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PCG PROMOTIONAL EXAMINATION
COAST GUARD REQUIREMENT
REVIEWER FOR
CY 2014
Doctrine Development and Research Institute
COAST GUARD EDUCATION AND TRAINING COMMAND
PROMEX BOARD
CGRR-DDRI Reviewer2014
Introduction
The non-commissioned officers of the PCG follow a district structure or career development distinguished by different course and phases of examination. The courses are, (aside from the basic CGMC which is a pre – entry requirement), the functional courses, specialization courses and leadership and management courses. No NCO therefore can be promoted to the next higher rank if the requisite course is not taken and passed. However, apart from the career courses, a PCG – NCO is also required to take and pass the promotional exam upon reaching the rank of E-3 or E-6. There are two promotional examinations that an NCO should pass during their entire career. The first level exam tests the personnel’s knowledge of the organization and the rating or specialization the personnel belongs to. In the second level what is tested is the NCOs knowledge on leadership and management. Due to the importance of the PROMEX in an NCO’s career, the PCG through the PROMEX Board has been publishing a reviewer annually, 30 days before the commencement of the exam cycle.
Purpose of this Reviewer
The purpose of the Promotional Examination (PROMEX) reviewer is to provide a timely and accessible overview on previous acquired knowledge and experienced and to have a quality assurance on large percentage output of PROMEX passers. It also gives the students an actual view of the possible generated questions to come out even though it is randomly selected by the system during the examination proper. The qualified Non- Commissioned officer is expected to undertake and ready to take the examination at the scheduled time.
Administration of PROMEX Questions
This reviewer is a product of the first PROMEX Workshop conducted at The Hub at Kilometer Zero on 23 May 2014. Examination questions were designed and modified by different participants who are knowledgeable in the field of the various PCG specializations. All questions for each field of specialization were reviewed and rationalized by the PROMEX board members and personnel of Doctrine Development and Research Institute (DDRI). The maximum 500 questions banked in the streamlined PCG PROMEX AptiQuiz software are officially approved by the PROMEX Board members.
During the examination, the ONLY authorized personnel to administer and give the examination are the designated PROMEX Proctors. The examinations runs for 2 hours or 120 minutes in duration and it will be conducted in the assigned examination room initiated by the districts.
Examination Policy and Procedures
a) Only qualified PCG Non-Commissioned Officers are allowed to take the PROMEX in reference to the official list released by Headquarters (CG-1).
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b) The standard requirements for strict compliance during the examination proper are the following:
1. Copy of recommendation of Unit CO;2. Copy of Non-pending Case;3. Updated Summary of Information (SOI); and4. Copy of Certificate of Completion of the requisite course.
Failure to comply or if requirements are incomplete shall mean disallowance to take the PROMEX during the scheduled time.
c) During Rest and Recreation or on Leave, qualified candidate may take the PROMEX at the designated testing areas provided that they bring with them their MARLEN “A” as a prescribed uniform during the exam and other required documents and procure the consent of the District Commander under whose AOR the testing center belongs.
d) Sequence in taking the exam is in a first come first serve basis. However, if a group comes in at the same time then RHIP will be used as the external. The PROMEX Board will provide laptops to be utilized during the examination for reliability and security of the PROMEX.
e) Cell phones and other gadgets that may distract during the examination are NOT allowed.
f) Prescribed uniform during the PROMEX shall be MARLEN “A”.
g) Result of examination will be announced later through radio message through channels.
h) Cheating and other forms of dishonesty are absolutely forbidden and shall be dealt with accordingly.
i) Non-Commissioned Officers are allowed to take the computerized PROMEX thrice a year. They are allowed to retake 3 months after the date of their first examination. Failure for 3 consecutive attempts will cause the NCO to face the Non- Commissioned Officer Promotional Board for disposition.
j) Retake examination will be administered at O/DDRI, CGETC in the presence of at least one PROMEX board for validity purposes. The cut - off date for retake will officially be closed every 20th of June.
PROMEX Board Contact Information
E-mail Address: [email protected] or
Telephone Numbers: Page 2 of 39
(02) 243-0464 and (02) 261-1804
Cell phone Numbers: 0917-511-9881 0917-832-0856
Contact Persons: PO3 Luzviminda M Almeniana PCG PO3 Jenny B Hilador PCG SW1 Shiela Mae B Jale PCG
References:
RA NO. 9993 DATED 12 FEB 10HPCG MEMORANDUM CIRCULAR NO. 03-05 DATED 12 FEB 10HPCG SOP 03-11 DATED 11 JULY 2011
1. It is the state wherein the country’s marine assets, maritime practices, territorial integrity and coastal peace and order are protected, conserved and enhanced.
a. Maritime Security c. Maritime Policy
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b. Marine Policy d. Maritime Environment
2. A dimension of maritime law enforcement which covers the policies on the preservation and protection of the marine environment so as to protect, conserve and enhance the country’s assets is:
a. Military Dimension c. Security Awarenessb. Food Dimension d. Environment Dimension
3. It is a state or quality of being free from danger.
a. Safety c. Dimensionb. Security d. Protection
4. As part of shipboard indoctrination newly assigned personnel should read:
a. Latest text about navigation c. Ship’s organization bookb. Publication pertaining to military justice d. Shore patrol regulations
5. A state of mind and implies an undertaking of security principles, security procedures and security objective is:
a. Safety Dimension c. Security Alertnessb. Safety Protection d. Security Awareness
6. Aspect of security which deals with measures to prevent unauthorized disclosure of classified information.
a. Communication security c. Personnel securityb. Document security d. Physical security
7. It is a graphical representation of three elements of fire.
a. Fire Ax c. Fire Tetrahedron b. Fire Dimension d. Fire Triangle
8. To eliminate the heat side of the fire triangle, what is the most commonly used cooling agent?
a. Carbon dioxide c. Foamb. Dry chemical d. Water
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9. It is the over-all public administration of matters pertaining to financial agency rules and procedures to ensure implementation of maritime policy and carry out mandated functions of safety regulatory and development of economic concerns.
a. Maritime Security c. Maritime Search and Rescueb. Marine Environmental Protection d Maritime Administration
10. It is a sworn written statement, charging a person with an offense subscribed by the offended party.
a. Arrest c. Informationb. Complaint d. Inquest
11. During prolonged periods of general quarters, which fitting may be opened on authority of the Commanding Officer?
a. Black Circle X-ray or Yoke c. Circle Williamb. Black “D” Zebra d. Red Circle Zebra
12. Which of the following signaling devices is best used during daylight hours when seas are rough and choppy and friendly craft is in sight?
