2016-2017 Anatomy & Physiology Exam Princeton Science ... · 2016-2017 Anatomy & Physiology Exam Princeton Science Olympiad Invitational ... tetanus c. spatial summation ... Which

For Office Use Only: Part 1: ____ / 37.5 Part 2: ____ / 36 Part 3: ____ / 39 Score: _____ /112.5

Team Number: ____________

Team Name: _____________________________

Participant names: ______________________________

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2016-2017 Anatomy & Physiology Exam

Princeton Science Olympiad Invitational

Instructions: All questions are 1 point each unless otherwise noted. Partial credit may be

awarded to short answer questions. Only responses on the answer sheet will be graded. Please

write clearly. Time is not a tiebreaker; rather, select questions will be used to break ties. If you

have any questions, please raise your hand quietly. Good luck!

Tiebreaker questions: 24, 41, 63

Part 1 - Nervous System:

1. Each of the following is true about an action potential except:

a. K+ repolarizes the cell by exiting through the voltage gated potassium channels

b. Na+ enters the cell during depolarization through voltage gated sodium channels

c. Na+/K+ pump is responsible for the depolarization/repolarization during an action

potential

d. In the resting state, the Na+ concentration outside the cell is greater than inside the

cell.

e. K+ exits the cells during the resting phase through leak channels

2. What is the name of the space between two neurons called?

a. Extracellular matrix

b. Synapse

c. Axon Hillock

d. Dendrite

e. Gap Junctions

3. Action potentials are normally carried in only one direction: from the axon hillock toward the

axon terminals. If you experimentally depolarize the middle of the axon to threshold, using

an electronic probe, then

a. no action potential will be initiated.

b. an action potential will be initiated and proceed only in the normal direction toward

the axon terminal.

c. an action potential will be initiated and proceed only back toward the axon hillock.

d. two action potentials will be initiated, one going toward the axon terminal and one

going back toward the hillock.

e. an action potential will be initiated, but it will die out before it reaches the axon

terminal.

4. The minimum amount of stimulus required to create depolarization is called:

a. All or nothing principle

b. Threshold level

c. Resting potential

d. Graded potential

e. Hyperpolarized level

5. When several EPSPs arrive at the axon hillock from different dendritic locations,

depolarizing the postsynaptic cell to threshold for an action potential, this is an example of

a. temporal summation

b. tetanus

c. spatial summation

d. the refractory state

e. graded potential

6. Which of the following is part of the rhomencephalon?

a. Thalamus

b. Parietal Lobe

c. Medulla oblongata

d. Amygdala

e. Prefrontal cortex

7. Which part of the brain is continuous with the spinal cord?

a. Cerebellum

b. Cerebrum

c. Diencephelon

d. Brain stem

e. Thalamus

8. Each of the following are part of the diencephalon except:

a. Thalamus

b. Hypothalamus

c. Medulla oblongata

d. Epithalamus

e. Pineal Gland

9. Functions of Cerebellum include which of the following (you may select more than one):

(1.5 points, 0.5 points for each)

a. Coordinate complex, skilled movements

b. Plays a role in cognition and language processing

c. Coordinate gross, automatic muscle movements and regulate muscle tone

d. Regulates formation functions in consciousness and arousal

e. Regulates posture and balance

10. Which brain structure communicates between the left and right hemispheres?

a. Corpus Callosum

b. Basal Ganglia

c. Limbic System

d. Brain stem

e. Thalamus

11. Ciliated CNS neuroglia that line the cavities of the brain and spinal cord and play an active

role in moving cerebrospinal fluid:

a. Ependymal cells

b. Schwann cells

c. Oligodendrocytes

d. Astrocytes

e. Microglia

12. What is the correct sequence from the inside to the outside layer of the meninges?

a. Pia mater, dura mater, arachnoid mater

b. Pia mater, arachnoid mater, dura mater

c. Arachnoid mater, dura mater, pia mater

d. Dura mater, pia mater, arachnoid mater

e. Dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater

13. A patient comes in and is only able to speak in short phrases, making it difficult for you to

understand what the patient is intending to say. The patient is aware of the problem and is

getting frustrated because of the communication problem. You also notice that the patient has

weakness on the right side of their body. Their medical history shows that the patient had a

stroke earlier. Which region of the brain do you suspect is affected?

a. Frontal lobe

b. Corpus Callosum

c. Wernicke’s area

d. Temporal Lobe

e. Broca’s Area

14. Which of the following is an example of lower motor neuron dysfunction? Please choose

from one of the following options.

a. An individual sits in a relaxed position with her knee partially flexed. When her foot

is pulled upward, the individual involuntarily and rhythmically moves her foot up and

down.

b. An individual is told to relax her body. Despite attempts to relax, she experiences

repeated, uncontrollable muscle spasticity.

c. An individual is told to lift her left arm, and she has difficulty doing so. Her left arm

appears shriveled and shorter than her right arm.

d. A metal object is dragged along the bottom of an individual’s foot and her toes go

into extension away from the bottom of her foot.

