UPKAR PRAKASHAN, AGRA–2

ByDr. Lal & Jain

Revised & Enlarged Edition

2016

[ For the Post of Inspector (Income-Tax), Inspector (Central Excise),Inspector (Preventive Officer), Inspector (Examiner), Assistant, Sub-Inspector (CBI), Inspector of Posts, Assistant Enforcement Officer,Inspector (CBN)/Sub-Inspector (CBN), Divisional Accountant,Accountant, Junior Accountant and Accountant, Auditors,Statistical Investigator GR.II, Tax Assistant, Compiler, UDCs. ]

© Publishers

Publishers

UPKAR PRAKASHAN(An ISO 9001 : 2000 Company)

2/11A, Swadeshi Bima Nagar, AGRA–282 002Phone : 4053333, 2530966, 2531101Fax : (0562) 4053330, 4031570E-mail : care@upkar.in, Website : www.upkar.in

Branch Offices :4845, Ansari Road, Daryaganj,New Delhi—110 002Phone : 011–23251844/66

Pirmohani Chowk,Kadamkuan,Patna—800 003Phone : 0612–2673340

1-8-1/B, R.R. Complex (Near SundaraiahPark, Adjacent to Manasa Enclave Gate),Bagh Lingampally,Hyderabad—500 044 (A.P.)Phone : 040–66753330

28, Chowdhury Lane, ShyamBazar, Near Metro Station,Gate No. 4Kolkata—700004 (W.B.)Phone : 033–25551510

B-33, Blunt Square, KanpurTaxi Stand Lane, Mawaiya,Lucknow—226 004 (U.P.)Phone : 0522–4109080

● The publishers have taken all possible precautions in publishing this book, yet ifany mistake has crept in, the publishers shall not be responsible for the same.

● This book or any part thereof may not be reproduced in any form byPhotographic, Mechanical, or any other method, for any use, without writtenpermission from the Publishers.

● Only the courts at Agra shall have the jurisdiction for any legal dispute.

ISBN : 978-81-7482-481-3

Price : 470/-(Rs. Four Hundred Seventy Only)

Code No. 489

Printed at : UPKAR PRAKASHAN (Printing Unit) Bye-pass, AGRA

Contents

● Previous Years’ Papers—Fully Solved

SECTION-IGeneral Intelligence 1–92

● Paper Folding TypeQuestions 3

● Completion of a Figure by itsQuadrant 4

● Embeded Figures 6● Figure and Pieces 8● To Make the Figure with

Pieces Given in the QuestionPart 10

● To Find Out the FourthFigure 11

● To Find the ConcealedFigure 18

● Analogy Test 20

● To Find a Missing Term in aSeries 30

● To Find the Odd Number 36

● To Make the MeaningfulWords with the SelectedLetters of a Given ParticularWord 39

● Coding and Decoding Test 41● Direction Sense Test 45● Blood Relation 48● Arranging in Proper

Sequence 49● Assigning Artificial Values

and Missing Number 51

● Matrix Type Test 56

● Logic 60

● Problems on Alphabet 64

● Questions on Calendar andClock 67

● Venn Diagram Type Test 69

● Dice Type Test (Cube TypeTest) 70

● To Find Figures From thePicture 76

● To Find the Number ofDiagonals in a Given Figure 76

● To Find Out the Componentsof the Given Figure 82

● Grouping of Figures intoClasses 83

—Miscellaneous Exercise I 87

—Miscellaneous Exercise II 88● Puzzle Test 1–15● Cause and Effect 16–18● Decision-Making 19–24● To Find Hidden Figure 25–31● Word Building 32–41● Syllogism 42–50● Statement and Assumptions51–59● Statement and Arguments 60–64● Clerical Aptitude 1–24

( iv )

SECTION-II

General Awareness ⎩⎩⎩⎩⎨⎨⎨⎨⎧⎧⎧⎧1–481–16

SECTION-III

Mathematics 1–1681. Numbers 3–92. Square Root 10–123. Unitary Method 13–174. Work and Time 18–225. Time and Distance 23–306. Percentage 31–347. Simple Interest 35–398. Compound Interest 40–459. Profit and Loss 46–54

10. Ratio and Proportion 55–6111. Variation 62–6512. Partnership 66–6813. Average 69–7214. H. C. F. and L. C. M. 73–7615. Logarithms and their Use 77–8016. Area 81–8417. Cuboid and Cube 85–8718. Cylinder 88–9019. Cone 91–9420. Sphere 95–9721. Factorisation and Remainder

Theorem 98–10022. H. C. F. and L. C. M. of

Polynomials 101–10223. Equations 103–10624. Roots of a Quadratic

Equation 107–110

25. Set Language andNotations 111–113

26. Laws of Indices 114–11627. Lines and Angles 117–12028. Triangles 121–12629. Quadrilaterals 127–13130. Circle 132–13631. Loci 137–13932. Trigonometry 140–14633. Simple Identities 147–15134. Use of Trigonometric

Table 152–15335. Height and Distance 154–15936. Collection and Tabulation 160–16137. Graphical Representation 162–16238. Calculation of Mean 163–168

SECTION-IV

English Language 1–120● Synonyms 3–18● Antonyms 19–28● Spellings 29–35

● Homonyms 36–42● Verbal Analogy 43–49● Sentence Completion 50–56● Sentence Structure 57–63● Sentence Correction/

Improvement 64–83● Idioms and Phrases 84–101● Comprehension 102–107

● Model Test Papers 108–120

General Information● Age Limit (As on prescribed date)

Category of posts Age limitInspector of Income Tax/Inspector (Central Excise)/Inspector (Preventive Officer)/Inspector (Examiner)/Inspector of Posts/Inspector (CBN)/Compiler/DivisionalAccountant/ Auditors/UDCs/Tax Assistants/ Junior Accountant and Accountant/Sub-Inspector (CBN)

18–27 years

Assistant Enforcement Officer 18–30 yearsStatistical Investigator Gr-II Not exceeding 32 yearsAssistant/Sub-Inspector in CBI 20–27 years

Note— Relaxation in upper age limit will be permissible as per government’s rule.