a. Sea marker die c. Signal whistle b. Signal mirror d. Smoke signal
13. About how long a man normally survives without water?
a. 4 to 6 days c. 16 to 24 daysb. 8 to 12 days d. 32 to 48 days
14. A man without food, but supplied with water, may normally live for:
a. 10 days c. 15 days b. 20 days d. 30 days
15. What is the first precaution you should observe when unloading a jammed caliber 45 pistol?
a. Draw the hammer to the rear c. Push up on the safety lockb. Engage the slide stop d. Remove the magazine
16. What is the maximum effective range of an M16 rifle?
a. 250 meters c. 350 metersb. 300 meters d. 460 meters
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17. Assume that you are on the firing range. What safety precaution should you observe when you are not on the firing line?
a. Keeping the muzzle of your rifle pointed towards the targetb. Keeping your rifle cocked and set on safec. Locking the bolt of your rifle in the open positiond. Making sure the chamber of your rifle is empty and the bolt closed
18. The objective of a security investigation before granting a security clearance is to determine the person’s?
a. Financial status c. Criminal recordb. Trustworthy character d. Intelligence
19. General Court-Martial may consist of any number of members not less than:
a. 2 c. 4b. 3 d. 5
20. The term is used to identify a field of work of a PCG non-commissioned officer occupational specialty.
a. Assignment c. Rating b. Pay grade d. Skill
21. How is the spacing for normal interval measured?
a. One arm’s length c. One full stepb. One half step d. One half arm’s length
22. Which of the following movement do you execute with your right feet first?
a. About face c. Left faceb. Forward march d. Left step march
23. Which of the following position best describes a person who is standing at attention?
a. Hands resting at the back b. Heels together with feet forming 45 degrees anglec. Legs straight and stiff at the kneesd. Relaxed, with feet apart about 12 inches
24. To dismiss a squad with rifles, as a squad leader, what will be your subsequent command?
a. All Squad dismiss c. Inspection arms, port arms, dismissb. All Squad Fall out d. Port arm all dismiss
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25. Which of the following terms is defined as “the lateral space between elements in column formation”?
a. Base c. File b. Distance d. Interval
26. Which of the following PCG uniformed personnel offenses is best described by the collective insubordinate or group’s willful resistance against duly constituted military authority?
a. Insurgency c. Rebellionb. Mutiny d. Sedition
27. Which of the following PCG uniformed personnel offenses is committed by a person subject to PCG law who failed to report at a designated place of duty at a given time?
a. Absent Without Leave c. Misbehavior before the enemyb. Desertion of sentinel d. Misbehavior of a sentinel
28. The primary purpose of reprimand is to:
a. Embarrass c. Punishb. Humiliate d. Teach
29. A seaman is held under restraint but is required to perform all his military duties. This form of restraint is known as:
a. Apprehension c. Confinementb. Arrest d. Restriction
30. Assume that you are about to enter a smoke filled compartment to make emergency repair. If you wear a gas mask, what condition safety measures should you take?
a. Carry a flash safety lamp c. Wear a life jacketb. Remove your clothing d. Secure a lifeline to your body
31. A binocular used aboardship is classified as :
a. Equipage c. Logistics Suppliesb. Consumable supplies d. Repair parts
32. Which of the following ammunition is not gun ammunition?
a. Bag ammunition c. Rocket ammunitionb. Fixed ammunition d. Semi-fixed ammunition
33. Most accidental discharge of firearms is caused by:
a. Carelessness in handling the firearmsb. Failure of the firearms mechanical parts
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c. Faulty ammunitiond. Faulty safety measures
34. Which of the following measures should you take to treat a slight cut on your hand if you cannot get medical attention immediately?
a. Bandage it tightly w/ a handkerchiefb. Cover it w/ clean oil or greasec. Soak it in salt waterd. Wash it in soap & water
35. A vertical extension on the mast from which the ship commission pennant is flown.
a. Flag staff c. Jackstaffb. Gaff d. Pigstick
36. Which is NOT a classifications of court martial?
a. Civil c. Generalb. Special d. Summary
37. Who among the following PCG uniformed personnel are you going to consult when you are in doubt as to the condition of a rope?
a. Boatswain’s mate c. Enginemanb. Electrician d. Quartermaster
38. It is also known as the foreshore and seashore and sometimes referred to as the littoral zone.
a. Continental Slope c. Mangroveb. Intertidal Zone d. Middle Tidal Zone
39. Used to differentiate vegetable oil, animal oil and mineral oil, which is also used during initial analysis of spilled oil.
a. Atomic Absorption Spectrometer b. Fourier Transformer Infraredc. Gas Chromatograph w/ Mass Spectrometerd. High Performance Liquid Chromatograph
40. Which of the following terms means the opening in a bulwark which gives access to a brow?
a. Accommodation ladder c Gangwayb. Gangplank d. Ramp
41. The vessel safety inspections conducted by the PCG prior to departure is focused on:
a. Clear grounds that the vessel does not comply with safety requirements;b. Competency of the crew
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c. Continuing compliance with safety standardsd. Equipped with required firefighting and lifesaving appliances
42. The vessel safety inspection is described as:
a. Carried out only by qualified inspectorsb. Checklist based procedurec. Vessel specific;d. Without prejudice to the conduct of random inspection
43. More detailed inspection is done:
a. When no PDI was conductedb. When there are clear grounds of unseaworthinessc. When there is stoppage of an operationd. When the vessel’s condition does not comply substantially
44. The list of passengers who have been issued with tickets for a particular voyage is referred to as:
a. Final passenger manifestb. Initial Passenger Manifestc. Passenger capacityd. Total authorized passenger capacity
45. An assessment report conducted by the VSE Inspectors in relation to emergency response of officers and crew of the vessel on dealing evitable emergency circumstances is referred to as:
a. Clear grounds Reportb. Emergency Circumstance Reportc. Emergency Readiness Evaluation Reportd. Passenger Manifest
46. The list of persons who boarded the vessel is referred to as:
a. Final Passenger Manifestb. Initial Passenger Manifestc. Passenger Manifestd. Total Authorized passenger capacity
47. It is an area within defined limits in which one-way traffic is established.
a. Area to be avoidedb. Precautionary areac. Recommended Trackd. Traffic Lane
48. Defined as the area where a typhoon may probably pass during the next 48 hours graphically constructed is referred as:
a. Area to be avoided
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b. Danger Sector c. Precautionary aread. Traffic Lane
49. Refers to those voyages where the distance from the point of origin to the point of destination shall not exceed four kilometers or 2.16 NM.