15. If an individual were to sustain a significant injury to their right cerebral hemisphere, where

might somatosensory loss of functioning occur? Please choose from one of the following

options.

a. Both sides of the body

b. Right side of the body

c. Left side of the body

d. There is no evidence that loss of functioning would occur.

16. An individual’s EEG shows waves with a frequency of 8-13 Hz, indicative of wakefulness.

Their EMG indicates a loss of muscle tone. Which stage of sleep is the person in?

a. Stage 1

b. Stage 2

c. Stage 3

d. Stage 4

e. REM

17. Which of the following describes symptoms that would likely accompany a drug-induced

increase in dopamine?

a. anxiety, increased heart rate, increased blood pressure

b. pupil constriction, decrease in blood pressure, paranoia

c. anxiety, decreased heart rate, increased saliva flow

d. increased peristalsis, increased saliva production, increased heart rate

18. Cerebral palsy, which disrupts motor messages from brain to muscle, is usually due to

damage of

a. Cerebellum

b. Corpus callosum

c. Basal nuclei of gray matter

d. Neocortex

e. Basal nuclei of white matter

19. Identify TWO conditions that can be diagnosed though an EEG (or encephalographic wave

form) and describe how it would work. (4 points; 1 for each disorder and 2 for description of

EEG)

20. Answer the following questions with the letter pointing to the appropriate region and then

name the region. (5 points; 1 point for each ID)

a. A tumor in this region would lead to an uncoordinated gait.

b. A stroke in this region would impair understanding of speech but speech itself would

be unimpaired.

c. This region is responsible for visual processing.

A

B

C

D E

F

G

H

I

d. This region is responsible for decision making, planning and motivation.

e. This region is involved in autonomic functions of breathing, heart rate, and blood

pressure.

21. Identify the drug responsible for the following effects: (3 points)

a. In small doses, I reduce anxiety. But, I also reduce respiration, blood pressure and

heart rate. At high does, I can cause respiratory depression. Use of me can lead to

excessive sedation, coma and even death. Tolerance occurs, so a person begins to use

more of me. Because I dissolve easily in fat, I can cross the blood brain barrier easily.

b. I can cause difficulty walking, blurred vision, slurred speech, slowed reaction times,

impaired memory and with long term use, memory loss and dementia. Heavy use of

me can also have a direct toxic effect on the heart and can damage it, leading to high

blood pressure, cardiomyopathy, congestive heart failure, and stroke. Heavy use of

me puts more fat into the circulation in your body, raising your triglyceride level.

c. I am a central nervous system stimulant. In moderate doses, I can increase alertness;

reduce fine motor coordination, cause insomnia, and cause headaches, nervousness

and dizziness. In massive doses, I am lethal. I adversely affect cholesterol and other

lipid levels, homocysteine, blood pressure, arrhythmias and stress levels, increasing

the risk of heart disease. I am ingested most often through common beverages or

chocolate.

22. Describe the mechanism by which nerve gas/nerve agents lead to paralysis. (2 points)

23. Describe the reflex arc that follows when you accidently step on a needle. (2 points)

24. In which diagnostic process is cerebrospinal fluid removed and tested? What is the ideal

location to perform the procedure and give an example of a disease in which such a

procedure would be a useful diagnostic? (3 points; 1 for name of procedure, 1 for ideal

location, 1 for example of disease) (Tiebreaker #1)

Part 2 - Sensory System:

25. What are the four modalities of somatic sensation?

a. Vibration, thermal, chemical, proprioceptive

b. Thermal, tactile, pain, and proprioceptive

c. Thermal, pain, chemical, vibration

d. Itch, tactile, pain, proprioceptive

26. What are the respective locations of cold and warm receptors in the skin?

a. Hypodermis & Dermis

b. Stratum Basale & Stratum Spinosum

c. Stratum Basale & Dermis

d. Dermis & Dermis

27. What are the three types of proprioceptors?

a. Muscle Spindles, Tendon Organs, and Joint Kinesthetic Receptors

b. Gamma Motor Neurons, Alpha Motor Neurons, Tendon Organs

c. Tendon Kinesthetic Receptors, Muscle Spindles, Gamma Motor Neurons

d. Nociceptors, Tendon Organs, Joint Kinesthetic Receptors

28. Patient Alpha reports having deep and sharp abdominal pain. Further examination reveals

receptors in his skin and in his skeletal muscles, joints, and tendons, are NOT responsible for

this pain. What type of pain is Patient Alpha suffering from?

a. Somatic Pain

b. Autonomic Pain

c. Visceral Pain

d. Diffuse nociceptive pain

29. What are the five primary tastes?

a. Sweet, sour, bitter, salty, acidic

b. Sour, bitter, salty, umami, spicy

c. Spicy, bitter, sour, salty, umami

d. Sweet, bitter, sour, umami, salty

30. Choose the answer that best describes olfactory supporting cells and their function

a. Squamous epithelial cells; Nourishes nearby olfactory receptor cells

b. Columnar epithelial cells; provides physical support & electrical insulation for

olfactory receptor cells

c. Stratified columnar epithelial cells; nourishes and undergoes cell division to produce

new olfactory receptor cells

d. Pseudostratified columnar epithelial cells; undergoes cell division to produce new

olfactory receptor cells

31. Which cranial nerve is responsible for innervating supporting cells and olfactory glands?

a. Trigeminal Nerve

b. Glossopharyngeal Nerve

c. Accessory Nerve

d. Facial Nerve

32. Label the following diagram below: (5 points; 1 point each)

33. In a middle aged adult, rank the three types of papillae from least taste buds EACH to most

taste buds EACH

a. Fungiform, Foliate, Palate

b. Filiform, Vallate, Foliate

c. Foliate, Fungiform, Vallate

d. Vallate, Palate, Linguate

34. What is the function of the lacrimal gland?

a. Produce lacrimal fluid containing essential salts

b. Produce lysozyme to protect the eyeball from invading bacteria

c. Produce fluid to moisten the eyeball

d. A & C

e. All of the above

35. Which nerve is responsible for stimulating the lacrimal gland?

a. Optic Nerve

b. Accessory Nerve

c. Facial Nerve

d. Hypoglossal Nerve

e. None of the above

36. Storytime! One day, when you wake up, you look into the mirror and your eye color has

suddenly changed. Using the picture below, explain what chemical is responsible for your

eye color, what is its concentration? (Note: just in case the color printer doesn’t work, the eye

color is blue)

a. Melatonin, High

b. Melatin, Low

c. Melanin, Low

d. Melanin, High

e. Melatonin, Medium

f. None of the above

37. Describe the steps involved in transforming mechanical vibrations into electrical signals in a

hair cell. Be sure to use the following terms in your response: basilar membrane,

endolymph, stereocilia. Be as specific as possible, to get maximum credit. (4 points total)

38. What substance coats the thick, gelatinous, glycoprotein layer resting on hair cells in the

saccule and utricle? What is the substance made of?

a. Kinocilium, Calcium Sulfate

b. Otoliths, Calcium Sulfate

c. Otoliths, Calcium Carbonate

d. Otoholic Membrane, Calcium Carbonate

39. Label the diagram below. Each label is worth 1 point. (6 points total)

40. A patient presents with severe pain, a fever, and outward bulging of the eardrum. Detailed

examination reveals that the throat and nose are also infected. Answer the following

question: (5 points)

a. What disease is the patient suffering from, and where does it mainly affect? (2 points)

b. What is the primary cause of this infection in the ear? (1 point)

c. Why are children more susceptible than adults? (2 points)

41. A patient comes in reporting that she has trouble seeing at night, as well as in poorly lit

places. Upon questioning, you find out that she did not have this condition when born, and

only recently began having such problems. You notice that the patient is a lot thinner than

most people her age. Answer the following questions below: (4 points) (Tiebreaker #2)

a. What condition does she have? (1 point)

b. What is the most likely cause of her condition? (2 points)

c. The condition is known to have a possible genetic cause. What form of inheritance is

the genetic condition based on? (1 point)

Part 3 - Endocrine System:

42. What is the difference between endocrine and exocrine glands? (Choose all that apply)

a. Exocrine secretes into body cavities, while endocrine secretes into body lining

b. Endocrine gland tissue is typically more vascular than exocrine gland tissue

c. Exocrine glands include sudoriferous and parathyroid glands, and endocrine glands

include the pineal and adrenal glands

d. Exocrine secretes into body ducts, while endocrine secretes into body cavities

43. Oxytocin is produced in the:

a. Anterior Pituitary

b. Hypothalamus

c. Posterior Pituitary

d. Thyroid gland

44. Histamine is synthesized from the amino acid ______, while serotonin is derived from

_______

a. Tyrosine, Histadine

b. Histadine, Serine

c. Histadine, Tryptophan

d. Tyrosine, Tyrosine

45. Which hormone stimulates glucose production and inhibits protein synthesis?

a. Insulin

b. Cortisol

c. Epinephrine

d. Aldosterone

46. What are the three major categories of water-soluble hormones?

a. Steroid hormones, amine hormones, protein hormones

b. Amine hormones, thyroid hormones, eicosanoid hormones

c. Eicosanoid hormones, amine hormones, peptide hormones

d. Peptide hormones, amide hormones, eicosanoid hormones

47. The posterior pituitary secretes which hormone:

a. Growth Hormone

b. Oxytocin

c. Prolactin

d. Thyroid Stimulating Hormone

48. What is the main action of insulin in adipose cells?

a. Increased synthesis of triglycerides

b. Decreased glycogen synthesis

c. Increased metabolism

d. None of the above

49. Which of the following is not true of Insulin-like Growth Factors (IGFs)?

a. IGFs increase uptake of amino acids into cells and accelerate protein synthesis to

cause cells to grow

b. Increases lipogenesis in adipose tissue to stimulate growth

c. Somatotrophs begin a pathway that results in the release of IGFs

d. IGFs promote healing of injuries and tissue repair in adults

50. Hormone secretion is kept in balance through:

a. Positive feedback

b. Wolff’s law

c. Negative feedback

d. Starling’s equilibrium

51. Interleukin - 2 is a cytokine secreted by helper T cells. IL-2 both activates nearby immune

cells, but also stimulates the same cell that released it to proliferate. What type of signaling is

IL-2 an example of?

a. Autocrine

b. Holocrine

c. Paracrine

d. A&B

e. B&C

f. A&C

g. None of the above

52. All of the following are endocrine glands EXCEPT:

a. adrenal glands

b. sebaceous glands

c. pineal glands

d. pituitary glands

53. Hormones that enter target cells and bind to receptors in the nucleus are called

a. steroid hormones.

b. water soluble hormones.

c. peptide hormones.

d. second messengers.

54. The following type of hormone involves a second messenger called cyclic AMP:

a. Lipid hormones

b. Non-lipid hormones

c. Prostaglandins

d. Cholesterol

55. Which of the following is/are not secondary messengers? (You may select more than

response)

a. Diacylglcyerol (DAG)

b. Ca2+

c. Inositol Triphosphate (IP3)

d. All of the above are secondary messengers

56. Which of the following is correct about calcium level regulation? You may select more than

one.

a. Calcitonin, which increases blood calcium levels.

b. Calcitonin, which decreases blood calcium levels.

c. Parathyroid hormone, which increases blood calcium levels.

d. Parathyroid hormone, which decreases blood calcium levels.

e. A & C

f. A & D

g. B & C

h. B & D

57. Type I diabetes is:

a. An autoimmune attack on the beta islet cells of the pancreas

b. An autoimmune attach on the alpha islet cells of the pancreas

c. Characterized by excessive thirst and excretion of large amounts of dilute urine

d. Due to the lack of cells’ ability to respond to insulin

58. Which of the following accurately describes thyroid hormone?

a. Binds to receptors on the inside of the cell

b. Binds to receptors on the outside of the cell

c. Derived from cholesterol

d. Released from the anterior pituitary

59. A patient has been increasingly thirsty and has to get up several times during the night to

urinate. Her appetite has also increased significantly. Lab tests conducted show increased

blood glucose levels, and urine tested positive for glucose and ketones. Her blood pH was

also more acidic. Please answer the following questions: (3 points)

a. Which condition does the patient suffer from? (1 point)

b. Describe the reason for elevated blood glucose levels. (1 point)

c. Why does the patient have fruity odor? (1 point)

60.