Scheme of ExaminationThe Examination will be conducted in three tiers as indicated below :Tier-I — Written Examination (Objective Multiple Choice Type)Tier-II — Written Examination (Objective Multiple Choice Type)Tier-III — Personality Test Cum Interview/Computer Proficiency Test/Skill Test (wherever

applicable)/Document verification.

Posts Tier-I ExaminationTier-II Examination Interview Proficiency/

Skill TestTotalMarks

Posts for whichInterview isprescribed otherthan StatisticalInvestigatorGrade-II.

A. General Intelligence +Reasoning 50 marks

B. Gen.Awareness50 marks

C. Quantitative Aptitude50 marks

D. English Comprehension50 marks

Total Marks : 200

Duration : 2 hoursFor VH Candidates suffer-ing from Cerebral Palsy : 2hours 40 minutes

I. Quantitative Abilities200 marks (100 Questions)

Duration : 2 hoursFor VH Candidatessuffering from CerebralPalsy : 2 hours 40 minuteswhere eligible.

II. English Language &Comprehension 200marks.

Duration : 2 hoursFor VH Candidatessuffering from CerebralPalsy : 2 hours 40 minuteswherever eligible.Total Marks : 400

100 marksComputerProficiencyTest (CPT)for post ofAssistant inCSS only

700

Posts for which noInterview isprescribed otherthan compiler.

-do- -do- No Data EntrySkill Test atSpeed of 8000keydepression perhour for TaxAssistant

600

StatisticalInvestigatorGrade-II

-do- Paper-I & II as above400 marksPaper-III Statistics200 marks(100 Questions)

100 marks — 900

Compiler -do- -do- No — 800

( vi )

Note—There will be negative marking of 0·25 marks for each wrong answer in Tier-I.In Tier-II, there will be negative marking of 0.25 marks in Paper-II and 0.50 marks in Paper-I andPaper-III for each wrong answer.Candidates are, therefore, advised to keep this in mind while answering the questions.

(A) Tier-I Examination : Tier-I of the Combined Graduate Level Examination will becommon for all categories of posts.

Part SubjectMax.

Marks/Questions

Total Duration/ Timingfor General candidates

Total Duration/Timing for Visually

Handicappedcandidates

A. General Intelligence and Reasoning 50 2 Hours 2 Hours 40 mins

B. General Awareness 50 10.00 A.M. to 12.00 10.00 A.M. to 12.40

C. Quantitative Aptitude 50 Noon PM

D. English Comprehension 50 OR2.00 P.M. to 4.00 PM

OR2.00 P.M. to 4.40 PM

Note— The Commission also reserves the right to hold the examination in additional batches dependingupon the number of candidates in each State/UT.Questions will be of Objective Multiple Type Choice. The questions will be set both in Hindi and inEnglish in respect of Parts A, B and C.

Syllabus for Tier-I Examination(A) General Intelligence & Reasoning : It would include questions of both verbal and non-verbal

type. This component may include questions on analogies, similarities and differences, spacevisualization, spatial orientation, problem solving, analysis, judgement, decision making, visualmemory, discrimination, observation, relationship concepts, arithmetical reasoning and figuralclassification, arithmetic number series, non-verbal series, coding and decoding, statementconclusion, syllogistic reasoning etc. The topics are, Semantic Analogy, Symbolic/NumberAnalogy, Figural Analogy, Semantic Classification, Symbolic/Number Classification, FiguralClassification, Semantic Series, Number Series, Figural Series, Problem Solving, Word Building,Coding & decoding, Numerical Operations, Symbolic Operations, Trends, Space Orientation,Space Visualization, Venn Diagrams, Drawing inferences, Punched hole/pattern –folding &unfolding, Figural Pattern – folding and completion, Indexing, Address matching, Date & citymatching, Classification of centre codes/roll numbers, Small & Capital letters/numbers coding,decoding and classification, Embedded Figures, Critical thinking, Emotional Intelligence, SocialIntelligence, Other sub-topics, if any.

(B) General Awareness : Questions in this component will be aimed at testing the candidates generalawareness of the environment around him and its application to society. Questions will also bedesigned to test knowledge of current events and of such matters of everyday observations andexperience in their scientific aspect as may be expected of any educated person. The test will alsoinclude questions relating to India and its neighbouring countries especially pertaining History,Culture, Geography, Economic Scene, General Policy & Scientific Research.

(C) Quantitative Aptitude : The questions will be designed to test the ability of appropriate use ofnumbers and number sense of the candidate. The scope of the test will be computation of wholenumbers, decimals fractions and relationships between numbers. Percentage, Ratio & Proportion,Square roots, Averages, Interest, Profit and Loss, Discount, Partnership Business, Mixture andAlligation, Time and distance, Time & Work, Basic algebraic identities of School Algebra &Elementary surds, Graphs of Linear Equations, Triangle and its various kinds of centres,

( vii )

Congruence and similarity of triangles, Circle and its chords, tangents, angles subtended by chordsof a circle, common tangents to two or more circles, Triangle, Quadrilaterals, Regular Polygons,Circle, Right Prism, Right Circular Cone, Right Circular Cylinder, Sphere, Hemispheres,Rectangular Parallelepiped, Regular Right Pyramid with triangular or square base, Trigonometricratio, Degree and Radian Measures, Standard Identities, Complementary angles, Heights andDistances, Histogram, Frequency polygon, Bar diagram & Pie chart.