a. Long Distance Voyages b. Route Areas Voyagesc. Short Distance Voyagesd. Special Areas Voyages
50. A vessel, which is required by the Rules of the Road to give way to another vessel during a crossing situation is referred to as:
a. Burdened vesselb. Privileged vesselc. Self-propelled barges.d. Tankers
51. A system consisting of those aids to navigation, floating and fixed, lighted and unlighted that have been established referred to as:
a. Buoyage Systemb. Cardinal Mark c. Cardinal Systemd. Lateral Mark
52. Are floating structures, moored to the bottom, used to mark channels and fairways and others dangers to navigation, where permanent structures would be either uneconomical or impractical.
a. Articulated Buoyb. Buoysc. Cardinal Marksd. Racon
53. It is a mark erected on, or moored on or above, an isolated danger which has navigable waters all around it:
a. Buoyage Systemb. Cardinal Mark c. Isolated Danger Marksd. Lateral Mark
54. Refers to a rescue of seriously damage or incapacitated ship and towing her to a safe place.
a. Rescueb. Safetyc. Salvaged. Towing
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55. A memorandum Circular that requires a navigational clearance for road bridges:
a. MC 05-96b. MC 05-97c. MC 05-98d. MC 05-99
56. It is a set of procedures and guidelines entailing the prescribed standard of actions in preparing for conducting and terminating operations.
a. Law Enforcement Operationsb. Maritime Security Operations c. Rules of Engagementd. Use of Force Operations
57. The operations conducted by government agencies in pursuance of law enforcement:
a. Law Enforcement Operations b. Maritime Security operationsc. Rules of Engagementd. Use of Force operations
58. A report that must be submitted immediately upon a completion of a mission:
a. After-mission Reportb. Apprehension Report c. Investigation Reportd. MARSLEN Report
59. If the offense requires a preliminary investigation, the complaint shall be filed with:
a. Coast guard districtsb. Judge’s officec. Police stationd. The Prosecutor’s office
60. A Search Warrant is valid within:
a. 10 days upon it is issuedb. 11 days upon it is issuedc. 15 days upon it is issuedd. 16 days upon it is issued
61. Signifies a reasonable ground of suspicion supported by circumstances sufficiently strong in themselves to warrant a cautious man’s belief that the person accused is guilty of the offense with which he is charged is referred as:
a. Exigent Circumstancesb. Illustrative Casec. Probable Caused. Substantial Evidence
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62. Is the stage wherein a person (suspect) undergoes questioning initiated by a law enforcement officer after the person has been taken into custody or otherwise deprived of his freedom of action in any significant way:
a. Custodial Investigationb. Inquest Proceedingsc. Probable Caused. Substantial Evidence
63. Refers to a vessel not at anchor, a ground or made fast to shore:
a. Constrained by draftb. Not under Commandc. Restricted Visibilityd. Underway
64. Refers to a vessel or watercraft that is subject for law enforcement operations.
a. Assumed Hostile vesselb. Hostile watercraft c. Non-hostile watercraftd. Target Vessel
65. SUA stand for:
a. Convention for the Suppression of Unlawful Acts Against the Safety of Maritime Navigationb. Convention for the Suppression of Unlawful Acts Against the Safety of Maritime Securityc. Convention for the Suppression of Unlawful Actsd. Convention for the Unlawful Acts Against the Safety of Maritime Navigation
66. It is the prescribed publication pertaining to matters that are directive, advisory or informative in nature, the term of which may either be temporary or permanent in duration.
a. General ordersb. Letter ordersc. Memorandumd. Special orders
67. It is a set of instructions in giving the procedures to be followed as a matter of routine, like the preparation and submission of reports or performance of those features of operations both tactical and administrative which commander desires to make as routine:
a. General Ordersb. Letter of Instructionsc. Memorandum of Agreementd. Standing Operating Procedures
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68. It is a published document prescribing guidance for operations involving large command and control thereof over a long period of time, which may be distributed to other interested commands for information:
a. General Ordersb. Letter of Instructionsc. Radio Messages d. Special Orders
69. Part of the LOI which described the concept of operations and tasks to be performed by concerned units:
a. Administration and Logisticsb. Executionc. Missiond. Situation
70. Routine directives that pertain to personnel administration which may either be temporary or permanent in effect:
a. Directiveb. General Ordersc. Letter of Instructionsd. Special Orders
71. A form that will be used to request, recommend, direct or report of any personnel for which no other standard form is required:
a. Personnel Action Formb. Personal History Summaryc. Letter of Instructionsd. Summary of Information
72. Has the jurisdiction to hear and deliberate the submitted DR taking into consideration the explanation of the offender and submit the result of their findings to respective CGETC Unit Commander.
a. Awarding Authorityb. Disciplinary Boardc. Reporting Authorityd. Unit Commander
73. Delinquency Reports which have been acted upon by the Awarding Authority and the commensurate punishment is imposed:
a. Awarded DRb. Moral Certaintyc. Revoked DRd. Reporting Authority
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74. A Delinquency report which contains a valid and justifying explanation thus exonerating the offender from the offense committed:
a. Awarded DRb. Moral Certaintyc. Reporting Authorityd. Revoked DR
75. Refers to Commander, CGETC and Unit Commanders who may award the appropriate punishment in connection with the DR.
a. Awarding Authorityb. Disciplinary Boardc. Reporting Authorityd. Unit Commanding Officer
76. A rod or a post where the national ensign is hoisted located at the after section of the ship.
a. Flag Staffb. Hanger winchc. Rope reeld. Tender
77. Partial deck below the lowest complete deck, which admits machineries.
a. Platform Deckb. Protective Deckc. Quarter Deckd. Weather deck
78. The outside covering or the skin of the ship, sometimes known as the strakes.
a. Garboard b. Platingc. Sheer d. Weather
79. A term applied to any one of the partition walls which subdivide the interior of a ship into compartments or rooms.
a. Bilgeb. Bulkheadc. Hullsd. Stanchions
80. It is the water and other form of liquids ex: (water, sea water, oil, sludge, chemicals) accumulated in the lowest part of the ship.
