23 an( #24
6. -1inguoincisal #9, linguoincisal #24 ar #25 Labioincisal#9, linguoincisal #23 an( #24
D. Labioincisal#9, labioincisal #24 and #25
160. Which of the following arc the LAST prima.; teeth to erupt?
A. Maxillary canines 6. Mandibular canines
Mandibular first molars Maxillary second molars Mandibular second molars
161. In a normal occlusion, a mediotrusive (non- working) interference can occur between which of the following cusps?
@ Maxillary and mandibular supportin( Maxillary and mandibular guiding
C. Maxillary guiding and mandibular supporting
D. Maxillary SI I >porting and mandibula guiding
173. Which of the following represents the cusp that is never present on the crown of a maxillary second or third molar?
A. Mesiofacial B. Mesiolingual C. Distofacial
Distolingual Carabelli
174. The occlusal table of a mandibular first molar normally exhibits which of the following ridges?
A. 2 oblique 6. 4 marginal C. 3 transverse
4 triangular s triangular
175. Which of the'following mandibular movements is indicated in the illustration below?
Protrusive Right laterai, laterctusive (working) side
C. Left lateral, laterotrusive (working) side 0. Right lateral, mediotrusive
(non-working) side E. Left lateral, mediotrusive (non-working)
side
176. Each of the following root surfaces on a mandibular first molar normally exhibits a longitudinal groove EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
Surface Root
A. Mesial Mesial 6. Distal Mesial
Mesial Distal ($ Distal Distal
177. In an ideal intercuspal position, the distofacial cusp of the mandibular first molar contacts which structure of which maxillary molar(s)?
Maxillarv molar(sl Structure
First Central fossa First FAesial fossa First Distal fossa First and second Occlusal
embrasure %
Second and third Occlusal embrasure
178. Which of the following represents the MOST powerful muscle of mastication?
C. Geniohyoid 0 . Lateral pterygoid E. Sternocleidomastoid
179. Which of the following primary teeth has a facial cervical ridge so distinctly prominent t make it a unique tooth?
A. Maxillary central incisor 6. Mandibular canine 4 Maxillary canine
Mandibular first molar Maxillary second molar
180. Bilateral contraction of which of the followi~ muscles acts to protrude the mandible?
A. Masseter & Temparalis Medial pterygoid Lateral pterygoid Anterior digastric
181. The mesial contact of a mandibular canin located in (at) the
middigthird. incisal third. cervical third.
D. junction of the incisal and middle E. junction of the middle and cervica
thirds.
182. The muscle fibers that extend into the lingual frenum are from which of the following muscles?
A. Mylohyoid 13. Geniohyoid
& Hyoglossus Styloglossus Genioglossus
183. Which of the following illustrations represents the facial view of a mandibular right canine?
184. The oblique ridge of the maxillary molars extends between which two cusps?
A. Mesiofacial and distofacial
(3 Mesiolingual and distolingual Mesiolingual and distofacial Mesiofacial and mesiolingual
E. !*?esiofacial and distolingual
185. Which of the following represents the root branch qf the mandibular molars which is normally the SHORTEST in length?
A. Mesial of the first & Distal of the first Mesial of the second Distal of the second
186. Which premolar frequently has only one pulp horn?
Maxillary first & Mandibular first Maxillary second
0. Mandibular second
187. A primary mandibular second molar differs from a permanent mandibular first molar in tha it
A. is darker in color. 8. - is larger in size. C. has four cusps.
has a larger occlusal surface. has roots that are more divergent.
188. On the crown of the mandibular first molar, the facial cusp ridge of the ML cusp originates at the cusp tip and normally termmates at which of the following?
Lingual groove &) Halfway down the facial surface Halfway down the lingual surface
D. Mesial portion of the central groove E. Mesiolinguo-occlusal point angle area
189. In a protrusive movement, the maxillary left central incisor can potentially come in contact with which of the following mandibular teeth?
#22 and #23 #23 and #24 #24and#25
D. #25 and #26 E. #26 and #27
190. Which of the following statements BEST describes the function of the ligaments associated with the TMJ? They serve to
inhibit the normal masticatory cycle. & protect s~rrmunding and supponing tissues from damages.
C. assist musculature in producing movement
D. establish normal resting position. E. dictate intercuspal position of the
mandible.
191. The arrow on the illustration below represents the path taken by the
A. distolingual cusp of a first molar. mesiofacial cusp of a second molar. mesiblingual cusp of a second molar. distofacial cusp of a second molar.
E. distolingual cusp of a second molar.
192. The distolingual cusp of the right mandibular first molar is fractured by excessive contact with the opposing maxillary molar during right lateral excursion. Which of the following is the MOST likely location of the interference?
A. Lingual surface of a maxillary lingual cusp
9. Facial surface of a maxillary lingual cusp Facial surface of a maxillary facial cusp & Lingual surface of a maxillar/ facial cusp
E. Occlusal table of the maxillary molar
193. The crown of the maxillary canine normally exhibits
a lingual pit. & a lingual ridge. a linguogingival groove.
D. a linguogingival fissure. E. lingual developmental depressions.
194. Which of the following teeth has its mesial marginal ridge located more cervically than its distal marginal ridge?
@ Mandibular first premolar 8. Maillary first premolar C. Maxillary first molar D. Primary mandibular first molar E. Mandibular second molar
195. In a three-cusped mandibular second premolar, which of the following correctly arranges the cusps from LARGEST to SMALLESl?
A. Lingual, mesiofacial, distofacial Lingual, distofacial, mesiofacial Facial, rnesiolingual, distolingual Facial, distolingual, mesiolin~..
196. An extruded mandibular right third molar (maxillary third molar extracted) .will MOST often impede which mandibular movement?
Protrusive B. Retrusive C. Right lateral D. Left lateral
197. When viewed from the incisal aspect, each of the following features of an incisor is visible EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? & Cingulum
Lingual fossa Cervical line Marginal ridges
E. Mesiofacial developmental depression
198. When viewed sagitally, which of the following teeth have their long axes at an angle LEAST perpendicular to the occlusal plane?
A. Maxjllary incisors 8. Mandibular canines C. Mandibular premolars
6 Maxillary premolars Mandibular first molars
199. The occlusal view of a normal dental arch segment is shown below. The arrow points to which of the following mandibular teeth?
Primary right first molar Primary left first molar
C. Permanent right first premolar D. Permanent left second premolar
200. Which of the following teeth is wider faciolingually than mesiodista~l~?
Mandibular first premolar Maxillary first molar
C. ~andibular first molar D. Mandibular second molar