(D) English Comprehension : Candidates’ ability to understand correct English, his basiccomprehension and writing ability, etc., would be tested.

(The questions in parts A, B & D will be of a level commensurate with the EssentialQualification viz., graduation and questions in parts C will be of 10th standard level).

Note— I. Part C (Quantitative Aptitude) of Test booklet for Tier-I and Paper-I (Quantitative Abilities) for Tier-II will contain separate set of Questions for VH candidates only, (who have opted for assistance ofscribe) which will not have any components of Maps/Graphs/ Statistical Data/Diagrams /Figures/Geometrical problems. However, components for other papers will be the same for othercandidates.

II. The Commission shall have the discretion to fix different minimum qualifying standards in eachComponent of the Tier-I Examination taking into consideration among others, category-wisevacancies and category-wise number of candidates. Only those candidates, who have scored abovethe cut-off marks fixed by the Commission would be required to appear in the Tier-II Examination.

III. Tier-I Examination is used to screen the candidates for appearing in Tier-II Examination for variouspapers which will be specifically required for different groups of posts. However, marks of suchscreened candidates in Tier-I Examination will be taken into account for final ranking of candidatesfor selecting them for the interview/skill test and also for final selection.

(B) Combined Graduate Level (Tier-II) ExaminationTier-II of the Combined Graduate Level Examination will be of Objective Type Multiple Choiceand will be conducted over a period of two days. It will consist of three different papers/subjectsand depending upon the category of posts applied for, the candidates will be required to appeareither in two or in three papers, as the case may be.

Tier-II Written Examination

PaperNo.

Subject/Paper Max.Marks

Number ofQuestions

Duration & Timings forGeneral Candidates

Duration & Timings forVH & Cerebral Palsy

Candidates

I Quantitative Abilities 200 100 2 Hours10.00 A.M. to 12.00 Noon

2 Hours 40 mins10.00 A.M. to 12.40 PM

II English Language &Comprehension

200 200 2 Hours2.00 P.M. to 4.00 PM

2 Hours and 40 mins2.00 P.M. to 4.40 PM

III Statistics 200 100 2 Hours2.00 P.M. to 4.00 Noon

2 Hours 40 mins2.00 P.M. to 4.40 PM

Note— Paper-I and II are compulsory for all the categories of posts.Paper-III is only for those candidates who apply for the posts of Statistical Investigators Gr-II andCompiler.

Syllabus for Tier-II of the ExaminationPaper-I : Quantitative Ability : The questions will be designed to test the ability of appropriate

use of numbers and number sense of the candidate. The scope of the test will be thecomputation of whole numbers, decimals, fractions and relationships between numbers,Percentage, Ratio & Proportion, Square roots, Averages, Interest, Profit and Loss,Discount, Partnership Business, Mixture and Alligation, Time and distance, Time &

( viii )

Work, Basic algebraic identities of School Algebra & Elementary surds, Graphs ofLinear Equations, Triangle and its various kinds of centres, Congruence and similarity oftriangles, Circle and its chords, tangents, angles subtended by chords of a circle,common tangents to two or more circles, Triangle, Quadrilaterals, Regular Polygons ,Circle, Right Prism, Right Circular Cone, Right Circular Cylinder, Sphere, Hemispheres,Rectangular Parallelepiped, Regular Right Pyramid with triangular or square base,Trigonometric ratio, Degree and Radian Measures, Standard Identities, Complementaryangles, Heights and Distances, Histogram, Frequency polygon, Bar diagram & Pie chart.

Paper-II : English Language & Comprehension : Questions in this components will be designedto test the candidate’s understanding and knowledge of English Language and will bebased on spot the error, fill in the blanks, synonyms, antonyms, spelling/detecting mis-spelt words, idioms & phrases, one word substitution, improvement of sentences,active/passive voice of verbs, conversion into direct/indirect narration, shuffling ofsentence parts, shuffling of sentences in a passage, close passage & comprehensionpassage.

Paper-III : Statistics for Investigator Grade-II, Ministry of Statistics & Programme Imple-mentation and Compiler for Registrar General of India. (For more details please seedetailed advertisement)

Note— (I) Question in Paper-I will be of 10th standard level, Paper-II of 10 + 2 level and Paper-III ofgraduation level.

(II) (i) The Commission will have the full discretion to fix separate minimum qualifying marks in eachof the papers in Tier-II and in the aggregate of all the papers separately for each category ofcandidates [viz., SC/ST/OBC/PH/ExS/ General (UR) ]. Only those candidates who qualify inall the papers as well as in the aggregate would be eligible to be considered for beingcalled for Interview and /or Skill Test.

(ii) There will be different set of Questions for Visually Handicapped (VH) candidates in Paper-I—Quantitative Ability, which shall not have any component of Maps / Graphs / Statistical Data /Diagrams / Figures/Geometrical problems / Pie-chart etc. However, components of otherpapers will be the same as that for general candidates.

(III) Any representation to key of the examination will be scrutinized with the help of experts, wherevernecessary, and evaluation in that case will be done with modified answer key. The decision of theCommission in this regard will be final and no further representation will be entertained.

● Personality Test/InterviewFor posts for which Interview cum Personality Test is prescribed, the Personality Test/interview will carry a maximum of 100 marks.