Above is an important precursor molecule to a class of hormones. Answer the following

questions about it below: (5 points)

a. Identify the precursor molecule: (1 point)

b. With cyclooxygenase and other enzymes, the molecule can be converted into prostaglandins

and leukotrienes. What cells DO NOT secrete these hormones? (2 points)

c. What is the precursor molecule derived from? (HINT: It's a structure ALL cells have) (2

points)

61. Draw the feedback loop of insulin. What kind of feedback is it? (6 points)

62. Label the following diagram below: (Please be as specific as possible) (4 points, 1 point per

label)

63. Patient Greenboy is sick and he needs your help! Upon performing a thorough examination,

he has an enlarged thyroid gland, slightly protruding eyes, and red swollen skin on top of his

shin and feet. Answer the following questions: (Tiebreaker #3) (4 points)

a. What disease does Patient Greenboy have, and what is it caused by? (2 points)

b. Explain the cause of his slightly protruding eyes. (2 points)


Team Name: _____________________________


______________________________

1


Princeton Science Olympiad Anatomy & Physiology Please write all your answers here. Part 1 – Nervous System: 1. ________________

2. ________________

3. ________________

4. ________________

5. ________________

6. ________________

7. ________________

8. ________________

9. ________________

10. ________________

11. ________________

12. ________________

13. ________________

14. ________________

15. ________________

16. ________________

17. ________________

18. ________________


Team Name: _____________________________


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19.

20. a. __________________

b. __________________

c. __________________

d. __________________

e. __________________

21.

a. __________________

b. __________________

c. __________________

22.


Team Name: _____________________________


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23.

24.


Team Name: _____________________________


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Part 2 – Sensory System

25. ________________

26. ________________

27. ________________

28. ________________

29. _________________

30. __________________

31. __________________

32. a. ________________________

b. ________________________

c. ________________________

d. ________________________

e. ________________________

33. ________________

34. ________________

35. ________________

36. ________________

37.


Team Name: _____________________________


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38. _________________

39.

a. ___________________

b. ___________________

c. ___________________

d. ___________________

e. ___________________

f. ___________________

40.

a.

b.

c.

41. a.

b.

c.


Team Name: _____________________________


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Part 3 – Endocrine System 42. _________________

43. _________________

44. _________________

45. _________________

46. _________________

47. _________________

48. _________________

49. _________________

50. _________________

51. _________________

52. _________________

53. _________________

54. _________________

55. _________________

56. _________________

57. _________________

58. _________________

59.

a.

b.

c.


Team Name: _____________________________


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60. a.

b.

c.

61.


Team Name: _____________________________


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62. a.

b.

c.

d.

63.

a.

b.


Team Name: _____________________________


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Princeton Science Olympiad Anatomy & Physiology Please write all your answers here. Part 1 – Nervous System: 1. __C______________ 2. __B______________ 3. __D______________ 4. __B______________ 5. __C______________ 6. __C______________ 7. __D______________ 8. __C______________ 9. __A/B/E (1.5 Points for this question, 0.5 point for each)__ 10. __A______________ 11. __A______________ 12. __B______________ 13. __E______________ 14. __C______________ 15. __C______________ 16. __E______________ 17. __A______________ 18. __E______________ 19. Total 4 Points

Any two of the following: epilepsy/seizures, sleep disorders, tumors, encephalopathies, head injuries, stroke, brain death (1 point for correct disorder) EEG detects all electrical activity in the brain from the electrodes placed on the scalp of the brain. The frequency pattern and location of electrical activity can be used to diagnose different disorders. (2 Points for description of EEG)

20. Total 5 Points (1 Point each) a. _ F; Cerebellum b. _ G; Wernicke’s Area c. _ H; Occipital Lobe d. _ A; Frontal lobe e. _ D; Medulla oblongata


Team Name: _____________________________


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21. Total 3 Points (1 Point each) a. __ Barbiturates ______________ b. __ Alcohol c. __ Caffeine

22. Total 2 Points (1 Point for each of the explanation below)

binds to and inhibits acetylcholinesterase; prevents breakdown of acetylcholine

23. Total 2 Points Arrival of stimulus (needle), Activation of receptor, Action potential in sensory neuron, Information processed in CNS, Activation of a motor neuron, Response by effector (lifts foot)