a. Ballast Water b. Bilge Water c. Clean Ballast d. Clean Water
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81. The Annex I under the MARPOL 73/78 refers to:
a. Regulations for the Control of Pollution by Noxious Liquid Substances in Bulkb. Regulation for the Prevention of Pollution by Oilc. Prevention of Pollution by Harmful Substances Carried by Sea in Packaged
Formd. Prevention of Pollution by Sewage from Ships
82. The mandatory Annexes in MARPOL 73/78 are:
a. Annex I and Annex IIb. Annex III and Annex IVc. Annex IV and Annex Vd. Annex V and Annex VI
83. The weight of the ship including cargo, passengers, fuel, water, stores, dunnage and such other items necessary for use on a voyage, which brings the ship down to her load draft is called:
a. Deadweight c. Displacement, Loaded b. Displacement, Light d. Gross Tonnage
84. The International Convention on Standards of Training, Certification and Watchkeeping (STCW) for seafarers was adapted by member nations of the International Maritime Organization (IMO) during an international conference in:
a. 1912b. 1976c. 1977d. 1978
85. The first version of SOLAS is in response to:
a. L/A Titanic c. RHM Titanicb. M/V Titanic d. R/M Titanic
86. The first adoption of SOLAS was:
a. 01 April 1974 c. 01 Oct 1974 b. 01 May 1974 d. 01 Nov 1974
87. Which survey is not intended for passenger ships stated on regulation 7 of SOLAS 74’?
a. Anchor Survey c. Initial Survey b. Annual Survey d. Renewal Survey
88. Which of the following is not an element of fire?
a. Flame Suppression c. Heat b. Fuel d. Oxygen
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89. What is GPS stands for?
a. Global Pattern System c. Global Position Systemb. Global Position Standard d. Global Preparation System
90. EPIRB stands for:
a. Electronic Position Indicating Radio Beacon b. Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beaconc. Emergency Positioning Indicating Radiation Beacond. Emergency Positioning Indicating Radio Beacon
91. How many chapters do SOLAS 74’ has?
a. 12 c. 15 b. 14 d. 16
92. When the water evaporates from the heat of the fire, this takes a large quantity of energy from the fire.
a. Hard Water c. Soft Waterb. Mist d. Solid Water
93. When released into a closed space, it will form a mist:
a. CO² c. Heatb. H²O d. Liquid
94. ISM Code stands for:
a. International Safety Management b. International Safeguard Managementc. International Ship Managementd. Inter Ship Management
95. ARPA stands for:
a. Automatics’ Radar Aid c. Automatic Radar Plotting Aidb. Automatic Radio Aids d. Automatic Radar Plotting Aids
96. Means a voyage from a country to which the present Convention applies to a port such country, or conversely.
a. International Convention c. Inter Island Voyageb. Inter-domestic Voyage d. International Voyage
97. It is a radio and equipment and installation including any used in life saving appliances. Valid up to five (5) years, but subject for annual survey, supplemented by a record of equipment.
a. Cargo Ship Radio Certificate
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b. Cargo Ship Safety Radio Certificate c. Fishing Boat Radio Certificate d. Yacht Radio Certificate
98. These are really watertight closing appliances, used in watertight bulkheads, for instance between engine rooms called:
a. Accommodation Doors c. Exterior Doorsb. Interior Doors d. Watertight Doors
99. It is considered as the excellent extinguishing agent onboard ship.
a. CO² c. Halonb. Foam d. Water
100. Every ship needs means of getting people on board safely called:
a. Accommodation Ladder c. Jacobs Ladderb. Fireman’s Ladder d. Open Ladder
101. The accommodation ladder is a safety measure base on SOLAS 74’:
a. Safety Brake c. Safety Netb. Safety Hat or Hard Hat d. Safety Rope
102. In SOLAS 74’ MSC stands for:
a. Marine Safety Committee b. Mariners Safety Committeec. Maritime Safety Commandd. Marine Standard Committee
103. The STCW stands for:
a. Standard Trainers, Certification and Watch b. Safety of Training, Certification and Watches c. Standard of Training, Certification and Watchkeeping d. Standard Trainings, Certification for Watchkeeping
104. Is a chemical reaction caused when a flammable compound reacts with oxygen?
a. Combustion c. Heat b. Fuel d. Ignition
105. The heat that is necessary to start the fire must possess certain elements.
a. Combustion c. Heat b. Fuel d. Ignition
106. The first line of defense on board is usually the:
a. Abandon Ship c. Portable Fire Extinguisher
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b. Fire Drill d. Water
107. Which of the following is not an advantages of CO² (Carbon Dioxide)?
a. No Consequential damageb. Relatively low cost materialc. The action is not repeatable d. Transport over long distance
108. What is the amendment relating to personnel on passenger and ro-ro passenger ships?
a. 1991 Amendments c. 1997 Amendmentsb. 1994 Amendments d. 1998 Amendments
109. How many minimum hours of rest in any 24-hours period required for watchkeepers?
a. 5 c. 10b. 15 d. 20
110. When did Manila Amendments adopted?
a. 25 June 2010 c. 25 September 2010b. 25 August 2010 d. 25 October 2010
111. When STCW was first adopted?
a. 07 July 1978 c. 07 September 1978b. 07 August 1978 d. 07 October 1978
112. What is the authority of an administration has over vessels with their own registration (flag) regardless of where they are operating?
a. Flag State Control c. Port State Controlb. IMO d. MARINA
113. Which identifies the countries that have demonstrated a plan of full compliance with the STCW Convention and Code as revised in 1995?
a. The “Black List” c. The “White List” b. The “Pink List” d. The “Yellow List”
114. As a flag state, the Philippines regulates the operation of how many vessels?
a. 10 c. 1000
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b. 500 d. 1500
115. Based on Manila Amendments, the intervals between consecutive periods of rest shall not exceed for how many hours?
a. 10 c. 14b. 12 d. 16
116. Refers to the document issued by the MARINA to all Filipino seafarers and other ship personnel complement onboard vessels below 35 GT.