● Skill TestFor the Post of Tax Assistants ( Central Excise & Income Tax) :Data Entry Speed Test (DEST) at 8,000 Key Depression per hour on Computer.The ‘Data Entry Speed’ Skill Test at 2000 key depressions for a duration of 15 minutes will be ofqualifying nature. Computer will be provided by the Commission at the Centre/venue notified forthe purpose. Candidates shall not be allowing to bring their own keyboard.The Commission will hold a Computer Proficiency Test (CPT) for the post of Assistants(CSS)which will be of qualifying nature and have components of Word Processing, Spread Sheetsand generation of slides.Detailed instructions on DEST and CPT are/will be available on the Commission’s website.

S.S.C.Combined Graduate Level

Exam., 2014Solved Paper

(Tier-I)

2014(Held on 19 October, 2014)

Part–AGeneral Intelligence &

ReasoningDirections—(Q. 1–4) A series is given, with

one term missing. Choose the correct alterna-tivefrom the given ones that will complete the series.

1. DHK, GKN, JNQ, ?(A) MRU (B) MQT(C) LPS (D) NRU

2. 1, 5, 25, 125, ?, ?, ?(A) 245, 485, 965 (B) 225, 325, 425(C) 625, 3225, 15605 (D) 625, 3125, 15625

3. 0, ?, 8, 27, 64, 125.

(A) 5 (B) 4

(C) 2 (D) 1

4. BMX, DNW, FOU, ?

(A) GHO (B) GPS

(C) HPS (D) HPT

5. If a number is greater than 5 but less than 9and greater than 7 but less than 11, thenumber is—(A) 5 (B) 6(C) 7 (D) 8

6. In a row, 25 trees are planted at equal distancefrom each other. The distance between 1stand 25th tree is 30 m. What is the distancebetween 3rd and 15th tree ?(A) 8 m (B) 15 m(C) 16 m (D) 18 m

7. In a class composed of x girls and y boys whatpart of the class is composed of girls ?

(A) y(x + y) (B)xxy

(C)x

(x + y)(D)

yxy

Directions—(Q. 8 and 9) The given alterna-tive words, select the word which cannot beformed using the letters of the given word.

8. INSTITUTIONALISE(A) NUTRITION (B) INTUTION(C) TUITION (D) INSULATION

9. STIMULATION(A) STATION (B) NATION(C) MOTION (D) MOUTH

10. If TRANSFER is coded as RTNAFSRE, thenhow ELEPHANT be coded in that codelanguage ?(A) LEPEHATN (B) LEPEAHTN(C) LEEPAHTN (D) LEPEAHNT

11. If MONKO is coded as 57637, then howKLJMN be coded in the same code ?(A) 32456 (B) 34256(C) 35156 (D) 32546

12. In a certain code, TRIPLE is written asSQHOKD. How is DISPOSE written in thatcode ?(A) CHRONRD (B) DSOESPI(C) ESJTPTF (D) ESOPSID

13. Which letter in the word ‘Vertex’ should bechanged to mean spiral movement ?(A) 1st (B) 2nd(C) 4th (D) Last

14. Which of the following interchange of signswould make the equation correct ?

8 × 6 + 2 = 22(A) +, ×, 2 and 6 (B) +, ×, 2 and 8(C) +, ×, 6 and 8 (D) +, ×, 2 and 22

15. If ‘–’ stands for addition, ‘+’ stands forsubtraction, ‘÷’ stands for multiplication and‘×’ stands for division, then which one of thefollowing equation is correct ?(A) 50 × 5 ÷ 2 – 30 + 25 = 25

Graduate Level (Tier-I) 2014 | 3

(B) 50 – 30 + 5 ÷ 2 × 30 = 25(C) 40 + 35 × 2 – 50 ÷ 30 = 95(D) 30 × 2 – 25 + 50 ÷ 5 = 100

Directions—(Q. 16 and 17) Some questionsare solved on the basis of certain system. Find outthe correct answer for the unsolved equation onthat basis.

16. 2 × 4 × 6 = 4; 9 × 3 × 7 = 13;4 × 7 × 6 = 3; 9 × 7 × 8 = ?(A) 10 (B) 09(C) 08 (D) 07

17. 3 × 5 × 7 × 2 = 24, 2 × 4 × 6 × 8 = 22, 4 × 4× 8 × 9 = ?(A) 33 (B) 25(C) 144 (D) 1152

Directions—(Q. 18–20) Find the missingnumber from the given responses.

18. 7 8 56 9 ?2 3 684 216 900

(A) 90 (B) 70(C) 65 (D) 30

19. 2 3 4 ?3 1 4 24 2 2 65 5 2 2

196 121 144 225(A) 4 (B) 5(C) 6 (D) 3

20. 96 ? 16832 48 5616 24 28

(A) 52 (B) 144(C) 64 (D) 38

Directions—(Q. 21–26) Select the relatedword/letter/numbers from the given alternatives.

21. Macabre : Lovely :: Baneful : ?(A) Unharmful (B) Churlish(C) Filter (D) Ugly

22. AYRRJC : CATTLE :: NCPDCAR : ?(A) SUBJECT (B) NEGLECT(C) PERFECT (D) OPERATE

23. SOCIAL : OCIALS :: DRIVEN : ?(A) VENRID (B) NEVIRD(C) RIVEND (D) VIREND

24.18 :

164

: : 116

: 1?

(A) 128 (B) 126(C) 144 (D) 132

25. 29 : 71 : : 79 : ?(A) 120 (B) 192(C) 197 (D) 131

26. Embarrassed : Humiliated :: Frightened : ?(A) Terrified (B) Agitated(C) Courageous (D) Reckless

Directions—(Q. 27–32) Find the odd word/letters/numbers from the given alternatives.