24. Total 3 points; 1 for name of procedure, 1 for ideal location, 1 for example of disease

Name of Procedure: Called Lumbar puncture, lumbar tab or spinal tap Ideal Location: Fluid removed from subarachnoid space inferior to L3 (inferior to L3 is also acceptable) Example of Disease: Most commonly used to confirm suspected meningitis Other possible disease answers: subarachnoid hemorrhage, hydrocephalus, benign intracranial hypertension, presence of malignant cells in the CSF, as in carcinomatous meningitis or medulloblastoma


Team Name: _____________________________


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Part 2 – Sensory System

25. __B______________ 26. __C______________ 27. __A______________ 28. __C______________ 29. __ D______________ 30. __ B______________ 31. __ D______________ 32. Total 5 Points (1 Point each)

a. _ Taste Pore _______________ b. _ Microvilli _______________ c. _ Supporting Cells ______________ d. _ Sensory cells/gustatory receptor cell e. _ basal cells _______________

33. __C______________ 34. __E______________ 35. __C______________ 36. __C______________ 37. 4 Points… 1 point each for sentence…

Vibration of the basilar membrane causes hair bundles at apex of hair cell to bend back and forth against one another. As the stereocilia bend, the transduction channels are opened, allowing K+ from the endolymph to enter the hair cell cytosol. This produces a depolarizing receptor potential, which causes voltage gated Ca2+ channels to open. Inflow of Ca2+ triggers exocytosis of synaptic vesicles containing neurotransmitters.

38. ___C______________ 39. __6 Points (1 Point each)________________

a. __ Semicircular Canals ____________ b. __ Ampulla ____________ c. __ round window ____________ d. __ Utricle ____________ e. __ Oval Window ____________ f. __ Cochlea ____________

40. Total 5 Points a. (1 point for disease identification, and 1 point for location)

Otitis Media, an acute infection of the MIDDLE EAR


Team Name: _____________________________


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b. Bacteria passing into auditory tube from the nasopharynx (1 Point)

c. (1 point for auditory tubes horizontal, and 1 point for why that makes children more susceptible) Because their auditory tubes are horizontal, which decreases drainage of fluid from the middle ear.

41. Total 4 points

a. Nyctalopia (1 Point) b. (1 point for malnutrition/not eat properly, 1 point for Vitamin A mention)

Malnutrition, leading to the lack of Vitamin A that is commonly found in fish oils, liver, and dairy products

c. X-linked (1 Point)

Part 3 – Endocrine System 42. __B/D_____(0.5 point for each)_ 43. __B______________ 44. __C______________ 45. __B______________ 46. __C______________ 47. __B______________ 48. __A______________ 49. __B______________ 50. __C______________ 51. __F______________ 52. __B______________ 53. __A______________ 54. __B______________ 55. __D______________ 56. __G______________ 57. __A______________ 58. __A______________


Team Name: _____________________________


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59. Total 3 Points (1 Point each)

a. _ Diabetes Mellitus (need to specify diabetes mellitus; 0.5 points if only diabetes)

b. _ Not enough insulin is being made. c. _ Acetone (ketone bodies) have a fruity odor ______________

60. Total 5 Points a. ___ Arachidonic Acid_ (1 Point) b. ___ Red Blood Cells__ (2 Points) c. ___ The precursor molecule is derived from phospholipids. (Linoleic acid is

also an acceptable answer)__(2 Points)___________

61. Total 6 Points

Stimulus: Increase in blood glucose (1 point)

Increase in insulin secretion from pancreas (1 point)

Effect: o increase in glucose absorption (1 point), o increase in conversion of glucose to glucagon in liver (1 point)

Decrease in blood glucose (1 point)

Negative Feedback (1 point)


Team Name: _____________________________


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62. 4 points, 1 point per label a. Pars Tuberalis b. Pars Distalis c. Infundibulum d. Posterior Lobe/Neurohypophysis/Posterior Pituitary Gland (Any one of

three)

63. Total 4 Points a. (1 point for disease identification, 1 point for what it is caused by)

Grave’s Disease, which is caused by antibody production mimicking thyroid-stimulating hormone, resulting in continued stimulation of the thyroid gland and overproduction of the thyroid hormones.

b. (1 point for overproduction of antibodies, 1 point for similar antibody receptors in extraocular muscle) Overproduction of the antibodies may bind to a similar antibody receptors present in the extraocular muscle

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2016-2017 Anatomy & Physiology Exam Princeton Science ... · 2016-2017 Anatomy & Physiology Exam Princeton Science Olympiad Invitational ... tetanus c. spatial summation ... Which