a. Seafarer’s Identification Bookb. Seafarer’s Institution Bookc. Seafarer’s Instruction Bookd. Seafarer’s Internal Book
117. In the Philippines under a MARINA Circular No.2010 - 02, how much is the first offense penalty of a Shipping Company for the deploying a seafarer without SIB onboard vessel?
a. Php 1,000.00 c. Php 10,000.00b. Php 5,000.00 d. Php 15,000.00
118. In the Philippines under a MARINA Circular No.2010 - 02, how much is the first offense penalty of a Seafarer for holding fake/tampered/forged SIB?
a. Php 1000.00 c. Php 5000.00b. Php 10,000.00 d. Php 15,000.00
119. What is the authority of an administration has over vessels operating within their waters (jurisdiction) regardless of Flag?
a. IMO c. Port State Controlb. Flag State Control d. MARINA
120. Refers to the duly certificated and/or licensed deck, engine and radio officer onboard.
a. Cook c. Ship Officer b. Mess Man d. Steward
121. It is a training course prescribed for seafarers onboard ships 35 GT and above under Regulation VI/I of the STCW Convention, as amended.
a. Basic Safety Training c. Basic Standard Trainingb. Basic Situation Training d. Basic States Training
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122. Which is not a part of the BST modules based on the IMO Model Course.
a. Banking c. Fire Fightingb. Elementary First Aid d. Personal Survival Technique
123. This is a valid document, by whatever name it may be known, issued by the Administration, authorizing the holder to serve as stated in this document.
a. Copy of Certificatesb. Duplication of Certificatesc. Destruction of Certificatesd. Endorsement of Certificates
124. This means the recognition of training certificates issued by other flag states.
a. Addition Entry c. Division Entryb. Cross Entry d. Subtraction Entry
125. What are the instruments which state or reflect decisions taken by the entity which is empowered to adopt them?
a. Code c. Regulationsb. Convention d. Resolutions
126. How many chapters are present in the Annex of STCW 95?
a. 2 c. 6b. 4 d. 8
127. It is one of the significantly changed by STCW that is monitoring of training, assessment and certification procedures.
a. Quality Safety System c. Quality Standards Systemb. Quality Security System d. Quality Station System
128. What is the authority granting the training courses of seafarers?
a. CHED c. MTCb. MARINA d. PRC
129. From the list, which among the following actions is recommended when entering an area known for pirate activity?
a. Confine all ship’s personnel in one room b. Transit with maximum safe speed
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c. Transit at night time only d. Turn off all lights
130. Who is responsible in issuing an ISPS certificate?
a. Flag State c. Insurance Company b. Inspection Authority d. Port State
131. Who is primarily responsible for the development of the Ship Security Plan?
a. Classification Societyb. Company Security Officer c. Port Facility Security Officerd. Ship Security Officer
132. Which Security Level requires the highest security alert?
a. Security Level 1 c. Security Level 3b. Security Level 2 d. Security Level 4
133. What is a Declaration of Security?
a. A Checklist jointly completed by the ship and port facility security officer during different security levels
b. A checklist jointly completed by the ship security representative and the Philippine Coast Guard
c. A document between the Port and the Cargo owner stating security arrangements
d. A document between the Port and Flag state stating security alertness
134. Which of the Convention makes the ISPS mandatory?
a. MARPOL b. SOLASb. STCW 95c. COLREGS
135. When is a visitor required to present an ID?
a. Security Level 1, 2 and 3 b. Security Level 2 and 3c. Security Level 3d. Security Level 4
136. Who is responsible for the regular security inspection of the ship?
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a. The Classification Society b. The Company Security Officerc. The Port Facility Security Officerd. The Ship Security Officer
137. ISPS had been entered into force since:
a. June 24, 2004 c. July 1, 2004 b. June 4, 2004 d. July 4, 2004
138. It is an agency primarily responsible for all anti-smuggling operations in maritime waters in the Philippines as per Presidential Memorandum No. 225:
a. Bureau of Customs c. Philippine National Policeb. Philippine Coast Guard d. PRC
139. It is an examination of a man’s house or other building, premises or of a person with a view to the discovery of contraband or stole property or some evidence of guilt to be used in the prosecution of a criminal action for some offense with which he is charged:
a. Arrest c. Seizure b. Search d. Warrant
140. What document or certificate that should be presented to the proper authority upon turn-over of custody of apprehended person except turn-over of custody receipt?
a. Affidavit of Apprehending Partyb. Bio-data of Apprehended Personc. Investigation Reportd. Medical Certificate
141. In filing a criminal case to the court against apprehended suspects in violation of Section 88 of RA 8550, Illegal Fishing by means of Explosive, what is the most important evidence that should be presented?
a. Fish Sampleb. Explosivec. Inventory List of Confiscated Items d. Scientific Examination Report of Fish Samples
142. What section in the Bill of Rights that states “No person shall be deprived of life, liberty or property without due process of law, nor shall any person be denied the equal protection of the laws”?
a. Section 1 c. Section 3b. Section 2 d. Section 4
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143. In the Bill of Rights, what section that states “Any person under investigation for the commission of an offense shall have that right to be informed of his right to remain silent and to have competent and independent counsel of his own choice”?
a. Section 12 c. Section 14b. Section 13 d. Section 15
144. How many days after the conclusion of the preliminary investigation of the Municipal Judge before it shall transmit to the provincial or city prosecution for appropriate action on the resolution?
a. 5 Days c. 10 Daysb. 7 Days d. 20 Days
145. Which is not included as one of the powers and functions of PCG under RA 9993 of Section 3?
a. Subject to the approval of the Commandant, PCG, to issue and enforce rules and regulations for the promotion of safety and life and property at sea on all maritime related activities.