27. (A) Yacht (B) Submarine(C) Boat (D) Ship

28. (A) Autobiography (B) Malayalam(C) Intelligence (D) Dictionary

29. (A) Square (B) Trapezium(C) Cylinder (D) Parallelogram

30. (A) 42 : 4 (B) 48 : 6(C) 32 : 2 (D) 15 : 5

31. (A) Year 2012 (B) Year 1998(C) Year 2005 (D) Year 1997

32. (A) MIGE (B) XTQO(C) RNKI (D) HDAY

33. Arrange the following words as per order inthe dictionary—1. Euphrasy 2. Eupepsy3. Euphonic 4. Eugenic5. Euphony(A) 4, 3, 2, 1, 5 (B) 3, 4, 1, 2, 5(C) 4, 2, 3, 5, 1 (D) 3, 5, 2, 4, 1

34. Which one of the given responses would be ameaningful order of the following ?1. Absorption2. Digestion3. Nutrition4. Excretion(A) 3, 1, 2, 4 (B) 2, 1, 3, 4(C) 3, 4, 2, 1 (D) 3, 2, 1, 4

4 | Graduate Level (Tier-I) 2014

35. Four villages A, B, C and D lie in a straightline. D is 10 km from B. A is exactly betweenD and C and C from B is 2 km more than it isfrom D. How far is C from B ?

(A) 4 km (B) 6 km

(C) 8 km (D) 2 km

36. Select the alternative inference which is mostappropriate.

“All professors are learned; learned peopleare always gentle.”

Inference : All professors are gentle persons.

(A) The inference is true

(B) The inference is false

(C) The inference is probably true orprobably false

(D) The inference is irrelevant

37. Statement is given followed by two inferencesI and II. You have to consider the statement tobe true even if it seems to be at variance fromcommonly known facts. You have to decidewhich of the given inferences, if any, followfrom the given statement.

Statement : “Electric supply in AnandColony will be cut tomorrow after 12 O’clockfor three hours because repairing work will becarried out.”

Inferences : I. Residents of Anand Colonymay use their electrical appliances before 12O’clock tomorrow.

II. Residents of Anand Colony need trainingfor using electricity economically.

(A) Only inference I follows

(B) Only inference II follows

(C) Both the inferences follow

(D) None of the inferences follows

38. Anand travels 10 km from his home to theeast to reach his school. Then he travels 5 kmto the south to reach his father’s shop, afterschool. He then travels 10 km to the west tohelp his uncle. How far and in which directionis he from his home ?

(A) 10 km North

(B) 5 km South

(C) 5 km East

(D) 10 km West

Directions—(Q. 39 and 40) Among fouranswer figures whose cut pieces can form thegiven question figure ?

39. Question Figure :

Answer Figures :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

40. Question Figure :

Answer Figures :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

41. Which of the following answer figures cannotoccur when the question figure given below isrotated ?Question Figure :

Answer Figures :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Directions—(Q. 42 and 43) Which of thefollowing Venn diagrams best represents therelation between given classes ?

42. Humans, Birds, Animals

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

Graduate Level (Tier-I) 2014 | 5

43. Fruits, Apples, Oranges

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

44. In the diagram given below which letter(s)represents the students who play Cricket aswell as Football and Hockey ?

P QS

V U

T

R

Hockey

CricketFootball

(A) S + T + U (B) V(C) S (D) P + R + U

Directions—(Q. 45 and 46) Which answerfigure will complete the pattern in the questionfigure ?

45. Question Figure :

Answer Figures :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

46. Question Figure :

Answer Figures :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

47. From the given answer figures, select the onein which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

Question Figure :

Answer Figures :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

48. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shownbelow in the question figures. From the givenanswer figures, indicate how it will appearwhen opened.Question Figures :

Answer Figures :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

49. If a mirror is placed on the line MN, thenwhich of the answer figures is the right imageof the given figure ?Question Figure :

M

N

Answer Figures :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

50. A word is represented by only one set ofnumbers as given in any one of thealternatives. The sets of numbers given in thealternatives are represented by two classes ofalphabets as in two matrices given below. Thecolumns and rows of Matrix I are numberedfrom 0 to 4 and 2 to 6 respectively and that ofMatrix II are numbered from 2 to 6 and 7 to 0respectively. A letter from these matrices can

6 | Graduate Level (Tier-I) 2014

be represented first by its row and next by itscolumn, e.g., ‘H’ can be represented by 04,25, 32 etc., and ‘N’ can be represented by 21,40, 59, etc. Similarly, you have to identify theset for the word given below :

YEARMatrix-I

2 3 4 5 6

0 Y A H M J

1 M J H A Y

2 A Y J H M

3 H J Y M A

4 J M A Y H

Matrix-II7 8 9 1 0

2 E R V N O

3 V N O E R

4 O E R V N

5 R V N O E

6 N O E R V

(A) 23, 27, 15, 61 (B) 16, 38, 15, 30(C) 34, 31, 32, 28 (D) 45, 50, 36, 29

For Visually HandicappedCandidates Only

Directions—(Q. 39–41) Select the relatedwords/letters/number from the given alternatives.

39. Binding : Book(A) Criminal : Gang(B) Artist : Carpenter(C) Frame : Picture(D) Display : Museum

40. DGLS :: ADIP :: CFKR :: ?

(A) RUXA (B) RUZG(C) RTVX (D) RVZC

41. 16 : 26 : 36 :(A) 50 (B) 48(C) 29 (D) 60

Directions—(Q. 42–44) Find the oddword/letters/number from the given alternatives.

42. (A) Microscope (B) Telescope(C) Periscope (D) Stethoscope

43. (A) ONONLD (B) RESOMY(C) NOARDP (D) DRASMA

44. (A) 82 (B) 65(C) 26 (D) 15

45. Which one of the given responses would be ameaningful order of the following ?1. Pass 2. Medal3. Result 4. School5. Examination(A) 4, 5, 3, 1, 2 (B) 5, 3, 1, 2, 4(C) 4, 5, 1, 2, 3 (D) 4, 1, 5, 2, 3

46. Choose the correct alternative from the givenones that will complete the series.

5, 4, 10, 8, 15, ?(A) 12 (B) 17(C) 19 (D) 14

47. If BILLION is written as IBLLOIN, how willCLINTON be coded ?(A) TLINCON (B) NITLNOC(C) LCNIOTN (D) NLITONC

48. If ‘*’ stands for division, ‘–’ stands for multi-plication, ‘/’ stands for addition and ‘@’stands for subtraction, which one of thefollowing equation is correct ?(A) 25 * 5 @ 10 / 1 – 100 / 5 = 100(B) 25 / 5 – 50 @ 30 * 2 = 75(C) 25 – 6 / 10 @ 1 @ 100 * 5 = 139(D) 25 / 100 * 5 / 10 @ 1 – 6 = 29

Directions—(49 and 50) Some letters aregiven with numbers from 1 to 9 or 6. Select thesequence of numbers which arranges the lettersinto a meaningful word.

49. N N D I N I T G A1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

(A) 2 1 5 7 6 4 3 8 9(B) 3 1 2 5 4 6 7 9 8(C) 4 2 1 3 5 7 6 8 9(D) 4 2 3 6 8 5 9 1 7

50. D E N F R I1 2 3 4 5 6

(A) 4, 5, 1, 2, 3, 6(B) 3, 2, 1, 6, 5, 4(C) 6, 4, 2, 3, 5, 1(D) 1, 2, 5, 4, 6, 3

Graduate Level (Tier-I) 2014 | 7

Part–BGeneral Awareness

51. ‘Kelp’ is—(A) Sulphide mineral of iron(B) Partially decomposed vegetation(C) Sea weed rich in iodine content(D) An aluminium silicate mineral

52. Spot the odd item in the following—(A) Basalt (B) Ruby(C) Emerald (D) Sapphire

53. What is farming along with animal husbandrycalled ?(A) Mixed farming (B) Mixed agriculture(C) Dairy farming (D) Truck farming

54. Hydraulic Action is a type of erosion causedby—(A) Running water (B) Wind(C) Glacier (D) None of these

55. Which of the following is the newestgeological era ?(A) Permian (B) Triassic(C) Cretaceous (D) Jurassic

56. The plant from which cocoa and chocolate areobtained is a—(A) herb (B) shrub(C) small tree (D) very big tree

57. The biggest single-celled organism is—(A) Yeast (B) Acetabularia(C) Acetobacter (D) Amoeba

58. Crescograph was invented by—(A) S. N. Bose(B) P. C. Roy(C) J. C. Bose(D) P. C. Mahalanobis

59. Foramen Magnum is an aperture found inthe—

(A) Ear (B) Lung

(C) Girdle (D) Skull

60. Who betrayed Siraj-ud-Daula in the Battle ofPlassey in 1757 ?

(A) Hyder Ali (B) Mir Qasim

(C) Mir Jaffar (D) Nawab of Oudh

61. ‘Barr body’ is found in—(A) Sperm(B) Sertoli cells(C) Female somatic cells(D) Male somatic cells

62. The colours of stars depend on their—(A) temperature(B) distance(C) radius(D) atmospheric pressure

63. Light from the Sun reaches us in nearly—(A) 8 min. (B) 2 min.(C) 6 min. (D) 4 min.

64. Radar is used to—(A) locate submerged submarines(B) receive signal from radio receivers(C) detect and locate distant objects(D) locate geostationary satellites

65. Optical fibre works on the principle of—(A) refraction

(B) scattering

(C) interference

(D) total internal reflection

66. Which application in Microsoft Office isfeasible for preparing presentations ?

(A) Microsoft Excel

(B) Microsoft Word

(C) Microsoft Power Point

(D) Microsoft Publishers

67. The language which was used to buildInternet Pages in the beginning of InternetTechnology is—

(A) XML (B) HTML

(C) DHTML (D) ASP

68. Name the branch of Zoology that deals withthe scientific study of animal behaviour—

(A) Ecology (B) Physiology

(C) Ethology (D) Anatomy

69. The metal used for making aircrafts androckets is—

(A) Lead (B) Aluminium

(C) Nickel (D) Copper

8 | Graduate Level (Tier-I) 2014

70. The process of improving the quality ofrubber by heating it with sulphur is called—(A) Vulcanization (B) Acceleration(C) Sulphonation (D) Galvanization

71. Which source has been particularly fruitful infinding novel anti-tumour agents such asbryostatins and dolostatins ?(A) Marine sources(B) Animals(C) Venoms and toxins(D) Combinatorial chemistry

72. The pollutant responsible for ozone holes is—(A) CO2 (B) SO2

(C) CO (D) CFC

73. One of the best solutions to get rid of non-biodegradable wastes is—(A) Burning (B) Dumping(C) Burying (D) Recycling

74. Vermicomposting is done by—(A) Fungus (B) Bacteria(C) Worms (D) Animals

75. If waste materials contaminate the source ofdrinking water, which of the followingdiseases will spread ?(A) Scurvy (B) Typhoid(C) Malaria (D) Anaemia