b. To conduct emergency readiness evaluation on merchant marine vessels.c. To detain, stop or prevent a ship or vessel which does not comply with
safety standards, rules and regulations from sailing or leaving portd. To issue permits for the salvage of vessels and to supervise all marine
salvage operations, as well as prescribe and enforce rules and regulations governing the same
146. How many drums of PCG approved oil dispersants for Oil Refineries as required by companies engaged in oil?
a. 20 Drumsb. 30 Drumsc. 40 Drumsd. 50 Drums
147. In RA no. 9993, what function of the MARINA was returned to the PCG?
a. Emergency Readiness Evaluation b. Flag State Control c. Maritime Securityd. Port State Control
148. PLIMSOL mark is located at:
a. Amidship b. Port Side c. Starboard Sided. Waterline
149. In case of a collision of the ship, the following should be done except:
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a. Check if there is any ingress of water into the engine roomb. Stop the fuel transfer operation and raise the general alarm c. The engine room should be immediately manned in case of ums moded. The crew will then assess the danger of sinking, capsizing of flooding
150. In case of flooding, which among the following that should not be done?
a. Give little attention that the level should not flood any of the pump of the engine flywheel bottom level
b. Once pumping is started make sure the level of water should be going down and not increasing
c. Raise the emergency alarm, inform the bridge, slow down and stop the main engine
d. Take care that no water should fall onto any electrical started panel, device or writing
151. In case of grounding, which of the following should not be done?
a. Don’t stop the main engine and raise the emergency alarmb. Record the events and status of the main enginec. Report the condition of the engine room to the master who will assess the
danger of sinking, flooding, capsizing, oil pollution and vessel’s stabilityd. Take the sounding of all double bottom tanks in the engine room as well as
the cargo tanks check for intactness
152. GMDSS entered into force:
a. 1 January 1999b. 1 January 2000c. 1 February 1999d. 1 February 2001
153. A record of the date, time and location where a commercial vessel discharged contents from her bilge:
a. Engine Log Book b. Oil Record Bookc. Oil Balance Bookd. QM Log Book
154. Publication concerning change of the status of Aids to Navigation.
a. DSOR b. NOTAM c. VSDR d. WX Report
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155. Distinct feature of lighthouses, light beacons, light buoys and other similar aids to navigation to ensure that they are not mistaken for other facilities:
a. Light Characteristicsb. Luminosity Characteristicsc. Structural Foundationd. Structural Height
156. OSRAP stands for:
a. Oil Spill Readiness and Administration Programb. Oil Spill Readiness and Action Plan c. Oil Spill Response and Action Plan
d. Oil Spill Response and Action Project
157. The awareness of his responsibility to render just and fair service to the people and state is:
a. Honesty c. Professionalism b. Loyalty d. Public Accountability
158. Essential requirement for the proper operation and maintenance of buoy system:.
a. Buoy Base c. Buoy Maintenance Manual b. Buoy Marker d. Buoy Tender
159. IALA stands for:
a. International Association of Lighthouse Agenciesb. International Association of Lighthouse Authoritiesc. International Association of Light station Administration d. International Association of Light station Authorities
160. The maintenance and operation of lighthouse, buoys and other NAVAIDS falls on
which PCG functional area:
a. MAREP c. MARSAD b. MAROPS d. MARSAR
161. In any organization, which is not a purpose of punishment?
a. Deter its members from breaking the rulesb. Encourage its members to perform wellc. To determine the capabilities of personnel d. To set an example for others not to commit mistakes
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162. The Chairman of the National Committee on Illegal Entrants is:
a. Bureau of Immigration and Deportation b. Director, EIIB c. Director, Phil. National Police d. Secretary of Foreign Affairs
163. Maritime Safety Information (MSI) messages are to be preceded by:
a. BREAK BREAK c. PAN PAN b. MAYDAY MAYDAY d. SECURITE SECURITE
164. Which of the following has jurisdiction over Non-officer and can try minor offense only?
a. General Court Martial b. Summary Court Martialb. Judicial Court Martial d. Special Court Martial
165. The competency of seafarers to perform their duties aboard ship are required by:
a. Collision Regulations c. SOLAS Convention b. Load Line Convention d. STCW Convention
166. A chemical substance that breaks oil into particles to facilitate biodegradation of oil:
a. Dispersant b. Skimmer c. Saw Dust d. Solvent
167. The least degree of classification of a classified document is:
a. Confidential c. Top Secret b. Restricted d. Secret
168. The living as well as working conditions of the crew aboard ship are covered by:
a. Collision Regulations c. ISPS Convention b. ILO Convention d. SOLAS Convention
169. Information of such importance that unauthorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause serious damage to national security:
a. Confidential c. Top Secret b. Restricted d. Secret
170. Which is not an objectives of the PCG Auxiliary:
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a. To assist PCG in conducting Port State Control Inspection b. To assist PCG in SAR Operationsc. To assist PCG in Marine Environmental Protectiond. To conduct inspection aboard commercial vessels
171. Energized electrical fires are classified as:
a. Class A Fire b. Class C Fire c. Class B Fire d. Class D Fire
172. A container or structure ashore or afloat used for receiving discharges of oil, refuse and other types of wastes:
a. Barge Facility b. Garbage Facility b. Dumping Facility d. Reception Facility
173. The highest deck that extends over the entire ship from stem to stern:
a. Fore Castle Deck c. Partial Deck b. Main Deck d. 0-2 Deck
174. The PCG National Oil Pollution Contingency Plan is patterned from and in accordance with:
a. London Convention c. OSPAR b. OPPRC d. OSRAP
175. As a general rule, SAR crew should not be required to work the number of hours without mandatory rest period:
a. 4 hours c. 12 hours b. 8 hours d. 24 hours
176. The thickness of the hull of the ship after dry docking can be found:
a. Bill of Materials c. Shell Expansion Plan b. Dry docking Plan d. Work Plan
177. The person whose responsibility is to ensure that SAR operations are efficiently coordinated:
a. District Commander b. SAR Mission Coordinator c. On Scene Commander d. Station Commander
178. Which of the following is not a tool to improve discipline?
a. AFP Circular Nr 17 c. Court Martial
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b. AW 105 d. Promotion Board
179. INMARSAT System has:
a. Two geostationary Satellites c. Four Orbiting Satellites b. Four geostationary Satellites d. Two Orbiting Satellites
180. In the PCG organization, maintaining order and discipline among the rank and files is the primary responsibility of:
a. Chief Master-At-Arms c. Sgt-At-Arms b. Military Police d. Provost Marshal
181. In conducting custodial investigation, the person being investigated should be appraised of:
a. The constitutional rights of the person being investigated b. The name, rank and serial number of investigating officerc. The position and civil status of the investigating officerd. The type of offense investigated by the investigating bodies
182. The coverage of the INMARSAT satellites on the earth’s surface is:
a. From 0 degs to 70 degs N c. From 70 degs N to 70 degs S b. From 60 degs N to 60 degs S d. Entire earth’s surface
183. Coast Guard personnel can conduct vessel safety inspection to foreign trade vessels by implementing which of the following?