76. India exports power to—(A) Bangladesh (B) Myanmar(C) Pakistan (D) Bhutan

77. The alkaloid naturally found in coffee, cocoaand cola nut is—(A) Cocaine (B) Morphine(C) Tannin (D) Caffeine

78. Which vein brings clean blood from the lungsinto the heart ?

(A) Renal Vein (B) Pulmonary Vein

(C) Vena Cava (D) Hepatic Vein

79. The first woman President of Indian NationalCongress was—

(A) Kamala Devi Chattopadhyaya

(B) Sarojini Naidu

(C) Annie Besant

(D) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur

80. Which State is the largest producer of pulsesin India ?(A) Bihar (B) Rajasthan(C) Madhya Pradesh (D) Maharashtra

81. In India, woman had never been a ChiefMinister in the State of—(A) Tamil Nadu (B) Rajasthan(C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Maharashtra

82. Which of the following is not a noble gas ?(A) Hydrogen (B) Helium(C) Neon (D) Argon

83. Sunda Trench is in—(A) Indian Ocean (B) Pacific Ocean(C) Atlantic Ocean (D) Gulf of Mexico

84. Which of the following is an organic rock ?(A) Marble (B) Coal(C) Granite (D) Slate

85. Who among the following has written thefamous book ‘Malgudi Days’ ?(A) V. S. Naipaul(B) Deepak Chopra(C) Rabindranath Tagore(D) R. K. Narayan

86. British Crown assumed sovereignty overIndia from the East India Company in theyear—

(A) 1857 (B) 1858

(C) 1859 (D) 1860

87. The Keynesian consumption function shows arelation between—

(A) aggregate consumption and totalpopulation

(B) aggregate consumption and general pricelevel

(C) aggregate consumption and aggregateincome

(D) aggregate consumption and interest rate

88. Over short period, when income rises,average propensity to consume usually—

(A) rises

(B) falls

(C) remains constant

(D) fluctuates

Graduate Level (Tier-I) 2014 | 9

89. Average propensity to consume is definedas—(A) Aggregate consumption ÷ Total

population(B) Aggregate income ÷ Aggregate con-

sumption(C) Change in consumption ÷ Change in

income(D) Aggregate consumption ÷ Aggregate

income

90. In short run, if a competitive firm incurslosses, it will—(A) stop production(B) continue to produce as long as it can

cover its variable costs(C) raise price of its product(D) go for advertising campaign

91. Which one of the following is the specificfeature of the single member constituencysystem ?(A) The system is economical for represen-

tatives(B) Gerrymandering is not possible in this

system(C) It secures a stable majority in the legis-

lature(D) The candidate has to spend less on

electioneering

92. Which of the following relations always holdstrue ?(A) Income = Consumption + Investment(B) Income = Consumption + Saving(C) Saving = Investment(D) Income = Consumption + Saving +

Investment

93. Who speaks of Cabinet system as “thesteering wheel of the ship of State” ?(A) Lowell (B) Muir(C) Marriot (D) Bagehot

94. Who has called the Prime Minister primusinter pares (first among equals) ?(A) Morely (B) Harcourt(C) Laski (D) Lowell

95. “There are no politics devoid of religion” isstated by—(A) Nehru(B) Gandhi

(C) Vinoba Bhave

(D) Jaya Prakash Narayan

96. In which Rock Edict Ashoka mentions aboutthe casualities of Kalinga War and declaresthe renunciation of war ?

(A) Maski Edict (B) Rock Edict XIII

(C) Rock Edict XI (D) Rock Edict X

97. Akbar held his religious discussion in—

(A) Jodhabai’s Palace (B) Panch Mahal

(C) Ibadat Khana (D) Buland Darwaza

98. Who succeeded Guru Nanak ?

(A) Guru Angad (B) Guru Ramdas

(C) Guru Arjan (D) Guru Hargobind

99. The Earliest Settlements of Aryan tribes wereat—

(A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Bengal

(C) Sapta Sindhu (D) Delhi

100. Who said, “Adolf Hitler is Germany andGermany is Adolf Hitler. He who pledgeshimself to Hitler pledges himself toGermany” ?

(A) R. Hess

(B) Mussolini

(C) Hitler

(D) Communist International

Part–CQuantitative Aptitude

101. In a Mathematics examination the numbersscored by 5 candidates are 5 successive oddintegers. If their total marks is 185, thehighest score is—(A) 39 (B) 43(C) 41 (D) 37

102. In two successive years, 80 and 60 studentsof a school appeared at the final examinationof which 60% and 80% passed respectively.The average rate of students passed (in percent) is—

(A) 68% (B) 6847%

(C) 70% (D) 7237%

10 | Graduate Level (Tier-I) 2014

103. Nisha bought a number of oranges at 2 for arupee and an equal number at 3 for a rupee.To make a profit of 20% she should sell adozen for—(A) ` 6 (B) ` 8

(C) ` 10 (D) ` 12

104. If A’s salary is 50% more than that of B,then B’s salary is less than A’s by—

(A) 33% (B) 4013

%

(C) 4513% (D) 33

13%

105. A and B are 20 km apart. A can walk at anaverage speed of 4 km/hour and B at 6km/hr. If they start walking towards eachother at 7 a.m., when they will meet ?

(A) 8·00 a.m. (B) 8·30 a.m.

(C) 9·00 a.m. (D) 10·00 a.m.

106. A policeman starts to chase a thief. When thethief goes 10 steps the policeman moves 8steps. 5 steps of the policeman is equal to 7steps of the thief. The ratio of the speeds ofthe policeman and the thief is—

(A) 25 : 28 (B) 25 : 56

(C) 28 : 25 (D) 56 : 25

107. The compound interest on a certain sum ofmoney for 2 years at 5% per annum is ` 410.The simple interest on the same sum at thesame rate and for the same time is—

(A) ` 400 (B) ` 300

(C) ` 350 (D) ` 405

108. The graphs of x = a and y = b intersect at—

(A) (a, b) (B) (b, a)

(C) (–a, b) (D) (a, –b)

109. What is the value of

(941 + 149)2 + (941 – 149)2

(941 × 941 + 149 × 149) = ?