a. Flag State Control b. Port State Control c. MARINA d. SOLAS Inspection
184. The probable location of search object corrected for movement overtime:
a. Datum c. Estimated Position b. DR Position d. Search Area
185. Better known as the Forestry Laws of the Philippines:
a. PD 600 c. PD 704 b. RA 6975 d. PD 705
186. Ships general arrangement plan showing clearly the particulars of the fire detection and fire alarm systems, sprinkler installations, means of access, etc. for fighting and containment of fire:
a. Damage Control Plan c. Fire Control Stationb. Fire Control Plan d. International Shore Connection
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187. The oil water separator is said to be in good operating condition when its output has a ratio of:
a. 15 Parts Per Millionb. 150 Parts Per Millionc. 75 % Water d. 100% Water
188. Implementation of relevant maritime conventions by the National Maritime Administration on ships flying her flag:
a. Coastal State Implementationb. Flag State Control Implementation c. Port State Control Implementationd. Marine Environmental Control Implementation
189. It is a guideline or set of procedure entailing the prescribed standard of actions in preparing for conducting and terminating operations:
a. OPORD b. Order of Battle c. Rules of Engagement d. Rules of the Road
190. Search Pattern used when the search area is large and there is equal probability of the target being anywhere in the search area wherein the search legs are parallel with the major axis:
a. Creeping Search b. Parallel Search c. Sector Search d. Track line Search
191. It sets down the regular procedures to be followed in the absence of instructions to the contrary.
a. Personnel action form c. Memorandum Circularb. Letter of Instructions d. Standing Operating Procedures
192. It is one of the paragraphs of the Letter of Instructions (LOI) which means the clear and concise statement of the task, which is to be accomplished and the purpose?
a. Abstractb. Execution b. Missiond. Situation
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193. Which of the following is not a type of Court Martial?
a. General Court Martialb. Special Court Martialc. Summary Court Martiald. National Court Martial
194. Type of Courts Martial which has jurisdiction over ASN up to PO2 if they do not object to trial and consist of one officer only:
a. General Court Martialb. Special Court Martialc. Summary Court Martiald. National Court Martial
195. It is the reading of the charge and specifications and then asking the accused how he pleads to each specifications and charge:
a. Assignmentb. Arraignmentc. Punishmentd. Restrictions
196. Under what article of the Articles of War (AW) is fraudulent enlistment in the PCG?
a. AW 54 b. AW 65c. AW 67d. AW 69
197. Any soldier who strike/assault, attempt or threaten to strike/assault while in execution of office; disobey a non-commissioned officer, using threatening or insulting language or behaving in an insubordinate or disrespectful manner toward a non-commissioned officer is guilty of what AW?
a. AW 65b. AW 66c. AW 67d. AW 69
198. An inspection conducted by the Command in order to determine and evaluate the state of morale and discipline, efficiency and economy and operational readiness of all PCG units:
a. Annual General Implementation b. Annual General Inspection c. Annual General Interview d. Annual General Investigation
199. The process of looking into the circumstances of a case for the purpose of verifying and establishing the facts:
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a. Information b. Instrumentation c. Intelligenced. Investigation
200. Which of the following is NOT a tool of investigation?
a. Indiscrimination b. Informationc. Instrumentation d. Interrogation
201. A system of bringing in or taking out of country merchandise, forbidden articles or persons without paying taxes or duties legally imposed on them:
a. Bombing c. Shippingb. Loading d. Smuggling
202. Giving regular dole-outs to Customs and other law enforcement authorities to avoid apprehension is:
a. Bombing b. Briberyc. Concealment d. Direct Tips
203. This involves the use of fake owners, more popularly known as “combacheros” to evade payment of taxes for bringing in barter trade merchandise in commercial quantities:
a. Bribery c. Concealmentb. Bombing d. Use of Decoys or Dummies
204. Another Modus Operandi done by covering contraband with legitimate cargoes:
a. Bribery c. Concealmentb. Bombing d. Use of Decoys or Dummies
205. Collecting or gathering fishery species with the use of destructive materials or substance, electric currents or fishing gear prohibited by existing fishery laws is considered as:
a. Illegal fishing c. Purseningb. Poaching d. Trawling
206. The illegal fishing venture of foreign vessels/nationals within the Philippine territorial
water is called:
a. Illegal fishing c. Purseningb. Poaching d. Trawling
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207. It is a bag-shaped net which is dragged or towed along the bottom or through the water column by straining the fish catch from the water or mid water:
a. Illegal fishing c. Purseningb. Poaching d. Trawling
208. Modus Operandi in which goods are unloaded from ocean going vessel to other smaller watercraft either at sea, outside the breakwater or anchorage area:
a. Bombing c. Shipside unloading b. Direct tips d. Use of private wharves
209. Port State Implementation refers to:
a. All vessels engage in domestic trade calling to our port b. All vessels engage in international trade calling to our portc. All vessels engage in international and domestic trade calling to our portd. All vessels engage in local and commercial trade calling to our port
210. Creation of National Operation Center of Oil Pollution (NOCOP):
a. EO 477 c. PD 602b. PD 600 d. PD 702
211. The territorial water of a state is measured:
a. 12NM from its baseline c. 200NM from the shorelineb. 24NM from its baseline d. 1000NM from the shoreline
212. During man over board, what kind of flag is being displayed?
a. Alpha flag c. Oscar flagb. India flag d. Romeo flag
213. What is INMARSAT?
a. International Maritime Satelliteb. International Maritime Search and Assistance Teamc. International Maritime Service and Trainingd. International Maritime Standard and Training
214. A device used to collect or recover oil spillage from water:
a. Curtain Boom c. Oil Recoveryb. Fence Boom d. Oil Skimmer
215. SART means:
a. Search and Rescue Team b. Search and Rescue Transceiver c. Search and Rescue Transmitterd. Search and Rescue Transponder
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216. SOPEP stands for:
a. Safety Oil Pollution Emergency Planb. Safety Oil Prevention Emergency Plan c. Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Pland. Shipboard Oil Prevention and Emergency Plan
217. Material that are used to absorb oil or other liquid substance:
a. Boom c. Oil Skimmerb. Dispersant d. Sorbents
218. IOPPC stands for:
a. International Oil Pollution Planning Certificate b. International Oil Pollution Prevention Certificate c. International Oil Pollution Project Certificated. International Oil Pollution Program Certificate
219. Which of the following security areas requires a system of personnel identification and control but may not require security clearance?
a. Controlled area b. Limited areac. Restricted aread. Secured area
220. When classified information is lost or compromised, all holders of copies of the information are informed by the:
a. Board that conduct the initial inquiryb. Investigative services of the office of the naval intelligence c. Originator of the information d. Personnel having custodian responsibility for the information
221. What phrase normally follows the signature when an officer or the staffs of a command signs an official letter to subordinate commander?
a. By authority c. By direction b. By command d. By order
222. It comprises the Philippine Archipelago, with the entire island and waters embraced therein and all other territories over which the Philippine has sovereignty or jurisdiction:
a. National Territory c. Portion of mainlandb. Part of Philippine Territory d. Territorial Waters
223. 12NM Miles from the baseline, it is the coastal state that is free to set laws and regulate use to any resource:
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a. Baseline c. EEZb. Contiguous zone d. Territorial Waters
224. Which of the following military offenses is best described by the collective insubordinate or group’s willful resistance against duly constituted military authority.
a. Insurgency c. Mutinyb. Rebellion d. Sedition
225. It is an inquiry or proceeding to determine whether there is sufficient ground to endanger a well-founded belief that a crime has committed and that the respondent is probably guilty thereof and should be held for trial:
a. Investigation c. Preliminary Investigationb. Formal Investigation d. Interrogation
226. It is a sworn statement charging a person with an offense subscribe by the offended party, any peace officer or any or other public officer-in-charge with the enforcement of the law that was violated:
a. Complaint c. Affidavitb. Sworn statement d. Evidence
227. Rules of Evidence provide for the minimum qualification to be a witness:
a. Material Evidence c. Qualification Evidence b. Relevant Evidence d. Documentary Evidence
228. The casualty or accident involving any vessel other than a naval vessel, which occurs within the navigable water of the Republic of the Philippines is called:
a. Grounding c. Marine Casualty b. Collision d. Sinking
229. A transit of any vessel on the waters of a state is________.
a. Force Majeure c. Constructive Presence b. Innocent Passage d. Hot Pursuit
230. Material that are used to absorb oil or other liquid substance:
a. Boom c. Oil skimmer b. Dispersant d. Sorbents
231. It is an order inviting issued in the name of the people of the Philippines signed by the judge after examination under oath or affirmation of the complaint and the witness he may produce:
a. Arraignment c. Search Warrantb. Court Hearing d. Warrant of Arrest
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232. It is an inquiry or proceeding to determine whether there is sufficient ground to endanger a well-founded belief that a crime has committed and that the respondent is probably guilty thereof and should be held for trial:
a. Interrogation c. Formal Investigation b. Investigation d. Preliminary Investigation
233. It is a sworn written statement charging person with an offense subscribe by the offended party, any peace officer or any or other public officer-in-charge with the enforcement of the law that was violated:
a. Affidavit c. Interrogationb. Complaint d. Sworn Statement
234. Every ship of 150 GT and above certified to carry Noxious Liquid Substances in bulk shall carry onboard :
a. International oil Pollution Prevention Certificate for Noxious Liquid Substances (NLS)
b. International Sewage Pollution Prevention Certificatec. Garbage Management Pland. Shipboard Marine Pollution Emergency Plan for Noxious Liquid
Substances (NLS)
235. It is a Ballast water introduced into a tank which is completely separated from the cargo oil and oil fuel system and which is permanently allocated to the carriage of ballast or to the cargoes other than oil or noxious substance:
a. Bilge Water c. Oil Separatorb. Clean ballast d. Segregated Ballast
236. How many percentage of Nitrogen is in the atmosphere?
a. 68% c. 78%b. 73% d. 87%
237. It is the lowest temperature at which this situation occurs:
a. Flash Heat c. Flash Point b. Flash Pale d. Flash Pound
238. In Port State Control, it means a condition found not be incompliance with the requirements of the relevant regulation.
a. Deficiency c. Not Ready for Sea b. Efficiency d. Violation
239. Means the port in the Philippines where the ship’s record of registry is kept and maintained.
a. Country of Origin c. Port of Origin b. Country Registry d. Port of Registry
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240. It is a word distinctive sound use to answer a challenge, identifies the person or party to halt and identified:
a. Challenge c. Passwordb. Countersign d. Watch
241. It includes everything which is done contrary to justice, honesty, modesty or good moral.
a. Moral c. Loyaltyb. Moral Turpitude d. Security Risk
242. It is information which reflects unfavorably on the character, integrity, loyalty, or reliability of an individual.
a. Character c. Integrity b. Derogatory Information d. Moral
243. The inspection and servicing of inflatable life rafts aboard ship should be done:
a. As often as practicable c. Once in every three years b. Once a year d. Once in every two year
244. It consist of a secret challenge and reply to aid the guard/sentinels in the scrutiny of persons who apply to pass the lines or it may be defined as a secret challenge and the secret password.
a. Challenge c. Countersign b. Code d. Password
245. The Government is of the people, by the people and for the people:
a. Democracy c. Militaryb. Hierarchy d. Totalitarian
246. The 200 miles Exclusive Economic Zone of the Philippines was established by virtue of:
a. PD 1595 c. RA 1959b. PD 1599 d. Treaty of Paris
247. Which of the following constitute a prohibited act among public officials and employees in the discharge and execution of official duties?
a. Commitment to Public Interestb. Political Neutralityc. Responsiveness to the Public d. Solicitation or Acceptance of Gifts
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248. It is the unlawful use of force or violence against individual or property to coerce or intimidate government societies often to achieve political, religious or ideological objectives.
a. Piracy c. Terrorism b. Poaching d. Terrorist
249. Which of the following military offenses is best described by the collective insubordinate or group’s willful resistance against duly constituted military authority?
a. Insurgency c. Rebellionb. Mutiny d. Sedition
250. The right of non-interference enjoyed by foreign vessels engages in non-threatening transit inbound, outbound or through a territorial sea:
a. Hot pursuit c. Right of Innocent Passage b. Human Rights d. Right of visit
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1st PROMEX WORKSHOP 2014
The HUB at Kilometer Zero