(A) 10 (B) 2

(C) 1 (D) 100

110. If x + 1x

= 5, then x6 + 1x6 is—

(A) 12098 (B) 12048

(C) 14062 (D) 12092

111. If 5√⎯ 5 × 53 ÷ 5–

32 = 5a + 2, then the value of a

is—(A) 4 (B) 5(C) 6 (D) 8

112. If x2 – 3x + 1 = 0, then the value ofx6 + x4 + x2 + 1

x3 will be—

(A) 18 (B) 15(C) 21 (D) 30

113. A boat goes 24 km upstream and 28 kmdownstream in 6 hours. It goes 30 kmupstream and 21 km downstream in 6 hoursand 30 minutes. The speed of the boat in stillwater is—(A) 8 km/hr (B) 9 km/hr(C) 12 km/hr (D) 10 km/hr

114. If x 4 + 1x4 = 119 and x > 1 , then find the

positive value of x3 – 1x3 —

(A) 25 (B) 27(C) 36 (D) 49

115. The value of ( )3 + 2√⎯ 2 –3 + ( )3 – 2√⎯ 2 –3

is—(A) 198 (B) 180(C) 108 (D) 189

116. ‘O’ is the centre of the circle, AB is a chordof the circle, OM ⊥ AB. If AB = 20 cm, OM

= 2√⎯⎯11 cm, then radius of the circle is—(A) 15 cm (B) 12 cm(C) 10 cm (D) 11 cm

117. If the angles of a triangle ABC are in theratio 2 : 3 : 1, then the angles ∠A, ∠B, ∠Cis—(A) ∠A = 60°, ∠B = 90°, ∠C = 30°(B) ∠A = 40°, ∠B = 120°, ∠C = 20°(C) ∠A = 20°, ∠B = 60°, ∠C = 60°(D) ∠A = 45°, ∠B = 90°, ∠C = 45°

118. In ΔABC, ∠ABC = 70°, ∠BCA = 40°. O isthe point of intersection of the perpendicularbisectors of the sides, then the angle ∠BOCis—(A) 100° (B) 120°(C) 130° (D) 140°

Graduate Level (Tier-I) 2014 | 11

119. If the measures of the sides of triangle are(x2 – 1), (x2 + 1) and 2x cm, then the trianglewould be—(A) equilateral (B) acute-angled(C) isosceles (D) right-angled

120. 2x = 4y = 8z and xyz = 288, then value of 12x

+

14y

+ 18z

is—

(A)1112

(B)1196

(C)2996

(D)2796

121. If each angle of a triangle is less than thesum of the other two, then the triangle is—

(A) obtuse angled (B) right angled

(C) acute angled (D) equilateral

122. A, B, C are three points on the circumference

of a circle and if —AB =

—AC = 5√⎯ 2 cm and

∠BAC = 90°, find the radius—(A) 10 cm (B) 5 cm(C) 20 cm (D) 15 cm

123. The value of sin2 30° cos2 45° + 5 tan2 30° +32 sin2 90° – 3cos2 90° is—

(A) 3724

(B) 3324

(C) 3124

(D) 3524

124. If cos2 θ – sin2 θ = 13, where 0 ≤ θ ≤

π2, then

the value of cos4 θ + sin4 θ is—

(A)13

(B)23

(C)19

(D)29

125. If tan θ = 1

√⎯⎯11 and 0 < θ <

π2, then the value

of cosec2 θ – sec2 θcosec2 θ + sec2 θ

is—

(A)34

(B)45

(C)56

(D)67

126. If angle bisector of a triangle bisect theopposite side, then what type of triangle is—(A) Right angled (B) Scalene(C) Similar (D) Isosceles

127. If x[–2{–4(–a)}] + 5[–2{–2(–a)}] = 4a, thenx =(A) – 2 (B) – 3(C) – 4 (D) – 5

128. A can complete a work in ‘m’ days and Bcan complete it in ‘n’ days. How many dayswill it take to complete the work if both Aand B work together ?

(A) (m + n) days (B) ( )1m

× 1n

days

(C) ( )m + nmn

days (D) ( )mnm + n

days

129. Pipe A is an inlet pipe filling the tank at8000 litre/hr. Pipe B empties the tank in 3hours. The capacity of the tank is—(A) 12000 litres (B) 8000 litres(C) 6000 litres (D) 4000 litres

130. A tap drips at a rate of one drop/ sec. 600drops make 100 ml. The number of litreswasted in 300 days is—(A) 4320000 (B) 432000(C) 43200 (D) 4320

131. ABC is a right angled triangle, B being theright angle. Mid-points of BC and AC arerespectively B′ and A′. Area of ΔA′B′C is—

(A)12

× area of ΔABC

(B)23 × area of ΔABC

(C)14 × area of ΔABC

(D)18 × area of ΔABC

132. Three numbers are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 andtheir HCF is 12. The numbers are—(A) 12, 24, 36 (B) 5, 10, 15(C) 4, 8, 12 (D) 10, 20, 30

133. The perimeters of a circle, a square and anequilateral triangle are same and their areasare C, S and T respectively. Which of thefollowing statement is true ?(A) C = S = T (B) C > S > T(C) C < S < T (D) S < C < T

SSC Combined Graduate LevelExamination (For TIER I and II)

Publisher : Upkar Prakashan ISBN : 9788174824813 Author : Dr. Lal and Jain

Type the URL : http://www.kopykitab.com/product/5135

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